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  • Efficiently select top row for each category in the set

    - by VladV
    I need to select a top row for each category from a known set (somewhat similar to this question). The problem is, how to make this query efficient on the large number of rows. For example, let's create a table that stores temperature recording in several places. CREATE TABLE #t ( placeId int, ts datetime, temp int, PRIMARY KEY (ts, placeId) ) -- insert some sample data SET NOCOUNT ON DECLARE @n int, @ts datetime SELECT @n = 1000, @ts = '2000-01-01' WHILE (@n>0) BEGIN INSERT INTO #t VALUES (@n % 10, @ts, @n % 37) IF (@n % 10 = 0) SET @ts = DATEADD(hour, 1, @ts) SET @n = @n - 1 END Now I need to get the latest recording for each of the places 1, 2, 3. This way is efficient, but doesn't scale well (and looks dirty). SELECT * FROM ( SELECT TOP 1 placeId, temp FROM #t WHERE placeId = 1 ORDER BY ts DESC ) t1 UNION ALL SELECT * FROM ( SELECT TOP 1 placeId, temp FROM #t WHERE placeId = 2 ORDER BY ts DESC ) t2 UNION ALL SELECT * FROM ( SELECT TOP 1 placeId, temp FROM #t WHERE placeId = 3 ORDER BY ts DESC ) t3 The following looks better but works much less efficiently (30% vs 70% according to the optimizer). SELECT placeId, ts, temp FROM ( SELECT placeId, ts, temp, ROW_NUMBER() OVER (PARTITION BY placeId ORDER BY ts DESC) rownum FROM #t WHERE placeId IN (1, 2, 3) ) t WHERE rownum = 1 The problem is, during the latter query execution plan a clustered index scan is performed on #t and 300 rows are retrieved, sorted, numbered, and then filtered, leaving only 3 rows. For the former query three times one row is fetched. Is there a way to perform the query efficiently without lots of unions?

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  • When is Googling it wrong?

    - by Drahcir
    I've been going through Stack Overflow for quite a bit now and noticed certain people (usually experienced programmers) frown upon Googling (researching) certain problems. Since I myself tend to use Google quite a bit to solve certain programming related issues I found certain comments rather demoralising. Now some of you may have come here trigger happy to delete this post but I needed some clarification. I usually Google things that usually syntax related that I would have never figured out on my own. For example I once wondered how to access the properties of a class that I didn't have a direct relationship to. So after a bit of research I discovered reflection and got what I wanted. Now in another scenario is learning a new language, in my case Silverlight were it differs in certain aspects of .NET compared to say ASP.NET. A few weeks ago I had no idea how to load another Silverlight page (usercontrol) and had to Google my way to the solution which I found wasn't as simple as I had imagined. In scenario three is were I myself frown up, that is just stealing a huge chunk of code to avoid doing the work yourself, for example paging a HTML table using JavaScript, where one just copies and pastes the JavasSript code without as much as trying to understand how it works. I do admit I have done this once or twice before for trivial tasks that had very little time limit and weren't all that important but most of the time still have to throw away what I found because it took too much time to adapt it and get what I wanted out of it. In the last scenario, I sometimes have a piece of code that I would be really unhappy about, as in I find it sloppy or too overcomplicated and try to look on the Internet to see other ways to tackle the same problem, let's say filtering through a table. With the knowledge I acquire I learned new coding practices that help me work more efficiently like "Do not repeat yourself" and such. Now in your opinion when do you find it wrong to use Google (or any other researching tool) to find a solution to your problem?

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  • c++ and visual studio 08, how to develop the following web extracting application. folloow up of las

    - by user287745
    the purpose is to use c++ in a useful way. i have just started programming and have made a few small applications in c and c#. my understanding is that programming for web and thing related to web is now a days a very easy task. please note this is for personnel learning not for rent a coder or any money making. an application which can run on any windows platform even win98. the application should start automatically at a scheduled time and do the following. connect to a site which displays stock prices summary (high low current open ). captures the data (excluding the other things in the site) and saves it to disk ( a sql database) please note:- internet connection is assumed to be there always. do not want to know how to make database schema or database. the stock exchange has no law prohibiting the use of the data provided on its site, but i do not want to mention the name in case i am wrong, but its for personnel private use only. the data of summary of pricing is arranged in a table such that when copied pasted to ms excel it automatically forms a table. guidance needed thank u.

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  • Powershell: splatting after passing hashtable by reference

    - by user1815871
    Powershell newbie ... I recently learned about splatting — very useful. I ran into a snag when I passed a hash table by reference to a function for splatting purposes. (For brevity's sake — a silly example.) Function AllMyChildren { param ( [ref]$ReferenceToHash } get-childitem @ReferenceToHash.Value # etc.etc. } $MyHash = @{ 'path' = '*' 'include' = '*.ps1' 'name' = $null } AllMyChildren ([ref]$MyHash) Result: an error ("Splatted variables cannot be used as part of a property or array expression. Assign the result of the expression to a temporary variable then splat the temporary variable instead."). Tried this afterward: $newVariable = $ReferenceToHash.Value get-childitem @NewVariable That did work and seemed right per the error message. But: is it the preferred syntax in a case like this? (An oh, look, it actually worked solution isn't always a best practice. My approach here strikes me as "Perl-minded" and perhaps in Powershell passing by value is better, though I don't yet know the syntax for it w.r.t. a hash table.)

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  • filling colors on a map - PHP

    - by jeremy
    I am trying to determine how to fill colors onto a map - such as the "Risk" board game map. I've done this before with HTML tables, by pulling an HTML color code from a SQL table and then just using it to fill the cell the color I want it. But for a non-square map, I'm not sure where to look. I have created a very simple two color map - its white with black borders. My desired result is having the 'regions' on the map shaded with a color, based on data in a sql table (just like the "fill" button in Paint). This looks like what I need: http://php.net/manual/en/function.imagefilltoborder.php and now.. how to define the borders... At the moment I have tried nothing, because the question was: how do I have PHP fill parts of an image? I have tried making an image in Paint, and then scratching my head wondering how to fill parts of it. Having stumbled upon a link, let me focus this a bit more: It appears that with imagefilltoborder that I can put an image on my server, perhaps one that looks like a black and white version of the RISK map - black borders and white everything else. Some questions: Is it correct that the 'border' variable should use the color of my border (whatever value black is) so that the code can "see" where the border is? Is it correct that I'll just need to figure out X,Y coords to begin the fill? Does this work if I have 10 different spots to fill on the map? Can I use varying colors from code or pulled from SQL to assign different colors to those 10 spots, and use 10 different X,Y coords to get them all?

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  • HTML email image inverts on link click Outlook 07/10/13

    - by Matt Maclennan
    I'm having an issue on a HTML email in Word rendered Outlooks (2007, 2010, 2013) where I click an image link, and when the mouse is clicked, the image inverts... Here is the code below... <td align="left" width="360" valign="top" style="mso-table-lspace: 0pt; mso-table-rspace: 0pt; border-collapse: collapse;" class="hide"> <a href="#" target="_blank"> <img src="test.jpg" width="360" height="528" alt="alt tag" style="display:block;" class="img_mob centertable" border="0" align="left"> </a> </td> Here is a comparison on the image clicked/not clicked... I have tried putting a text-decoration: none on the link. All the links are styled inline as well. This is the only image that it is having this issue on the email, so tried re-saving the image with no luck. The image is saved as a JPEG and SRGB from a Photoshop PSD. Any ideas? Thanks.

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  • Loop to check all 14 days in the pay period

    - by Rachel Ann Arndt
    Name: Calc_Anniversary Input: Pay_Date, Hire_Date, Termination_Date Output: "Y" if is the anniversary of the employee's Hire_Date, "N" if it is not, and "T" if he has been terminated before his anniversary. Description: Create local variables to hold the month and day of the employee's Date_of_Hire, Termination_Date, and of the processing date using the TO_CHAR function. First check to see if he was terminated before his anniversary. The anniversary could be on any day during the pay period, so there will be a loop to check all 14 days in the pay period to see if one was his anniversary. CREATE OR replace FUNCTION Calc_anniversary( incoming_anniversary_date IN VARCHAR2) RETURN BOOLEAN IS hiredate VARCHAR2(20); terminationdate VARCHAR(20); employeeid VARCHAR2(38); paydate NUMBER := 0; BEGIN SELECT Count(arndt_raw_time_sheet_data.pay_date) INTO paydate FROM arndt_raw_time_sheet_data WHERE paydate = incoming_anniversary_date; WHILE paydate <= 14 LOOP SELECT To_char(employee_id, '999'), To_char(hire_date, 'DD-MON'), To_char(termination_date, 'DD-MON') INTO employeeid, hiredate, terminationdate FROM employees, time_sheet WHERE employees.employee_id = time_sheet.employee_id AND paydate = pay_date; IF terminationdate > hiredate THEN RETURN 'T'; ELSE IF To_char(SYSDATE, 'DD-MON') = To_char(hiredate, 'DD-MON')THEN RETURN 'Y'; ELSE RETURN 'N'; END IF; END IF; paydate := paydate + 1; END LOOP; END; Tables I am using CREATE TABLE Employees ( EMPLOYEE_ID INTEGER, FIRST_NAME VARCHAR2(15), LAST_NAME VARCHAR2(25), ADDRESS_LINE_ONE VARCHAR2(35), ADDRESS_LINE_TWO VARCHAR2(35), CITY VARCHAR2(28), STATE CHAR(2), ZIP_CODE CHAR(10), COUNTY VARCHAR2(10), EMAIL VARCHAR2(16), PHONE_NUMBER VARCHAR2(12), SOCIAL_SECURITY_NUMBER VARCHAR2(11), HIRE_DATE DATE, TERMINATION_DATE DATE, DATE_OF_BIRTH DATE, SPOUSE_ID INTEGER, MARITAL_STATUS CHAR(1), ALLOWANCES INTEGER, PERSONAL_TIME_OFF FLOAT, CONSTRAINT pk_employee_id PRIMARY KEY (EMPLOYEE_ID), CONSTRAINT fk_spouse_id FOREIGN KEY (SPOUSE_ID) REFERENCES EMPLOYEES (EMPLOYEE_ID)) / CREATE TABLE Arndt_Raw_Time_Sheet_data ( EMPLOYEE_ID INTEGER, PAY_DATE DATE, HOURS_WORKED FLOAT, SALES_AMOUNT FLOAT, CONSTRAINT pk_employee_id_pay_date_time PRIMARY KEY (EMPLOYEE_ID, PAY_DATE), CONSTRAINT fk_employee_id_time FOREIGN KEY (EMPLOYEE_ID) REFERENCES EMPLOYEES (EMployee_ID)); error FUNCTION Calc_Anniversary compiled Warning: execution completed with warning

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  • jquery suspected naving convention problem

    - by donfigga
    Hi all im having provlem with this jquery function, the protion of the function that renames the id, class and name of the dropdown only works for the first dropdown, susequest ones do not work , any ideas, i suspect it may have something to do with naming convention as in cat.parent_id but it is required for asp.net mvc model binding. $(document).ready(function () { $("table select").live("change", function () { var id = $(this).attr('id'); if ($(this).attr('classname') != "selected") { var rowIndex = $(this).closest('tr').prevAll().length; $.getJSON("/Category/GetSubCategories/" + $(this).val(), function (data) { if (data.length > 0) { //problematic portion $("#" + id).attr('classname', 'selected'); $("#" + id).attr('name', 'sel' + rowIndex); $("#" + id).attr('id', 'sel' + rowIndex); var position = ($('table').get(0)); var tr = position.insertRow(rowIndex + 1); var td1 = tr.insertCell(-1); var td2 = tr.insertCell(-1); td1.appendChild(document.createTextNode('SubCategory')); var sel = document.createElement("select"); sel.name = 'parent_id'; sel.id = 'parent_id'; sel.setAttribute('class', 'unselected'); td2.appendChild(sel); $('#parent_id').append($("<option></option>").attr("value", "-1").text("-please select item-")); $.each(data, function (GetSubCatergories, Category) { $('#parent_id').append($("<option></option>"). attr("value", Category.category_id). text(Category.name)); }); sel.name = 'cat.parent_id'; sel.id = 'cat.parent_id'; } }); } }); });

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  • How do you bind SQL Data to a .NET DataGridView?

    - by Jordan S
    I am trying to bind a table in an SQL database to a DataGridView Control. I would like to make it so that when the user enters a new line of data in the DataGridView that a record is automatically added to the database. Is there a way to do this using LINQ to SQL? I have tried using the code below but after I add a new entry I dont think the data gets added to the DB. Please Help! BOMClassesDataContext DB = new BOMClassesDataContext(); var mfrs = from m in DB.Manufacturers select m; BindingSource bs = new BindingSource(); bs.DataSource = mfrs; dataGridView1.DataSource = bs; I tried adding DB.SubmitChanges() to the CellValueChanged eventhandler and that partially works. If I click the bottom empty row it automatically fills in the ID (identity) column of the table with a "0" instead of the next unused value. If I change that value manually to the next available then it adds the new record fine but if I leave it at 0 it does nothing. How can i fix this?

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  • SQL Query to separate data into two fields

    - by Phillip
    I have data in one column that I want to separate into two columns. The data is separated by a comma if present. This field can have no data, only one set of data or two sets of data saperated by the comma. Currently I pull the data and save as a comma delimited file then use an FoxPro to load the data into a table then process the data as needed then I re-insert the data back into a different SQL table for my use. I would like to drop the FoxPro portion and have the SQL query saperate the data for me. Below is a sample of what the data looks like. Store Amount Discount 1 5.95 1 5.95 PO^-479^2 1 5.95 PO^-479^2 2 5.95 2 5.95 PO^-479^2 2 5.95 +CA8A09^-240^4,CORDRC^-239^7 3 5.95 3 5.95 +CA8A09^-240^4,CORDRC^-239^7 3 5.95 +CA8A09^-240^4,CORDRC^-239^7 In the data above I want to sum the data in the amount field to get a gross amount. Then pull out the specific discount amount which is located between the carat characters and sum it to get the total discount amount. Then add the two together and get the total net amount. The query I want to write will separate the discount field as needed, see store 2 line 3 for two discounts being applied, then pull out the value between carat characters.

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  • Using HTML::Template within a value attribute

    - by Zerobu
    Hello, my question is how would I use an HTML::Template tag inside a value of form to change that form. For example <table border="0" cellpadding="8" cellspacing="1"> <tr> <td align="right">File:</td> <td> <input type="file" name="upload" value= style="width:400px"> </td> </tr> <tr> <td align="right">File Name:</td> <td> <input type="text" name="filename" style="width:400px" value="" > </td> </tr> <tr> <td align="right">Title:</td> <td> <input type="text" name="title" style="width:400px" value="" /> </td> </tr> <tr> <td align="right">Date:</td> <td> <input type="text" name="date" style="width:400px" value="" /> </td> </tr> <tr> <td colspan="2" align="right"> <input type="button" value="Cancel"> <input type="submit" name="action" value="Upload" /> </td> </tr> </table> I want the value to have a variable in it.

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  • jQuery slideToggle jump on close

    - by spankmaster79
    Hi, I'm trying to slideToggle a in a table with jQuery and it works in FF, OP, CHrome. Only IE (6,7,8) is giving me problems. It slides down perfectly down and up, but after the slide up animation is finished. The hidden pops up in full height and then closes. So I guess it must be somwhere inbetween when it switches from a minimal height to "display:none" that it appears for a short second. The code is built dynamically but I'll try to give an example: <table> <tr> <td> <script type="text/javascript"> function toggleTr_{$dynamicID}() { $('#content_{$dynamicID}').slideToggle('slow'); /* DO SOME OTHER STOFF LIKE COLOR CHANGES CSS CLASS CHANGES */ } </script> </td> </tr> <tr id="list_{$dynamicID}" onclick="toggleTr_{$dynamicID}();" style="cursor:pointer;"> <td> <!-- INFO HEADER --> </td> </tr> <tr> <td> <div id="content_{$dynamicID}" style="display:none;"> <!-- INFO BODY HIDDEN --> </div </td> </tr> Other problems here with slideToggle only descibed problems with padding, margin, or problems with the animation, but that all works. Help is appreciated. Thx, Spanky

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  • convert SQL Server StoredPorcedure to MySql

    - by karthik
    I need to covert the following SP of SQL Server To MySql. I am new to MySql.. Help needed. CREATE PROC InsertGenerator (@tableName varchar(100)) as --Declare a cursor to retrieve column specific information --for the specified table DECLARE cursCol CURSOR FAST_FORWARD FOR SELECT column_name,data_type FROM information_schema.columns WHERE table_name = @tableName OPEN cursCol DECLARE @string nvarchar(3000) --for storing the first half --of INSERT statement DECLARE @stringData nvarchar(3000) --for storing the data --(VALUES) related statement DECLARE @dataType nvarchar(1000) --data types returned --for respective columns SET @string='INSERT '+@tableName+'(' SET @stringData='' DECLARE @colName nvarchar(50) FETCH NEXT FROM cursCol INTO @colName,@dataType IF @@fetch_status<>0 begin print 'Table '+@tableName+' not found, processing skipped.' close curscol deallocate curscol return END WHILE @@FETCH_STATUS=0 BEGIN IF @dataType in ('varchar','char','nchar','nvarchar') BEGIN SET @stringData=@stringData+'''''''''+ isnull('+@colName+','''')+'''''',''+' END ELSE if @dataType in ('text','ntext') --if the datatype --is text or something else BEGIN SET @stringData=@stringData+'''''''''+ isnull(cast('+@colName+' as varchar(2000)),'''')+'''''',''+' END ELSE IF @dataType = 'money' --because money doesn't get converted --from varchar implicitly BEGIN SET @stringData=@stringData+'''convert(money,''''''+ isnull(cast('+@colName+' as varchar(200)),''0.0000'')+''''''),''+' END ELSE IF @dataType='datetime' BEGIN SET @stringData=@stringData+'''convert(datetime,''''''+ isnull(cast('+@colName+' as varchar(200)),''0'')+''''''),''+' END ELSE IF @dataType='image' BEGIN SET @stringData=@stringData+'''''''''+ isnull(cast(convert(varbinary,'+@colName+') as varchar(6)),''0'')+'''''',''+' END ELSE --presuming the data type is int,bit,numeric,decimal BEGIN SET @stringData=@stringData+'''''''''+ isnull(cast('+@colName+' as varchar(200)),''0'')+'''''',''+' END SET @string=@string+@colName+',' FETCH NEXT FROM cursCol INTO @colName,@dataType END

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  • What are the Limitations for Connecting to an Access Query in Excel

    - by thornomad
    I have an Access 2007 database that has a number of tables, some are fairly large (100,000+ records); I have created a union query to pull some of the same types of data from multiple tables into one large query for pivot table manipulation and reporting. For example: SELECT Language FROM Table1 UNION ALL SELECT Language FROM Table2 UNION ALL SELECT Language FROM Table3; This works. I found, quickly, however, that a union query will not show up when connecting to the datasource from Excel 2007. So, I created a second query to reference the union query. Like so: SELECT * FROM [The Above Union Query]; This query works and it, initially, was accessible from Excel. Time passed, I've added more data. Suddenly, when I connect to my Access database from Excel my query referencing the union has disappeared. MS Access shows no signs of an issue (data displays in Access) and my other non-union queries are showing up in Excel 2007 ... but not the one that references the union. What could be going on? Why did it disappear? I noticed if I switch some of the referenced tables in the union query to a smaller table (with less rows) all of sudden the query appears in Excel again. At least, I think that's what the difference is. I really can't put my finger on why some of the union queries won't show up and some will. Am stumped and need some guidance. Thanks.

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  • Indexing/Performance strategies for vast amount of the same value

    - by DrColossos
    Base information: This is in context to the indexing process of OpenStreetMap data. To simplify the question: the core information is divided into 3 main types with value "W", "R", "N" (VARCHAR(1)). The table has somewhere around ~75M rows, all columns with "W" make up ~42M rows. Existing indexes are not relevant to this question. Now the question itself: The indexing of the data is done via an procedure. Inside this procedure, there are some loops that do the following: [...] SELECT * FROM table WHERE the_key = "W"; [...] The results get looped again and the above query itself is also in a loop. This takes a lot of time and slows down the process massivly. An indexon the_key is obviously useless since all the values that the index might use are the same ("W"). The script itself is running with a speed that is OK, only the SELECTing takes very long. Do I need to create a "special" kind of index that takes this into account and makes the SELECT quicker? If so, which one? need to tune some of the server parameters (they are already tuned and the result that they deliver seem to be good. If needed, I can post them)? have to live with the speed and simply get more hardware to gain more power (Tim Taylor grunt grunt)? Any alternatives to the above points (except rewriting it or not using it)?

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  • How does Access 2007's moveNext/moveFirst/, etc., feature work?

    - by Chris M
    I'm not an Access expert, but am an SQL expert. I inherited an Access front-end referencing a SQL 2005 database that worked OK for about 5000 records, but is failing miserably for 800k records... Behind the scenes in the SQL profiler & activity manager I see some kind of Access query like: SELECT "MS1"."id" FROM "dbo"."customer" "MS1" ORDER BY "MS1"."id" The MS prefix doesn't appear in any Access code I can see. I'm suspicious of the built-in Access navigation code: DoCmd.GoToRecord , , acNext The GoToRecord has AcRecord constant, which includes things like acFirst, acLast, acNext, acPrevious and acGoTo. What does it mean in a database context to move to the "next" record? This particular table uses an identity column as the PK, so is it internally grabbing all the IDs and then moving to the one that is the next highest??? If so, how would it work if a table was comprised of three different fields for the PK? Or am I on the wrong track, and something else in Access is calling that statement? Unfortunately I see a ton of prepared statements in the profiler. THanks!

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  • Map inheritance from generic class in Linq To SQL

    - by Ksenia Mukhortova
    Hi everyone, I'm trying to map my inheritance hierarchy to DB using Linq to SQL: Inheritance is like this, classes are POCO, without any LINQ to SQL attributes: public interface IStage { ... } public abstract class SimpleStage<T> : IStage where T : Process { ... } public class ConcreteStage : SimpleStage<ConcreteProcess> { ... } Here is the mapping: <Database Name="NNN" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/linqtosql/mapping/2007"> <Table Name="dbo.Stage" Member="Stage"> <Type Name="BusinessLogic.Domain.IStage"> <Column Name="ID" Member="ID" DbType="Int NOT NULL IDENTITY" IsPrimaryKey="true" IsDbGenerated="true" AutoSync="OnInsert" /> <Column Name="StageType" Member="StageType" IsDiscriminator="true" /> <Type Name="BusinessLogic.Domain.SimpleStage" IsInheritanceDefault="true"> <Type Name="BusinessLogic.Domain.ConcreteStage" IsInheritanceDefault="true" InheritanceCode="1"/> </Type> </Type> </Table> </Database> In the runtime I get error: System.InvalidOperationException was unhandled Message="Mapping Problem: Cannot find runtime type for type mapping 'BusinessLogic.Domain.SimpleStage'." Neither specifying SimpleStage, nor SimpleStage<T> in mapping file helps - runtime keeps producing different types of errors. DC is created like this: StreamReader sr = new StreamReader(@"MappingFile.map"); XmlMappingSource mapping = XmlMappingSource.FromStream(sr.BaseStream); DataContext dc = new DataContext(@"connection string", mapping); If Linq to SQL doesn't support this, could you, please, advise some other ORM, which does. Thanks in advance, Regards! Ksenia

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  • ASP.net attachment then refresh page

    - by Russell
    I am working on a c# project using ASP .net. I have a list of reports with a hyperlink for each, which calls the web server, retrieves a PDF and then returns the PDF for the user to save or open: ASPX page: <table> <tr> <td> <a href="#" onclick="SubmitFormToOpenReport();">Open Report 1</a> <td> </tr> ... </table> ASP.Net: context.Response.Clear(); context.Response.AddHeader("content-disposition", "attachment;filename=report.pdf"); context.Response.Charset = ""; context.Response.ContentType = "application/pdf"; context.Response.BinaryWrite(myReport); context.Response.Flush(); This works as expected, however I would like it to also refresh the page with an updated list. I am having trouble as the single request/response is returning the report. Is there a way to refresh the page as well? While there is a correct response, feel free to include answers which details alternative solutions/ideas for doing this.

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  • can I put my sqlite connection and cursor in a function?

    - by steini
    I was thinking I'd try to make my sqlite db connection a function instead of copy/pasting the ~6 lines needed to connect and execute a query all over the place. I'd like to make it versatile so I can use the same function for create/select/insert/etc... Below is what I have tried. The 'INSERT' and 'CREATE TABLE' queries are working, but if I do a 'SELECT' query, how can I work with the values it fetches outside of the function? Usually I'd like to print the values it fetches and also do other things with them. When I do it like below I get an error Traceback (most recent call last): File "C:\Users\steini\Desktop\py\database\test3.py", line 15, in <module> for row in connection('testdb45.db', "select * from users"): ProgrammingError: Cannot operate on a closed database. So I guess the connection needs to be open so I can get the values from the cursor, but I need to close it so the file isn't always locked. Here's my testing code: import sqlite3 def connection (db, arg): conn = sqlite3.connect(db) conn.execute('pragma foreign_keys = on') cur = conn.cursor() cur.execute(arg) conn.commit() conn.close() return cur connection('testdb.db', "create table users ('user', 'email')") connection('testdb.db', "insert into users ('user', 'email') values ('joey', 'foo@bar')") for row in connection('testdb45.db', "select * from users"): print row How can I make this work?

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  • Align child element to bottom with CSS

    - by alex
    I have a form input, and the label spans multiple lines, and I want the corresponding checkbox to appear at the bottom (last line of the label element). Here is what I was playing with CSS .standard-form { width: 500px; border: 1px solid red; } .standard-form .input-row { overflow: hidden; margin-bottom: 0.8em; } .standard-form label { width: 25%; float: left; } .standard-form .input-container { width: 70%; float: right; } .standard-form .checkbox .input-container { display: table-cell; height: 100%; vertical-align: text-bottom; } HTML <form class="standard-form"> <div class="input-row checkbox" id="permission"> <label for="input-permission"> Do I hereby grant you permission to do whatever tasks are neccessary to achieve an ideal outcome? </label> <div class="input-container"> <input type="checkbox" id="input-permission" name="permission" value="true" /> </div> </div> </form> It is also online at JSbin. Is there any way to do this? I notice that div.input-container isn't expanding, which is the old multi column problem with CSS. I thought I could get this going with display: table-cell and vertical-align: bottom but I haven't been able to do it yet. I don't mind that IE6/7 won't render it correctly.

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  • What is a mantainable way of saving "star rating" in a database?

    - by Montecristo
    I'll use the jQuery plugin for presenting the user with a nice interface The request is to display 5 stars, up to a total score of 10 (2 points per star). By now I thought about using 7/10 as a format for that value, but what if at some point in the future I'll receive a request like We would like to give users more choice, let's increase the total score to 20 (so that each star contributes with a maximum of 4 points) I'll end up with a table with mixed values for the "star rating" column: some will be like 7/10 while others will be like 14/20. Is it ok for you to have this difference in the database and deal with it in the logic layer to have it consistent? Or is preferred another way so that querying the table will not result in inconsistent results outside the application? Maybe floating point values could help me, is it better to store that value as a number less than or equal to one? So in each of the two examples the resulting value stored in the database would be 0,7, as a number, not a varchar, which can be queried also outside the application. What do you think?

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  • how can i make sure only a single record is inserted when multiple apache threads are trying to acce

    - by Ed Gl
    I have a web service (xmlrpc service to be exact) that handles among other things writing data into the database. Here's the scenario: I often receive requests to either update or insert a record. What I would do is this: If the record already exists, append to the record, If not, create a new record The issue is that there are certain times I would get a 'burst' of requests, which spawns several apache threads to handle the request. These 'bursts' would come within less than milliseconds of each other. I now have several threads performing #1 and #2. Often two threads would would 'pass' number #1 and actually create two duplicate records (except for the primary key). I'd like to use some locking mechanism to prevent other threads from accessing the table while the other thread finishes its work. I'm just afraid of using it because if something happens I don't want to leave the table locked. Is there a solid way of handling this? I'm open to using locks if I can do it properly. Thanks,

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  • How to remove empty tables from a MySQL backup file.

    - by user280708
    I have multiple large MySQL backup files all from different DBs and having different schemas. I want to load the backups into our EDW but I don't want to load the empty tables. Right now I'm cutting out the empty tables using AWK on the backup files, but I'm wondering if there's a better way to do this. If anyone is interested, this is my AWK script: EDIT: I noticed today that this script has some problems, please beware if you want to actually try to use it. Your output may be WRONG... I will post my changes as I make them. # File: remove_empty_tables.awk # Copyright (c) Northwestern University, 2010 # http://edw.northwestern.edu /^--$/ { i = 0; line[++i] = $0; getline if ($0 ~ /-- Definition/) { inserts = 0; while ($0 !~ / ALTER TABLE .* ENABLE KEYS /) { # If we already have an insert: if (inserts > 0) print else { # If we found an INSERT statement, the table is NOT empty: if ($0 ~ /^INSERT /) { ++inserts # Dump the lines before the INSERT and then the INSERT: for (j = 1; j <= i; ++j) print line[j] i = 0 print $0 } # Otherwise we may yet find an insert, so save the line: else line[++i] = $0 } getline # go to the next line } line[++i] = $0; getline line[++i] = $0; getline if (inserts > 0) { for (j = 1; j <= i; ++j) print line[j] print $0 } next } else { print "--" } } { print }

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  • hibernate annotation bi-directional mapping

    - by smithystar
    I'm building a web application using Spring framework and Hibernate with annotation and get stuck with a simple mapping between two entities. I'm trying to create a many-to-many relationship between User and Course. I followed one of the Hibernate tutorials and my implementation is as follows: User class: @Entity @Table(name="USER") public class User { private Long id; private String email; private String password; private Set<Course> courses = new HashSet<Course>(0); @Id @GeneratedValue @Column(name="USER_ID") public Long getId() { return id; } public void setId(Long id) { this.id = id; } @Column(name="USER_EMAIL") public String getEmail() { return email; } public void setEmail(String email) { this.email = email; } @Column(name="USER_PASSWORD") public String getPassword() { return password; } public void setPassword(String password) { this.password = password; } @ManyToMany(cascade = CascadeType.ALL) @JoinTable(name = "USER_COURSE", joinColumns = { @JoinColumn(name = "USER_ID") }, inverseJoinColumns = { @JoinColumn(name = "COURSE_ID") }) public Set<Course> getCourses() { return courses; } public void setCourses(Set<Course> courses) { this.courses = courses; } } Course class: @Entity @Table(name="COURSE") public class Course { private Long id; private String name; @Id @GeneratedValue @Column(name="COURSE_ID") public Long getId() { return id; } public void setId(Long id) { this.id = id; } @Column(name="NAME") public String getName() { return name; } public void setName(String name) { this.name = name; } } The problem is that this implementation only allows me to go one way user.getCourses() What do I need to change, so I can go in both directions? user.getCourses() course.getUsers() Any help would be appreciated.

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  • Cross-Application User Authentication

    - by Chris Lieb
    We have a webapp written in .NET that uses NTLM for SSO. We are writing a new webapp in Java that will tightly integrate with the original application. Unfortunately, Java has no support for performing the server portion of NTLM authentication and the only library that I can find requires too much setup to be allowed by IT. To work around this, I came up with a remote authentication scheme to work across applications and would like your opinions on it. It does not need to be extremely secure, but at the same time not easily be broken. User is authenticated into .NET application using NTLM User clicks link that leaves .NET application .NET application generates random number and stores it in the user table along with the user's full username (domain\username) Insecure token is formed as random number:username Insecure token is run through secure cipher (likely AES-256) using pre-shared key stored within the application to produce a secure token The secure token is passed as part of the query string to the Java application The Java application decrypts the secure key using the same pre-shared key stored within its own code to get the insecure token The random number and username are split apart The username is used to retrieve the user's information from the user table and the stored random number is checked against the one pulled from the insecure token If the numbers match, the username is put into the session for the user and they are now authenticated If the numbers do not match, the user is redirected to the .NET application's home page The random number is removed from the database

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