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• UITableView not responding to row selection until a different row is selected

  - by Larry Fransson

  This is driving me nuts. I have searched on everything I can think of to find a solution but haven't found one yet. I've got a UITableView that uses custom cells. The accessory is the detail disclosure button. I would like the cell to respond to either row selection or the disclosure button being tapped. It responds to the disclosure button just as you would expect. But selecting the row is a different story. When I select the row, it highlights, but nothing happens until I tap a different row. Then the previously selected row does what it was supposed to do, which is to create and push a new view controller for that row. If I tap a single row five times and then tap a different row, it then creates and pushes five view controllers for that first row. It does this both in the simulator and on the device. What's really maddening is that I have another tableview in the same application that responds correctly to row selection or tapping the detail disclosure button. I can't find anything I've done differently between the two. Has anyone seen this before?

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• Getting the Access Token from a Facebook Open Graph response in Ruby

  - by Gearóid

  Hi, I'm trying to implement single sign-on using facebook in my ruby sinatra app. So far, I've been following this tutorial: http://jaywiggins.com/2010/05/facebook-oauth-with-sinatra/ I am able to send a request for a user to connect to my application but I'm having trouble actually "getting" the access token. The user can connect without trouble and I receive a response with the "code" parameter, which I'm supposed to use to exchange an Access Token - but its here where I get stuck. So I submit a url with the following parameters: https://graph.facebook.com/oauth/access_token/{client_id}&{client_secret}&{code}&{redirect_uri} The words in the curly brackets above are obviously replaced by the values. I submit this using the following code: response = open(url) This doesn't seem to return anything of use in the way of an access token (it has a @base_uri which is the url I submitted above and few other parameters, though nothing useful looking). However, if I take that url I submitted and paste it into a browser, I receive back an access token. Can anyone tell me how I can get the request back from facebook and pull out the access token? Thanks.

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• SIGABRT on any UIView touch

  - by bitcruncher

  Hi. I'm afraid no amount of Googling has been able to save my hyde on this. I seem to be getting SIGABRT error anytime I touch the screen of the phone, on any UIView. The debugger console posts this error before the SIGABRT: .... [310:207] *** -[UIView _exclusiveTouchView]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x14c0c0 .... [310:207] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[UIView _exclusiveTouchView]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x14c0c0' (this is not my specific call to _exclusiveTouchView, of course.) I would gladly post some code, but the truth is I cannot find (or guess) where this problem may be coming from. This is not happening on any ONE UIView but on all the UIViews in my stack. I can summarize the display logic, though, perhaps that will shed some light. So the application is created and a UIWindow is alloc'd. A single viewcontroller is then alloc'd, which makes and adds its own blank self.view, to which the other UIViews, representing the different game states, are attached. Interestingly enough, this error is does NOT happen on the Simulator, but happens consistently on the device. And I should also mention that the application has yet to override/use any of the touchesBegan:/Ended:/Moved: etc... In other words, this error happens without these methods in the code. I'm really not understanding where this error is coming from... Any suggestions?

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• Why is creating a ring buffer shared by different processes so hard (in C++), what I am doing wrong?

  - by recipriversexclusion

  I am being especially dense about this but it seems I'm missing an important, basic point or something, since what I want to do should be common: I need to create a fixed-size ring buffer object from a manager process (Process M). This object has write() and read() methods to write/read from the buffer. The read/write methods will be called by independent processes (Process R and W) I have implemented the buffer, SharedBuffer<T&>, it allocates buffer slots in SHM using boost::interprocess and works perfectly within a single process. I have read the answers to this question and that one on SO, as well as asked my own, but I'm still in the dark about how to have different processes access methods from a common object. The Boost doc has an example of creating a vector in SHM, which is very similar to what I want, but I want to instantiate my own class. My current options are: Use placement new, as suggested by Charles B. to my question; however, he cautions that it's not a good idea to put non-POD objects in SHM. But my class needs the read/write methods, how can I handle those? Add an allocator to my class definition, e.g. have SharedBuffer<T&, Alloc> and proceed similarly to the vector example given in boost. This sounds really complicated. Change SharedBuffer to a POD class, i.e. get rid of all the methods. But then how to synchronize reading and writing between processes? What am I missing? Fixed-length ring buffers are very common, so either this problem has a solution or else I'm doing something wrong.

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• Design Pattern for error handling in ASP.NET 3.5 site

  - by Kevin

  I am relatively new to ASP.NET programming, and web programming in general. We have a site we recently ported from .NET 1.1 to 3.5. Currently we have two methods of error handling: either catching the error during data load on a page and displaying the formatted error in a label on the page, or redirecting to a generic error page. Both of these are somewhat annoying, as right now I'm trying to redesign how our errors are displayed. We are soon moving to Master pages, and I'm wondering if there is a way to "build in" an error handling control. What I mean by this is using a ASP.NET user control I've designed that simply gets passed the error string returned from the server. If an error occurs, the page would not display the content, and instead display the error control. This provides us with the ability to retain the current banner/navigation during an error (which we don't get with the generic error page), as well as keeping me from having to add the control to every aspx page we have (which I have to do with using the label-per-page system). Does something like this make sense? Ultimately I just want to have the error control added to a single page, and all other pages have access to it directly. Is this something Master pages help with? Thanks!

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• Optional Member Objects

  - by David Relihan

  Okay, so you have a load of methods sprinkled around your systems main class. So you do the right thing and refactor by creating a new class and perform move method(s) into a new class. The new class has a single responsibility and all is right with the world again: class Feature { public: Feature(){}; void doSomething(); void doSomething1(); void doSomething2(); }; So now your original class has a member variable of type object: Feature _feature; Which you will call in the main class. Now if you do this many times, you will have many member-objects in your main class. Now these features may or not be required based on configuration so in a way it's costly having all these objects that may or not be needed. Can anyone suggest a way of improving this? At the moment I plan to test in the newly created class if the feature is enabled - so the when a call is made to method I will return if it is not enabled. I could have a pointer to the object and then only call new if feature is enabled - but this means I will have to test before I call a method on it which would be potentially dangerous and not very readable. Would having an auto_ptr to the object improve things: auto_ptr<Feature> feature; Or am I still paying the cost of object invokation even though the object may\or may not be required. BTW - I don't think this is premeature optimisation - I just want to consider the possibilites.

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• Launch command on remote Windows machine, given admin credentials

  - by Bilal Aslam

  I have a Windows Server 2008 instance on Amazon EC2 (Amazon's cloud compute platform, which provides VMs in the cloud). It has an external IP, and I have an admin account on the box. I would like to 'bootstrap' this instance remotely i.e. I want to run commands to download, install and configure apps on it, all without having to log on even once. I have figured out how to do this to a remote, domain-joined computer using WMI. I can even use psexec to get what I want, as long as the remote computer is part of the domain. However, I have NOT been able to do for a remote computer on EC2. Here are some specific restrictions: 1) The remote computer is not part of my domain, hence no Kerberos 2) The remote computer does not have a cert I trust, or vice versa I am sure I am running into to some auth/trust restriction. Is there any way I can run a single command on the remote, given that I have admin privileges? I'm not tied down to using WMI, but I do need to run a command somehow. Feels like this should be a solved problem.

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• protecting COM interfaces from exceptions

  - by rmeador

  I have several dozen objects exposed through COM interfaces, each of which with many methods, totaling a few hundred methods. These interfaces expose business objects from my app to a scripting engine. I have been given the task of protecting every single one of these methods from exceptions being thrown (to catch them and return an error using COM's Error() function, which incidentally I can find no documentation on because it's impossible to google). To my understanding, this requires that I add a try/catch around the guts of each one of these methods. The catch blocks are going to be similar or identical for each and every one of these hundreds of methods, which strongly smells of a problem (massively violates the DRY principle), but I can't think of any way to avoid changing every method. As far as I can tell, these methods are invoked directly by COM, with no intervening code that I can hook into to catch the exceptions. My current best idea is to make a macro for the catch block, but that has it's own sort of code-smell. Can anyone come up with a better approach? BTW, my app's exceptions do not derive from std::exception, so if there is some way of COM automatically handling standard exceptions, it won't help. And I sadly cannot change the existing exceptions to derive from std::exception.

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• Lookup site column not saving/storing metadata for Office 2007 documents?

  - by Greg Hurlman

  I'm having this issue on several server environments. We have a list at the site collection root. There is a site column created as a multi-value lookup on that list's Title field. This site column is used in document libraries in subsites as a required field. When we upload anything but an Office 2007 document, the user is presented with the document metadata fill-in screen (EditForm.aspx?Mode=Upload), the user fills in the appropriate data (including picking a value(s) for this lookup), and clicks "check in" - the document is checked in as expected, with the lookup field's value filled in. With an Office 2007 document, this fails. The user selected values for the lookup field do not ever make it to the server - no errors are thrown, but the field is not saved with the document. We have an event listener on these document libraries, and if we inspect the incoming SPListItem on the event listener method before a single line of our code has run, we see that the value for the lookup field is null. It smells like a SharePoint bug to me - but before I go calling Microsoft, has anyone seen this & worked around it? Edit: the only entry I see in the SP trace logs relating to the problem: CMS/Publishing/8ztg/Medium/Got List Item Version, but item was null

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• Re-use of database object in sub-sonic

  - by cantabilesoftware

  Yet another newbie SubSonic/ActiveRecord question. Suppose I want to insert a couple of records, currently I'm doing this: using (var scope = new System.Transactions.TransactionScope()) { // Insert company company c = new company(); c.name = "ACME"; c.Save(); // Insert some options company_option o = new company_option(); o.name = "ColorScheme"; o.value = "Red"; o.company_id = c.company_id; o.Save(); o = new company_option(); o.name = "PreferredMode"; o.value = "Fast"; o.company_id = c.company_id; o.Save(); scope.Complete(); } Stepping through this code however, each of the company/company_option constructors go off and create a new myappDB object which just seems wasteful. Is this the recommended approach or should I be trying to re-use a single DB object - and if so, what's the easiest way to do this?

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• MySQL: Complex Join Statement involving two tables and a third correlation table

  - by Stephen

  I have two tables that were built for two disparate systems. I have records in one table (called "leads") that represent customers, and records in another table (called "manager") that are the exact same customers but "manager" uses different fields (For example, "leads" contains an email address, and "manager" contains two fields for two different emails--either of which might be the email from "leads"). So, I've created a correlation table that contains the lead_id and manager_id. currently this correlation table is empty. I'm trying to query the "leads" table to give me records that match either "manager" email field with the single "leads" email field, while at the same time ignoring fields that have already been added to the "correlated" table. (this way I can see how many leads that match have not yet been correlated.) Here's my current, invalid SQL attempt: SELECT leads.id, manager.id FROM leads, manager LEFT OUTER JOIN correlation ON correlation.lead_id = leads.id WHERE correlation.id IS NULL AND leads.project != "someproject" AND (manager.orig_email = leads.email OR manager.dest_email = leads.email) AND leads.created BETWEEN '1999-01-01 00:00:00' AND '2010-05-10 23:59:59' ORDER BY leads.created ASC; I get the error: Unknown column 'leads.id' in 'on clause' Before you wonder: there are records in the "leads" table where leads.project != "someproject" and leads.created falls between those dates. I've included those additional parameters for completeness.

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• Translating Where() to sql

  - by MBoros

  Hi. I saw DamienG's article (http://damieng.com/blog/2009/06/24/client-side-properties-and-any-remote-linq-provider) in how to map client properties to sql. i ran throgh this article, and i saw great potential in it. Definitely mapping client properties to SQL is an awesome idea. But i wanted to use this for something a bit more complicated then just concatenating strings. Atm we are trying to introduce multilinguality to our Business objects, and i hoped we could leave all the existing linq2sql queries intact, and just change the code of the multilingual properties, so they would actually return the given property in the CurrentUICulture. The first idea was to change these fields to XMLs, and then try the Object.Property.Elements().Where(...), but it got stuck on the Elements(), as it couldnt translate it to sql. I read somewhere that XML fields are actually regarded as strings, and only on the app server they become XElements, so this way the filtering would be on the app server anyways, not the DB. Fair point, it wont work like this. Lets try something else... SO the second idea was to create a PolyGlots table (name taken from http://weblogic.sys-con.com/node/102698?page=0,1), a PolyGlotTranslations table and a Culture table, where the PolyGlots would be referenced from each internationalized property. This way i wanted to say for example: private static readonly CompiledExpression<Announcement, string> nameExpression = DefaultTranslationOf<Announcement> .Property(e => e.Name) .Is(e=> e.NamePolyGlot.PolyGlotTranslations .Where(t=> t.Culture.Code == Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture.Name) .Single().Value ); now unfortunately here i get an error that the Where() function cannot be translated to sql, what is a bit disappointing, as i was sure it will go through. I guess it is failing, cause the IEntitySet is basically an IEnumerable, not IQueryable, am i right? Is there another way to use the compiledExpressions class to achieve this goal? Any help appreciated.

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• multithreading issue

  - by vbNewbie

  I have written a multithreaded crawler and the process is simply creating threads and having them access a list of urls to crawl. They then access the urls and parse the html content. All this seems to work fine. Now when I need to write to tables in a database is when I experience issues. I have 2 declared arraylists that will contain the content each thread parse. The first arraylist is simply the rss feed links and the other arraylist contains the different posts. I then use a for each loop to iterate one while sequentially incrementing the other and writing to the database. My problem is that each time a new thread accesses one of the lists the content is changed and this affects the iteration. I tried using nested loops but it did not work before and this works fine using a single thread.I hope this makes sense. Here is my code: SyncLock dlock For Each l As String In links finallinks.Add(l) Next End SyncLock SyncLock dlock For Each p As String In posts finalposts.Add(p) Next End SyncLock ... Dim i As Integer = 0 SyncLock dlock For Each rsslink As String In finallinks postlink = finalposts.Item(i) i = i + 1 finallinks and finalposts are the two arraylists. I did not include the rest of the code which shows the threads working but this is the essential part where my error occurs which is basically here postlink = finalposts.Item(i) i = i + 1 ERROR: index was out of range. Must be non-negative and less than the size of the collection Is there an alternative?

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• Protocol specific channel handlers

  - by Mickael Marrache

  I'm writing an application server that will receive SIP and DNS messages from the network. When I receive a message from the network, I understand from the documentation that at first, I get a ChannelBuffer. I would like to determine which kind of message has been received (SIP or DNS) and to decode it. To determine the message type, I can dedicate port to each type of message, but I would be interested to know if there exist another solution for that. My question is more about how to decode the ChannelBuffer. Is there a ChannelHandler provided by Netty to decode SIP or DNS messages? If not, what would be the right place in the type hierarchy to write my custom ChannelHandler? To illustrate my question, let's take as example the HttpRequestDecoder, the hierarchy is: java.lang.Object org.jboss.netty.channel.SimpleChannelUpstreamHandler org.jboss.netty.handler.codec.frame.FrameDecoder org.jboss.netty.handler.codec.replay.ReplayingDecoder<HttpMessageDecoder.State> org.jboss.netty.handler.codec.http.HttpMessageDecoder org.jboss.netty.handler.codec.http.HttpRequestDecoder Also, do I need to use two different ChannelHandler for decoding and encoding, or is there a possibility to use a single ChannelHandler for both? Thanks

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• ASP.NET output caching - dynamically update dependencies

  - by ColinE

  Hi All, I have an ASP.NET application which requires output caching. I need to invalidate the cached items when the data returned from a web service changes, so a simple duration is not good enough. I have been doing a bit of reading about cache dependencies and think I have the right idea. It looks like I will need to create a cache dependency to my web service. To associate the page output with this dependency I think I should use the following method: Response.AddCacheItemDependency(cacheKey); The thing I am struggling with is what I should add to the cache? The dependency my page has is to a single value returned by the web service. My current thinking is that I should create a Custom Cache Dependency via subclassing CacheDependency, and store the current value in the cache. I can then use Response.AddCacheItemDependency to form the dependency. I can then periodically check the value and for a NotifyDependencyChange in order to invalidate my cached HTTP response. The problem is, I need to ensure that the cache is flushed immediately, so a periodic check is not good enough. How can I ensure that my dependant object in the cache which represents the value returned by the web service is re-evaluated before the HTTP response is fetched from the cache? Regards, Colin E.

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• DSL to generate test data

  - by queen3

  There're several ways to generate data for tests (not only unit tests), for example, Object Mother, builders, etc. Another useful approach is to write test data as plain text: product: Main; prices: 145, 255; Expire: 10-Apr-2011; qty: 2; includes: Sub product: Sub; prices: 145, 255; Expire: 10-Apr-2011; qty: 2 and then parse it into C# objects. This is easy to use in unit tests (because deep inner collections can be written in single line), this is even more convenient to use in FitNesse-like system (because this DSL naturally fits into wiki), and so on. So I use this and write parser, but it's tedious to write each time. I'm not a big expert in DSL/language parsers, but I think they can help here. What would be the right one to use? I only heard about: DSL (I mean, any DSL) Boo (that I think can do DSL) ANTLR but I don't even know which one to pick and where to start. So the question: is it reasonable to use some kind of DSL to generate test data? What would you suggest to do so? Are there any existing cases?

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• use proxy in python to fetch a webpage

  - by carmao

  I am trying to write a function in Python to use a public anonymous proxy and fetch a webpage, but I got a rather strange error. The code (I have Python 2.4): import urllib2 def get_source_html_proxy(url, pip, timeout): # timeout in seconds (maximum number of seconds willing for the code to wait in # case there is a proxy that is not working, then it gives up) proxy_handler = urllib2.ProxyHandler({'http': pip}) opener = urllib2.build_opener(proxy_handler) opener.addheaders = [('User-agent', 'Mozilla/5.0')] urllib2.install_opener(opener) req=urllib2.Request(url) sock=urllib2.urlopen(req) timp=0 # a counter that is going to measure the time until the result (webpage) is # returned while 1: data = sock.read(1024) timp=timp+1 if len(data) < 1024: break timpLimita=50000000 * timeout if timp==timpLimita: # 5 millions is about 1 second break if timp==timpLimita: print IPul + ": Connection is working, but the webpage is fetched in more than 50 seconds. This proxy returns the following IP: " + str(data) return str(data) else: print "This proxy " + IPul + "= good proxy. " + "It returns the following IP: " + str(data) return str(data) # Now, I call the function to test it for one single proxy (IP:port) that does not support user and password (a public high anonymity proxy) #(I put a proxy that I know is working - slow, but is working) rez=get_source_html_proxy("http://www.whatismyip.com/automation/n09230945.asp", "93.84.221.248:3128", 50) print rez The error: Traceback (most recent call last): File "./public_html/cgi-bin/teste5.py", line 43, in ? rez=get_source_html_proxy("http://www.whatismyip.com/automation/n09230945.asp", "93.84.221.248:3128", 50) File "./public_html/cgi-bin/teste5.py", line 18, in get_source_html_proxy sock=urllib2.urlopen(req) File "/usr/lib64/python2.4/urllib2.py", line 130, in urlopen return _opener.open(url, data) File "/usr/lib64/python2.4/urllib2.py", line 358, in open response = self._open(req, data) File "/usr/lib64/python2.4/urllib2.py", line 376, in _open '_open', req) File "/usr/lib64/python2.4/urllib2.py", line 337, in _call_chain result = func(*args) File "/usr/lib64/python2.4/urllib2.py", line 573, in lambda r, proxy=url, type=type, meth=self.proxy_open: \ File "/usr/lib64/python2.4/urllib2.py", line 580, in proxy_open if '@' in host: TypeError: iterable argument required I do not know why the character "@" is an issue (I have no such in my code. Should I have?) Thanks in advance for your valuable help.

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• Scaling Image to multiple sizes for Deep Zoom

  - by AnthonyWJones

  Lets assume I have a bitmap with a square aspect and width of 2048 pixels. In order to create a set of files need by Silverlight's DeepZoomImageTileSource I need to scale this bitmap to 1024 then to 512 then to 256 etc down to 1 pixel image. There are two, I suspect naive, approaches:- For each image required scale the original full size image to the required size. However it seems excessive to be scaling the full image to the very small sizes. Having scaled from one level to the next discard the original image and scale each sucessive scaled image as the source of the next smaller image. However I suspect that this would generate images in the 256-64 range with poor fidelity than using option 1. Note unlike with the Deep Zoom Composer this tool is expected to act in an on-demand fashion hence it needs to complete in a reasonable timeframe (tops 30 seconds). On the pluse side I'm only creating a single multiscale image not a pyramid of mutliple high-res images. I am outside my comfort zone here, any graphics experts got any advice? Am I wrong about point 2? Is point 1 reasonably performant and I'm worrying about nothing? Option 3?

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• Directly call distutils' or setuptools' setup() function with command name/options, without parsing

  - by Ryan B. Lynch

  I'd like to call Python's distutils' or setuptools' setup() function in a slightly unconventional way, but I'm not sure whether distutils is meant for this kind of usage. As an example, let's say I currently have a 'setup.py' file, which looks like this (lifted verbatim from the distutils docs--the setuptools usage is almost identical): from distutils.core import setup setup(name='Distutils', version='1.0', description='Python Distribution Utilities', author='Greg Ward', author_email='[email protected]', url='http://www.python.org/sigs/distutils-sig/', packages=['distutils', 'distutils.command'], ) Normally, to build just the .spec file for an RPM of this module, I could run python setup.py bdist_rpm --spec-only, which parses the command line and calls the 'bdist_rpm' code to handle the RPM-specific stuff. The .spec file ends up in './dist'. How can I change my setup() invocation so that it runs the 'bdist_rpm' command with the '--spec-only' option, WITHOUT parsing command-line parameters? Can I pass the command name and options as parameters to setup()? Or can I manually construct a command line, and pass that as a parameter, instead? NOTE: I already know that I could call the script in a separate process, with an actual command line, using os.system() or the subprocess module or something similar. I'm trying to avoid using any kind of external command invocations. I'm looking specifically for a solution that runs setup() in the current interpreter. For background, I'm converting some release-management shell scripts into a single Python program. One of the tasks is running 'setup.py' to generate a .spec file for further pre-release testing. Running 'setup.py' as an external command, with its own command line options, seems like an awkward method, and it complicates the rest of the program. I feel like there may be a more Pythonic way.

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• Find out which row caused the error

  - by Felipe Fiali

  I have a big fat query that's written dynamically to integrate some data. Basically what it does is query some tables, join some other ones, treat some data, and then insert it into a final table. The problem is that there's too much data, and we can't really trust the sources, because there could be some errored or inconsistent data. For example, I've spent almost an hour looking for an error while developing using a customer's database because somewhere in the middle of my big fat query there was an error converting some varchar to datetime. It turned out to be that they had some sales dating '2009-02-29', an out-of-range date. And yes, I know. Why was that stored as varchar? Well, the source database has 3 columns for dates, 'Month', 'Day' and 'Year'. I have no idea why it's like that, but still, it is. But how the hell would I treat that, if the source is not trustable? I can't HANDLE exceptions, I really need that it comes up to another level with the original message, but I wanted to provide some more info, so that the user could at least try to solve it before calling us. So I thought about displaying to the user the row number, or some ID that would at least give him some idea of what record he'd have to correct. That's also a hard job because there will be times when the integration will run up to 80000 records. And in an 80000 records integration, a single dummy error message: 'The conversion of a varchar data type to a datetime data type resulted in an out-of-range datetime value' means nothing at all. So any idea would be appreciated. Oh I'm using SQL Server 2005 with Service Pack 3.

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• Inconsistent height of text input elements between Firefox and WebKit

  - by Trevor Burnham

  OK, I realize that this is something of an eternal question, but here goes: I've got a single text input, <input type="text" name="whatever" /> and I've specified its font-family, font-size and padding. Yet, even on the same machine (my Mac, let's say), the input has a different height in Firefox (3.6) than it does in Chrome or Safari. Specifically, Firefox adds a little bit more padding below the text. And no, specifying height in pixels doesn't achieve consistency either. Is there any way to achieve text input height consistency across Gecko- and WebKit-based browsers (let alone IE and Opera) without resorting to JavaScript? And if I must use JavaScript, has someone already devised a jQuery plugin or something to easily do this? Update: Here's what not to do. The jqTransform plugin lets you skin form elements and promises that they'll look the same across browsers. Here's how the demo input looks in Chrome 5 on my Mac: and here's how the same input looks in Firefox 3.6.4: I haven't altered these screenshots in any way, just cropped them. Now, my first reaction is, "Ugh, I don't want to support Firefox." But there are currently more Firefox users than Safari and Chrome users combined, so that's not an option. Someone, please help! I just want my forms to look the same across modern, standards-compliant browsers! And by "look the same," I'm not talking about the outline on selection or anything like that; I'm just talking about having the same width, height, and text placement!

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• ASP.NET:Paging when deleting rows

  - by Niels Bosma

  I have a datagrid where a row can be deleted (using ajax). I'm have problem with the pager in the following scenario: Lets say my PageSize is 10, I have 101 rows so that's 11 pages with the last page with an single element. Let no assume that I'm on page 10 (PageIndex=9) and delete a row. Then I go to the 11'th page (who's now empty and doesn't really exist). ASP now shows me the EmptyDataTemplate and no pager so I can't go back. My approach (which isn't working) is to detect this scenario and step one page back: public void Bind() { gridMain.DataBind(); } public void SetPage(int page) { gridMain.PageIndex = page; gridMain.DataBind(); } protected void ldsGridMain_Selecting(object sender, LinqDataSourceSelectEventArgs e) { selectArgs = e; e.Result = (new EnquiryListController()).GetEnquiryList(OnBind(this), supplier); } protected void ldsGridMain_Selected(object sender, LinqDataSourceStatusEventArgs e) { totalRows = selectArgs.Arguments.TotalRowCount; //Detect if we need to update the page: if (gridMain.PageIndex > 0 && (gridMain.PageSize * gridMain.PageIndex + 1) > totalRows) SetPage(gridMain.PageIndex - 1); } protected void gridMain_PageIndexChanging(object sender, GridViewPageEventArgs e) { SetPage(e.NewPageIndex); } I can see that SetPage is called with the the right page index, but the databind doesn't seem to called as I still get the EmptyDataTemplate.

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• MEF and ASP.NET MVC

  - by denis_n

  I want to use MEF with asp.net mvc. I wrote following controller factory: public class MefControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { private CompositionContainer _Container; public MefControllerFactory(Assembly assembly) { _Container = new CompositionContainer(new AssemblyCatalog(assembly)); } protected override IController GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) { if (controllerType != null) { var controllers = _Container.GetExports<IController>(); var controllerExport = controllers.Where(x => x.Value.GetType() == controllerType).FirstOrDefault(); if (controllerExport == null) { return base.GetControllerInstance(requestContext, controllerType); } return controllerExport.Value; } else { throw new HttpException((Int32)HttpStatusCode.NotFound, String.Format( "The controller for path '{0}' could not be found or it does not implement IController.", requestContext.HttpContext.Request.Path ) ); } } } In Global.asax.cs I'm setting my controller factory: protected void Application_Start() { AreaRegistration.RegisterAllAreas(); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); ControllerBuilder.Current.SetControllerFactory(new MefControllerFactory.MefControllerFactory(Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly())); } I have an area: [Export(typeof(IController))] [PartCreationPolicy(CreationPolicy.NonShared)] public class HomeController : Controller { private readonly IArticleService _articleService; [ImportingConstructor] public HomeController(IArticleService articleService) { _articleService = articleService; } // // GET: /Articles/Home/ public ActionResult Index() { Article article = _articleService.GetById(55); return View(article); } } IArticleService is an interface. There is a class which implements IArticleService and Exports it. It works. Is this everything what I need for working with MEF? How can I skip setting PartCreationPolicy and ImportingConstructor for controller? I want to set my dependencies using constructor. When PartCreationPolicy is missing, I get following exception: A single instance of controller 'MvcApplication4.Areas.Articles.Controllers.HomeController' cannot be used to handle multiple requests. If a custom controller factory is in use, make sure that it creates a new instance of the controller for each request.

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• a selective dual command binding converter in WPF?

  - by Jippers

  I'll start off and say I am not using the MVVM pattern for my WPF app. Please forgive me. Right now I have a data template with two buttons, each binds to a different command on the CLR object this data template represents. Both use the same command parameter. Here's an example of the buttons. <Button x:Name="Button1" Command="{Binding Path=Command1}" CommandParameter="{Binding Path=Text, ElementName=TextBox1}" /> <Button x:Name="Button2" Command="{Binding Path=Command2}" CommandParameter="{Binding Path=Text, ElementName=TextBox1}" /> I would like to refactor this into a single button that can perform either command based on a user setting like a boolean in Settings.settings. I don't have access to refactoring the CLR object itself. Also this is a Data Template there isn't codebehind for me to work with. My take is that a converter would be the best bet, but I don't know how I would put that together. The converter would need to take in the CommandParameter, as well as the DataContext so it knows which object to execute the Commands on. Can someone lend me a hand with this? Thanks in advance.

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• Delphi Unicode String Type Stored Directly at its Address (or "Unicode ShortString")

  - by Andreas Rejbrand

  I want a string type that is Unicode and that stores the string directly at the adress of the variable, as is the case of the (Ansi-only) ShortString type. I mean, if I declare a S: ShortString and let S := 'My String', then, at @S, I will find the length of the string (as one byte, so the string cannot contain more than 255 characters) followed by the ANSI-encoded string itself. What I would like is a Unicode variant of this. That is, I want a string type such that, at @S, I will find a unsigned 32-bit integer (or a single byte would be enough, actually) containing the length of the string in bytes (or in characters, which is half the number of bytes) followed by the Unicode representation of the string. I have tried WideString, UnicodeString, and RawByteString, but they all appear only to store an adress at @S, and the actual string somewhere else (I guess this has do do with reference counting and such). Update: The most important reason for this is probably that it would be very problematic if sizeof(string) were variable. I suspect that there is no built-in type to use, and that I have to come up with my own way of storing text the way I want (which actually is fun). Am I right? Update I will, among other things, need to use these strings in packed records. I also need manually to read/write these strings to files/the heap. I could live with fixed-size strings, such as <= 128 characters, and I could redesign the problem so it will work with null-terminated strings. But PChar will not work, for sizeof(PChar) = 1 - it's merely an address. The approach I eventually settled for was to use a static array of bytes. I will post my implementation as a solution later today.

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