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  • Hotkeys in webapps

    - by Johoo
    When creating webapps, is there any guidelines on which keys you can use for your own hotkeys without overriding too many of the browsers default hotkeys. For example i might want to have a custom copy command for copying entire sets of data that only makes sense for my program instead of just text. The logical combination for this would be ctrl+c but that would destroy the default copy hotkey for normal text. One solution i was thinking about is to only catch the hotkey when it "makes sense" but when you use some advanced custom selection it might be hard to differentiate if your data is focused, if text is selected or both. Right now i am only using single keys as the hotkey, so just 'c' for the example above and this seems to be what most other sites are doing too. The problem is that if you have text input this doesn't work so good. Is this the best solution? To clarify I'm talking about advanced webapps that behave more like normal programs and not just some website presenting information(even though i think these guidlines would be valid for both cases). So for the copy example it might not be a big deal if you can't copy the text in the menu but when ctrl+tab, alt+d or ctrl+e doesn't work i would be really pissed, cough flash cough.

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  • How can I control the width of JTextFields in Java Swing?

    - by Jonas
    I am trying to have several JTextFields on a single row, but I don't want them to have the same width. How can I control the width and make some of them wider than others? I want that they together take up 100% of the total width, so it would be good if I could use some kind of weigthing. I have tried with .setColumns() but it doesn't make sense. Here is my code: class Row extends JComponent { public Row() { this.setLayout(new BoxLayout(this, BoxLayout.X_AXIS)); JTextField fld1 = new JTextField("First field"); JTextField fld2 = new JTextField("Second field, should be longer"); JTextField fld3 = new JTextField("Short field"); JTextField fld4 = new JTextField("Another field"); fld1.setBorder(null); fld2.setBorder(null); fld3.setBorder(null); fld4.setBorder(null); fld1.setFocusable(false); fld2.setFocusable(false); fld3.setFocusable(false); fld4.setFocusable(false); fld1.setColumns(5); // makes no sense this.add(fld1); this.add(fld2); this.add(fld3); this.add(fld4); } } this.setLayout(new GridLayout(20,0)); this.add(new Row()); this.add(new Row()); this.add(new Row());

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  • TimeoutException when WCF Host and Client are in the same process

    - by Pharao2k
    I've ran into a really weird problem. I am building a heavily distributed application where each app instance can either be a Host and/or Client to a WCF-Service (very p2p-like). Everything works fine, as long as the Client and the targeted Host (By which I mean the app, not the Host, since currently everything runs on a single computer (so no Firewall problems etc.)) are NOT the same. IF they are the same, then the app hangs for exactly 1 Minute and then throws a TimeoutException. WCF-Logging did not produce anything helpful. Here is a small app which demonstrates the Problem: public partial class MainWindow : Window { public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); } private void button1_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { var binding = new NetTcpBinding(); var baseAddress = new Uri(@"net.tcp://localhost:4000/Test"); ServiceHost host = new ServiceHost(typeof(TestService), baseAddress); host.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(ITestService), binding, baseAddress); var debug = host.Description.Behaviors.Find<ServiceDebugBehavior>(); if (debug == null) host.Description.Behaviors.Add(new ServiceDebugBehavior { IncludeExceptionDetailInFaults = true }); else debug.IncludeExceptionDetailInFaults = true; host.Open(); var clientBinding = new NetTcpBinding(); var testProxy = new TestProxy(clientBinding, new EndpointAddress(baseAddress)); testProxy.Test(); } } [ServiceContract] public interface ITestService { [OperationContract] void Test(); } public class TestService : ITestService { public void Test() { MessageBox.Show("foo"); } } public class TestProxy : ClientBase<ITestService>, ITestService { public TestProxy(NetTcpBinding binding, EndpointAddress remoteAddress) : base(binding, remoteAddress) { } public void Test() { Channel.Test(); } } What am I doing wrong? Regards, Pharao2k

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  • Simple way to embed an MP3 audio file in a (static) HTML file, starting to play at a specifc time?

    - by Marcel
    Hi all, I want to produce a simple, static HTML file, that has one or more embedded MP3 files in it. The idea is to have a simple mean of listening to specific parts of an mp3 file. On a single click on a visual element, the sound should start to play; However, not from the beginning of the file, but from a specified starting point in that file (and play to the end of the file). This should work all locally from the client's local filesystem, the HTML file and the MP3 files do not reside on a webserver. So, how to play the MP3 audio from a specific starting point? The solution I am looking for should be as simple as possible, while working on most browsers, including IE, Firefox and Safari. Note: I know the <embed> tag as described here, but this seems not to work with my target browsers. Also I have read about jPlayer and other Java-Script-based players, but since I have never coded some JavaScript, I would prefer a HTML-only solution, if possible.

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  • is mysql index useful on column 'state' when only doing bit-operations on the column?

    - by Geert-Jan
    I have a lot of domain entities (stored in mysql) which undergo lots of different operations. Each operation is executed from a different program. I need to keep (flow)-state for these entities which I implemented in as a long field 'flowstate' used as a bitset. to query mysql for entities which have undergone a certain operation I do something like: select * from entities where state >> 7 & 1 = 1 Indicating bit 7 (cooresponding to operation 7) has run. (<-- simplified) Anyway, I really didn't pay attention to the performance implications of this setup in the beginning, and I think I'm in a bit of trouble since queries as the above run pretty slow. What I'd like to know: Does an mysql index on 'flowstate' help at all? After all it's not a single value Mysql can quickly find using a binary sort or whatever. If it doesn't, are there any other things I could do to speed things up? . Are there special 'mask-indices' for fields with use-cases as the above? TIA, Geert-jan

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  • Variable Assignment and loops (Java)

    - by Raven Dreamer
    Greetings Stack Overflowers, A while back, I was working on a program that hashed values into a hashtable (I don't remember the specifics, and the specifics themselves are irrelevant to the question at hand). Anyway, I had the following code as part of a "recordInput" method. tempElement = new hashElement(someInt); while(in.hasNext() == true) { int firstVal = in.nextInt(); if (firstVal == -911) { break; } tempElement.setKeyValue(firstVal, 0); for(int i = 1; i<numKeyValues;i++) { tempElement.setKeyValue(in.nextInt(), i); } elementArray[placeValue] = tempElement; placeValue++; } // close while loop } // close method This part of the code was giving me a very nasty bug -- no matter how I finagled it, no matter what input I gave the program, it would always produce an array full of only a single value -- the last one. The problem, as I later determined it, was that because I had not created the tempElement variable within the loop, and because values were not being assigned to elementArray[] until after the loop had ended -- every term was defined rather as "tempElement" -- when the loop terminated, every slot in the array was filled with the last value tempElement had taken. I was able to fix this bug by moving the declaration of tempElement within the while loop. My question to you, Stackoverflow, is whether there is another (read: better) way to avoid this bug while keeping the variable declaration of tempElement outside the while loop. (suggestions for better title and tags also appreciated)

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  • Better way to call superclass method in ExtJS

    - by Rene Saarsoo
    All the ExtJS documentation and examples I have read suggest calling superclass methods like this: MyApp.MyPanel = Ext.extend(Ext.Panel, { initComponent: function() { // do something MyPanel specific here... MyApp.MyPanel.superclass.initComponent.call(this); } }); I have been using this pattern for quite some time and the main problem is, that when you rename your class then you also have to change all the calls to superclass methods. That's quite inconvenient, often I will forget and then I have to track down strange errors. But reading the source of Ext.extend() I discovered, that instead I could use the superclass() or super() methods that Ext.extend() adds to the prototype: MyApp.MyPanel = Ext.extend(Ext.Panel, { initComponent: function() { // do something MyPanel specific here... this.superclass().initComponent.call(this); } }); In this code renaming MyPanel to something else is simple - I just have to change the one line. But I have doubts... I haven't seen this documented anywhere and the old wisdom says, I shouldn't rely on undocumented behaviour. I didn't found a single use of these superclass() and supr() methods in ExtJS source code. Why create them when you aren't going to use them? Maybe these methods were used in some older version of ExtJS but are deprecated now? But it seems such a useful feature, why would you deprecate it? So, should I use these methods or not?

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  • How to deploy SQL Reporting 2005 when Data Sources are locked?

    - by spoulson
    The DBAs here maintain all SQL Server and SQL Reporting servers. I have a custom developed SQL Reporting 2005 project in Visual Studio that runs fine on my local SQL Database and Reporting instances. I need to deploy to a production server, so I had a folder created on a SQL Reporting 2005 server with permissions to upload files. Normally, a deploy from within Visual Studio is all that is needed to upload the report files. However, for security purposes, data sources are maintained explicitly by DBAs and stored in a separated locked down common folder on the reporting server. I had them create the data source for me. When I attempt to deploy from VS, it gives me the error "The item '/Data Sources' already exists." I get this whether I'm deploying the whole project or just a single report file. I already set OverwriteDataSources=false in the project properties. The TargetServer URL and folder are verified correct. I suppose I could copy the files manually, but I'd like to be able to deploy from within VS. What could I be doing wrong?

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  • Core data migration failing with "Can't find model for source store" but managedObjectModel for source is present

    - by Ira Cooke
    I have a cocoa application using core-data, which is now at the 4th version of its managed object model. My managed object model contains abstract entities but so far I have managed to get migration working by creating appropriate mapping models and creating my persistent store using addPersistentStoreWithType:configuration:options:error and with the NSMigratePersistentStoresAutomaticallyOption set to YES. NSDictionary *optionsDictionary = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObject:[NSNumber numberWithBool:YES] forKey:NSMigratePersistentStoresAutomaticallyOption]; NSURL *url = [NSURL fileURLWithPath: [applicationSupportFolder stringByAppendingPathComponent: @"MyApp.xml"]]; NSError *error=nil; [theCoordinator addPersistentStoreWithType:NSXMLStoreType configuration:nil URL:url options:optionsDictionary error:&error] This works fine when I migrate from model version 3 to 4, which is a migration that involves adding attributes to several entities. Now when I try to add a new model version (version 5), the call to addPersistentStoreWithType returns nil and the error remains empty. The migration from 4 to 5 involves adding a single attribute. I am struggling to debug the problem and have checked all the following; The source database is in fact at version 4 and the persistentStoreCoordinator's managed object model is at version 5. The 4-5 mapping model as well as managed object models for versions 4 and 5 are present in the resources folder of my built application. I've tried various model upgrade paths. Strangely I find that upgrading from an early version 3 - 5 works .. but upgrading from 4 - 5 fails. I've tried adding a custom entity migration policy for migration of the entity whose attributes are changing ... in this case I overrode the method beginEntityMapping:manager:error: . Interestingly this method does get called when migration works (ie when I migrate from 3 to 4, or from 3 to 5 ), but it does not get called in the case that fails ( 4 to 5 ). I'm pretty much at a loss as to where to proceed. Any ideas to help debug this problem would be much appreciated.

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  • css block links and images

    - by Andrew Heath
    Given this html: <div class="nation"> <a href="library.php?type=nation&amp;id=America"> <div class="nation-image"> <img src="nations/America.png" alt="snip" /> </div> <h3>America</h3> </a> </div> the following CSS results in the entire <div class="nation"> becoming a clickable block link: .nation {float: left; text-align: center; width: 189px;} .nation img {width: 160px; margin: 10px 0 0 0; border: 1px solid #16160C;} but if I make the following single addition: .nation {float: left; text-align: center; width: 189px;} .nation-image {height: 138px;} .nation img {width: 160px; margin: 10px 0 0 0; border: 1px solid #16160C;} to specify the height of <div class="nation-image"> then the image (and only the image) is no longer a link, but the rest of the div (margin around it, h3 etc) remain a block link... /I am teh confussd :-?

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  • Printing HTML blocks

    - by Lem0n
    I have a page with a few tables that I want to be printable. I want the following behaviour: 1) Add a page break if the next table fits in a single page, but won't fit in the current page (because of other stuff already printed on this page) 2) Print the "table header" again in case it's needed to break a table (I guess it's the default behaviour) Any ideas specially on the first issue? Maybe some CSS can help? I'll give on example. I have a page with 4 tables. All of them with 10 lines, except the third one, with 50 lines. The first and second goes on the first page. Since the third one won't fit in the same page, but will fit in a page alone, it's printed on a page alone... and then the forth table is printed on the third page (in case it doesn't fit together in the second page). But, if the third page had 300 lines and would be broke anyway, it could have started to be print in the first page.

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  • How can I make this method more Scalalicious

    - by Neil Chambers
    I have a function that calculates the left and right node values for some collection of treeNodes given a simple node.id, node.parentId association. It's very simple and works well enough...but, well, I am wondering if there is a more idiomatic approach. Specifically is there a way to track the left/right values without using some externally tracked value but still keep the tasty recursion. /* * A tree node */ case class TreeNode(val id:String, val parentId: String){ var left: Int = 0 var right: Int = 0 } /* * a method to compute the left/right node values */ def walktree(node: TreeNode) = { /* * increment state for the inner function */ var c = 0 /* * A method to set the increment state */ def increment = { c+=1; c } // poo /* * the tasty inner method * treeNodes is a List[TreeNode] */ def walk(node: TreeNode): Unit = { node.left = increment /* * recurse on all direct descendants */ treeNodes filter( _.parentId == node.id) foreach (walk(_)) node.right = increment } walk(node) } walktree(someRootNode) Edit - The list of nodes is taken from a database. Pulling the nodes into a proper tree would take too much time. I am pulling a flat list into memory and all I have is an association via node id's as pertains to parents and children. Adding left/right node values allows me to get a snapshop of all children (and childrens children) with a single SQL query. The calculation needs to run very quickly in order to maintain data integrity should parent-child associations change (which they do very frequently). In addition to using the awesome Scala collections I've also boosted speed by using parallel processing for some pre/post filtering on the tree nodes. I wanted to find a more idiomatic way of tracking the left/right node values. After looking at the answers listed I have settled on this synthesised version: def walktree(node: TreeNode) = { def walk(node: TreeNode, counter: Int): Int = { node.left = counter node.right = treeNodes .filter( _.parentId == node.id) .foldLeft(counter+1) { (counter, curnode) => walk(curnode, counter) + 1 } node.right } walk(node,1) }

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  • Module based web project directory layout with git and symlinks

    - by karlthorwald
    I am planning my directory structure for a linux/apache/php web project like this: Only www.example.com/webroot/ will be exposed in apache www.example.com/ webroot/ index.php module1/ module2/ modules/ module1/ module1.class.php module1.js module2/ module2.class.php module2.css lib/ lib1/ lib1.class.php the modules/ and lib/ directory will only be in the php path. To make the css and js files visible in the webroot directory I am planning to use symlinks. webroot/ index.php module1/ module1.js (symlinked) module2/ module2.css (symlinked) I tried following these principles: layout by modules and libraries, not by file type and not by "public' or 'non public', index.php is an exception. This is for easier development. symlinking files that need to be public for the modules and libs to a public location, but still mirroring the layout. So the module structure is also visible in the resulting html code in the links, which might help development. How will git handle the symlinking of the single files correctly, is there something to consider? When it comes to images I will need to link directories, how to handle that with git? modules/ module3/ module3.class.php img/ img1.jpg img2.jpg img3.jpg They should be linked here: webroot/ module3/ img/ (symlinked ?) So this is a git and symlink question. But I would be interested to hear comments about the php layout, maybe you want to use the comment function for this.

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  • How to Use Calculated Color Values with ColorMatrix?

    - by Otaku
    I am changing color values of each pixel in an image based on a calculation. The problem is that this takes over 5 seconds on my machine with a 1000x1333 image and I'm looking for a way to optimize it to be much faster. I think ColorMatrix may be an option, but I'm having a difficult time figure out how I would get a set of pixel RGB values, use that to calculate and then set the new pixel value. I can see how this can be done if I was just modifying (multiplying, subtracting, etc.) the original value with ColorMatrix, but now how I can use the pixels returned value to use it to calculate and new value. For example: Sub DarkenPicture() Dim clrTestFolderPath = "C:\Users\Me\Desktop\ColorTest\" Dim originalPicture = "original.jpg" Dim Luminance As Single Dim bitmapOriginal As Bitmap = Image.FromFile(clrTestFolderPath + originalPicture) Dim Clr As Color Dim newR As Byte Dim newG As Byte Dim newB As Byte For x = 0 To bitmapOriginal.Width - 1 For y = 0 To bitmapOriginal.Height - 1 Clr = bitmapOriginal.GetPixel(x, y) Luminance = ((0.21 * (Clr.R) + (0.72 * (Clr.G)) + (0.07 * (Clr.B))/ 255 newR = Clr.R * Luminance newG = Clr.G * Luminance newB = Clr.B * Luminance bitmapOriginal.SetPixel(x, y, Color.FromArgb(newR, newG, newB)) Next Next bitmapOriginal.Save(clrTestFolderPath + "colorized.jpg", ImageFormat.Jpeg) End Sub The Luminance value is the calculated one. I know I can set ColorMatrix's M00, M11, M22 to 0, 0, 0 respectively and then put a new value in M40, M41, M42, but that new value is calculated based of a value multiplication and addition of that pixel's components (((0.21 * (Clr.R) + (0.72 * (Clr.G)) + (0.07 * (Clr.B)) and the result of that - Luminance - is multiplied by the color component). Is this even possible with ColorMatrix?

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  • Custom model validation of dependent properties using Data Annotations

    - by Darin Dimitrov
    Since now I've used the excellent FluentValidation library to validate my model classes. In web applications I use it in conjunction with the jquery.validate plugin to perform client side validation as well. One drawback is that much of the validation logic is repeated on the client side and is no longer centralized at a single place. For this reason I'm looking for an alternative. There are many examples out there showing the usage of data annotations to perform model validation. It looks very promising. One thing I couldn't find out is how to validate a property that depends on another property value. Let's take for example the following model: public class Event { [Required] public DateTime? StartDate { get; set; } [Required] public DateTime? EndDate { get; set; } } I would like to ensure that EndDate is greater than StartDate. I could write a custom validation attribute extending ValidationAttribute in order to perform custom validation logic. Unfortunately I couldn't find a way to obtain the model instance: public class CustomValidationAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public override bool IsValid(object value) { // value represents the property value on which this attribute is applied // but how to obtain the object instance to which this property belongs? return true; } } I found that the CustomValidationAttribute seems to do the job because it has this ValidationContext property that contains the object instance being validated. Unfortunately this attribute has been added only in .NET 4.0. So my question is: can I achieve the same functionality in .NET 3.5 SP1? UPDATE: It seems that FluentValidation already supports clientside validation and metadata in ASP.NET MVC 2. Still it would be good to know though if data annotations could be used to validate dependent properties.

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  • Why is creating a ring buffer shared by different processes so hard (in C++), what I am doing wrong?

    - by recipriversexclusion
    I am being especially dense about this but it seems I'm missing an important, basic point or something, since what I want to do should be common: I need to create a fixed-size ring buffer object from a manager process (Process M). This object has write() and read() methods to write/read from the buffer. The read/write methods will be called by independent processes (Process R and W) I have implemented the buffer, SharedBuffer<T&>, it allocates buffer slots in SHM using boost::interprocess and works perfectly within a single process. I have read the answers to this question and that one on SO, as well as asked my own, but I'm still in the dark about how to have different processes access methods from a common object. The Boost doc has an example of creating a vector in SHM, which is very similar to what I want, but I want to instantiate my own class. My current options are: Use placement new, as suggested by Charles B. to my question; however, he cautions that it's not a good idea to put non-POD objects in SHM. But my class needs the read/write methods, how can I handle those? Add an allocator to my class definition, e.g. have SharedBuffer<T&, Alloc> and proceed similarly to the vector example given in boost. This sounds really complicated. Change SharedBuffer to a POD class, i.e. get rid of all the methods. But then how to synchronize reading and writing between processes? What am I missing? Fixed-length ring buffers are very common, so either this problem has a solution or else I'm doing something wrong.

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  • UITableView not responding to row selection until a different row is selected

    - by Larry Fransson
    This is driving me nuts. I have searched on everything I can think of to find a solution but haven't found one yet. I've got a UITableView that uses custom cells. The accessory is the detail disclosure button. I would like the cell to respond to either row selection or the disclosure button being tapped. It responds to the disclosure button just as you would expect. But selecting the row is a different story. When I select the row, it highlights, but nothing happens until I tap a different row. Then the previously selected row does what it was supposed to do, which is to create and push a new view controller for that row. If I tap a single row five times and then tap a different row, it then creates and pushes five view controllers for that first row. It does this both in the simulator and on the device. What's really maddening is that I have another tableview in the same application that responds correctly to row selection or tapping the detail disclosure button. I can't find anything I've done differently between the two. Has anyone seen this before?

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  • How to speed up the reading of innerHTML in IE8?

    - by Dennis Cheung
    I am using JQuery with the DataTable plugin, and now I have a big performnce issue on the following line. aLocalData[jInner] = nTds[j].innerHTML; // jquery.dataTables.js:2220 I have a ajax call, and result string in HTML format. I convert them into HTML nodes, and that part is ok. var $result = $('<div/>').html(result).find("*:first"); // simlar to $result=$(result) but much more faster in Fx Then I activate enable the result from a plain table to a sortable datatable. The speed is acceptable in Fx (around 4sec for 900 rows), but unacceptable in IE8 (more then 100 seconds). I check it deep using the buildin profiler, and found the above single line take all 99.9% of the time, how can I speed it up? anything I missed? nTrs = oSettings.nTable.getElementsByTagName('tbody')[0].childNodes; for ( i=0, iLen=nTrs.length ; i<iLen ; i++ ) { if ( nTrs[i].nodeName == "TR" ) { iThisIndex = oSettings.aoData.length; oSettings.aoData.push( { "nTr": nTrs[i], "_iId": oSettings.iNextId++, "_aData": [], "_anHidden": [], "_sRowStripe": '' } ); oSettings.aiDisplayMaster.push( iThisIndex ); aLocalData = oSettings.aoData[iThisIndex]._aData; nTds = nTrs[i].childNodes; jInner = 0; for ( j=0, jLen=nTds.length ; j<jLen ; j++ ) { if ( nTds[j].nodeName == "TD" ) { aLocalData[jInner] = nTds[j].innerHTML; // jquery.dataTables.js:2220 jInner++; } } } }

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  • C# How to commit a TextBox?

    - by Jake
    Hi, In a form, I have a TextBox Binding an Object on its member property "Title". Along with it is a "Save" button to test the binding. Seems like the underlying object property does not get updated unless the textbox loses focus. But there no form.ActiveControl.Blur() for use. Besides, this does not seem like a sound hack. Anyway to do this better? Thanks. EDIT: Sorry for not being clear. My question is in the title: "How to commit a TextBox". I use the term "commit" from the DataGridView commit and BindingSource commit. And it's in WinForms. (Have never worked with WPF, so it didn't occur to me. Sorry). The actual scenario I have is I have a bunch of TextBox binded to property of a single Object. The user enters values in all the TextBox and when the user clicks save (toolbar button), the last TextBox is still in focus (or in editing mode) hence the save will not capture the last value in the last textbox. I want to find the correct way to "commit" the textbox value just before saving. Thanks.

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  • error detection/correction/recovery in serial protocols

    - by Jason S
    I have some designing to do for a serial protocol and am running into some questions that I figure must have been considered elsewhere. So I'm wondering if there are some recommendations for best practices in designing serial protocols. (Please either state a fact that is easily verifiable, or cite a reputable source if you make a claim.) General recommendations for websites/books are also welcome. In particular I have to deal with issues like parsing a stream of bytes into packets verifying a packet is correct (easy with a CRC, for instance) identifying reasonable types of errors that can occur (e.g. in a point-to-point serial stream, sporadic single bit errors, and dropped series of bytes, are both likely, but extra phantom bytes are unlikely; whereas with a record stored in flash memory or on a disk drive the types of errors that predominate are different) error correction or recovery (if I detect an error in a packet, can I correct it? If not, can I resync to the boundary of the next packet?) how to make variable-length packets robust to error correction / recovery. Any suggestions?

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  • Translating Where() to sql

    - by MBoros
    Hi. I saw DamienG's article (http://damieng.com/blog/2009/06/24/client-side-properties-and-any-remote-linq-provider) in how to map client properties to sql. i ran throgh this article, and i saw great potential in it. Definitely mapping client properties to SQL is an awesome idea. But i wanted to use this for something a bit more complicated then just concatenating strings. Atm we are trying to introduce multilinguality to our Business objects, and i hoped we could leave all the existing linq2sql queries intact, and just change the code of the multilingual properties, so they would actually return the given property in the CurrentUICulture. The first idea was to change these fields to XMLs, and then try the Object.Property.Elements().Where(...), but it got stuck on the Elements(), as it couldnt translate it to sql. I read somewhere that XML fields are actually regarded as strings, and only on the app server they become XElements, so this way the filtering would be on the app server anyways, not the DB. Fair point, it wont work like this. Lets try something else... SO the second idea was to create a PolyGlots table (name taken from http://weblogic.sys-con.com/node/102698?page=0,1), a PolyGlotTranslations table and a Culture table, where the PolyGlots would be referenced from each internationalized property. This way i wanted to say for example: private static readonly CompiledExpression<Announcement, string> nameExpression = DefaultTranslationOf<Announcement> .Property(e => e.Name) .Is(e=> e.NamePolyGlot.PolyGlotTranslations .Where(t=> t.Culture.Code == Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture.Name) .Single().Value ); now unfortunately here i get an error that the Where() function cannot be translated to sql, what is a bit disappointing, as i was sure it will go through. I guess it is failing, cause the IEntitySet is basically an IEnumerable, not IQueryable, am i right? Is there another way to use the compiledExpressions class to achieve this goal? Any help appreciated.

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  • How do you map a DateTime property to 2 varchar columns in the database with NHibernate (Fluent)?

    - by gabe
    I'm dealing with a legacy database that has date and time fields as char(8) columns (formatted yyyyMMdd and HH:mm:ss, respectively) in some of the tables. How can i map the 2 char columns to a single .NET DateTime property? I have tried the following, but i get a "can't access setter" error of course because DateTime Date and TimeOfDay properties are read-only: public class SweetPocoMannaFromHeaven { public virtual DateTime? FileCreationDateTime { get; set; } } . mapping.Component<DateTime?>(x => x.FileCreationDateTime, dt => { dt.Map(x => x.Value.Date, "file_creation_date"); dt.Map(x => x.Value.TimeOfDay, "file_creation_time"); }); I have also tried defining a IUserType for DateTime, but i can't figure it out. I've done a ton of googling for an answer, but i can't figure it out still. What is my best option to handle this stupid legacy database convention? A code example would be helpful since there's not much out for documentation on some of these more obscure scenarios.

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  • Aggregate Pattern and Performance Issues

    - by Mosh
    Hello, I have read about the Aggregate Pattern but I'm confused about something here. The pattern states that all the objects belonging to the aggregate should be accessed via the Aggregate Root, and not directly. And I'm assuming that is the reason why they say you should have a single Repository per Aggregate. But I think this adds a noticeable overhead to the application. For example, in a typical Web-based application, what if I want to get an object belonging to an aggregate (which is NOT the aggregate root)? I'll have to call Repository.GetAggregateRootObject(), which loads the aggregate root and all its child objects, and then iterate through the child objects to find the one I'm looking for. In other words, I'm loading lots of data and throwing them out except the particular object I'm looking for. Is there something I'm missing here? PS: I know some of you may suggest that we can improve performance with Lazy Loading. But that's not what I'm asking here... The aggregate pattern requires that all objects belonging to the aggregate be loaded together, so we can enforce business rules.

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  • PHP: Aggregate Model Classes or Uber Model Classes?

    - by sunwukung
    In many of the discussions regarding the M in MVC, (sidestepping ORM controversies for a moment), I commonly see Model classes described as object representations of table data (be that an Active Record, Table Gateway, Row Gateway or Domain Model/Mapper). Martin Fowler warns against the development of an anemic domain model, i.e. a class that is nothing more than a wrapper for CRUD functionality. I've been working on an MVC application for a couple of months now. The DBAL in the application I'm working on started out simple (on account of my understanding - oh the benefits of hindsight), and is organised so that Controllers invoke Business Logic classes, that in turn access the database via DAO/Transaction Scripts pertinent to the task at hand. There are a few "Entity" classes that aggregate these DAO objects to provide a convenient CRUD wrapper, but also embody some of the "behaviour" of that Domain concept (for example, a user - since it's easy to isolate). Taking a look at some of the code, and thinking along refactoring some of the code into a Rich Domain Model, it occurred to me that were I to try and wrap the CRUD routines and behaviour of say, a Company into a single "Model" class, that would be a sizeable class. So, my question is this: do Models represent domain objects, business logic, service layers, all of the above combined? How do you go about defining the responsibilities for these components?

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  • SIGABRT on any UIView touch

    - by bitcruncher
    Hi. I'm afraid no amount of Googling has been able to save my hyde on this. I seem to be getting SIGABRT error anytime I touch the screen of the phone, on any UIView. The debugger console posts this error before the SIGABRT: .... [310:207] *** -[UIView _exclusiveTouchView]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x14c0c0 .... [310:207] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[UIView _exclusiveTouchView]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x14c0c0' (this is not my specific call to _exclusiveTouchView, of course.) I would gladly post some code, but the truth is I cannot find (or guess) where this problem may be coming from. This is not happening on any ONE UIView but on all the UIViews in my stack. I can summarize the display logic, though, perhaps that will shed some light. So the application is created and a UIWindow is alloc'd. A single viewcontroller is then alloc'd, which makes and adds its own blank self.view, to which the other UIViews, representing the different game states, are attached. Interestingly enough, this error is does NOT happen on the Simulator, but happens consistently on the device. And I should also mention that the application has yet to override/use any of the touchesBegan:/Ended:/Moved: etc... In other words, this error happens without these methods in the code. I'm really not understanding where this error is coming from... Any suggestions?

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