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  • Silverlight - use a ScrollViewer in a TextBox template

    - by vladhorby
    I'm trying to make a TextBox template and I need to include a ScrollViewer in the template - basically I want to add some content (like line numbers) that needs to scroll along with the normal text. The default template for the TextBox is like this: <Border x:Name="Border" BorderBrush="{TemplateBinding BorderBrush}" BorderThickness="{TemplateBinding BorderThickness}" Background="{TemplateBinding Background}" CornerRadius="1" Opacity="1"> <Grid> <Border x:Name="ReadOnlyVisualElement" Background="#5EC9C9C9" Opacity="0"/> <Border x:Name="MouseOverBorder" BorderBrush="Transparent" BorderThickness="1"> <ScrollViewer x:Name="ContentElement" BorderThickness="0" IsTabStop="False" Padding="{TemplateBinding Padding}"/> </Border> </Grid> </Border> If I change the ContentElement from ScrollViewer to Border, for example, the TextBox behaves normally - i just lose the scrolling ability. Now, if I wrap the ContentElement with a ScrollViewer, it no longer displays the caret and selection - if you type, it still gets updated though. <Border x:Name="Border" BorderBrush="{TemplateBinding BorderBrush}" BorderThickness="{TemplateBinding BorderThickness}" Background="{TemplateBinding Background}" CornerRadius="1" Opacity="1"> <Grid> <Border x:Name="ReadOnlyVisualElement" Background="#5EC9C9C9" Opacity="0"/> <Border x:Name="MouseOverBorder" BorderBrush="Transparent" BorderThickness="1"> <ScrollViewer ScrollViewer.HorizontalScrollBarVisibility="Auto" ScrollViewer.VerticalScrollBarVisibility="Auto" > <Border x:Name="ContentElement" BorderThickness="0" Padding="{TemplateBinding Padding}" /> </ScrollViewer> </Border> </Grid> </Border> Any idea why this happens and how can I fix it?

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  • Roadmap to Android development

    - by Matthew
    Hello, I've done a little research, and am interested in developing for Android. I've never programmed before, and have no idea how to go from zero experience to developing for a mobile device. My interest is in eventually making some sort of 2d game. Is there a lesson plan for starting from the ground up? I would think one would need to learn the Java language to start. Looking at the Sun website, it's a bit daunting. Is there a book, specifically, that would wrap up this knowledge in a bit of a directed lesson plan? I'm not sure if opengl-es is what would be required for 2d games. I've done a little research on this, and it's even far more daunting than Java itself. I can't even begin to figure out where to start with even just opengl, sans -es. My best guess would be that I need further knowledge in Java to continue with this, but even still, is it possible to learn concurrently with Java?

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  • LGPL and Dual Licensing Ajax Library

    - by Thomas Hansen
    Hi guys, I'm the previous founder of Gaiaware and Gaia Ajax Widgets and when I used to work there we had this rhetoric (which I have confirmed with some very smart FOSS people is correct) that when using a GPL Ajax library you're basically "distributing" the JavaScript which in turn makes the GPL viral clause kick in and forces people to purchase a proprietary license if they're going to build Closed Source stuff... So now I'm the the LGPL world here with Ra-Ajax which is an LGPL licensed library and I've got no intentions of creating a GPL licensed library since I believe strongly in that the LGPL is the "enabler" of the Open Web to prevail. But something interesting have happened which I think might still give me a "business model" here which is the Linking clause of the LGPL which I think goes something like this (pseudo); "If you link to an LGPL licensed thing you get no restrictions on your own derived works"... But so we started creating something we're calling Ajax Starter-Kits which effectively is a "Project Kickstarter" where you can download a finished project/solution which basically enables you to start out with some pre-done boiler plate code for problems such as Ajax DataGrids, Ajax Calendar Applications, Ajax TreeView Applications etc. And the funny thing is that our users would NOT "link" to these, they would effectively BE our users applications... So to wrap up my question. Would this force users of our LGPL licensed Ajax Starter-Kits to LGPL license their own work? Basically if it does we have a business model (and I get very happy) if not I'd just have to hope people would still like to pay us those $29 for our Starter-Kits to support the project... ;) Help rewarded with extreme gratitude...

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  • Integrate Google Maps API into an iPhone app

    - by Corey Floyd
    Update: iPhone SDk 3.0 now addresses the question here, however the NDA prevents any in depth discussion. Log in to the iPhone Dev Center if you need more info. Ok, I have to admit I'm a little lost here. I am fairly comfortable with Cocoa, but am having trouble picking up the bit of javascript needed to solve this problem. I am trying to send a request to Google for a reverse geo code. I have looked over the Google documentation I have viewed here: http://code.google.com/apis/maps/documentation/index.html http://code.google.com/apis/maps/documentation/geocoding/ Even after a rough reading, I am missing a basic concept: How do I talk to google? In some examples, they show a url being sent to google (which seems easy enough), but in others they show javascript. It seems for reverse geocoding, the request might be be harder than sending the url with some parameters (but I hope I am wrong). Can someone point me to the correct way to make a request? (In objective-C, so I can wrap my head around it)

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  • Use XMPP instead of HTTP

    - by pavel
    Hey guys. My friend and I, we are working on iPhone application. This application uses XMPP protocol to provide chat functionality. Right now we are designing architecture for the application. So my friend is working on iPhone side, and I am ruby on rails guy. My friend suggested, that we wrap every call, that is usually served via HTTP into XMPP. So, user registration, users search, profile editing, photo uploading, everything goes via XMPP. No HTTP at all. My friend wants to use XMPP, because he says, that it's much easier to implement XMPP on client-side rather HTTP. As for me, this is bullshit, but we've got a product owner, who have been working with my friend for a long time and he trusts him. So what I'm trying to do is to convince my friend and product owner that using XMPP for what HTTP can work find — is totally not the best idea. I feel, that if we implement everything on XMPP, we will have a pain in an ass till the end of lives. But how do I prove it? P.S. I'm not against chat over XMPP, I am against users search, photo uploading, rankings, nearby search and various other restful requests. Please, leave response. Any help appreciated. A little update: Yesterday we had a long discussion. And it turns out, it's quiete hard to receive response from both XMPP and HTTP in Objective-C. Because every single object and its data should be stored in Core Data model, while this model can't be securely modified from various places. Say, if you use HTTP transport, you always want to use only HTTP transport to update data in your model. And if you use XMPP, you should always use XMPP. So, you can't use both. That's what my iPhone buddy told me. It sounds weird for me, can anyone explain me that?

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  • WPF - Setting usercontrol width using triggers and mouseenter event

    - by BigBadJock
    I have a wrap panel full of usercontrols. When I hover the mouse over a usercontrol I want it to expand to show more details. Some stripped down sample code: <UserControl x:Class="WPFTestBed.UserControl1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Height="300" Width="300"> <UserControl.Resources> </UserControl.Resources> <UserControl.Triggers> <EventTrigger RoutedEvent="Mouse.MouseEnter"> <EventTrigger.Actions> <Setter TargetName="WPFTestBed.UserControl1" Property="Control.Width" Value="200"/> </EventTrigger.Actions> </EventTrigger> </UserControl.Triggers> <Grid Height="95" Width="123"> <Button Height="23" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="17,30,0,0" Name="button1" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="75">Button</Button> </Grid> </UserControl> I would appreciate it if someone could point out where I'm going wrong, and set me down the correct path. Ideally, I want the usercontrol to delay for x seconds when there is a mouseover, before expanding and showing the extra details.

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  • IE7 CSS bug aligning <img> with text in a <ul>

    - by Artem Russakovskii
    I've been banging my ahead on this IE7 bug for the last few days and it's time to resort to the mind of the crowd. I have the following HTML and CSS: http://beerpla.net/for_www/ie7_test/test.html The goal is to have a <ul>, with each <li> containing a small icon and some text. Multiline text would be aligned to itself and not wrap under the image. I've tried using float:left on the image and a bunch of other things, and finally I thought the position:absolute would work for sure but in IE7 I consistently see the text pop off to the next line and get misaligned with the image: This is what I expect it to look like: I even tried to make the div display:inline which kind of worked but then started wrapping under the image for long lines, so it was no good. zoom:1 also produced a similar effect. I'm at a loss at the moment. This code works fine in all other browsers. IE7 is a special, very special child. Any ideas? Thank you. Edit: If you have IE8, you can emulate IE7 by pressing F12 and then Alt-7.

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  • WPF Update Binding when Bound directly to DataContext w/ Converter

    - by Adam
    Normally when you want a databound control to 'update,' you use the "PropertyChanged" event to signal to the interface that the data has changed behind the scenes. For instance, you could have a textblock that is bound to the datacontext with a property "DisplayText" <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=DisplayText}"/> From here, if the DataContext raises the PropertyChanged event with PropertyName "DisplayText," then this textblock's text should update (assuming you didn't change the Mode of the binding). However, I have a more complicated binding that uses many properties off of the datacontext to determine the final look and feel of the control. To accomplish this, I bind directly to the datacontext and use a converter. In this case I am working with an image source. <Image Source="{Binding Converter={StaticResource ImageConverter}}"/> As you can see, I use a {Binding} with no path to bind directly to the datacontext, and I use an ImageConverter to select the image I'm looking for. But now I have no way (that I know of) to tell that binding to update. I tried raising the propertychanged event with "." as the propertyname, which did not work. Is this possible? Do I have to wrap up the converting logic into a property that the binding can attach to, or is there a way to tell the binding to refresh (without explicitly refreshing the binding)? Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks! -Adam

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  • jQuery AJAX Character Encoding Problem

    - by Salty
    Hi everyone, I'm currently coding a French website. There's a schedule page, where a link on the side can be used to load another day's schedule. http://aquate.us/film/horaire.html (At the moment, only the links for November 13th and November 14th work) Here's the JS I'm using to do this: <script type="text/javascript"> function load(y) { $.get(y,function(d) { $("#replace").html(d); mod(); }); } function mod() { $("#dates a").click(function() { y = $(this).attr("href"); load(y); return false; }); } mod(); </script> The actual AJAX works like a charm. My problem lies with the response to the request. Because it is a French website, there are many accented letters. I'm using the ISO-8859-15 charset for that very reason. However, in the response to my AJAX request, the accents are becoming ?'s because the character encoding seems to be changed back to UTF-8. How do I avoid this? I've already tried adding some PHP at the top of the requested documents to set the character set: <?php header('Content-Type: text/html; charset=ISO-8859-15'); ?> But that doesn't seem to work either. Any thoughts? Also, while any of you are looking here...why does the rightmost column seem to become smaller when a new page is loaded, causing the table to distort and each <li> within the <td> to wrap to the next line? Cheers

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  • Mimic CALayer shadow properties found in iPhone OS 3.2 for OS 3.1

    - by niblha
    The CALayer shadow properties like shadowOffset, shadowRadius, shadowColor are not available in iPhone OS versions below 3.2 and I'm wondering how I could mimic that functionality for use with 3.1 and below. I want to use this to be able to add drop shadows to UIViews in a clean way so that the shadows are drawn at layer level somehow, and not by drawing it in a view's -(void)drawRect:(CGRect)rect method which requires to shrink the actual views frame to accomodate for the shadow. (This shrinking approach have been proposed in the other UIView drop shadow related questions I found here on SO). I was thinking a layered approach would be cleaner. For example I tried creating subclassing CALayer to which I added a separate shadow layer as a sublayer, but then that would be drawn on top of whatever was draw in the drawRect: method of the UIView that had the main layer as backing layer. I've also tried implementing the subclass CALayer's drawInContext: something like this, - (void)drawInContext:(CGContextRef)ctx { // code to draw shadow for a frame the size of the layer's frame [super drawInContext:ctx]; } But then the shadow is still clipped to the current clipping bounding box of the context, which seems to be the layers own frame. I also had some idea of redirecting the drawing of the main layer to a sublayer, which would be placed above another sublayer which had the shadow drawn onto it. Then I would probably get rid of the clipping and the shadow would be farthest away. But I couldn't really wrap my head around how I would do that, and it doesn't really feel like a clean approach. Any ideas on how to go about this? Just to make clear how my UIView drop shadow related question is different from the other ones I found here on SO; I do not want to shrink the actual drawing frame of a UIView to accomodate for a shadow. I want it to somehow be on a separate layer in the background, whithout beeing clipped.

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  • Automatic linebreak in WPF label

    - by Vlad
    Dear all, is it possible for a WPF Label to split itself automatically into several lines? In my following example, the text is cropped at the right. <Window x:Class="..." xmlns="..." xmlns:x="..." Height="300" Width="300"> <Grid> <Label> `_Twas brillig, and the slithy toves did gyre and gimble in the wabe: all mimsy were the borogoves, and the mome raths outgrabe.</Label> </Grid> </Window> Am I doing something wrong? Taking other controls is unfortunately not a good option, since I need support of access keys. Replacing the Label with a TextBlock (having TextWrapping="Wrap"), and adjusting its control template to recognize access keys would be perhaps a solution, but isn't it an overkill? Edit: having a non-standard style for label will break skinning, so I would like to avoid it if possible.

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  • Hooking into comment_text() to add surrounding tag

    - by Stefan Glase
    Trying to hook into the function comment_text() supplied by Wordpress API to wrap the output of every comment into a <div>...</div> container I am running into the following problem: Without my added filter the output of comment_text() looks like this: <p>Hello User!</p> <p>Thank you for your comment.</p> <p>Stefan</p> Thats fine but as I said I would like to have it wrapped into a <div class="comment-text">...</div>. As far as I know the correct way doing this would be in adding a filter to functions.php of my theme and so I did: function stefan_wrap_comment_text($content) { return "<div class=\"comment-text\">". $content ."</div>"; } add_filter('comment_text', 'stefan_wrap_comment_text'); As I can see from the output the given filter works but it has a negative sideeffect to the first paragraph of the content as you can see in the following example. The first paragraph should be <p>Hello User!</p> but looks like this: Hello User!. <div class="comment-text"> Hello User! <p>Thank you for your comment.</p> <p>Stefan</p> </div> Any ideas or hints what I am doing wrong?

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  • Why is "Fixup" needed for Persistence Ignorant POCO's in EF 4?

    - by Eric J.
    One of the much-anticipated features of Entity Framework 4 is the ability to use POCO (Plain Old CLR Objects) in a Persistence Ignorant manner (i.e. they don't "know" that they are being persisted with Entity Framework vs. some other mechanism). I'm trying to wrap my head around why it's necessary to perform association fixups and use FixupCollection in my "plain" business object. That requirement seems to imply that the business object can't be completely ignorant of the persistence mechanism after all (in fact the word "fixup" sounds like something needs to be fixed/altered to work with the chosen persistence mechanism). Specifically I'm referring to the Association Fixup region that's generated by the ADO.NET POCO Entity Generator, e.g.: #region Association Fixup private void FixupImportFile(ImportFile previousValue) { if (previousValue != null && previousValue.Participants.Contains(this)) { previousValue.Participants.Remove(this); } if (ImportFile != null) { if (!ImportFile.Participants.Contains(this)) { ImportFile.Participants.Add(this); } if (ImportFileId != ImportFile.Id) { ImportFileId = ImportFile.Id; } } } #endregion as well as the use of FixupCollection. Other common persistence-ignorant ORMs don't have similar restrictions. Is this due to fundamental design decisions in EF? Is some level of non-ignorance here to stay even in later versions of EF? Is there a clever way to hide this persistence dependency from the POCO developer? How does this work out in practice, end-to-end? For example, I understand support was only recently added for ObservableCollection (which is needed for Silverlight and WPF). Are there gotchas in other software layers from the design requirements of EF-compatible POCO objects?

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  • Custom IIdentity and passing data from an attribute to a controller

    - by DM
    Here's my scenario: I've successfully created a custom IIdentity that I pass to a GenericPrincipal. When I access that IIdentity in my controller I have to cast the IIdentity in order to use the custom properties. example: public ActionResult Test() { MyCustomIdentity identity = (MyCustomIdentity)User.Identity; int userID = identity.UserID; ...etc... } Since I need to do this casting for nearly every action I would like to wrap this functionality in an ActionFilterAttribute. I can't do it in the controller's constructor because the context isn't initialized yet. My thought would be to have the ActionFilterAttribute populate a private property on the controller that I can use in each action method. example: public class TestController : Controller { private MyCustomIdentity identity; [CastCustomIdentity] public ActionResult() { int userID = identity.UserID; ...etc... } } Question: Is this possible and how? Is there a better solution? I've racked my brain trying to figure out how to pass public properties that are populated in an attribute to the controller and I can't get it.

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  • Searching for flexible way to specify conenction string used by APS.NET membership

    - by bzamfir
    Hi, I develop an asp.net web application and I use ASP.NET membership provider. The application uses the membership schema and all required objects inside main application database However, during development I have to switch to various databases, for different development and testing scenarios. For this I have an external connection strings section file and also an external appsettings section, which allow me to not change main web.config but switch the db easily, by changing setting only in appsettings section. My files are as below: <connectionStrings configSource="connections.config"> </connectionStrings> <appSettings file="local.config"> .... ConnectionStrings looks as usual: <connectionStrings> <add name="MyDB1" connectionString="..." ... /> <add name="MyDB2" connectionString="..." ... /> .... </connectionStrings> And local.config as below <appSettings> <add key="ConnectionString" value="MyDB2" /> My code takes into account to use this connection string But membership settings in web.config contains the connection string name directly into the setting, like <add name="MembershipProvider" connectionStringName="MyDB2" ...> .... <add name="RoleProvider" connectionStringName="MyDB2" ...> Because of this, every time I have to edit them too to use the new db. Is there any way to config membership provider to use an appsetting to select db connection for membership db? Or to "redirect" it to read connection setting from somewhere else? Or at least to have this in some external file (like local.config) Maybe is some easy way to wrap asp.net membership provider intio my own provider which will just read connection string from where I want and pass it to original membership provider, and then just delegate the whole membership functionality to asp.net membership provider. Thanks.

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  • bottom align text in div with floated H1?

    - by Cliff
    I have a block of text, and inside the block I have an h1 tag floated left. I would like the first line of text to align with the bottom of the first line of text. Here is the sample site: http://myhealthsense.abyteshosting.com/ The block in question is the block under the header that says "Welcome! I am a..." I want the 'Welcome!' to have it's bottom aligned with the rest of the sentence, and for the next line to wrap under the 'Welcome!'. As it is now, there are two lines wrapped to the right of 'Welcome!'. Of course I could do this easily if all the text was together in a line, and I could use spans to set the sizes. But, since this is all generated out of drupal, the content comes as it is. In other words, the text in the block comes from the database, and is generated in a div, but the 'welcome!' has to be in the template. If I put it in the content div, my user will mess it up every time they edit the content. Any hints are appreciated.

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  • Informix, NHibernate, TransactionScope interaction difficulties

    - by John Prideaux
    I have a small program that is trying to wrap an NHibernate insert into an Informix database in a TransactionScope object using the Informix .NET Provider. I am getting the error specified below. The code without the TransactionScope object works -- including when the insert is wrapped in an NHibernate session transaction. Any ideas on what the problem is? BTW, without the EnterpriseServicesInterop, the Informix .NET Provider will not participate in a TransactionScope transaction (verified without NHibernate involved). Code Snippet: public static void TestTScope() { Employee johnp = new Employee { name = "John Prideaux" }; using (TransactionScope tscope = new TransactionScope( TransactionScopeOption.Required, new TransactionOptions() { Timeout = new TimeSpan(0, 1, 0), IsolationLevel = IsolationLevel.ReadCommitted }, EnterpriseServicesInteropOption.Full)) { using (ISession session = OpenSession()) { session.Save(johnp); Console.WriteLine("Saved John to the database"); } } Console.WriteLine("Transaction should be rolled back"); } static ISession OpenSession() { if (factory == null) { Configuration c = new Configuration(); c.AddAssembly(Assembly.GetCallingAssembly()); factory = c.BuildSessionFactory(); } return factory.OpenSession(); } static ISessionFactory factory; Stack Trace: NHibernate.ADOException was unhandled Message="Could not close IBM.Data.Informix.IfxConnection connection" Source="NHibernate" StackTrace: at NHibernate.Connection.ConnectionProvider.CloseConnection(IDbConnection conn) at NHibernate.Connection.DriverConnectionProvider.CloseConnection(IDbConnection conn) at NHibernate.Tool.hbm2ddl.SuppliedConnectionProviderConnectionHelper.Release() at NHibernate.Tool.hbm2ddl.SchemaMetadataUpdater.GetReservedWords(Dialect dialect, IConnectionHelper connectionHelper) at NHibernate.Tool.hbm2ddl.SchemaMetadataUpdater.Update(ISessionFactory sessionFactory) at NHibernate.Impl.SessionFactoryImpl..ctor(Configuration cfg, IMapping mapping, Settings settings, EventListeners listeners) at NHibernate.Cfg.Configuration.BuildSessionFactory() at HelloNHibernate.Employee.OpenSession() in D:\Development\ScratchProject\HelloNHibernate\Employee.cs:line 73 at HelloNHibernate.Employee.TestTScope() in D:\Development\ScratchProject\HelloNHibernate\Employee.cs:line 53 at HelloNHibernate.Program.Main(String[] args) in D:\Development\ScratchProject\HelloNHibernate\Program.cs:line 19 at System.AppDomain._nExecuteAssembly(Assembly assembly, String[] args) at System.AppDomain.ExecuteAssembly(String assemblyFile, Evidence assemblySecurity, String[] args) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.HostingProcess.HostProc.RunUsersAssembly() at System.Threading.ThreadHelper.ThreadStart_Context(Object state) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Threading.ThreadHelper.ThreadStart() InnerException: IBM.Data.Informix.IfxException Message="ERROR - no error information available" Source="IBM.Data.Informix" ErrorCode=-2147467259 StackTrace: at IBM.Data.Informix.IfxConnection.HandleError(IntPtr hHandle, SQL_HANDLE hType, RETCODE retcode) at IBM.Data.Informix.IfxConnection.DisposeClose() at IBM.Data.Informix.IfxConnection.Close() at NHibernate.Connection.ConnectionProvider.CloseConnection(IDbConnection conn) InnerException:

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  • Dynamicly set TextBlock's text binding

    - by Mitchell Skurnik
    I am attempting to write a multilingual application in Silverlight 4.0 and I at the point where I can start replacing my static text with dynamic text from a SampleData xaml file. Here is what I have: My Database <SampleData:something xmlns:SampleData="clr-namespace:Expression.Blend.SampleData.MyDatabase" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation"> <SampleData:something.mysystemCollection> <SampleData:mysystem ID="1" English="Menu" German="Menü" French="Menu" Spanish="Menú" Swedish="Meny" Italian="Menu" Dutch="Menu" /> </SampleData:something.mysystemCollection> </SampleData:something> My UserControl <UserControl xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" mc:Ignorable="d" x:Class="Something.MyUC" d:DesignWidth="1000" d:DesignHeight="600"> <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot" DataContext="{Binding Source={StaticResource MyDatabase}}"> <Grid Height="50" Margin="8,20,8,0" VerticalAlignment="Top" d:DataContext="{Binding mysystemCollection[1]}" x:Name="gTitle"> <TextBlock x:Name="Title" Text="{Binding English}" TextWrapping="Wrap" Foreground="#FF00A33D" TextAlignment="Center" FontSize="22"/> </Grid> </Grid> </UserControl> As you can see, I have 7 languages that I want to deal with. Right now this loads the English version of my text just fine. I have spent the better part of today trying to figure out how to change the binding in my code to swap this out when I needed (lets say when I change the language via drop down). Any help would be great!

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  • jQuery .load() XHTML issue

    - by Urfe
    I am having some strange problems loading content from another XHTML page via jQuery. When the second page I try to load from is served as XHTML I get the below error. I don't know if it helps but both documents validate when I get the error. Uncaught Error: NO_MODIFICATION_ALLOWED_ERR: DOM Exception 7 Currently the header on the second page I load from is: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="iso-8859-1" ?> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.1//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml11/DTD/xhtml11.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=iso-8859-1" /> <meta name="language" content="en" /> <title>some title</title> <!-- CSS & Javascript included here --> </head> The content type is set as: application/xhtml+xml;charset=iso-8859-1 Interestingly, when I remove all the XHTML stuff from the header and stop setting the content type the error does not occur and everything works great. The load process currently looks like the below. It works fine when everything is plain HTML. $('#overpage').find(".wrap").load(this.getTrigger().attr("href")+" #op").show(); I'm curious why the process only does not work when the second page I load from is XHTML. I don't want to serve the page as just plain HTML and am looking for advice on what I am doing wrong. Both pages validate and I'm really scratching my head here. Many thanks!

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  • System.AccessViolationException: Attempted to read or write protected memory.

    - by Ananth
    I get the following exception when I try to "find and replace" in a word 2007 working on Windows Vista , Windows 7. System.AccessViolationException: Attempted to read or write protected memory. This is often an indication that other memory is corrupt. at Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word.Find.Execute(Object& FindText, Object& MatchCase, Object& MatchWholeWord, Object& MatchWildcards, Object& MatchSoundsLike, Object& MatchAllWordForms, Object& Forward, Object& Wrap, Object& Format, Object& ReplaceWith, Object& Replace, Object& MatchKashida, Object& MatchDiacritics, Object& MatchAlefHamza, Object& MatchControl) Is there any solution for this ? Iam using .net3.5 C#.

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  • Need assistance with Kohana 3 and catch all route turning into a 404 error

    - by alex
    Based on this documentation, I've implemented a catch all route which routes to an error page. Here is the last route in my bootstrap.php Route::set('default', '<path>', array('path' => '.+')) ->defaults(array( 'controller' => 'errors', 'action' => '404', )); However I keep getting this exception thrown when I try and go to a non existent page Kohana_Exception [ 0 ]: Required route parameter not passed: path If I make the <path> segment optional (i.e. wrap it in parenthesis) then it just seems to load the home route, which is... Route::set('home', '') ->defaults(array( 'controller' => 'home', 'action' => 'index', )); The home route is defined first. I execute my main request like so $request = Request::instance(); try { // Attempt to execute the response $request->execute(); } catch (Exception $e) { if (Kohana::$environment === Kohana::DEVELOPMENT) throw $e; // Log the error Kohana::$log->add(Kohana::ERROR, Kohana::exception_text($e)); // Create a 404 response $request->status = 404; $request->response = Request::factory(Route::get('default')->uri())->execute(); } $request->send_headers(); echo $request->response; This means that the 404 header is sent to the browser, but I assumed by sending the request to the capture all route then it should show the 404 error set up in my errors controller. <?php defined('SYSPATH') or die('No direct script access.'); class Controller_Errors extends Controller_Base { public function before() { parent::before(); } public function action_404() { $this->bodyClass[] = '404'; $this->internalView = View::factory('internal/not_found'); $longTitle = 'Page Not Found'; $this->titlePrefix = $longTitle; } } Why won't it show my 404 error page?

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  • a scala remote actor exception

    - by kula
    hi all i with a scala code like this for echo service. import scala.actors.Actor import scala.actors.Actor._ import scala.actors.remote.RemoteActor._ class Echo extends Actor { def act() { alive(9010) register('myName, self) loop { react { case msg = println(msg) } } } } object EchoServer { def main(args: Array[String]): unit = { val echo = new Echo echo.start println("Echo server started") } } EchoServer.main(null) but there has some exception. java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: Main$$anon$1$Echo$$anonfun$act$1 at Main$$anon$1$Echo.act((virtual file):16) at scala.actors.Reaction.run(Reaction.scala:76) at scala.actors.Actor$$anonfun$start$1.apply(Actor.scala:785) at scala.actors.Actor$$anonfun$start$1.apply(Actor.scala:783) at scala.actors.FJTaskScheduler2$$anon$1.run(FJTaskScheduler2.scala:160) at scala.actors.FJTask$Wrap.run(Unknown Source) at scala.actors.FJTaskRunner.scanWhileIdling(Unknown Source) at scala.actors.FJTaskRunner.run(Unknown Source) Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: Main$$anon$1$Echo$$anonfun$act$1 at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:200) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(URLClassLoader.java:188) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:307) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:252) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClassInternal(ClassLoader.java:320) ... 8 more i don't konw how can cause it. by the way .my scala version is 2.7.5

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  • Using Java Executor on AppEngine causes AccessControlException

    - by Drew
    How do you get java.util.concurrent.Executor or CompletionService to work on Google AppEngine? The classes are all officially white-listed, but I get a runtime security error when trying to submit asynchronous tasks. Code: // uses the async API but this factory makes it so that tasks really // happen sequentially Executor executor = java.util.concurrent.Executors.newSingleThreadExecutor(); // wrap Executor in CompletionService CompletionService<String> completionService = new ExecutorCompletionService<String>(executor); final SomeTask someTask = new SomeTask(); // this line throws exception completionService.submit(new Callable<String>(){ public String call() { return someTask.doNothing("blah"); } }); // alternately, send Runnable task directly to Executor, // which also throws an exception executor.execute(new Runnable(){ public void run() { someTask.doNothing("blah"); } }); } private class SomeTask{ public String doNothing(String message){ return message; } } Exception: java.security.AccessControlException: access denied (java.lang.RuntimePermission modifyThreadGroup) at java.security.AccessControlContext.checkPermission(AccessControlContext.java:323) at java.security.AccessController.checkPermission(AccessController.java:546) at java.lang.SecurityManager.checkPermission(SecurityManager.java:532) at com.google.appengine.tools.development.DevAppServerFactory$CustomSecurityManager.checkPermission(DevAppServerFactory.java:166) at com.google.appengine.tools.development.DevAppServerFactory$CustomSecurityManager.checkAccess(DevAppServerFactory.java:191) at java.lang.ThreadGroup.checkAccess(ThreadGroup.java:288) at java.lang.Thread.init(Thread.java:332) at java.lang.Thread.(Thread.java:565) at java.util.concurrent.Executors$DefaultThreadFactory.newThread(Executors.java:542) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor.addThread(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:672) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor.addIfUnderCorePoolSize(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:697) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor.execute(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:652) at java.util.concurrent.Executors$DelegatedExecutorService.execute(Executors.java:590) at java.util.concurrent.ExecutorCompletionService.submit(ExecutorCompletionService.java:152) This code works fine when run on Tomcat or via command-line JVM. However, it chokes in the AppEngine SDK Jetty container (tried with Eclipse plugin and the maven-gae-plugin). AppEngine is likely designed to not allow potentially dangerous programs to run, so I could see them completely disabling thread creation. However, why would Google allow you to create a class, but not allow you to call methods on it? White-listing java.util.concurrent is misleading. Is there some other way to do parallel/simultaneous/concurrent tasks on GAE?

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  • C# Communication between threads.

    - by GT
    Hi, I am using .NET 3.5 and am trying to wrap my head around a problem (not being a supreme threading expert bear with me). I have a windows service which has a very intensive process that is always running, I have put this process onto a separate thread so that the main thread of my service can handle operational tasks - i.e., service audit cycles, handling configuration changes, etc, etc. I'm starting the thread via the typical ThreadStart to a method which kicks the process off - call it workerthread. On this workerthread I am sending data to another server, as is expected the server reboots every now and again and connection is lost and I need to re-establish the connection (I am notified by the lost of connection via an event). From here I do my reconnect logic and I am back in and running, however what I easily started to notice to happen was that I was creating this worker thread over and over again each time (not what I want). Now I could kill the workerthread when I lose the connection and start a new one but this seems like a waste of resources. What I really want to do, is marshal the call (i.e., my thread start method) back to the thread that is still in memory although not doing anything. Please post any examples or docs you have that would be of use. Thanks.

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  • Jquery Form ajaxSubmit not submitting

    - by Gazler
    Hi, I am using the JQuery Form extension to submit a form with AJAX. I have the following code: var options = { beforeSubmit: showRequest, // pre-submit callback success: showResponse, // post-submit callback // other available options: //url: url // override for form's 'action' attribute //type: 'post', // 'get' or 'post', override for form's 'method' attribute //dataType: null // 'xml', 'script', or 'json' (expected server response type) clearForm: true, // clear all form fields after successful submit //resetForm: true // reset the form after successful submit // $.ajax options can be used here too, for example: timeout: 3000 }; $('#composeForm').submit(function() { // inside event callbacks 'this' is the DOM element so we first // wrap it in a jQuery object and then invoke ajaxSubmit $(this).find(':disabled').removeAttr('disabled'); $(this).ajaxSubmit(options); // !!! Important !!! // always return false to prevent standard browser submit and page navigation return false; }); The problem is that the form doesn't appear to be submitting, or atleast the success function is not being called. If I remove the return false, then the submission works, but the page navigates away. Is there a problem in my code that could be causing this? Cheers, Gazler.

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