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• transfer database from local machine to hosting server

  - by c11ada

  hey all, im trying to transfer my database from local machine to server, im using the publish to provider wizard in visual web developer to generate a scrip, im then using the generated script on the serever database. i keep getting the following error can some one please tell where im going wrong Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_RemoveUsersFromRoles, Line 53 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_RemoveUsersFromRoles, Line 58 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_RemoveUsersFromRoles, Line 87 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_RemoveUsersFromRoles, Line 92 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_AddUsersToRoles, Line 48 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_AddUsersToRoles, Line 52 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_AddUsersToRoles, Line 79 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_AddUsersToRoles, Line 83 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_AddUsersToRoles, Line 93 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 15151, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Cannot find the object 'aspnet_UsersInRoles_AddUsersToRoles', because it does not exist or you do not have permission. Msg 15151, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Cannot find the object 'aspnet_UsersInRoles_RemoveUsersFromRoles', because it does not exist or you do not have permission. thanks

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• Really simple JSON serialization in .NET

  - by Evgeny

  I have some simple .NET objects I'd like to serialize to JSON and back again. The set of objects to be serialized is quite small and I control the implementation, so I don't need a generic solution that will work for everything. Since my assembly will be distributed as a library I'd really like to avoid a dependency on some third-party DLL: I just want to give users one assembly that they can reference. I've read the other questions I could find on converting to and from JSON in .NET. The recommended solution of JSON.NET does work, of course, but it requires distributing an extra DLL. I don't need any of the fancy features of JSON.NET. I just need to handle a simple object (or even dictionary) that contains strings, integers, DateTimes and arrays of strings and bytes. On deserializing I'm happy to get back a dictionary - it doesn't need to create the object again. Is there some really simple code out there that I could compile into my assembly to do this simple job? I've also tried System.Web.Script.Serialization.JavaScriptSerializer, but where it falls down is the byte array: I want to base64-encode it and even registering a converter doesn't let me easily accomplish that due to the way that API works (it doesn't pass in the name of the field).

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• How can I automatically release resources RAII-style in Perl?

  - by Philip Potter

  Say I have a resource (e.g. a filehandle or network socket) which has to be freed: open my $fh, "<", "filename" or die "Couldn't open filename: $!"; process($fh); close $fh or die "Couldn't close filename: $!"; Suppose that process might die. Then the code block exits early, and $fh doesn't get closed. I could explicitly check for errors: open my $fh, "<", "filename" or die "Couldn't open filename: $!"; eval {process($fh)}; my $saved_error = $@; close $fh or die "Couldn't close filename: $!"; die $saved_error if $saved_error; but this kind of code is notoriously difficult to get right, and only gets more complicated when you add more resources. In C++ I would use RAII to create an object which owns the resource, and whose destructor would free it. That way, I don't have to remember to free the resource, and resource cleanup happens correctly as soon as the RAII object goes out of scope - even if an exception is thrown. Unfortunately in Perl a DESTROY method is unsuitable for this purpose as there are no guarantees for when it will be called. Is there a Perlish way to ensure resources are automatically freed like this even in the presence of exceptions? Or is explicit error checking the only option?

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• Saving HttpResponse/Request to file system

  - by chrisjlong

  Here is my scenario. User fills out this large page which is dynamically created based off DB values. Those values can change. When the user fills out the page and hits submit we want to save a copy of the page as html on the server, this way if the text or wording changes, when they go back to view their posted information, it is historically accurate. So I basically need to do this protected void buttonSave_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //collect information into an object to save it in the db bool result = BusinessLogic.Save(myBusinessObject); if (result) //!!! Here is where I need to save this page as an html file on my servers IFS!!!! else //whatever Response.Redirect("~/SomeOtherPage.aspx"); } Any help is greatly apprciated. Also I CANNOT just request the data from the url because query string parameters are a big no no in this case. The key to pull the database info up (at its highest level) is all in session so I cant just request a url and save it. Thanks!

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• Getting "[Microsoft][ODBC SQL Server Driver][SQL Server]Incorrect syntax near 'Microsoft.'

  - by brohjoe

  Hi Experts, I'm getting an error, "[Microsoft][ODBC SQL Server Driver][SQL Server]Incorrect syntax near 'Microsoft.' Here is the code: Dim conn As ADODB.Connection Dim rst As ADODB.Recordset Dim stSQL As String Public Sub loadData() 'This was set up using Microsoft ActiveX Data Components version 6.0. 'Create ADODB connection object, open connection and construct the connection string object which is the DSN name. Set conn = New ADODB.Connection conn.ConnectionString = "sql_server" conn.Open 'conn.Execute (strSQL) On Error GoTo ErrorHandler 'Open Excel and run query to export data to SQL Server. strSQL = "SELECT * INTO SalesOrders FROM OPENDATASOURCE(Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0;" & _ "Data Source=C:\Workbook.xlsx;" & _ "Extended Properties=Excel 12.0; [Sales Orders])" conn.Execute (strSQL) 'Error handling. ErrorExit: 'Reclaim memory from the cntection objects Set rst = Nothing Set conn = Nothing Exit Sub ErrorHandler: MsgBox Err.Description, vbCritical Resume ErrorExit 'clean up and reclaim memory resources. conn.Close If CBool(cnt.State And adStateOpen) Then Set rst = Nothing Set conn = Nothing End If End Sub

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• GCC/X86, Problems with relative jumps

  - by Ian Kelly

  I'm trying to do a relative jump in x86 assembly, however I can not get it to work. It seems that for some reason my jump keeps getting rewritten as an absolute jump or something. A simple example program for what I'm trying to do is this: .global main main: jmp 0x4 ret Since the jmp instruction is 4 bytes long and a relative jump is offset from the address of the jump + 1, this should be a fancy no-op. However, compiling and running this code will cause a segmentation fault. The real puzzler for me is that compiling it to the object level and then disassembling the object file shows that it looks like the assembler is correctly doing a relative jump, but after the file gets compiled the linker is changing it into another type of jump. For example if the above code was in a file called asmtest.s: $gcc -c asmtest.s $objdump -D asmtest.o ... Some info from objdump 00000000 <main>: 0: e9 00 00 00 00 jmp 5 <main+0x5> 5: c3 ret This looks like the assembler correctly made a relative jump, although it's suspicious that the jmp instruction is filled with 0s. I then used gcc to link it then disassembled it and got this: $gcc -o asmtest asmtest.o $objdump -d asmtest ...Extra info and other disassembled functions 08048394 <main>: 8048394: e9 6b 7c fb f7 jmp 4 <_init-0x8048274> 8048399: c3 ret This to me looks like the linker rewrote the jmp statement, or substituted the 5 in for another address. So my question comes down to, what am I doing wrong? Am I specifying the offset incorrectly? Am I misunderstanding how relative jumps work? Is gcc trying to make sure I don't do dangerous things in my code?

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• How do I apply a "template" or "skeleton" of code in C# here?

  - by Scott Stafford

  In my business layer, I need many, many methods that follow the pattern: public BusinessClass PropertyName { get { if (this.m_LocallyCachedValue == null) { if (this.Record == null) { this.m_LocallyCachedValue = new BusinessClass( this.Database, this.PropertyId); } else { this.m_LocallyCachedValue = new BusinessClass( this.Database, this.Record.ForeignKeyName); } } return this.m_LocallyCachedValue; } } I am still learning C#, and I'm trying to figure out the best way to write this pattern once and add methods to each business layer class that follow this pattern with the proper types and variable names substituted. BusinessClass is a typename that must be substituted, and PropertyName, PropertyId, ForeignKeyName, and m_LocallyCachedValue are all variables that should be substituted for. Are attributes usable here? Do I need reflection? How do I write the skeleton I provided in one place and then just write a line or two containing the substitution parameters and get the pattern to propagate itself? EDIT: Modified my misleading title -- I am hoping to find a solution that doesn't involve code generation or copy/paste techniques, and rather to be able to write the skeleton of the code once in a base class in some form and have it be "instantiated" into lots of subclasses as the accessor for various properties. EDIT: Here is my solution, as suggested but left unimplemented by the chosen answerer. // I'll write many of these... public BusinessClass PropertyName { get { return GetSingleRelation(ref this.m_LocallyCachedValue, this.PropertyId, "ForeignKeyName"); } } // That all call this. public TBusinessClass GetSingleRelation<TBusinessClass>( ref TBusinessClass cachedField, int fieldId, string contextFieldName) { if (cachedField == null) { if (this.Record == null) { ConstructorInfo ci = typeof(TBusinessClass).GetConstructor( new Type[] { this.Database.GetType(), typeof(int) }); cachedField = (TBusinessClass)ci.Invoke( new object[] { this.Database, fieldId }); } else { var obj = this.Record.GetType().GetProperty(objName).GetValue( this.Record, null); ConstructorInfo ci = typeof(TBusinessClass).GetConstructor( new Type[] { this.Database.GetType(), obj.GetType()}); cachedField = (TBusinessClass)ci.Invoke( new object[] { this.Database, obj }); } } return cachedField; }

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• How does jquery display an image received from an ajax request?

  - by Gnee

  I have this working great, but I'd like a deeper understanding of what is actually going on behind the scenes. I am using Jquery's Ajax method to pull 5 blog posts (returning only the title and first photo). A PHP script grabs the blog posts' title and first photo and sticks it in an array and sends it back to my browser as JSON. Upon receiving the JSON object, Jquery grabs the first member of the JSON object and displays it's title and photo. In a gallery I made, using buttons – the user can iterate the 1-5 posts. So the actual AJAX call happens right away, and only once. I am basically using this kind of setup: $('my_div').html(json_obj[i]) and each click does a i++. So jquery is plucking these blog posts from my computers memory, my web browsers cache, or some kind of cache in the Javascript engine? One of the things it's returning is a pretty gnarly animated gif. I just wonder if it constantly running in the background (but not visible), stealing processing cycles...etc. Or Javascript just inserting (say a flash movie) into the DOM, but before hand does nothing but take up a little memory (no processing). Anyway, I'm just curious. If someone is a guru on this, I'd love to hear your take. Thanks!!

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• Change flash src with jquery?

  - by Elliott

  Hi I have a flash menu showing a few links, but when the user is logged in I want to change the menu from menu1 to menu2 ... so that it will display "My Account" rather than "Signup" The code below is for my flash: <div id="menu"> <object classid="clsid:d27cdb6e-ae6d-11cf-96b8-444553540000" codebase="http://download.macromedia.com/pub/shockwave/cabs/flash/swflash.cab#version=9,0,0,0" width="825" height="69" id="menu1" align="middle"> <param name="allowScriptAccess" value="sameDomain" /> <param name="allowFullScreen" value="false" /> <param name="movie" value="menu1.swf" /><param name="quality" value="high" /><param name="wmode" value="transparent" /><param name="bgcolor" value="#ffffff" /> <embed src="menu1.swf" quality="high" wmode="transparent" bgcolor="#ffffff" width="825" height="69" name="menu1" align="middle" allowScriptAccess="sameDomain" allowFullScreen="false" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" pluginspage="http://www.macromedia.com/go/getflashplayer" /> </object> </div> Php: if (loggedin()) { echo '<script type="text/javascript"> CHANGE FLASH LINK HERE </script>'; } Could this be done without having to write all the above code out again? Thanks :)

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• Obtaining YouTube video ID in a URL and inputting selected video ID into a URL

  - by Dave

  I've been having trouble in trying to figure this out. What I am trying to do is, obtain the ID of a video from YouTube, and input the 11 character ID into the css of a div of a specific id by using jquery. I know the URL for the thumbnail of any video, but I just need to be able to change the ID to display different video thumbnails. <script> $(document).ready(function() { function(data){ videoID = data.split('www.youtube.com/v/')[1].split('&amp')[0]; $("#304817679").append(videoID); }); $("#304817679").replaceWith("<div id=\"304817679\" style=\"background: url(http://img.youtube.com/vi/"+ $.function(data) +"/0.jpg) no-repeat middle; width: 15px; height: 150px;\"></div>"); }); }); </script> <div id="304817679"> <div style="display: none;"><object width="248" height="222"><param name="movie" value="http://www.youtube.com/v/vy90n2nNRKQ&amp;rel=0&amp;egm=0&amp;showinfo=0&amp;fs=1"></param><param name="wmode" value="transparent"></param><param name="allowFullScreen" value="true"></param><embed src="http://www.youtube.com/v/vy90n2nNRKQ&amp;rel=0&amp;egm=0&amp;showinfo=0&amp;fs=1" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" width="248" height="222" allowFullScreen="true" wmode="transparent"></embed></object></div> </div> Trying to explain this better, I want the 11 Character YouTube Video ID from the embedded code, and put it into the URL of the thumbnail (http://img.youtube.com/vi/"+ function(data) +"/0.jpg). Which, would then also replace the original div (div id="304817679"). Am I on the right track with my script? I'm entirely new to this, and I would appreciate some of the help that's offered here.

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• Powershell invoke-command with PSCredential in line

  - by jaffa

  I need to be able to run a command on another server. This script acts as a bootstrap to another script which is run on the actual server. This works great on servers on the same domain, but if I need to run this script on a remote server, I need to specify credentials. The command is kicked off from a Msbuild targets file like so: <Target Name="PreDeployment" Condition="true" BeforeTargets="MSDeployPublish"> <Exec Command="powershell.exe -ExecutionPolicy Bypass invoke-command bootstrapScript.ps1 -computername $(MyServer) -argumentlist param1, param2" /> </Target> However, I need to be able to supply the credentials by creating a new PSCredentials object with a secure password for my deployment script to run on a remote server: <Target Name="PreDeployment" Condition="true" BeforeTargets="MSDeployPublish"> <Exec Command="powershell.exe -ExecutionPolicy Bypass invoke-command bootstrapScript.ps1 -computername $(MyServer) -credential New-Object System.Management.Automation.PSCredential ('admin', (convertto-securestring $(Password) -asplaintext -force)) -argumentlist param1, param2" /> </Target> When I run the build, a dialog pops up with the username set to System.Management.Automation.PSCredential. I need to be able to create the credentials in-line on the executable target. How do I accomplish this?

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• Using multiple named outlets and a wrapper view with no content in Emberjs

  - by user1889776

  I'm trying to use multiple named outlets with Ember.js. Is my approach below correct? Markup: <script type="text/x-handlebars" data-template-name="application"> <div id="mainArea"> {{outlet main_area}} </div> </script> <script type="text/x-handlebars" data-template-name="home"> <ul id="sections"> {{outlet sections}} </ul> <ul id="categories"> {{outlet categories}} </ul> </script> <script type="text/x-handlebars" data-template-name="sections"> {{#each section in controller}} <li><img {{bindAttr src="section.image"}}></li> {{/each}} </script> <script type="text/x-handlebars" data-template-name="categories"> {{#each category in controller}} <img {{bindAttr src="category.image"}}> {{/each}} </script>? JS Code: Here I set the content of the various controllers to data grabbed from a server and connect outlets with their corresponding views. Since the HomeController has no content, set its content to an empty object - a hack to get the rid of this error message: Uncaught Error: assertion failed: Cannot delegate set('categories' ) to the 'content' property of object proxy : its 'content' is undefined. App.Router = Ember.Router.extend({ enableLogging: false, root: Ember.Route.extend({ index: Ember.Route.extend({ route: '/', connectOutlets: function(router){ router.get('sectionsController').set('content',App.Section.find()); router.get('categoriesController').set('content', App.Category.find()); router.get('applicationController').connectOutlet('main_area', 'home'); router.get('homeController').connectOutlet('home', {}); router.get('homeController').connectOutlet('categories', 'categories'); router.get('homeController').connectOutlet('sections', 'sections'); } }) }) });

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• ajax to populate an input type text

  - by kawtousse

  hi, I have an input type text that i want to populate it with a value from data base using the ajax technique. first i define my text zone like the following: <td><input type=text id='st' value=" " name='stname' onclick="donnom();" /></td> in javascript i do the following: xhr5.onreadystatechange = function(){ if(xhr5.readyState == 4 && xhr5.status == 200) { selects5 = xhr5.responseText; // On se sert de innerHTML pour rajouter les options a la liste document.getElementById('st').innerHTML = selects5; } }; xhr5.open("POST","ajaxIDentifier5.jsp",true); xhr5.setRequestHeader('Content-Type','application/x-www-form-urlencoded'); id=document.getElementById(idIdden).value; xhr5.send("id="+id); in IDentifier5.jsp i put the next code: '<%String id=request.getParameter("id"); System.out.println("idDailyTimeSheet ajaxIDentifier5 as is:"+id); Session s = null; Transaction tx; try { s= HibernateUtil.currentSession(); tx=s.beginTransaction(); Query query = s.createQuery("select from Dailytimesheet dailytimesheet where dailytimesheet.IdDailyTimeSheet="+id+" " ); for(Iterator it=query.iterate();it.hasNext();) { if(it.hasNext()) { Dailytimesheet object=(Dailytimesheet)it.next(); out.print( "<input type=\"text\" id=\"st1\" value=\""+object.getTimeFrom()+"\" name=\"starting\" onclick=\"donnom()\" ></input>"); } } }catch (HibernateException e) { e.printStackTrace();} %> i want to get only the value in the input type text populated from database because after that i will be able to change it . thanks for help.

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• MVC: model of type Nullable<T>

  - by Fyodor Soikin

  I have a partial view that inherits from ViewUserControl<Guid?> - i.e. it's model is of type Nullable<Guid>. Very simple view, nothing special, but that's not the point. Somewhere else, I do Html.RenderPartial( "MyView", someGuid ), where someGuid is of type Nullable<Guid>. Everything's perfectly legal, should work OK, right? But here's the gotcha: the second argument of Html.RenderPartial is of type object, and therefore, Nullable<Guid> being a value type, it must be boxed. But nullable types are somehow special in the CLR, so that when you box one of those, you actually get either a boxed value of type T (Nullable's argument), or a null if the nullable didn't have a value to begin with. And that last case is actually interesting. Turns out, sometimes, I do have a situation when someGuid.HasValue == false. And in those cases, I effectively get a call Html.RenderPartial( "MyView", null ). And what does the HtmlHelper do when the model is null? Believe it or not, it just goes ahead and takes the parent view's model. Regardless of it's type. So, naturally, in those cases, I get an exception saying: "The model item passed into the dictionary is of type 'Parent.View.Model.Type', but this dictionary requires a model item of type 'System.Guid?'" So the question is: how do I make MVC correctly pass new Nullable<Guid> { HasValue = false } instead of trying to grab the parent's model? Note: I did consider wrapping my Guid? in an object of another type, specifically created for this occasion, but this seems completely ridiculous. Don't want to do that as long as there's another way. Note 2: now that I've wrote all this, I've realized that the question may be reduced to how to pass a null for model without ending up with parent's model?

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• javascript pausing consistently. How do I find what is causing it to pause?

  - by pedalpete

  I've got a fairly ajax heavy site and I'm trying to tune the performance. I have a function that runs between 20 & 200 times, depending on the user. I'm outputting the time the function takes to execute via console.time in firefox. The function takes about 4-6ms to complete. The strange thing is that on my larger test with 200 or runs through that function, it runs through the first 31, then seems to pause for almost a second before completing the last 170 or so. However, that 'pause' doesn't show up in the console.time logs, and I'm not running any other functions, and the object that gets passed to the function looks the same as all other objects that get passed in. The function is called like this for (var s in thisGroup.events){ showEvent(thisGroup.events[s]) } so, I don't see how or why it would suddenly pause near the beginning. but only pause once and then continue through. The pause ALWAYS happens on the 31st time through the function. I've taken a close look at the 'thisGroup.events[s]' that it is being run through, and it looks like this for #31 "eventId":"5106", "sid":"68", "gid":"29", "uid":"70","type":"event", "startDate":"2010-03-22","startTime":"6:00 PM","endDate":"2010-03-22","endTime":"11:00 PM","durationLength":"5", "durationTime":"5:00", "note":"", "desc":"event" The event immediately after the pause, #32 looks like this "eventId":"5111", "sid":"68", "gid":"29", "uid":"71","type":"event", "startDate":"2010-03-22","startTime":"6:00 PM","endDate":"2010-03-22","endTime":"11:00 PM","durationLength":"5", "durationTime":"5:00", "note":"", "desc":"event" another event that runs through no problem looks like this "eventId":"5113", "sid":"68", "gid":"29", "uid":"72","type":"event", "startDate":"2010-03-22","startTime":"4:30 PM","endDate":"2010-03-22","endTime":"11:00 PM","durationLength":"6.5", "durationTime":"6:30", "note":"", "desc":"event" From the console outputs, it doesn't appear as there is anything hanging or taking up time in the function itself, as the console.time for each event including #31,32 is 4ms. Another strange thing here is that the total time running the for loop across the entire object is coming out as 1014ms which is right for 200 events at 4-6ms each. Any suggestions on how to find this 'pause'? I find it very interesting that it is consistently happening between #31 & #32 only!

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• Is It Incorrect to Make Domain Objects Aware of The Data Access Layer?

  - by Noah Goodrich

  I am currently working on rewriting an application to use Data Mappers that completely abstract the database from the Domain layer. However, I am now wondering which is the better approach to handling relationships between Domain objects: Call the necessary find() method from the related data mapper directly within the domain object Write the relationship logic into the native data mapper (which is what the examples tend to do in PoEAA) and then call the native data mapper function within the domain object. Either it seems to me that in order to preserve the 'Fat Model, Skinny Controller' mantra, the domain objects have to be aware of the data mappers (whether it be their own or that they have access to the other mappers in the system). Additionally it seems that Option 2 unnecessarily complicates the data access layer as it creates table access logic across multiple data mappers instead of confining it to a single data mapper. So, is it incorrect to make the domain objects aware of the related data mappers and to call data mapper functions directly from the domain objects? Update: These are the only two solutions that I can envision to handle the issue of relations between domain objects. Any example showing a better method would be welcome.

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• linq - how to sort a list

  - by Billy Logan

  Hello everyone, I have a linq query that populates a list of designers. since i am using the filters below my sorting is not functioning properly. My question is with the given code below how can i best sort this List after the fact or sort while querying? I have tried to sort the list after the fact using the following script but i receive a compiler error: List<TBLDESIGNER> designers = new List<TBLDESIGNER>(); designers = 'calls my procedure below and comes back with an unsorted list of designers' designers.Sort((x, y) => string.Compare(x.FIRST_NAME, y.LAST_NAME)); Query goes as follows: List<TBLDESIGNER> designer = null; using (SOAE strikeOffContext = new SOAE()) { //Invoke the query designer = AdminDelegates.selectDesignerDesigns.Invoke(strikeOffContext).ByActive(active).ByAdmin(admin).ToList(); } Delegate: public static Func<SOAE, IQueryable<TBLDESIGNER>> selectDesignerDesigns = CompiledQuery.Compile<SOAE, IQueryable<TBLDESIGNER>>( (designer) => from c in designer.TBLDESIGNER.Include("TBLDESIGN") orderby c.FIRST_NAME ascending select c); Filter ByActive: public static IQueryable<TBLDESIGNER> ByActive(this IQueryable<TBLDESIGNER> qry, bool active) { //Return the filtered IQueryable object return from c in qry where c.ACTIVE == active select c; } Filter ByAdmin: public static IQueryable<TBLDESIGNER> ByAdmin(this IQueryable<TBLDESIGNER> qry, bool admin) { //Return the filtered IQueryable object return from c in qry where c.SITE_ADMIN == admin select c; } Thanks in advance, Billy

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• Passing an ActionScript JPG Byte Array to Javscript (and eventually to PHP)

  - by Gus

  Our web application has a feature which uses Flash (AS3) to take photos using the user's web cam, then passes the resulting byte array to PHP where it is reconstructed and saved on the server. However, we need to be able to take this web application offline, and we have chosen Gears to do so. The user takes the app offline, performs his tasks, then when he's reconnected to the server, we "sync" the data back with our central database. We don't have PHP to interact with Flash anymore, but we still need to allow users to take and save photos. We don't know how to save a JPG that Flash creates in a local database. Our hope was that we could save the byte array, a serialized string, or somehow actually persist the object itself, then pass it back to either PHP or Flash (and then PHP) to recreate the JPG. We have tried: - passing the byte array to Javascript instead of PHP, but javascript doesn't seem to be able to do anything with it (the object seems to be stripped of its methods) - stringifying the byte array in Flash, and then passing it to Javascript, but we always get the same string: ÿØÿà Now we are thinking of serializing the string in Flash, passing it to Javascript, then on the return route, passing that string back to Flash which will then pass it to PHP to be reconstructed as a JPG. (whew). Since no one on our team has extensive Flash background, we're a bit lost. Is serialization the way to go? Is there a more realistic way to do this? Does anyone have any experience with this sort of thing? Perhaps we can build a javascript class that is the same as the byte array class in AS?

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• How do I pass a LuaTable between two Lua states using LuaInterface?

  - by user316675

  I've been trying to pass a LuaTable class between two Lua states, like so: LuaManager L1 = new Lua(); LuaManager L2 = new Lua(); LuaTable table = L1.DoString("return {apple = 25}")[0]; L2["tbl"] = table; double results = L2.DoString("return tbl[\"apple\"]")[0]; Assert.AreEqual(25.0, results); The above test fails; I receive a return value of nil. Using the Immediate Window confirms that "table" is a non-null object, and that table["apple"] returns 25; it's something that's being lost in translation to L2. Interestingly, when the object is loaded back into the same state, the test works, like so: //Succeeds LuaManager lua = new Lua(); LuaTable table = lua.DoString("return {apple = 25}")[0]; lua["tbl"] = table; double results = lua.DoString("return tbl[\"apple\"]")[0]; Assert.AreEqual(25.0, results); How can I safely pass the LuaTables without hassles? Thanks in advance!

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• Quartz.Net scheduler works locally but not on remote host

  - by Glinkot

  Hi. I have a timed quartz.net job working fine on my dev machine, but once deployed to a remote server it is not triggering. I believe the job is scheduled ok, because if I postback, it tells me the job already exists (I normally check for postback however). The email code definitely works, as the 'button1_click' event sends emails successfully. I understand I have full or medium trust on the remove server. My host says they don't apply restrictions that they know of which would affect it. Any other things I need to do to get it running? using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using Quartz; using Quartz.Impl; using Quartz.Core; using Aspose.Network.Mail; using Aspose.Network; using Aspose.Network.Mime; using System.Text; namespace QuartzTestASP { public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!Page.IsPostBack) { ISchedulerFactory schedFact = new StdSchedulerFactory(); IScheduler sched = schedFact.GetScheduler(); JobDetail jobDetail = new JobDetail("testJob2", null, typeof(testJob)); //Trigger trigger = TriggerUtils.MakeMinutelyTrigger(1, 3); Trigger trigger = TriggerUtils.MakeSecondlyTrigger(10, 5); trigger.StartTimeUtc = DateTime.UtcNow; trigger.Name = "TriggertheTest"; sched.Start(); sched.ScheduleJob(jobDetail, trigger); } } protected void Button1_Click1(object sender, EventArgs e) { myutil.sendEmail(); } } class testJob : IStatefulJob { public testJob() { } public void Execute(JobExecutionContext context) { myutil.sendEmail(); } } public static class myutil { public static void sendEmail() { // tested code lives here and works fine when called from elsewhere } } }

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• what kind of relationship is there between a common wall and the rooms that located next to it?

  - by siamak

  I want to know whats the Relationship between a common wall (that are located In an adjoining room ) and the rooms. As i know the relationship between a room and its walls is Composition not Aggregation (am i right ?) And according to the definition of Composition the contained object can't be shared between two containers, whereas in aggregation it is possible. now i am confused that whats the best modeling approach to represent the relationship between a common wall and the rooms located next to it ? It would be highly Appreciated if you could provide your advices with some code. |--------|--------| Approch1: (wall class ---- room class) /Composition Approach2: wall class ----- room class /Aggregation Approch3: we have a wall class and a Common wall class , Common wall class inherits from wall class adjoining room class ---- (1) Common wall class /Aggregation adjoining room class ---- (6) wall class / composition Approach4: I am a developer not a designer :) so this is my idea : class Room { private wall _firstwall ; private wall _secondtwall; private wall _thirdwall ; private wall _commonwall ; public Room( CommonWall commonwall) { _firstwall=new Wall(); _secondtwall=new Wall(); _thirdwall=new Wall(); _commonwall=commonwall; } } Class CommonWall:Wall { //... } // in somewher : static void main() { Wall _commonWall=new Wall(); Room room1=new Room(_commonWall); Room room2=new Room(_commonWall); Room [] adjacentRoom =new Room[2]{room1,room2}; } Edit 1: I think this is a clear question but just for more clarification : The point of the question is to find out whats the best pattern or approach to model a relationship for an object that is a component of two other objects in the same time. and about my example : waht i mean by a "room" ?,surely i mean an enclosed square room with 4 walls and one door.but in this case one of these walls is a common wall and is shared between two adjacent rooms.

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• How to get the title and subtitle for a pin when we are implementing the MKAnnotation?

  - by wolverine

  I have implemented the MKAnnotation as below. I will put a lot of pins and the information for each of those pins are stored in an array. Each member of this array is an object whose properties will give the values for the title and subtitle of the pin. Each object corresponds to a pin. But how can I display these values for the pin when I click a pin?? @interface UserAnnotation : NSObject <MKAnnotation> { CLLocationCoordinate2D coordinate; NSString *title; NSString *subtitle; NSString *city; NSString *province; } @property (nonatomic, assign) CLLocationCoordinate2D coordinate; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *title; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *subtitle; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *city; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *province; -(id)initWithCoordinate:(CLLocationCoordinate2D)c; And .m is @implementation UserAnnotation @synthesize coordinate, title, subtitle, city, province; - (NSString *)title { return title; } - (NSString *)subtitle { return subtitle; } - (NSString *)city { return city; } - (NSString *)province { return province; } -(id)initWithCoordinate:(CLLocationCoordinate2D)c { coordinate=c; NSLog(@"%f,%f",c.latitude,c.longitude); return self; } @end

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• NHibernate, legacy database, foreign keys that aren't

  - by Joe

  The project I'm working on has a legacy database with lots of information in it that's used to alter application behavior. Basically I'm stuck with something that I have to be super careful about changing. Onto my problem. In this database is a table and in this table is a column. This column contains integers and most of the pre-existing data have a value of zero for this column. The problem is that this column is in fact a foreign key reference to another entity, it was just never defined as such in the database schema. Now in my new code I defined my Fluent-NHibernate mapping to treat this column as a Reference so that I don't have to deal with entity id's directly in my code. This works fine until I come across an entity that has a value of 0 in this column. NHibernate thinks that a value of 0 is a valid reference. When my code tries to use that referenced object I get an ObjectNotFoundException as obviously there is no object in my database with an id of 0. How can I, either through mapping or some kind of convention (I'm using Fluent-nhibernate), get NHibernate to treat id's that are 0 the same as if it was NULL?

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• Generate an ID via COM interop

  - by Erik van Brakel

  At the moment, we've got an unmaintanable ball of code which offers an interface to a third party application. The third party application has a COM assembly which MUST be used to create new entries. This process involves two steps: generate a new object (basically an ID), and update that object with new field values. Because COM interop is so slow, we only use that to generate the ID (and related objects) in the database. The actual update is done using a regular SQL query. What I am trying to figure out if it's possible to use NHibernate to do some of the heavy lifting for us, without bypassing the COM assembly. Here's the code for saving something to the database as I envision it: using(var s = sessionFactory.OpenSession()) using(var t = s.BeginTransaction()) { MyEntity entity = new MyEntity(); s.Save(entity); t.Commit(); } Regular NH code I'd say. Now, this is where it gets tricky. I think I have to supply my own implementation of NHibernate.Id.IIdentifierGenerator which calls the COM assembly in the Generate method. That's not a problem. What IS a problem is that the COM assembly requires initialisation, which does take a bit of time. It also doesn't like multiple instances in the same process, for some reason. What I would like to know is if there's a way to properly access an external service in the generator code. I'm free to use any technique I want, so if it involves something like an IoC container that's no problem. The thing I am looking for is where exactly to hook-up my code so I can access the things I need in my generator, without having to resort to using singletons or other nasty stuff.

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• Existing LINQ extension method similar to Parallel.For?

  - by Joel Martinez

  The linq extension methods for ienumerable are very handy ... but not that useful if all you want to do is apply some computation to each item in the enumeration without returning anything. So I was wondering if perhaps I was just missing the right method, or if it truly doesn't exist as I'd rather use a built-in version if it's available ... but I haven't found one :-) I could have sworn there was a .ForEach method somewhere, but I have yet to find it. In the meantime, I did write my own version in case it's useful for anyone else: using System.Collections; using System.Collections.Generic; public delegate void Function<T>(T item); public delegate void Function(object item); public static class EnumerableExtensions { public static void For(this IEnumerable enumerable, Function func) { foreach (object item in enumerable) { func(item); } } public static void For<T>(this IEnumerable<T> enumerable, Function<T> func) { foreach (T item in enumerable) { func(item); } } } usage is: myEnumerable.For<MyClass>(delegate(MyClass item) { item.Count++; });

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