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  • How can a 1Gb Java heap on a 64bit machine use 3Gb of VIRT space?

    - by Graeme Moss
    I run the same process on a 32bit machine as on a 64bit machine with the same memory VM settings (-Xms1024m -Xmx1024m) and similar VM version (1.6.0_05 vs 1.6.0_16). However the virtual space used by the 64bit machine (as shown in top under "VIRT") is almost three times as big as that in 32bit! I know 64bit VMs will use a little more memory for the larger references, but how can it be three times as big? Am I reading VIRT in top incorrectly? Full data shown below, showing top and then the result of jmap -heap, first for 64bit, then for 32bit. Note the VIRT for 64bit is 3319m for 32bit is 1220m. * 64bit * PID USER PR NI VIRT RES SHR S %CPU %MEM TIME+ COMMAND 22534 agent 20 0 3319m 163m 14m S 4.7 2.0 0:04.28 java $ jmap -heap 22534 Attaching to process ID 22534, please wait... Debugger attached successfully. Server compiler detected. JVM version is 10.0-b19 using thread-local object allocation. Parallel GC with 4 thread(s) Heap Configuration: MinHeapFreeRatio = 40 MaxHeapFreeRatio = 70 MaxHeapSize = 1073741824 (1024.0MB) NewSize = 2686976 (2.5625MB) MaxNewSize = -65536 (-0.0625MB) OldSize = 5439488 (5.1875MB) NewRatio = 2 SurvivorRatio = 8 PermSize = 21757952 (20.75MB) MaxPermSize = 88080384 (84.0MB) Heap Usage: PS Young Generation Eden Space: capacity = 268500992 (256.0625MB) used = 247066968 (235.62142181396484MB) free = 21434024 (20.441078186035156MB) 92.01715277089181% used From Space: capacity = 44695552 (42.625MB) used = 0 (0.0MB) free = 44695552 (42.625MB) 0.0% used To Space: capacity = 44695552 (42.625MB) used = 0 (0.0MB) free = 44695552 (42.625MB) 0.0% used PS Old Generation capacity = 715849728 (682.6875MB) used = 0 (0.0MB) free = 715849728 (682.6875MB) 0.0% used PS Perm Generation capacity = 21757952 (20.75MB) used = 16153928 (15.405586242675781MB) free = 5604024 (5.344413757324219MB) 74.24378912132907% used * 32bit * PID USER PR NI VIRT RES SHR S %CPU %MEM TIME+ COMMAND 30168 agent 20 0 1220m 175m 12m S 0.0 2.2 0:13.43 java $ jmap -heap 30168 Attaching to process ID 30168, please wait... Debugger attached successfully. Server compiler detected. JVM version is 14.2-b01 using thread-local object allocation. Parallel GC with 8 thread(s) Heap Configuration: MinHeapFreeRatio = 40 MaxHeapFreeRatio = 70 MaxHeapSize = 1073741824 (1024.0MB) NewSize = 1048576 (1.0MB) MaxNewSize = 4294901760 (4095.9375MB) OldSize = 4194304 (4.0MB) NewRatio = 8 SurvivorRatio = 8 PermSize = 16777216 (16.0MB) MaxPermSize = 67108864 (64.0MB) Heap Usage: PS Young Generation Eden Space: capacity = 89522176 (85.375MB) used = 80626352 (76.89128112792969MB) free = 8895824 (8.483718872070312MB) 90.0629940005033% used From Space: capacity = 14876672 (14.1875MB) used = 14876216 (14.187065124511719MB) free = 456 (4.3487548828125E-4MB) 99.99693479832048% used To Space: capacity = 14876672 (14.1875MB) used = 0 (0.0MB) free = 14876672 (14.1875MB) 0.0% used PS Old Generation capacity = 954466304 (910.25MB) used = 10598496 (10.107513427734375MB) free = 943867808 (900.1424865722656MB) 1.1104107034039412% used PS Perm Generation capacity = 16777216 (16.0MB) used = 11366448 (10.839889526367188MB) free = 5410768 (5.1601104736328125MB) 67.74930953979492% used

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  • How can I configure a Factory with the possible providers?

    - by Jonathas Costa
    I have three assemblies: "Framework.DataAccess", "Framework.DataAccess.NHibernateProvider" and "Company.DataAccess". Inside the assembly "Framework.DataAccess", I have my factory (with the wrong implementation of discovery): public class DaoFactory { private static readonly object locker = new object(); private static IWindsorContainer _daoContainer; protected static IWindsorContainer DaoContainer { get { if (_daoContainer == null) { lock (locker) { if (_daoContainer != null) return _daoContainer; _daoContainer = new WindsorContainer(new XmlInterpreter()); // THIS IS WRONG! THIS ASSEMBLY CANNOT KNOW ABOUT SPECIALIZATIONS! _daoContainer.Register( AllTypes.FromAssemblyNamed("Company.DataAccess") .BasedOn(typeof(IReadDao<>)).WithService.FromInterface(), AllTypes.FromAssemblyNamed("Framework.DataAccess.NHibernateProvider") .BasedOn(typeof(IReadDao<>)).WithService.Base()); } } return _daoContainer; } } public static T Create<T>() where T : IDao { return DaoContainer.Resolve<T>(); } } This assembly also defines the base interface for data access IReadDao: public interface IReadDao<T> { IEnumerable<T> GetAll(); } I want to keep this assembly generic and with no references. This is my base data access assembly. Then I have the NHibernate provider's assembly, which implements the above IReadDao using NHibernate's approach. This assembly references the "Framework.DataAccess" assembly. public class NHibernateDao<T> : IReadDao<T> { public NHibernateDao() { } public virtual IEnumerable<T> GetAll() { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } At last, I have the "Company.DataAccess" assembly, which can override the default implementation of NHibernate provider and references both previously seen assemblies. public interface IProductDao : IReadDao<Product> { Product GetByName(string name); } public class ProductDao : NHibernateDao<Product>, IProductDao { public override IEnumerable<Product> GetAll() { throw new NotImplementedException("new one!"); } public Product GetByName(string name) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } I want to be able to write... IRead<Product> dao = DaoFactory.Create<IRead<Product>>(); ... and then get the ProductDao implementation. But I can't hold inside my base data access any reference to specific assemblies! My initial idea was to read that from a xml config file. So, my question is: How can I externally configure this factory to use a specific provider as my default implementation and my client implementation?

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  • HelloWebView Sample: now using SDK 3 and getting killed

    - by Tim
    Hey Folks, Well I was trying to get the HelloWebview example working with SDK 7 with no success (see HelloWebView Sample: java.lang.SecurityException: Permission Denial thread), so I decided just out of curiosity to back off to SDK3 to see if I could learn anything. I have been able to get all the "Layout" samples to work and decided to try something a little harder. Unfortunately, I still cannot get the simple HelloWebView app to run. I no longer get a Permission Denial but now the app is getting killed. Killed usually implies that there are not enough resources (memory etc.) for an application to run.... Any thoughts? Are there any other log files I can look at either on my computer or on the emulator? The main.xml, manifest, and console output are below. Let me know if you need more information. Thanks, Tim main.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:orientation="vertical" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" > <WebView android:id="@+id/webview" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent"/> </LinearLayout> mainfest file: <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.INTERNET" /> <uses-sdk android:minSdkVersion="3" /> <application android:icon="@drawable/icon" android:label="@string/app_name"> <activity android:name=".HelloWebView3" android:label="@string/app_name"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER" /> </intent-filter> </activity> <activity android:name=".HelloWebView3" android:label="@string/app_name" android:theme="@android:style/Theme.NoTitleBar"> </activity> </application> Console output: [2010-06-05 08:43:37 - HelloWebView3] ------------------------------ [2010-06-05 08:43:37 - HelloWebView3] Android Launch! [2010-06-05 08:43:37 - HelloWebView3] adb is running normally. [2010-06-05 08:43:37 - HelloWebView3] Performing com.example.hellowebview3.HelloWebView3 activity launch [2010-06-05 08:43:37 - HelloWebView3] Automatic Target Mode: launching new emulator with compatible AVD 'Android1.5' [2010-06-05 08:43:37 - HelloWebView3] Launching a new emulator with Virtual Device 'Android1.5' [2010-06-05 08:43:42 - HelloWebView3] New emulator found: emulator-5554 [2010-06-05 08:43:42 - HelloWebView3] Waiting for HOME ('android.process.acore') to be launched... [2010-06-05 08:45:04 - HelloWebView3] HOME is up on device 'emulator-5554' [2010-06-05 08:45:04 - HelloWebView3] Uploading HelloWebView3.apk onto device 'emulator-5554' [2010-06-05 08:45:04 - HelloWebView3] Installing HelloWebView3.apk... [2010-06-05 08:45:19 - HelloWebView3] Success! [2010-06-05 08:45:19 - HelloWebView3] Starting activity com.example.hellowebview3.HelloWebView3 on device [2010-06-05 08:45:23 - HelloWebView3] ActivityManager: Starting: Intent { action=android.intent.action.MAIN categories={android.intent.category.LAUNCHER} comp={com.example.hellowebview3/com.example.hellowebview3.HelloWebView3} } [2010-06-05 08:45:23 - HelloWebView3] ActivityManager: [1] Killed am start -n com....

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  • Criteria query returns hydrated object in SQLite but not SqlServer

    - by Berryl
    I have a method that returns a resource fully hydrated when the db is SQLite but when the identical code is used by SqlServer the object is not fully hydrated. I'll explain that with the code after some brief background. I my domain various otherwise unrelated things like an Employee or a Machine can be used as a Resource that can be allocated to. In the object model an example of this would be: /// <summary>Wraps a <see cref="StaffMember"/> in a <see cref="ResourceBase"/>. </summary> public class StaffMemberResource : ResourceBase { public virtual StaffMember StaffMember { get; private set; } public StaffMemberResource(StaffMember staffMember) { Check.RequireNotNull<StaffMember>(staffMember); base.BusinessId = staffMember.Number.ToString(); base.Name = staffMember.Name.ToString(); base.OrganizationName = staffMember.Department.Name; StaffMember = staffMember; } [UsedImplicitly] protected StaffMemberResource() { } } And in the db tables, there is a table per class inheritance where the ResourceBase has a discriminator and the id of the actual resource (ie, StaffMember) StaffMember - 1 ---- M- ResourceBase - 1 ----- M - Allocation The Code public override StaffMemberResource BuildResource(IActivityService activityService) { var sessionFactory = _GetSessionFactory(); var session = sessionFactory.GetCurrentSession(); StaffMemberResource result; using (var tx = session.BeginTransaction()) { var propertyName = ExprHelper.GetPropertyName<StaffMember>(x => x.Number); var staff = session.CreateCriteria<StaffMember>() .Add(Restrictions.Eq(propertyName, new EmployeeNumber(_testData.Resource_1.BusinessId))) .UniqueResult<StaffMember>(); if (staff == null) { ... build up a staff member result = new StaffMemberResource(staff); } else { ////////// var property = ExprHelper.GetPropertyName<StaffMemberResource>(x => x.StaffMember); result = session.CreateCriteria<StaffMemberResource>() .Add(Restrictions.Eq(property, staff)) .UniqueResult<StaffMemberResource>(); } /////////// tx.Commit(); } return result; } It's that second criteria query that works "properly" with SQLite but not with SqlServer. By properly I mean that the employee numer is translated into a ResourceBase.BusinessId, Name is flattened out into a ResourceBase.Name, etc. Does anyone know why this might be? Cheers, Berryl

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  • Any tips on reducing wxWidgets application code size?

    - by Billy ONeal
    I have written a minimal wxWidgets application: stdafx.h #define wxNO_REGEX_LIB #define wxNO_XML_LIB #define wxNO_NET_LIB #define wxNO_EXPAT_LIB #define wxNO_JPEG_LIB #define wxNO_PNG_LIB #define wxNO_TIFF_LIB #define wxNO_ZLIB_LIB #define wxNO_ADV_LIB #define wxNO_HTML_LIB #define wxNO_GL_LIB #define wxNO_QA_LIB #define wxNO_XRC_LIB #define wxNO_AUI_LIB #define wxNO_PROPGRID_LIB #define wxNO_RIBBON_LIB #define wxNO_RICHTEXT_LIB #define wxNO_MEDIA_LIB #define wxNO_STC_LIB #include <wx/wxprec.h> Minimal.cpp #include "stdafx.h" #include <memory> #include <wx/wx.h> class Minimal : public wxApp { public: virtual bool OnInit(); }; IMPLEMENT_APP(Minimal) DECLARE_APP(Minimal) class MinimalFrame : public wxFrame { DECLARE_EVENT_TABLE() public: MinimalFrame(const wxString& title); void OnQuit(wxCommandEvent& e); void OnAbout(wxCommandEvent& e); }; BEGIN_EVENT_TABLE(MinimalFrame, wxFrame) EVT_MENU(wxID_ABOUT, MinimalFrame::OnAbout) EVT_MENU(wxID_EXIT, MinimalFrame::OnQuit) END_EVENT_TABLE() MinimalFrame::MinimalFrame(const wxString& title) : wxFrame(0, wxID_ANY, title) { std::auto_ptr<wxMenu> fileMenu(new wxMenu); fileMenu->Append(wxID_EXIT, L"E&xit\tAlt-X", L"Terminate the Minimal Example."); std::auto_ptr<wxMenu> helpMenu(new wxMenu); helpMenu->Append(wxID_ABOUT, L"&About\tF1", L"Show the about dialog box."); std::auto_ptr<wxMenuBar> bar(new wxMenuBar); bar->Append(fileMenu.get(), L"&File"); fileMenu.release(); bar->Append(helpMenu.get(), L"&Help"); helpMenu.release(); SetMenuBar(bar.get()); bar.release(); CreateStatusBar(2); SetStatusText(L"Welcome to wxWidgets!"); } void MinimalFrame::OnAbout(wxCommandEvent& e) { wxMessageBox(L"Some text about me!", L"About", wxOK, this); } void MinimalFrame::OnQuit(wxCommandEvent& e) { Close(); } bool Minimal::OnInit() { std::auto_ptr<MinimalFrame> mainFrame( new MinimalFrame(L"Minimal wxWidgets Application")); mainFrame->Show(); mainFrame.release(); return true; } This minimal program weighs in at 2.4MB! (Executable compression drops this to half a MB or so but that's still HUGE!) (I must statically link because this application needs to be single-binary-xcopy-deployed, so both the C runtime and wxWidgets itself are set for static linking) Any tips on cutting this down? (I'm using Microsoft Visual Studio 2010)

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  • sendmail and MX records when mail server is not on web host

    - by Jim Nelson
    This is a problem I'm sure is easy to fix, but I've been banging my head on it all day. I'm developing a new web site for a client. The web site resides at (this is an example) website.com. I have a PHP form script to email visitors' requests to [email protected]. When I coded this on a staging server on a different domain, all worked fine. When I moved it to website.com, the mail messages never arrived. The web server is on a virtual host with a major ISP. Here's what I've learned since then: My client's mail server is Microsoft Exchange on a box physically in their office. Whenever someone on the outside world emails [email protected], the mail arrives. But if the web server sends to the same email address, it fails every time. This is not a PHP problem. I secure shell in to the web server and have tested this both with sendmail and the UNIX mail application. I've also tested it by emailing various email accounts from the shell. I can email myself, for example, just nobody at the website.com domain. In short, when I'm logged in to website.com, mail to [email protected], [email protected], [email protected] all fail. All other addresses work fine. What I've discovered is those dropped emails are routed to the web server's "catchall" account where they sit in its inbox. I've done an MX lookup on website.com. The MX record points to mailsec.website.com. I can telnet to mailsec.website.com port 25 and see the SMTP server. It appears to me that website.com isn't doing an MX lookup when it's sending mail to [email protected]. My theory is that it recognizes the domain as local, sees that there's no "requests" user account to deliver it to, and drops the mail into the catchall account. What I want is to force sendmail to do the MX lookup and send the message on to the Exchange server. I'm at wit's end here. I can't figure out how to do this. For that matter, I may be way off base here and have misdiagnosed this entirely. Internet mail and MX has always seemed a black art to me, and my ignorance is certainly showing in this question.

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  • Mocking a concrete class : templates and avoiding conditional compilation

    - by AshirusNW
    I'm trying to testing a concrete object with this sort of structure. class Database { public: Database(Server server) : server_(server) {} int Query(const char* expression) { server_.Connect(); return server_.ExecuteQuery(); } private: Server server_; }; i.e. it has no virtual functions, let alone a well-defined interface. I want to a fake database which calls mock services for testing. Even worse, I want the same code to be either built against the real version or the fake so that the same testing code can both: Test the real Database implementation - for integration tests Test the fake implementation, which calls mock services To solve this, I'm using a templated fake, like this: #ifndef INTEGRATION_TESTS class FakeDatabase { public: FakeDatabase() : realDb_(mockServer_) {} int Query(const char* expression) { MOCK_EXPECT_CALL(mockServer_, Query, 3); return realDb_.Query(); } private: // in non-INTEGRATION_TESTS builds, Server is a mock Server with // extra testing methods that allows mocking Server mockServer_; Database realDb_; }; #endif template <class T> class TestDatabaseContainer { public: int Query(const char* expression) { int result = database_.Query(expression); std::cout << "LOG: " << result << endl; return result; } private: T database_; }; Edit: Note the fake Database must call the real Database (but with a mock Server). Now to switch between them I'm planning the following test framework: class DatabaseTests { public: #ifdef INTEGRATION_TESTS typedef TestDatabaseContainer<Database> TestDatabase ; #else typedef TestDatabaseContainer<FakeDatabase> TestDatabase ; #endif TestDatabase& GetDb() { return _testDatabase; } private: TestDatabase _testDatabase; }; class QueryTestCase : public DatabaseTests { public: void TestStep1() { ASSERT(GetDb().Query(static_cast<const char *>("")) == 3); return; } }; I'm not a big fan of that compile-time switching between the real and the fake. So, my question is: Whether there's a better way of switching between Database and FakeDatabase? For instance, is it possible to do it at runtime in a clean fashion? I like to avoid #ifdefs. Also, if anyone has a better way of making a fake class that mimics a concrete class, I'd appreciate it. I don't want to have templated code all over the actual test code (QueryTestCase class). Feel free to critique the code style itself, too. You can see a compiled version of this code on codepad.

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  • Repeating fields in similar database tables

    - by user1738833
    I have been tasked with working on a database that I have never seen before and I'm looking at the DB structure. Some of the central and most heavily queried and joined tables look like virtual duplicates of each other. Here's a massively simplified representation of the situation, with business-sensitive information changed, listing hypothetical table names and fields: TopLevelGroup: PK_TLGroupId, DisplaysXOnBill, DisplaysYOnBill, IsInvoicedForJ, IsInvoicedForK SubGroup: PK_SubGroupId, FK_ParentTopLevelGroupId, DisplaysXOnBill, DisplaysYOnBill, IsInvoicedForJ, IsInvoicedForK SubSubGroup: PK_SubSUbGroupId, FK_ParentSubGroupId, DisplaysXOnBill, DisplaysYOnBill, IsInvoicedForJ, IsInvoicedForK I haven't listed the types of the fields as I don't think it's particularly important to the situation. In addition, it's worth saying that rather than four repeated fields as in the example above, I'm looking at 86 repeated fields. For the most part, those fields genuinely do represent "facts" about the primary table entity, so it's not automatically wrong for that reason. In addition, the "groups" represented here have a property inheritance relationship. If DisplaysXOnBill is NULL in the SubSubGroup, it takes the value of DisplaysXOnBillfrom it's parent, the SubGroup, and so-on up to the TopLevelGroup. Further, the requirements will never require that the model extends beyond three levels, so there is no need for flexibility in that area. Is there a design smell from several tables which describe very similar entities having almost identical fields? If so, what might be a better design of the example above? I'm using the phrase "design smell" to indicate a possible problem. Of course, in any given situation, a particular design might well be the best solution. I'm looking for a more general answer - wondering what might be wrong with this design and what might be the better design were that the case. Possibly related, but not primary questions: Is this database schema in a reasonably normal form (e.g. to 3NF), insofar as can be told from the information I've provided. I can't see a problem with the requirements of 2NF and 3NF, except in their inheriting the requirements of 1NF. Is 1NF satisfied though? Are repeating groups allowed in different tables? Is there a best-practice method for implementing the inheritance relationship in a database as I require? The method above feels clunky to me because any query on the SubSubGroup necessarily needs to join onto the SubGroup and the TopLevelGroup tables to collect inherited facts, which can make even trivial joins requiring facts from the SubSubGroup table rather long-winded. There are, of course, political considerations to making a relatively large change like this. For the purpose of this question, I'm happy to ignore that fact in the interests of keeping the answers ring-fenced to the technical problem.

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  • Spring.NET & Immediacy CMS (or how to inject to server side controls without using PageHandlerFactor

    - by Simon Rice
    Is there any way to inject dependencies into an Immediacy CMS control using Spring.NET, ideally without having to use to ContextRegistry when initialising the control? Update, with my own answer The issue here is that Immediacy already has a handler defined in web.config that deals with all aspx pages, & so it's not possible add an entry for Spring.NET's PageHandlerFactory in web.config as per a normal webforms app. That rules out making the control implement ISupportsWebDependencyInjection. Furthermore, most of Immediacy's generated pages are aspx pages that don't physically exist on the drive. I have changed the title of the question to reflect this. What I have done to get Dependency Injection working is: Add the usual entries to web.config for Spring.NET as outlined in the documentation, except for the adding the entry to the <httpHandlers> section. In this case I've got my object definitions in Spring.config. Create the following abstract base class that will deal with all of the Dependency Injection work: DIControl.cs public abstract class DIControl : ImmediacyControl { protected virtual string DIName { get { return this.GetType().Name; } } protected override void OnInit(EventArgs e) { if (ContextRegistry.GetContext().GetObject(DIName, this.GetType()) != null) ContextRegistry.GetContext().ConfigureObject(this, DIName); base.OnInit(e); } } For non-immediacy controls, you can make this server side control inherit from Control or whatever subclass of that you like. For any control with which you wish to use with Spring.NET's Inversion of Control container, define it to inherit from DIControl & add the relelvant entry to Spring.config, for example: SampleControl.cs public class SampleControl : DIControl, INamingContainer { public string Text { get; set; } protected string InjectedText { get; set; } public SampleControl() : base() { Text = "Hello world"; } protected override void RenderContents(HtmlTextWriter output) { output.Write(string.Format("{0} {1}", Text, InjectedText)); } } Spring.config <objects xmlns="http://www.springframework.net"> <object id="SampleControl" type="MyProject.SampleControl, MyAssembly"> <property name="InjectedText" value="from Spring.NET" /> </object> </objects> You can optionally override DIName if you wish to name your entry in Spring.config differently from the name of your class. Provided everything's done correctly, you will have the control writing out "Hello world from Spring.NET!" when used in a page. This solution uses Spring.NET's ContextRegistry from within the control, but I would be surprised if there's no way around that for Immediacy at least since the page objects themselves aren't accessible. However, can this be improved at all from a Spring.NET perspective? Is there maybe an Immediacy plugin that already does this that I'm completely unaware of? Or is there an approach that does this in a more elegant way? I'm open to suggestions.

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  • Make a compiled binary run at native speed flawlessly without recompiling from source on a another system?

    - by unknownthreat
    I know that many people, at a first glance of the question, may immediately yell out "Java", but no, I know Java's qualities. Allow me to elaborate my question first. Normally, when we want our program to run at a native speed on a system, whether it be Windows, Mac OS X, or Linux, we need to compile from source codes. If you want to run a program of another system in your system, you need to use a virtual machine or an emulator. While these tools allow you to use the program you need on the non-native OS, they sometimes have problems of performance and glitches. We also have a newer compiler called "JIT Compiler", where the compiler will parse the bytecode program to native machine language before execution. The performance may increase to a very good extent with JIT Compiler, but the performance is still not the same as running it on a native system. Another program on Linux, WINE, is also a good tool for running Windows program on Linux system. I have tried running Team Fortress 2 on it, and tried experiment with some settings. I got ~40 fps on Windows at its mid-high setting on 1280 x 1024. On Linux, I need to turn everything low at 1280 x 1024 to get ~40 fps. There are 2 notable things though: Polygon model settings do not seem to affect framerate whether I set it low or high. When there are post-processing effects or some special effects that require manipulation of drawn pixels of the current frame, the framerate will drop to 10-20 fps. From this point, I can see that normal polygon rendering is just fine, but when it comes to newer rendering methods that requires graphic card to the job, it slows down to a crawl. Anyway, this question is rather theoretical. Is there anything we can do at all? I see that WINE can run STEAM and Team Fortress 2. Although there are flaws, they can run at lower setting. Or perhaps, I should also ask, "is it possible to translate one whole program on a system to another system without recompiling from source and get native speed?" I see that we also have AOT Compiler, is it possible to use it for something like this? Or there are so many constraints (such as DirectX call or differences in software architecture) that make it impossible to have a flawless and not native to the system program that runs at native speed?

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  • How do you prevent IDisposable from spreading to all your classes?

    - by GrahamS
    Start with these simple classes... Let's say I have a simple set of classes like this: class Bus { Driver busDriver = new Driver(); } class Driver { Shoe[] shoes = { new Shoe(), new Shoe() }; } class Shoe { Shoelace lace = new Shoelace(); } class Shoelace { bool tied = false; } A Bus has a Driver, the Driver has two Shoes, each Shoe has a Shoelace. All very silly. Add an IDisposable object to Shoelace Later I decide that some operation on the Shoelace could be multi-threaded, so I add an EventWaitHandle for the threads to communicate with. So Shoelace now looks like this: class Shoelace { private AutoResetEvent waitHandle = new AutoResetEvent(false); bool tied = false; // ... other stuff .. } Implement IDisposable on Shoelace Buit now FxCop will complain: "Implement IDisposable on 'Shoelace' because it creates members of the following IDisposable types: 'EventWaitHandle'." Okay, I implement IDisposable on Shoelace and my neat little class becomes this horrible mess: class Shoelace : IDisposable { private AutoResetEvent waitHandle = new AutoResetEvent(false); bool tied = false; private bool disposed = false; public void Dispose() { Dispose(true); GC.SuppressFinalize(this); } ~Shoelace() { Dispose(false); } protected virtual void Dispose(bool disposing) { if (!this.disposed) { if (disposing) { if (waitHandle != null) { waitHandle.Close(); waitHandle = null; } } // No unmanaged resources to release otherwise they'd go here. } disposed = true; } } Or (as pointed out by commenters) since Shoelace itself has no unmanaged resources, I might use the simpler dispose implementation without needing the Dispose(bool) and Destructor: class Shoelace : IDisposable { private AutoResetEvent waitHandle = new AutoResetEvent(false); bool tied = false; public void Dispose() { if (waitHandle != null) { waitHandle.Close(); waitHandle = null; } GC.SuppressFinalize(this); } } Watch in horror as IDisposable spreads Right that's that fixed. But now FxCop will complain that Shoe creates a Shoelace, so Shoe must be IDisposable too. And Driver creates Shoe so Driver must be IDisposable. and Bus creates Driver so Bus must be IDisposable and so on. Suddenly my small change to Shoelace is causing me a lot of work and my boss is wondering why I need to checkout Bus to make a change to Shoelace. The Question How do you prevent this spread of IDisposable, but still ensure that your unmanaged objects are properly disposed?

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  • Bound DataGridView not updating data source

    - by Max Yaffe
    I'm trying to bind a table of structures to a DataGridView. Loading and viewing the table is working fine but I can't edit a value and get it stored back into the table. Here's what I'm doing. I have a "primitive" data type, Real defined by public struct MyReal:IMyPrimative { public Double m_Real; //... public MyReal(String val) { m_Real = default(Double); Init(val); } //... } It gets used in a structure: public struct MyReal_Record : IMyRecord { public MyReal Freq { get; set;} MyReal_Record(String[] vals) { Init(vals); } } And the structure is used to define a table using a generic Binding List public class MyTable<S> : BindingList<S> where S: struct, IMyRecord { public Type typeofS; public MyTable() { typeofS = typeof(S); // ... } This table is used as a binding source for a grid, dynamically. private void miLoadFile_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { MyModel.Table<Real_Record> RTable = new MyModel.Table<Real_Record>(); //... Table initialized here //set up grid with virtual mode dataGridView1.DataSource = RTable; } All of this works fine and I can create RTable, initialize it and display it in a grid. The grid allows editing and has events set for CellParsing and CellFormatting which look like: private void dataGridView1_CellFormatting(object sender, DataGridViewCellFormattingEventArgs e) { if (e.DesiredType != typeof(String)) return; e.Value = e.Value.ToString(); } private void dataGridView1_CellParsing(object sender, DataGridViewCellParsingEventArgs e) { if (e.DesiredType != typeof(MyReal)) return; e.Value = new MyReal(e.Value.ToString()); e.ParsingApplied = true; this.dataGridView1.UpdateCellValue(e.ColumnIndex, e.RowIndex); } When I edit a value in a cell, I can change the text. On leaving the cell, CellParsing fires and the event handler is called. Everything seems to be correct going into the CellParsing handler. e.DesiredType is MyReal. e.Value is a string with the new value. After the new MyReal is created from the string, e.Value is set correctly. RowIndex and ColumnIndex are correct. ReadOnly is set false. However, when I leave the cell, the system restores the original value to the cell. I thought the UpdateCellValue would replace the value in the dataSource but I seem to be missing something. What did I miss? Thanks, Max

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  • Tomcat JMX connection - Authentication failed.

    - by ziggy
    I am having some problems setting up Tomcat for JMX. I added the following properties to CATALINA_OPTS="-Dcom.sun.management.jmxremote.port=18070 -Dcom.sun.management.jmxremote.password.file=$CATALINA_BASE/conf/jmxremote.password -Dcom.sun .management.jmxremote.ssl=false" And have added the jmxremote.password file in to the conf directory. I wrote a client tool that connects to the JMX server running on port 18070. When i run the client program i get the following error. Exception in thread "main" java.lang.SecurityException: Authentication failed! Credentials required at com.sun.jmx.remote.security.JMXPluggableAuthenticator.authenticationFailure(JMXPluggableAuthenticator.java:193) at com.sun.jmx.remote.security.JMXPluggableAuthenticator.authenticate(JMXPluggableAuthenticator.java:145) at sun.management.jmxremote.ConnectorBootstrap$AccessFileCheckerAuthenticator.authenticate(ConnectorBootstrap.java:185) at javax.management.remote.rmi.RMIServerImpl.doNewClient(RMIServerImpl.java:213) at javax.management.remote.rmi.RMIServerImpl.newClient(RMIServerImpl.java:180) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:25) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:597) at sun.rmi.server.UnicastServerRef.dispatch(UnicastServerRef.java:305) at sun.rmi.transport.Transport$1.run(Transport.java:159) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at sun.rmi.transport.Transport.serviceCall(Transport.java:155) at sun.rmi.transport.tcp.TCPTransport.handleMessages(TCPTransport.java:535) at sun.rmi.transport.tcp.TCPTransport$ConnectionHandler.run0(TCPTransport.java:790) at sun.rmi.transport.tcp.TCPTransport$ConnectionHandler.run(TCPTransport.java:649) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor$Worker.runTask(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:885) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor$Worker.run(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:907) at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:619) at sun.rmi.transport.StreamRemoteCall.exceptionReceivedFromServer(StreamRemoteCall.java:255) at sun.rmi.transport.StreamRemoteCall.executeCall(StreamRemoteCall.java:233) at sun.rmi.server.UnicastRef.invoke(UnicastRef.java:142) at javax.management.remote.rmi.RMIServerImpl_Stub.newClient(Unknown Source) at javax.management.remote.rmi.RMIConnector.getConnection(RMIConnector.java:2312) at javax.management.remote.rmi.RMIConnector.connect(RMIConnector.java:277) at javax.management.remote.JMXConnectorFactory.connect(JMXConnectorFactory.java:248) at com.bt.c21sc.c21tkprobe.accessors.C21TkProbeJmxDAO.connect(Unknown Source) at com.bt.c21sc.c21tkprobe.service.C21TkProbeBD.execute(Unknown Source) at com.bt.c21sc.c21tkprobe.C21AppserverProbe.main(Unknown Source) If i change the CATALINA_OPTS properties to CATALINA_OPTS="-Dcom.sun.management.jmxremote.port=18070 -Dcom.sun.management.jmxremote.password.file=$CATALINA_BASE/conf/jmxremote.password -Dcom.sun .management.jmxremote.ssl=false -Dcom.sun.management.jmxremote.authenticate=false" Then it works fine. I think what i am confused of is what is classed as remote access. I am running the client program away from the Tomcat instance but both Tomcat and the client tool are on the same machine (i.e. different virtual machines but same environemnt). I thought i had to configure the remote authentication if i access the JMX server remotely from a different machine. By remote access do they mean accessing the JMX server from any VM either locally or remotely?

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  • Help with strange memory behavior. Looking for leaks both in my brain and in my code.

    - by BastiBechtold
    I spent the last few days trying to find memory leaks in a program we are developing. First of all, I tried using some leak detectors. After fixing a few issues, they do not find any leaks any more. However, I am also monitoring my application using perfmon.exe. Performance Monitor reports that 'Private Bytes' and 'Working Set - Private' are steadily rising when the app is used. To me, this suggests that the program is using more and more memory the longer it runs. Internal resources seem to be stable however, so this sounds like leaking to me. The program is loading a DLL at runtime. I suspect that these leaks or whatever they are occur in that library and get purged when the library is unloaded, hence they won't get picked up by the leak detectors. I used both DevPartner BoundsChecker and Virtual Leak Detector to look for memory leaks. Both supposedly catch leaks in DLLs. Also, the memory consumption is increasing in steps and those steps roughly, but not exactly, coincide with certain GUI actions I perform in the application. If these were errors in our code, they should get triggered every single time the actions are performed and not just most of the time. Whenever I am confronted with so much strangeness, I begin to question my basic assumptions. So I turn to you, who know everything, for suggestions. Is there a flaw in my assumptions? Do you have an idea of how to go about troubleshooting a problem like this? Edit: I am currently using Microsoft Visual C++ (x86) on Windows 7 64. Edit2: I just used IBM Purify to hunt for leaks. First of all, it lists a full 30% of the program as leaked memory. This can not be true. I guess it is identifying the whole DLL as leaked or something like that. However, if I search for new leaks every few actions, it reports leaks that correspond with the size increase reported by Performance Monitor. This could be a lead to a leak. Sadly, I am only using the trial version of Purify, so it won't show me the actual location of those leaks. (These leaks only show up at runtime. When the program exits, there are no leaks whatsoever reported by any tool.)

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  • error in C# code

    - by user318068
    hi all . I have a problem with my code in C# . if i click in compiler button , I get the following errors 'System.Collections.Generic.LinkedList' does not contain a definition for 'removeFirst' and no extension method 'removeFirst' accepting a first argument of type 'System.Collections.Generic.LinkedList' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?). and 'System.Collections.Generic.LinkedList' does not contain a definition for 'addLast' and no extension method 'addLast' accepting a first argument of type 'System.Collections.Generic.LinkedList' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) This is part of a simple program using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; namespace Hanoi { public class Sol { public LinkedList<int?> t1 = new LinkedList<int?>(); public LinkedList<int?> t2 =new LinkedList<int?>(); public LinkedList<int?> t3 =new LinkedList<int?>(); public int depth; public LinkedList<Sol> neighbors; public Sol(LinkedList<int?> t1, LinkedList<int?> t2, LinkedList<int?> t3) { this.t1 = t1; this.t2 = t2; this.t3 = t3; neighbors = new LinkedList<Sol>(); } public virtual void getneighbors() { Sol temp = this.copy(); Sol neighbor1 = this.copy(); Sol neighbor2 = this.copy(); Sol neighbor3 = this.copy(); Sol neighbor4 = this.copy(); Sol neighbor5 = this.copy(); Sol neighbor6 = this.copy(); if (temp.t1.Count != 0) { if (neighbor1.t2.Count != 0) { if (neighbor1.t1.First.Value < neighbor1.t2.First.Value) { neighbor1.t2.AddFirst(neighbor1.t1.RemoveFirst()); neighbors.AddLast(neighbor1); } } else { neighbor1.t2.AddFirst(neighbor1.t1.RemoveFirst()); neighbors.AddLast(neighbor1); } if (neighbor2.t3.Count != 0) { if (neighbor2.t1.First.Value < neighbor2.t3.First.Value) { neighbor2.t3.AddFirst(neighbor2.t1.RemoveFirst()); neighbors.AddLast(neighbor2); } } else I hope that you find someone to help me

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  • "Access violation reading location" while accessing a global vector..

    - by djzmo
    Hello there, -- First of all, I don't know whether the vector can be called as a "global vector" if I declared it under a namespace, but not in a class or function. -- I'm now writing a simple Irrlicht (http://irrlicht.sourceforge.net) wrapper for my game to make things simpler and easier, but recently I got an "Access violation reading location" error when trying to push_back a vector declared in the global scope. Here is my code so far: irrwrap.cpp: namespace irrw { //......... IrrlichtDevice *device; IVideoDriver *driver; irr::core::array<irr::video::ITexture*> TextureCollector; vector<int> TextureConnector; //......... } //.............. void irrInit(int iGraphicsDriver, int iWindowWidth, int iWindowHeight, int iScreenDepth, bool bFullScreen) { E_DRIVER_TYPE drvT; if(iGraphicsDriver == GD_SOFTWARE) drvT = EDT_SOFTWARE; else if(iGraphicsDriver == GD_D3D8) drvT = EDT_DIRECT3D8; else if(iGraphicsDriver == GD_D3D9) drvT = EDT_DIRECT3D9; else if(iGraphicsDriver == GD_OPENGL) drvT = EDT_OPENGL; //.............. irrw::device = createDevice(drvT, dimension2d<u32>(iWindowWidth, iWindowHeight), iScreenDepth, bFullScreen); irrw::driver = irrw::device->getVideoDriver(); //.................. } void irrLoadImage(irr::core::stringc szFileName, int iID, int iTextureFlag) { //........ irrw::TextureCollector.push_back(irrw::driver->getTexture(szFileName)); // the call stack pointed to this line irrw::TextureConnector.push_back(iID); } main.cpp: //......... INT WINAPI WinMain(HINSTANCE hInst, HINSTANCE, LPSTR strCmdLine, INT) { //......... irrInit(GD_OPENGL, 800, 600, 16, false); irrLoadImage("picture.jpg", 100, 1); //......... } and the error: Unhandled exception at 0x692804d6 in Game.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation reading location 0x00000558. Now I really got no idea on how to fix the problem. Any kind of help would be appreciated :) Here are some prototypes: virtual ITexture* getTexture(const io::path& filename) = 0; typedef core::string<fschar_t> path; // under 'io' namespace typedef char fschar_t; typedef string<c8> stringc; typedef char c8; Just FYI, I am using MSVC++ 2008 EE. (CODE UPDATED)

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  • How can I implement a site with ASP.NET MVC without using Visual Studio?

    - by Cheeso
    I have seen ASP.NET MVC Without Visual Studio, which asks, Is it possible to produce a website based on ASP.NET MVC, without using Visual Studio? And the accepted answer is, yes. Ok, next question: how? Here's an analogy. If I want to create an ASP.NET Webforms page, I load up my favorite text editor, create a file named Something.aspx. Then I insert into that file, some boilerplate: <%@ Page Language="C#" Debug="true" Trace="false" Src="Sourcefile.cs" Inherits="My.Namespace.ContentsPage" %> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en" lang="en"> <head> <title>Title goes here </title> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="css/style.css"></link> <style type="text/css"> #elementid { font-size: 9pt; color: Navy; ... more css ... } </style> <script type="text/javascript" language='javascript'> // insert javascript here. </script> </head> <body> <asp:Literal Id='Holder' runat='server'/> <br/> <div id='msgs'></div> </body> </html> Then I also create the Sourcefile.cs file: namespace My.Namespace { using System; using System.Web; using System.Xml; // etc... public class ContentsPage : System.Web.UI.Page { protected System.Web.UI.WebControls.Literal Holder; void Page_Load(Object sender, EventArgs e) { // page load logic here } } } And that is a working ASPNET page, created in a text editor. Drop it into an IIS virtual directory, and it's working. What do I have to do, to make a basic, hello, World ASPNET MVC app, in a text editor? (without Visual Studio) Suppose I want a basic MVC app with a controller, one view, and a simple model. What files would I need to create, and what would go into them?

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  • How is "clean" testing done on the Macintosh without virtualization?

    - by Schnapple
    One of the things I've run across on Windows is when a web browser plugin or program you're developing makes an assumption that something is installed that, by default, isn't always present on Windows. A perfect example would be .NET - a whole lot of people running Windows XP have never installed any versions of .NET and so the installer needs to detect and remedy this if necessary. The way I've been testing this in Windows is to have a virtual machine with a snapshot of a clean, patched, but otherwise untouched install of XP or Vista or 7 or whatever. When I'm done testing I just discard any changes since the snapshot. Works great. I'm now developing something for the Macintosh, a platform which is very new to me, and I'm seeing that virtualization does not appear to be an option. It's explicitly forbidden in the EULA of Mac OS X, it's only allowed from Mac OS X Server, which seeing as how I'm targeting an end product is of no use to me, and the one program I see which can virtualize it - VirtualBox - only supports the server and actively nukes any discussion of running the consumer/client version of Mac OS X. And the only instructions I find anywhere on the topic seem to involve the use of "hacking" programs which is very much incompatible with the full-time gig I'm trying to do this for. So it looks like virtualization is out, but at various points I'm going to want or need to simulate what it's like to install and run this software on a "clean" Macintosh. How do people usually do this? Just buy multiple Macintoshes and use Time Machine? Am I thinking about this all wrong and everything Just Works? To be clear I'm not trying to run Mac OS X on a Windows machine. I have a Macintosh, I'm fine with virtualizing Mac OS X on Apple hardware, I'm just not seeing a route to making the non-Server version do this. I'm aware that Mac OS X Server can be virtualized but that's not what I'm going for. I'm aware that there are unsanctioned/unsupported methods of making Mac OS X run in virtualization programs like VirtualBox but for legal reasons I am not interested in those. My question is not "how can I do this?" but rather "so this thing I do on Windows seems to not be possible, generally, on the Macintosh, so what do people do to achieve what I'm going for?"

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  • Is this a valid pattern for raising events in C#?

    - by Will Vousden
    Update: For the benefit of anyone reading this, since .NET 4, the lock is unnecessary due to changes in synchronization of auto-generated events, so I just use this now: public static void Raise<T>(this EventHandler<T> handler, object sender, T e) where T : EventArgs { if (handler != null) { handlerCopy(sender, e); } } And to raise it: SomeEvent.Raise(this, new FooEventArgs()); Having been reading one of Jon Skeet's articles on multithreading, I've tried to encapsulate the approach he advocates to raising an event in an extension method like so (with a similar generic version): public static void Raise(this EventHandler handler, object @lock, object sender, EventArgs e) { EventHandler handlerCopy; lock (@lock) { handlerCopy = handler; } if (handlerCopy != null) { handlerCopy(sender, e); } } This can then be called like so: protected virtual void OnSomeEvent(EventArgs e) { this.someEvent.Raise(this.eventLock, this, e); } Are there any problems with doing this? Also, I'm a little confused about the necessity of the lock in the first place. As I understand it, the delegate is copied in the example in the article to avoid the possibility of it changing (and becoming null) between the null check and the delegate call. However, I was under the impression that access/assignment of this kind is atomic, so why is the lock necessary? Update: With regards to Mark Simpson's comment below, I threw together a test: static class Program { private static Action foo; private static Action bar; private static Action test; static void Main(string[] args) { foo = () => Console.WriteLine("Foo"); bar = () => Console.WriteLine("Bar"); test += foo; test += bar; test.Test(); Console.ReadKey(true); } public static void Test(this Action action) { action(); test -= foo; Console.WriteLine(); action(); } } This outputs: Foo Bar Foo Bar This illustrates that the delegate parameter to the method (action) does not mirror the argument that was passed into it (test), which is kind of expected, I guess. My question is will this affect the validity of the lock in the context of my Raise extension method? Update: Here is the code I'm now using. It's not quite as elegant as I'd have liked, but it seems to work: public static void Raise<T>(this object sender, ref EventHandler<T> handler, object eventLock, T e) where T : EventArgs { EventHandler<T> copy; lock (eventLock) { copy = handler; } if (copy != null) { copy(sender, e); } }

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  • C# Property Access vs Interface Implementation

    - by ehdv
    I'm writing a class to represent a Pivot Collection, the root object recognized by Pivot. A Collection has several attributes, a list of facet categories (each represented by a FacetCategory object) and a list of items (each represented by a PivotItem object). Therefore, an extremely simplified Collection reads: public class Collection { private List<FacetCategory> categories; private List<PivotItem> items; // other attributes } What I'm unsure of is how to properly grant access to those two lists. Because declaration order of both facet categories and items is visible to the user, I can't use sets, but the class also shouldn't allow duplicate categories or items. Furthermore, I'd like to make the Collection object as easy to use as possible. So my choices are: Have Collection implement IList<PivotItem> and have accessor methods for FacetCategory: In this case, one would add an item to Collection foo by writing foo.Add(bar). This works, but since a Collection is equally both kinds of list making it only pass as a list for one type (category or item) seems like a subpar solution. Create nested wrapper classes for List (CategoryList and ItemList). This has the advantage of making a consistent interface but the downside is that these properties would no longer be able to serve as lists (because I need to override the non-virtual Add method I have to implement IList rather than subclass List. Implicit casting wouldn't work because that would return the Add method to its normal behavior. Also, for reasons I can't figure out, IList is missing an AddRange method... public class Collection { private class CategoryList: IList<FacetCategory> { // ... } private readonly CategoryList categories = new CategoryList(); private readonly ItemList items = new ItemList(); public CategoryList FacetCategories { get { return categories; } set { categories.Clear(); categories.AddRange(value); } } public ItemList Items { get { return items; } set { items.Clear(); items.AddRange(value); } } } Finally, the third option is to combine options one and two, so that Collection implements IList<PivotItem> and has a property FacetCategories. Question: Which of these three is most appropriate, and why?

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  • NHibernate unintentional lazy property loading

    - by chiccodoro
    I introduced a mapping for a business object which has (among others) a property called "Name": public class Foo : BusinessObjectBase { ... public virtual string Name { get; set; } } For some reason, when I fetch "Foo" objects, NHibernate seems to apply lazy property loading (for simple properties, not associations): The following code piece generates n+1 SQL statements, whereof the first only fetches the ids, and the remaining n fetch the Name for each record: ISession session = ...IQuery query = session.CreateQuery(queryString); ITransaction tx = session.BeginTransaction(); List<Foo> result = new List<Foo>(); foreach (Foo foo in query.Enumerable()) { result.Add(foo); } tx.Commit(); session.Close(); produces: NHibernate: select foo0_.FOO_ID as col_0_0_ from V1_FOO foo0_<br/> NHibernate: SELECT foo0_.FOO_ID as FOO1_2_0_, foo0_.NAME as NAME2_0_ FROM V1_FOO foo0_ WHERE foo0_.FOO_ID=:p0;:p0 = 81<br/> NHibernate: SELECT foo0_.FOO_ID as FOO1_2_0_, foo0_.NAME as NAME2_0_ FROM V1_FOO foo0_ WHERE foo0_.FOO_ID=:p0;:p0 = 36470<br/> NHibernate: SELECT foo0_.FOO_ID as FOO1_2_0_, foo0_.NAME as NAME2_0_ FROM V1_FOO foo0_ WHERE foo0_.FOO_ID=:p0;:p0 = 36473 Similarly, the following code leads to a LazyLoadingException after session is closed: ISession session = ... ITransaction tx = session.BeginTransaction(); Foo result = session.Load<Foo>(id); tx.Commit(); session.Close(); Console.WriteLine(result.Name); Following this post, "lazy properties ... is rarely an important feature to enable ... (and) in Hibernate 3, is disabled by default." So what am I doing wrong? I managed to work around the LazyLoadingException by doing a NHibernateUtil.Initialize(foo) but the even worse part are the n+1 sql statements which bring my application to its knees. This is how the mapping looks like: <class name="Foo" table="V1_FOO"> ... <property name="Name" column="NAME"/> </class> BTW: The abstract "BusinessObjectBase" base class encapsulates the ID property which serves as the internal identifier.

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  • How can I implement ASP.NET MVC without using Visual Studio?

    - by Cheeso
    I have seen ASP.NET MVC Without Visual Studio, which asks, Is it possible to produce a website based on ASP.NET MVC, without using Visual Studio? And the accepted answer is, yes. Ok, next question: how? Here's an analogy. If I want to create an ASP.NET Webforms page, I load up my favorite text editor, create a file named Something.aspx. Then I insert into that file, some boilerplate: <%@ Page Language="C#" Debug="true" Trace="false" Src="Sourcefile.cs" Inherits="My.Namespace.ContentsPage" %> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en" lang="en"> <head> <title>Title goes here </title> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="css/style.css"></link> <style type="text/css"> #elementid { font-size: 9pt; color: Navy; ... more css ... } </style> <script type="text/javascript" language='javascript'> // insert javascript here. </script> </head> <body> <asp:Literal Id='Holder' runat='server'/> <br/> <div id='msgs'></div> </body> </html> Then I also create the Sourcefile.cs file: namespace My.Namespace { using System; using System.Web; using System.Xml; // etc... public class ContentsPage : System.Web.UI.Page { protected System.Web.UI.WebControls.Literal Holder; void Page_Load(Object sender, EventArgs e) { // page load logic here } } } And that is a working ASPNET page, created in a text editor. Drop it into an IIS virtual directory, and it's working. What do I have to do, to make a basic, hello, World ASPNET MVC app, in a text editor? (without Visual Studio)

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  • BB Code Parser (in formatting phase) with jQuery jammed due to messed up loops most likely

    - by Oskar
    Greetings everyone, I'm making a BB Code Parser but I'm stuck on the JavaScript front. I'm using jQuery and the caret library for noting selections in a text field. When someone selects a piece of text a div with formatting options will appear. I have two issues. Issue 1. How can I make this work for multiple textfields? I'm drawing a blank as it currently will detect the textfield correctly until it enters the $("#BBtoolBox a").mousedown(function() { } loop. After entering it will start listing one field after another in a random pattern in my eyes. !!! MAIN Issue 2. I'm guessing this is the main reason for issue 1 as well. When I press a formatting option it will work on the first action but not the ones afterwards. It keeps duplicating the variable parsed. (if I only keep to one field it will never print in the second) Issue 3 If you find anything especially ugly in the code, please tell me how to improve myself. I appriciate all help I can get. Thanks in advance $(document).ready(function() { BBCP(); }); function BBCP(el) { if(!el) { el = "textarea"; } // Stores the cursor position of selection start $(el).mousedown(function(e) { coordX = e.pageX; coordY = e.pageY; // Event of selection finish by using keyboard }).keyup(function() { BBtoolBox(this, coordX, coordY); // Event of selection finish by using mouse }).mouseup(function() { BBtoolBox(this, coordX, coordY); // Event of field unfocus }).blur(function() { $("#BBtoolBox").hide(); }); } function BBtoolBox(el, coordX, coordY) { // Variable containing the selected text by Caret selection = $(el).caret().text; // Ignore the request if no text is selected if(selection.length == 0) { $("#BBtoolBox").hide(); return; } // Print the toolbox if(!document.getElementById("BBtoolBox")) { $(el).before("<div id=\"BBtoolBox\" style=\"left: "+ ( coordX + 5 ) +"px; top: "+ ( coordY - 30 ) +"px;\"></div>"); // List of actions $("#BBtoolBox").append("<a href=\"#\" onclick=\"return false\"><img src=\"./icons/text_bold.png\" alt=\"B\" title=\"Bold\" /></a>"); $("#BBtoolBox").append("<a href=\"#\" onclick=\"return false\"><img src=\"./icons/text_italic.png\" alt=\"I\" title=\"Italic\" /></a>"); } else { $("#BBtoolBox").css({'left': (coordX + 3) +'px', 'top': (coordY - 30) +'px'}).show(); } // Parse the text according to the action requsted $("#BBtoolBox a").mousedown(function() { switch($(this).children(":first").attr("alt")) { case "B": // bold parsed = "[b]"+ selection +"[/b]"; break; case "I": // italic parsed = "[i]"+ selection +"[/i]"; break; } // Changes the field value by replacing the selection with the variable parsed $(el).val($(el).caret().replace(parsed)); $("#BBtoolBox").hide(); return false; }); }

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  • Improving performance on data pasting 2000 rows with validations

    - by Lohit
    I have N rows (which could be nothing less than 1000) on an excel spreadsheet. And in this sheet our project has 150 columns like this: Now, our application needs data to be copied (using normal Ctrl+C) and pasted (using Ctrl+V) from the excel file sheet on our GUI sheet. Copy pasting 1000 records takes around 5-6 seconds which is okay for our requirement, but the problem is when we need to make sure the data entered is valid. So we have to validate data in each row generate appropriate error messages and format the data as per requirement. So we need to at runtime parse and evaluate data in each row. Now all the formatting of data and validations come from the back-end database and we have it in a data-table (dtValidateAndFormatConditions). The conditions would be around 50. So you can see how slow this whole process becomes since N X 150 X 50 operations are required to complete this whole process. Initially it took approximately 2-3 minutes but now i have reduced it to 20 - 30 seconds. However i have increased the speed by making an expression parser of my own - and not by any algorithm, is there any other way i can improve performance, by using Divide and Conquer or some other mechanism. Currently i am not really sure how to go about this. Here is what part of my code looks like: public virtual void ValidateAndFormatOnCopyPaste(DataTable DtCopied, int CurRow) { foreach (DataRow dRow in dtValidateAndFormatConditions.Rows) { string Condition = dRow["Condition"]; string FormatValue = Value = dRow["Value"]; GetValidatedFormattedData(DtCopied,ref Condition, ref FormatValue ,iRowIndex); Condition = Parse(Condition); dRow["Condition"] = Condition; FormatValue = Parse(FormatValue ); dRow["Value"] = FormatValue; } } The above code gets called row-wise like this: public override void ValidateAndFormat(DataTable dtChangedRecords, CellRange cr) { int iRowStart = cr.Row, iRowEnd = cr.Row + cr.RowCount; for (int iRow = iRowStart; iRow < iRowEnd; iRow++) { ValidateAndFormatOnCopyPaste(dtChangedRecords,iRow); } } Please know my question needs a more algorithmic solution than code optimization, however any answers containing code related optimizations will be appreciated as well. (Tagged Linq because although not seen i have been using linq in some parts of my code).

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  • Android - cant read TXT files from SDcard on real mashine?

    - by JustMe
    Hello! When I run the code bellow in the virtual android (1.5) it works well, TextSwitcher shows first 80 chars from each txt file from /sdcard/documents/ , but when I run it on my Samsung Galaxy i7500 (1.6) there are no contents in TextSwitcher, however in LogCat there are FileNames of txt files. My Code: public void getTxtFiles(){ //Scan /sdcard/documents and put .txt files in array File TxtFiles[] String path = Environment.getExternalStorageDirectory().toString()+"/documents/"; String files; File folder = new File(path); if(folder.exists()==false){if (!folder.mkdirs()) { Log.e("TAG", "Create dir in sdcard failed"); return; }} else{ File listOfFiles[] = folder.listFiles(); for (int i = 0; i < listOfFiles.length; i++) { if (listOfFiles[i].isFile()) { files = listOfFiles[i].getName(); if (files.endsWith(".txt") || files.endsWith(".TXT")) { if((files.length()-1)>i){resizeArray(TxtFiles, files.length()+10);} TxtFiles[i]=listOfFiles[i]; System.out.println(TxtFiles[i]); } } }} } private void updateCounter(int Pozicija) { if(Pozicija<0){Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), R.string.LastTxt, 5).show(); mCounter++;} else if(TxtFiles[mCounter]!=null){ TextToShow = getContents(TxtFiles[mCounter]); if(TextToShow.length()>80)TextToShow=TextToShow.substring(0, 80); mSwitcher.setText(TextToShow); System.out.println(Pozicija); } else mCounter--; } static public String getContents(File aFile) { //...checks on aFile are elided StringBuilder contents = new StringBuilder(); try { //use buffering, reading one line at a time //FileReader always assumes default encoding is OK! BufferedReader input = new BufferedReader(new FileReader(aFile)); try { String line = null; //not declared within while loop /* * readLine is a bit quirky : * it returns the content of a line MINUS the newline. * it returns null only for the END of the stream. * it returns an empty String if two newlines appear in a row. */ while (( line = input.readLine()) != null){ contents.append(line); contents.append(System.getProperty("line.separator")); } } finally { input.close(); } } catch (IOException ex){ ex.printStackTrace(); } return contents.toString(); } And I am able to write contents of those files though LogCat! Any ideas?

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