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• Multiple Solution Layout for ASP.NET Web Portal?

  - by Jared S

  At work, we've developed a custom ASP.NET Web Portal (That's very similar to iGoogle). We have "Apps" (self-contained, large web forms) and "Modules" (similar to Google Gadgets). Currently, we use a single-solution model. Right now, we have: 3 core projects 60 application projects 80 module projects To reduce copy and pasting between projects, we're going to factor out common functionality (Data Access, Business Logic) into separate projects. I'd also like to introduce Unit Tests, which is going to increase the number of projects even more. We've already reached the point where Visual Studio is choking on the number of projects. We generally only load the 3 core projects and then whatever app's/module's project we're working on. Would a different solution structure help us out? Our number of projects is only going to increase. In general, an app or module only references the 3 core projects. Soon, apps/modules may start referencing the Data Access/Business Logic projects. But in general, apps and modules do not make references between themselves. So to recap, what is the best practice for solution structure when there are MANY projects that use a small number of core projects?

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• Accessing the calling object into ajax response... (not the ajax call)

  - by Nishchay Sharma

  I have an object of type Application (defined by me). Whenever an object of this type is created, it automatically loads a php file say "start.php" using jquery ajax and assign the response to a div say "Respo". Now what i want is to access the Application object from that Respo div. Unfortunately, i have no clue how to do this... in my ajax call: function Application(options) { ....... var appObj=this; $.ajax({ url:appObj.location, //Already defined success:function(data) { $("#respo").html(data); } }); } Now in my Respo division i want to access that Application object... I tried: alert(this) but it resulted in an object of DOMWindow... i tried editing success function as: function Application(options) { ....... var appObj=this; $.ajax({ url:appObj.location, //Already defined success:function(data) { $("#respo").html("<script type='text/javascript'>var Self="+appObj+"</script>"); $("#respo").html(data); } }); } But i ended nowhere. :( Although if i assign "var Self='nishchay';" then alerting Self from start.php gives nishchay but i am not able to assign the calling object of Application type to the Self variable. It is the only way I cud think of. :\ Please help me... actually my object has some editing functions to control itself - its look and feel and some other options. I want the code loaded by object to control the object itself. Please help me.. Thanks in advance. Nishchay

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• XCode enum woes

  - by Raconteur

  Hi gang, I thought I had this sorted, but I am still missing something. Very simply, I have a Settings class that hold a DAO (sitting on a plist). I want to have a couple of enums for the settings for convenience and readability, such as GamePlayType and DifficultyLevel. Right now I am defining them in the Settings.h file above the @interface line as such: typedef enum { EASY, NORMAL, HARD } DifficultyLevel; and typedef enum { SET_NUMBER_OF_MOVES, TO_COMPLETION } GamePlayType; If I access them from within the Settings class like: - (int)gridSizeForLOD { switch ([self difficultyLevel]) { case EASY: return GRID_SIZE_EASY; case NORMAL: return GRID_SIZE_NORMAL; case HARD: return GRID_SIZE_HARD; default: return GRID_SIZE_NORMAL; } } everything is fine. But, if I try to access them outside of the Settings class, let's say in my main view controller class, like this: if (([settings gameType] == SET_NUMBER_OF_MOVES) && (numMoves == [settings numMovesForLOD])) { [self showLoseScreen]; } I get errors (like EXC_BAD_ACCESS) or the condition always fails. Am I doing something incorrectly? Also, I should point out that I have this code for the call to gameType (which lives in the Settings class): - (GamePlayType)gameType { return [dao gameType]; } and the DAO implements gameType like this: - (int)gameType { return (settingsContent != nil) ? [[settingsContent objectForKey:@"Game Type"] intValue] : 0; } I know I have the DAO returning an int instead of a GamePlayType, but A) the problem I am describing arose there when I tried to use the "proper" data type, and B) I did not think it would matter since the enum is just a bunch of named ints, right? Any help, greatly appreciated. I really want to understand this thoroughly, and something is eluding me... Cheers, Chris

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• trouble calculating offset index into 3D array

  - by Derek

  Hello, I am writing a CUDA kernel to create a 3x3 covariance matrix for each location in the rows*cols main matrix. So that 3D matrix is rows*cols*9 in size, which i allocated in a single malloc accordingly. I need to access this in a single index value the 9 values of the 3x3 covariance matrix get their values set according to the appropriate row r and column c from some other 2D arrays. In other words - I need to calculate the appropriate index to access the 9 elements of the 3x3 covariance matrix, as well as the row and column offset of the 2D matrices that are inputs to the value, as well as the appropriate index for the storage array. i have tried to simplify it down to the following: //I am calling this kernel with 1D blocks who are 512 cols x 1row. TILE_WIDTH=512 int bx = blockIdx.x; int by = blockIdx.y; int tx = threadIdx.x; int ty = threadIdx.y; int r = by + ty; int c = bx*TILE_WIDTH + tx; int offset = r*cols+c; int ndx = r*cols*rows + c*cols; if((r < rows) && (c < cols)){ //this IF statement is trying to avoid the case where a threadblock went bigger than my original array..not sure if correct d_cov[ndx + 0] = otherArray[offset]; d_cov[ndx + 1] = otherArray[offset] d_cov[ndx + 2] = otherArray[offset] d_cov[ndx + 3] = otherArray[offset] d_cov[ndx + 4] = otherArray[offset] d_cov[ndx + 5] = otherArray[offset] d_cov[ndx + 6] = otherArray[offset] d_cov[ndx + 7] = otherArray[offset] d_cov[ndx + 8] = otherArray[offset] } When I check this array with the values calculated on the CPU, which loops over i=rows, j=cols, k = 1..9 The results do not match up. in other words d_cov[i*rows*cols + j*cols + k] != correctAnswer[i][j][k] Can anyone give me any tips on how to sovle this problem? Is it an indexing problem, or some other logic error?

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• Does Interlocked guarantee visibility to other threads in C# or do I still have to use volatile?

  - by Lirik

  I've been reading the answer to a similar question, but I'm still a little confused... Abel had a great answer, but this is the part that I'm unsure about: ...declaring a variable volatile makes it volatile for every single access. It is impossible to force this behavior any other way, hence volatile cannot be replaced with Interlocked. This is needed in scenarios where other libraries, interfaces or hardware can access your variable and update it anytime, or need the most recent version. Does Interlocked guarantee visibility of the atomic operation to all threads, or do I still have to use the volatile keyword on the value in order to guarantee visibility of the change? Here is my example: public class CountDownLatch { private volatile int m_remain; // <--- do I need the volatile keyword there since I'm using Interlocked? private EventWaitHandle m_event; public CountDownLatch (int count) { Reset(count); } public void Reset(int count) { if (count < 0) throw new ArgumentOutOfRangeException(); m_remain = count; m_event = new ManualResetEvent(false); if (m_remain == 0) { m_event.Set(); } } public void Signal() { // The last thread to signal also sets the event. if (Interlocked.Decrement(ref m_remain) == 0) m_event.Set(); } public void Wait() { m_event.WaitOne(); } }

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• NHibernate many-to-many relationship does not update join-table

  - by Davide Vosti

  I'm having trouble saving a many-to-many relationship with nhibernate. I searched and looked at almost every same question in SO and google but nothing works. The single classes are update correctly but nothing is inserted in the join-table. I have 2 classes: Event and Category. The mapping is this: Event: <bag name="Categories" access="field.camelcase-underscore" table="EventCategories" inverse="true" cascade="all-delete-orphan" lazy="true"> <key column="Event"/> <many-to-many class="Category" column="Category"/> </bag> Category: <bag name="Events" table="EventCategories" access="field.camelcase-underscore" cascade="all-delete-orphan" lazy="true" > <key column="Category"/> <many-to-many class="Event" column="Event"/> </bag> I tried to swap every parameter in both mappings but nothing works... Do you know what I'm doing wrong or have a right mapping for this case? Thank you very much!

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• Django throws 404 at generic views

  - by x0rg

  I'm trying to get the generic views for a date-based archive working in django. I defined the urls as described in a tutorial, but django returns a 404 error whenever I want to access an url with a variable (such as month or year) in it. It don't even produces a TemplateDoesNotExist-execption. Normal urls without variables work fine. Here's my urlconf: from django.conf.urls.defaults import * from zurichlive.zhl.models import Event info_dict = { 'queryset': Event.objects.all(), 'date_field': 'date', 'allow_future': 'True', } urlpatterns += patterns('django.views.generic.date_based', (r'events/(?P<year>d{4})/(?P<month>[a-z]{3})/(?P<day>w{1,2})/(?P<slug>[-w]+)/$', 'object_detail', dict(info_dict, slug_field='slug',template_name='archive/detail.html')), (r'^events/(?P<year>d{4})/(?P<month>[a-z]{3})/(?P<day>w{1,2})/(?P<slug>[-w]+)/$', 'object_detail', dict(info_dict, template_name='archive/list.html')), (r'^events/(?P<year>d{4})/(?P<month>[a-z]{3})/(?P<day>w{1,2})/$','archive_day',dict(info_dict,template_name='archive/list.html')), (r'^events/(?P<year>d{4})/(?P<month>[a-z]{3})/$','archive_month', dict(info_dict, template_name='archive/list.html')), (r'^events/(?P<year>)/$','archive_year', dict(info_dict, template_name='archive/list.html')), (r'^events/$','archive_index', dict(info_dict, template_name='archive/list.html')), ) When I access /events/2010/may/12/this-is-a-slug I should get to the detail.html template, but instead I get a 404. What am I doing wrong?

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• Use of properties vs backing-field inside owner class

  - by whatispunk

  I love auto-implemented properties in C# but lately there's been this elephant standing in my cubicle and I don't know what to do with him. If I use auto-implemented properties (hereafter "aip") then I no longer have a private backing field to use internally. This is fine because the aip has no side-effects. But what if later on I need to add some extra processing in the get or set? Now I need to create a backing-field so I can expand my getters and setters. This is fine for external code using the class, because they won't notice the difference. But now all of the internal references to the aip are going to invoke these side-effects when they access the property. Now all internal access to the once aip must be refactored to use the backing-field. So my question is, what do most of you do? Do you use auto-implemented properties or do you prefer to always use a backing-field? What do you think about properties with side-effects?

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• Computation overhead in C# - Using getters/setters vs. modifying arrays directly and casting speeds

  - by Jeffrey Kern

  I was going to write a long-winded post, but I'll boil it down here: I'm trying to emulate the graphical old-school style of the NES via XNA. However, my FPS is SLOW, trying to modify 65K pixels per frame. If I just loop through all 65K pixels and set them to some arbitrary color, I get 64FPS. The code I made to look-up what colors should be placed where, I get 1FPS. I think it is because of my object-orented code. Right now, I have things divided into about six classes, with getters/setters. I'm guessing that I'm at least calling 360K getters per frame, which I think is a lot of overhead. Each class contains either/and-or 1D or 2D arrays containing custom enumerations, int, Color, or Vector2D, bytes. What if I combined all of the classes into just one, and accessed the contents of each array directly? The code would look a mess, and ditch the concepts of object-oriented coding, but the speed might be much faster. I'm also not concerned about access violations, as any attempts to get/set the data in the arrays will done in blocks. E.g., all writing to arrays will take place before any data is accessed from them. As for casting, I stated that I'm using custom enumerations, int, Color, and Vector2D, bytes. Which data types are fastest to use and access in the .net Framework, XNA, XBox, C#? I think that constant casting might be a cause of slowdown here. Also, instead of using math to figure out which indexes data should be placed in, I've used precomputed lookup tables so I don't have to use constant multiplication, addition, subtraction, division per frame. :)

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• Modifying DIV CSS properties from within a deeply nested IFRAME.

  - by clintboxe

  I'm working with a business intelligence tool that only gives me access to a deeply nested iframe to add code. Ideally I would like to use jQuery and/or plain old JavaScript to modify the left and position CSS of a div that is 3 iframes above my IFRAME. I have access to add JavaScript/HTML to divArea0_1 within the reportiframe IFRAME. I would like to modify the propdiv DIV contained within the JSTabbedPanel IFRAME. Hopefully the HTML below is legible enough. :) Any ideas or help is greatly appreciated. <html> <div id = "tabs"> <iframe id = "tabbedPanel"> <iframe id = "JSTabbedPanel"> <div id = "treeTypeDiv"> <div id = "treediv"> <iframe id = "treeFrame"></iframe> </div> <div id = "propdiv"> <iframe id = "propFrame"> <div id = "reportpane"> <iframe id = "reportiframe"> <div id = "divEntire"> <div id = "divArea0_1"> <div id = "MyCode goes HERE"></div> </div> </div> </iframe> </div> </iframe> </div> </div> </iframe> </iframe> </div> </html>

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• Packages name conflicting with getters and setters?

  - by MrKishi

  Hello, folks. So, I've came across this compilation error a while ago.. As there's an easy fix and I didn't find anything relevant at the time, I eventually let it go. I just remembered it and I'm now wondering if this is really part of the language grammar (which I highly doubt) or if it's a compiler bug. I'm being purely curious about this -- it doesn't really affect development, but it would be nice to see if any of you have seen this already. package view { import flash.display.Sprite; public class Main extends Sprite { private var _view:Sprite = new Sprite(); public function Main() { this.test(); } private function test():void { trace(this.view.x, this.view.y); //1178: Attempted access of inaccessible property x through a reference with static type view:Main. //1178: Attempted access of inaccessible property y through a reference with static type view:Main. //Note that I got this due to the package name. //It runs just fine if I rename the package or getter. } public function get view():Sprite { return this._view; } } }

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• how do you authenticate a user between two services, if they are both using a common third-party oauth service?

  - by urandom

  I'm currently experimenting with oauth logins on a website, using google oauth2. While I set that up without too many problems, I saw that there isn't some kind of permanent token, which only google and the authorized service know about a user. Also, from what I gathered, if I were to create a companion app on android, the preferred way is to go with AccountManager, which seems to handle giving oauth2 access tokens for google accounts. But if I authenticate myself from the anroid app using a google account, how do I now link that user to the same one in the web app? One way I think this can be done if the user also logs into the web app as well, so that the server receives a fresh access token, and the android and web one are compared. But that seems like a huge hassle, and I haven't seen many other apps do that. Another is to use a refresh token on the server, but that would require extra permissions which might put off any potential visitors. So what is the general workflow for achieving this? Or am I thinking the wrong way?

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• Gettingn Started with Facebook API

  - by Btibert3

  I have a friend that owns a small business and has a Page on Facebook. I want to help her manage it from a marketing perspective, and figure that it may be best to do so through their API. I have skimmed their API documentation, and have a basic working knowledge of Python. What I can't figure out is if I can access their page's data with Python and grab the data on wall posts, who liked posts, etc. Is this possible? I can't find a decent tutorial for someone who is new to programming. To provide context, I have been scraping the Twitter Search API for some time now and I am hoping there is something similar (request certain data elements, and have it returned as structured data I can analyze). I find their API extremely straight forward, and for Facebook, I don't know where to begin. I don't want to create an application, I simply want to access the data that is related to my friend's page. I am hoping to find some decent tutorials and help on what I will need to get started. Any help you can provide will be greatly appreciated.

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• How to Set up Virtual Static Subdomain

  - by Chip D

  Given current rewrite rules at http://www.example.com/: Options +FollowSymlinks +Includes RewriteEngine on RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^www\.example\.com [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^$ RewriteRule ^/?(.*) http://www.example.com/$1 [L,R,NE] # Remove all "index.html"s. RewriteCond %{THE_REQUEST} \ /(.+/)?index\.html(\?.*)?\ [NC] RewriteRule ^(.+/)?index\.html$ /%1 [R=301,L] # Remove all "index.php"s. RewriteCond %{THE_REQUEST} \ /(.+/)?index\.php(\?.*)?\ [NC] RewriteRule ^(.+/)?index\.php$ /%1 [R=301,L] I'm attempting to serve some site assets (.png|.ico|.jpg|.gif|.css|.js) from a static subdomain like http://static.example.com which my Apache 1.3 shared host (GoDaddy) has mapped to a subdirectory for file management (http://www.example.com/static/). Currently these assets live in same-site subdirectories such as images/, js/, css/, etc. (1) Something...maybe the "+www" rewrite rule?...is not letting me access the subdomain. Is this likely caused by my rewrite rules above, or do I need to set up DNS changes with the host to enable access to the subdirectory, in addition to changing the rewrite rules? (2) Do I have to move those assets to that subdirectory and change all references sitewide? Would that perform the fastest? (3) Or can .htaccess make this much easier? (4) Should my first rewrite rule above include L,R=301,NE instead of [L,R,NE]?

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• Slow Response in checkbox using JQuery

  - by Dean

  Hi to all. I'm trying to optimize a website. The flow is i tried to query a certain table and all of its data entry in a page(w/ toolbars), work fine. When i tried to edit the page the problem is when i click the checkbox button i have to wait 2-5sec just by clicking it. I limit the viewing of entry to 5 only but the response on checkbox doesn't change. The tables have 100 entries in them. function checkAccess(celDiv,id) { var celValue = $(celDiv).html(); if (celValue==1) $(celDiv).html("<input type='checkbox' value='"+$(celDiv).html()+"' checked disabled>") else $(celDiv).html("<input type='checkbox' value='"+$(celDiv).html()+"' disabled>") $(celDiv).click ( function() { $('input',this).each( function(){ tr_idx = $('#detFlex1 tbody tr').index($(this).parent().parent().parent()); td_idx = $('#detFlex1 tbody tr:eq('+tr_idx+') td').index($(this).parent().parent()); td_last = 13; for(var td=td_idx+1; td<=td_last;td++) { if ($(this).attr('checked') == true) { df[0].rows[tr_idx].cell[td_idx] = 1;//index[1] = Full Access if (td_idx==3) { df[0].rows[tr_idx].cell[td] = 1; } df[0].rows[tr_idx].cell[2] = 1; if (td_idx > 3) { df[0].rows[tr_idx].cell[2] = 1; } } else { df[0].rows[tr_idx].cell[td_idx] = 0;//index[0] = With Access if (td_idx==2) { df[0].rows[tr_idx].cell[td] = 0; } else if (td_idx==3) { df[0].rows[tr_idx].cell[td] = 0; } if (td_idx > 3) { df[0].rows[tr_idx].cell[3] = 0; } } } $('#detFlex1').flexAddData(df[0]); $('.toolbar a[title=Edit Item]').trigger('click'); }); } ); } I've thought that the problem is this above code. Could anyone help me simplify this code.?

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• Using git svn with some awkward permissions

  - by Migs

  Due to some funky permissions on our client's side that we can't change, we have a project whose hierarchy looks something like: projectname/trunk: foo/, bar/, baz/ projectname/branches: branch1/, branch2/ (where branch1 and branch2 each contain foo, bar, and baz.) The thing is, I have no permission to access trunk, so I can't just do a clone of project/trunk. I do have permission to access branches. What I am currently doing is checking out each subdirectory individually via git svn clone, so that each one has their own git repo. I use a script to update/commit them all, but what I would prefer to do is to check them all out under a single repo, and be able to commit changes with a single call to git svn dcommit. Is this possible? I mentioned the branches hierarchy because if possible, I'd also like to be able to track the branches the way I could if the permissions were more sane. I've tried permuting a lot of options that sounded useful, but I haven't found one that gives me exactly what I want. I sense that the solution may have something to do with --no-minimize-url, but I'm not even sure about that, as it didn't help me when I tried it.

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• Rails creating users, roles, and projects

  - by Bobby

  I am still fairly new to rails and activerecord, so please excuse any oversights. I have 3 models that I'm trying to tie together (and a 4th to actually do the tying) to create a permission scheme using user-defined roles. class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :user_projects has_many :projects, :through => :user_projects has_many :project_roles, :through => :user_projects end class Project < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :user_projects has_many :users, :through => :user_projects has_many :project_roles end class ProjectRole < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :projects belongs_to :user_projects end class UserProject < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user belongs_to :project has_one :project_role attr_accessible :project_role_id end The project_roles model contains a user-defined role name, and booleans that define whether the given role has permissions for a specific task. I'm looking for an elegant solution to reference that from anywhere within the project piece of my application easily. I do already have a role system implemented for the entire application. What I'm really looking for though is that the users will be able to manage their own roles on a per-project basis. Every project gets setup with an immutable default admin role, and the project creator gets added upon project creation. Since the users are creating the roles, I would like to be able to pull a list of role names from the project and user models through association (for display purposes), but for testing access, I would like to simply reference them by what they have access to without having reference them by name. Perhaps something like this? def has_perm?(permission, user) # The permission that I'm testing user.current_project.project_roles.each do |role| if role.send(permission) # Not sure that's right... do_stuff end end end I think I'm in over my head on this one because I keep running in circles on how I can best implement this.

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• Can I get a reference to an object created in a jQuery plugin?

  - by gargantaun

  Perhaps my brain is fried, but I'm writing a plugin that created an tweaks an element, but also creates an object that i'd like access to. So the plugin looks like this (function ($) { $.fn.myPlugin = function () { return this.each(function () { // do some stuff to the element... this.objectInstance = new usefulObject(); }); }; })(jQuery); function usefulObject(){ // useful object properties and methods.... this.doSomething = function(){ alert("Don't google Google. You'll break the internet."); } } so when I call the plugin, I also want to be able to get access to that usefulObject that I created. I thought something like this might work.... tweakedElement = $("#someDiv").myPlugin(); tweakedElement.objectInstance.doSomething(); ... but that's not working. How can I achieve this? Can I achieve this? Answers on a postcard, or down below, whichever suits you.

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• Who needs singletons?

  - by sexyprout

  Imagine you access your MySQL database via PDO. You got some functions, and in these functions, you need to access the database. The first thing I thought of is global, like: $db = new PDO('mysql:host=127.0.0.1;dbname=toto', 'root', 'pwd'); function some_function() { global $db; $db->query('...'); } But it's considered as a bad practice. So, after a little search, I ended up with the Singleton pattern, which "applies to situations in which there needs to be a single instance of a class." According to the example of the manual, we should do this: class Database { private static $instance, $db; private function __construct(){} static function singleton() { if(!isset(self::$instance)) self::$instance = new __CLASS__; return self:$instance; } function get() { if(!isset(self::$db)) self::$db = new PDO('mysql:host=127.0.0.1;dbname=toto', 'user', 'pwd') return self::$db; } } function some_function() { $db = Database::singleton(); $db->get()->query('...'); } some_function(); But I just can't understand why you need that big class when you can do it merely with: class Database { private static $db; private function __construct(){} static function get() { if(!isset(self::$rand)) self::$db = new PDO('mysql:host=127.0.0.1;dbname=toto', 'user', 'pwd'); return self::$db; } } function some_function() { Database::get()->query('...'); } some_function(); This last one works perfectly and I don't need to worry about $db anymore. But maybe I'm forgetting something. So, who's wrong, who's right?

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• Accomodating Multiple DLL Versions

  - by shadeseeker

  I have an application that uses a Microsoft DLL (Microsoft.ComponentStudio.ComponentPlatformImplementation.dll) which is used for OS deployment and accessing the catalog files. Version 6.0.0.0 is specific to the Windows Server 2008 catalog files. The newer version 6.1.0.0 is specific to Windows Server 2008 R2 catalog files. Attempting to access a catalog file with the incorrect version results in an exception. My application (VB.NET using VS2005) needs to be able to access either version of these catalogs - I'd be happy with two executables (one for each catalog version) but obviously I don't want to maintain two sets of source code for each. Specifying both sets of DLLs in the project reference is not possible as the DLL names are identical. I'd rather not have to manually add and remove the DLL references each time I want to a build. As far as I know the interfaces etc are effectively identical between the two. I've read a few articles here and elsewhere about bindingRedirect, Assembly.Load etc but none seem to be bearing fruit. Any guidance on the best path to follow would be greatly appreciated. Thanks.

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• Is it possible, in ASP.net, to reference private assembly in a non-virtual subdirectory?

  - by Bago

  Is it possible to reference a private assembly in asp .net from a sub-folder that is not setup as a virtual directory? In other words, my page is setup in ~/subdir, I don't have access to ~/, and I am not an IIS admin. Can I reference a private assembly? How would I do this? I've tried <%@ Assembly Src="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll % and <%@ Assembly Src="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll % , but I get the messages "There is no build provider to match the extension .dll" or "Failed to map to path" respectively. Here is my folder structure: / | -subdir | | - Bin | | | *Assembly.dll | | *Default.aspx I've heard that in web.config might do the trick, but when I've tried it, it doesn't seem to work. Furthermore, I've read that only works in the application .config file. (i.e., the one in ~/). Anyhow, I already tried adding the following to web.config: <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <probing privatePath="/subdir/bin" /> <dependentAssembly> <codeBase href="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll"/> </dependentAssembly> </assemblyBinding> For more background on my problem, I am simply using a shared host, all I have is access to is that subdirectory, and I am trying to use fckeditor.

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• Is it possible, in ASP .net, to reference private assembly in a non-virtual subdirectory?

  - by Bago

  Is it possible to reference a private assembly in asp .net from a sub-folder that is not setup as a virtual directory? In other words, my page is setup in ~/subdir, I don't have access to ~/, and I am not an IIS admin. Can I reference a private assembly? How would I do this? I've tried <%@ Assembly Src="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll % and <%@ Assembly Src="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll % , but I get the messages "There is no build provider to match the extension .dll" or "Failed to map to path" respectively. Here is my folder structure: / | -subdir | | - Bin | | | *Assembly.dll | | *Default.aspx I've heard that in web.config might do the trick, but when I've tried it, it doesn't seem to work. Furthermore, I've read that only works in the application .config file. (i.e., the one in ~/). Anyhow, I already tried adding the following to web.config: <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <probing privatePath="/subdir/bin" /> <dependentAssembly> <codeBase href="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll"/> </dependentAssembly> </assemblyBinding> For more background on my problem, I am simply using a shared host, all I have is access to is that subdirectory, and I am trying to use fckeditor.

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• C#: HTTPWebResponse using application/x-www-form-urlencoded

  - by CSharpened

  So I sent an HTTPWebRequest using application/x-www-form-urlencoded as my content type. I assume that this means the reponse will be returned in a similar type? (EDIT: Have now been told this isn't the case) My question is this. How do I access the different key/value pairs returned in the response. My code so far looks like this. I can of course read the string but surely there is a better way to access the data other than ripping the string apart. HttpWebResponse response = SendPOSTRequest("https://site/page?Service=foo", content.ToString(), "", "", true); string responseCode = response.StatusCode.ToString(); string responseStatusDescription = response.StatusDescription; StreamReader sr = new StreamReader(response.GetResponseStream()); string result = sr.ReadToEnd(); I tried using XML/linq to read the elements into an XDocument but of course it is not being returned in XML form. Assume I have 3 or 4 different pieces of information in there how could I read them out? EDIT: I have just checked and the data is being returned as text/plain. How can this be processed easily? EDIT: The response string once retrieved via a streamreader is: VPSProtocol=2.23 Status=OK StatusDetail=Server transaction registered successfully. VPSTxId={FDC93F3D-FC64-400D-875F-0B7E855AD81F} SecurityKey=***** NextURL=https://foo.com/PaymentPage.asp?TransactionID={875F-0B7E855AD81F}

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• Delay android PlusClient login request

  - by jamesakadamingo

  I am trying to implement the new PlayServices API within my android application to use a +1 button. I have it working nicely, all the expected functionality is there. However it has one rather annoying feature (seriously google!). When you instance the plusclient: mPlusClient = new PlusClient(this, this, this, Scopes.PLUS_PROFILE); Your user is presented with a "Pick your account" dialog (if they have more than one account) followed by a "grant access" dialog. I understand the need for these steps, however they really get in the way of the user experience! My initial activity (post splash screen) now has the +1 button, which means that you have to instance the PlusClient. Doing so in the onCreate() method (as google suggests) means that my user is given the "authorisation" screen before they even know what is going on! What I want to do it delay that untill they actually click the +1 button. That way they will know why they are being asked to authorise access to their account! Any ideas? I have tried using an onClick listener on the +1 button to instance but it didn't work.

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• RegEx expression or jQuery selector to NOT match "external" links in href

  - by TrueBlueAussie

  I have a jQuery plugin that overrides link behavior, to allow Ajax loading of page content. Simple enough with a delegated event like $(document).on('click','a', function(){});. but I only want it to apply to links that are not like these ones (Ajax loading is not applicable to them, so links like these need to behave normally): target="_blank" // New browser window href="#..." // Bookmark link (page is already loaded). href="afs://..." // AFS file access. href="cid://..." // Content identifiers for MIME body part. href="file://..." // Specifies the address of a file from the locally accessible drive. href="ftp://..." // Uses Internet File Transfer Protocol (FTP) to retrieve a file. href="http://..." // The most commonly used access method. href="https://..." // Provide some level of security of transmission href="mailto://..." // Opens an email program. href="mid://..." // The message identifier for email. href="news://..." // Usenet newsgroup. href="x-exec://..." // Executable program. href="http://AnythingNotHere.com" // External links Sample code: $(document).on('click', 'a:not([target="_blank"])', function(){ var $this = $(this); if ('some additional check of href'){ // Do ajax load and stop default behaviour return false; } // allow link to work normally }); Q: Is there a way to easily detect all "local links" that would only navigate within the current website? excluding all the variations mentioned above. Note: This is for an MVC 5 Razor website, so absolute site URLs are unlikely to occur.

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