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  • C#: Is it possible to use expressions or functions as keys in a dictionary?

    - by Svish
    Would it work to use Expression<Func<T>> or Func<T> as keys in a dictionary? For example to cache the result of heavy calculations. For example, changing my very basic cache from a different question of mine a bit: public static class Cache<T> { // Alternatively using Expression<Func<T>> instead private static Dictionary<Func<T>, T> cache; static Cache() { cache = new Dictionary<Func<T>, T>(); } public static T GetResult(Func<T> f) { if (cache.ContainsKey(f)) return cache[f]; return cache[f] = f(); } } Would this even work? Edit: After a quick test, it seems like it actually works. But I discovered that it could probably be more generic, since it would now be one cache per return type... not sure how to change it so that wouldn't happen though... hmm Edit 2: Noo, wait... it actually doesn't. Well, for regular methods it does. But not for lambdas. They get various random method names even if they look the same. Oh well c",)

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  • Trouble with __VA_ARGS__

    - by Noah Roberts
    C++ preprocessor __VA_ARGS__ number of arguments The accepted answer there doesn't work for me. I've tried with MSVC++ 10 and g++ 3.4.5. I also crunched the example down into something smaller and started trying to get some information printed out to me in the error: template < typename T > struct print; #include <boost/mpl/vector_c.hpp> #define RSEQ_N 10,9,8,7,6,5,4,3,2,1,0 #define ARG_N(_1,_2,_3,_4,_5,_6,_7,_8,_9,_10,N,...) N #define ARG_N_(...) ARG_N(__VA_ARGS__) #define XXX 5,RSEQ_N #include <iostream> int main() { print< boost::mpl::vector_c<int, ARG_N_( XXX ) > > g; // ARG_N doesn't work either. } It appears to me that the argument for ARG_N ends up being 'XXX' instead of 5,RSEQ_N and much less 5,10,...,0. The error output of g++ more specifically says that only one argument is supplied. Having trouble believing that the answer would be proposed and then accepted when it totally fails to work, so what am I doing wrong? Why is XXX being interpreted as the argument and not being expanded? In my own messing around everything works fine until I try to pass off VA_ARGS to a macro containing some names followed by ... like so: #define WTF(X,Y,...) X , Y , __VA_ARGS__ #define WOT(...) WTF(__VA_ARGS__) WOT(52,2,5,2,2) I've tried both with and without () in the various macros that take no input.

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  • XMPP4R Callbacks dont seem to work

    - by Sid
    Im using xmpp4r and trying to get the hang of a basic chat feature that I wish to implement later in my Rails app. My fundamentals on Ruby Threads is still a bit shaky so I would appreciate any help on this. Though I register the callback i dont get a response from my gmail account. I am able to send a message but my ruby program terminates. In order to prevent it from terminating I tried to stop on of the threads in the program but I cant seem to get it working. require 'rubygems' require "xmpp4r/client" require "xmpp4r/roster" include Jabber def connect client = Client.new(JID::new("[email protected]")) client.connect client.auth("test") client.send(Presence.new.set_type(:available)) client end def create_message(message, to_email) msg = Jabber::Message::new(to_email, message) msg.type = :chat msg end def subscribe(email_id) pres = Presence.new.set_type(:subscribe).set_to(email_id) pres end client = connect roster = Roster::Helper.new(client) roster.add_subscription_request_callback do |item,pres| roster.accept_subscription(pres.from) end def create_callback(client) $t4= Thread.new do client.add_message_callback do |m| puts m.body puts "................................Callback working" end end end puts "Client has connected" msg = create_message("Welcome to the winter of my discontent", "[email protected]") client.send(msg) create_callback(client) def check(client) $t3 = Thread.new do loop do puts "t3 still running........." Thread.current.stop $t4.join end end end check(client)

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  • warning: assignment makes pointer from integer without a cast

    - by FILIaS
    Im new in programming c with arrays and files. Im just trying to run the following code but i get warnings like that: warning: assignment makes pointer from integer without a cast Any help? It might be silly... but I cant find what's wrong. FILE *fp; FILE *cw; char filename_game[40],filename_words[40]; int main() { while(1) { /* Input filenames. */ printf("\n Enter the name of the file with the cryptwords array: \n"); gets(filename_game); printf("\n Give the name of the file with crypted words:\n"); gets(filename_words); /* Try to open the file with the game */ if (fp=fopen("crypt.txt","r")!=NULL) { printf("\n Successful opening %s \n",filename_game); fclose(fp); puts("\n Enter x to exit,any other to continue! \n "); if ( (getc(stdin))=='x') break; else continue; } else { fprintf(stderr,"ERROR!%s \n",filename_game); puts("\n Enter x to exit,any other to continue! \n"); if (getc(stdin)=='x') break; else continue; } /* Try to open the file with the names. */ if (cw=fopen("words.txt","r")!=NULL) { printf("\n Successful opening %s \n",filename_words); fclose(cw); puts("\n Enter x to exit,any other to continue \n "); if ( (getc(stdin))=='x') break; else continue; } else { fprintf(stderr,"ERROR!%s \n",filename_words); puts("\n Enter x to exit,any other to continue! \n"); if (getc(stdin)=='x') break; else continue; } } return 0; }

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  • share the same cookie between two website using PHP cURL extension

    - by powerboy
    I want to get the contents of some emails in my gmail account. I would like to use the PHP cURL extension to do this. I followed these steps in my first try: In the PHP code, output the contents of https://www.google.com/accounts/ServiceLoginAuth. In the browser, the user input username and password to login. In the PHP code, save cookies in a file named cookie.txt. In the PHP code, send request to https://mail.google.com/ along with cookies retrieved from cookie.txt and output the contents. The following code does not work: $login_url = 'https://www.google.com/accounts/ServiceLoginAuth'; $gmail_url = 'https://mail.google.com/'; $cookie_file = dirname(__FILE__) . '/cookie.txt'; $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER, false); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER, false); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_COOKIEJAR, $cookie_file); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $login_url); $output = curl_exec($ch); echo $output; curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $gmail_url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_COOKIEFILE, $cookie_file); $output = curl_exec($ch); echo $output; curl_close($ch);

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  • MySQL database design question

    - by Greelmo
    I'm trying to weigh the pros and cons of a database design, and would like to get some feedback as to the best approach. Here is the situation: I have users of my system that have only a few required items (username, password). They can then supply a lot of optional information. This optional information continues to grow as the system grows, so I want to do it in such a way that adding new optional information is easy. Currently, I have a separate table for each piece of information. For example, there's a table called 'names' that holds 'user_id', 'first_name', and 'last_name'. There's 'address', 'occupation', etc. You get the drift. In most cases, when I talk to my database, I'm looking only for users with one particular qualifier (name, address, etc.). However, there are instances when I want to see what information a user has set. The 'edit account' page, for example, must run queries for each piece of information it wants. Is this wasteful? Is there a way I can structure my queries or my database to make it so I never have to do one query for each piece of information like that without getting my tables to huge? If i want to add 'marital status', how hard will that be if I don't have a one-table-per-attribute system? Thanks in advance.

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  • Launch command on remote Windows machine, given admin credentials

    - by Bilal Aslam
    I have a Windows Server 2008 instance on Amazon EC2 (Amazon's cloud compute platform, which provides VMs in the cloud). It has an external IP, and I have an admin account on the box. I would like to 'bootstrap' this instance remotely i.e. I want to run commands to download, install and configure apps on it, all without having to log on even once. I have figured out how to do this to a remote, domain-joined computer using WMI. I can even use psexec to get what I want, as long as the remote computer is part of the domain. However, I have NOT been able to do for a remote computer on EC2. Here are some specific restrictions: 1) The remote computer is not part of my domain, hence no Kerberos 2) The remote computer does not have a cert I trust, or vice versa I am sure I am running into to some auth/trust restriction. Is there any way I can run a single command on the remote, given that I have admin privileges? I'm not tied down to using WMI, but I do need to run a command somehow. Feels like this should be a solved problem.

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  • Which view will be resolved, code from spring's docs

    - by Blankman
    So when you go to /appointments the get() action is called, so then would the view be get.jsp (assuming you are using .jsp, and assuming you are mapping action names to views)? And what about the getnewform? It seems to be returning an object? Is that basically passed into the view? @Controller @RequestMapping("/appointments") public class AppointmentsController { private final AppointmentBook appointmentBook; @Autowired public AppointmentsController(AppointmentBook appointmentBook) { this.appointmentBook = appointmentBook; } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.GET) public Map<String, Appointment> get() { return appointmentBook.getAppointmentsForToday(); } @RequestMapping(value="/{day}", method = RequestMethod.GET) public Map<String, Appointment> getForDay(@PathVariable @DateTimeFormat(iso=ISO.DATE) Date day, Model model) { return appointmentBook.getAppointmentsForDay(day); } @RequestMapping(value="/new", method = RequestMethod.GET) public AppointmentForm getNewForm() { return new AppointmentForm(); } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.POST) public String add(@Valid AppointmentForm appointment, BindingResult result) { if (result.hasErrors()) { return "appointments/new"; } appointmentBook.addAppointment(appointment); return "redirect:/appointments"; } } In the example, the @RequestMapping is used in a number of places. The first usage is on the type (class) level, which indicates that all handling methods on this controller are relative to the /appointments path. The get() method has a further @RequestMapping refinement: it only accepts GET requests, meaning that an HTTP GET for /appointments invokes this method. The post() has a similar refinement, and the getNewForm() combines the definition of HTTP method and path into one, so that GET requests for appointments/new are handled by that method.

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  • Return enum instead of bool from function for clarity ?

    - by Moe Sisko
    This is similar to : http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2908876/net-bool-vs-enum-as-a-method-parameter but concerns returning a bool from a function in some situations. e.g. Function which returns bool : public bool Poll() { bool isFinished = false; // do something, then determine if finished or not. return isFinished; } Used like this : while (!Poll()) { // do stuff during wait. } Its not obvious from the calling context what the bool returned from Poll() means. It might be clearer in some ways if the "Poll" function was renamed "IsFinished()", but the method does a bit of work, and (IMO) would not really reflect what the function actually does. Names like "IsFinished" also seem more appropriate for properties. Another option might be to rename it to something like : "PollAndReturnIsFinished" but this doesn't feel right either. So an option might be to return an enum. e.g : public enum Status { Running, Finished } public Status Poll() { Status status = Status.Running; // do something, then determine if finished or not. return status; } Called like this : while (Poll() == Status.Running) { // do stuff during wait. } But this feels like overkill. Any ideas ?

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  • How can I search an XML file without a dynamic language?

    - by jeph perro
    Let me try to explain my situation: We are using a CMS which 'bakes' a website, and you publish it to a webserver. The published site contains only static HTML ( or XML ) pages ( generated from the content in the CMS database ). I imported an XML file with the names and phone numbers from the company phone directory. Using only XSLT, can I create a way to search that directory? For example, if my XML file, directory.xml looks like this: <directory> <person> <fname>Ryan</fname> <lname>Purple</lname> <phone>887 778 5544</phone> </person> <person> <fname>Tanya</fname> <lname>Orange</lname> <phone>887 998 5541</phone> </person> <directory> Can I create a way to search for a person with the last name starting with "Pur" ? Can I pass a parameter to the XSLT? Can I search the XML tree to match the string in the parameter?

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  • Combining aggregate functions in an (ANSI) SQL statement

    - by morpheous
    I have aggregate functions foo(), foobar(), fredstats(), barneystats() I want to create a domain specific query language (DSQL) above my DB, to facilitate using using a domain language to query the DB. The 'language' comprises of boolean expressions (or more specifically SQL like criteria) which I then 'translate' back into pure (ANSI) SQL and send to the underlying Db. The following lines are examples of what the language statements will look like, and hopefully, it will help further clarify the concept: **Example 1** DQL statement: foobar('yellow') between 1 and 3 and fredstats('weight') > 42 Translation: fetch all rows in an underlying table where computed values for aggregate function foobar() is between 1 and 3 AND computed value for AGG FUNC fredstats() is greater than 42 **Example 2** DQL statement: fredstats('weight') < barneystats('weight') AND foo('fighter') in (9,10,11) AND foobar('green') <> 42 Translation: Fetch all rows where the specified criteria matches **Example 3** DQL statement: foobar('green') / foobar('red') <> 42 Translation: Fetch all rows where the specified criteria matches **Example 4** DQL statement: foobar('green') - foobar('red') >= 42 Translation: Fetch all rows where the specified criteria matches Given the following information: The table upon which the queries above are being executed is called 'tbl' table 'tbl' has the following structure (id int, name varchar(32), weight float) The result set returns only the tbl.id, tbl.name and the names of the aggregate functions as columns in the result set - so for example the foobar() AGG FUNC column will be called foobar in the result set. So for example, the first DQL query will return a result set with the following columns: id, name, foobar, fredstats Given the above, my questions then are: What would be the underlying SQL required for Example1 ? What would be the underlying SQL required for Example3 ? Given an algebraic equation comprising of AGGREGATE functions, Is there a way of generalizing the algorithm needed to generate the required ANSI SQL statement(s)? I am using PostgreSQL as the db, but I would prefer to use ANSI SQL wherever possible.

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  • Network Authentication when running exe from WMI

    - by Andy
    Hi, I have a C# exe that needs to be run using WMI and access a network share. However, when I access the share I get an UnauthorizedAccessException. If I run the exe directly the share is accessible. I am using the same user account in both cases. There are two parts to my application, a GUI client that runs on a local PC and a backend process that runs on a remote PC. When the client needs to connect to the backend it first launches the remote process using WMI (code reproduced below). The remote process does a number of things including accessing a network share using Directory.GetDirectories() and reports back to the client. When the remote process is launched automatically by the client using WMI, it cannot access the network share. However, if I connect to the remote machine using Remote Desktop and manually launch the backend process, access to the network share succeeds. The user specifed in the WMI call and the user logged in for the Remote Desktop session are the same, so the permissions should be the same, shouldn't they? I see in the MSDN entry for Directory.Exists() it states "The Exists method does not perform network authentication. If you query an existing network share without being pre-authenticated, the Exists method will return false." I assume this is related? How can I ensure the user is authenticated correctly in a WMI session? ConnectionOptions opts = new ConnectionOptions(); opts.Username = username; opts.Password = password; ManagementPath path = new ManagementPath(string.Format("\\\\{0}\\root\\cimv2:Win32_Process", remoteHost)); ManagementScope scope = new ManagementScope(path, opts); scope.Connect(); ObjectGetOptions getOpts = new ObjectGetOptions(); using (ManagementClass mngClass = new ManagementClass(scope, path, getOpts)) { ManagementBaseObject inParams = mngClass.GetMethodParameters("Create"); inParams["CommandLine"] = commandLine; ManagementBaseObject outParams = mngClass.InvokeMethod("Create", inParams, null); }

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  • .NET MVC custom routing with empty parameters

    - by user135498
    Hi All, I have a .net mvc with the following routes: routes.Add(new Route( "Lookups/{searchtype}/{inputtype}/{firstname}/{middlename}/{lastname}/{city}/{state}/{address}", new RouteValueDictionary( new { controller = "Lookups", action = "Search", firstname = (string)null, middlename = (string)null, lastname = (string)null, city = (string)null, state = (string)null, address = (string)null, SearchType = SearchType.PeopleSearch, InputType = InputType.Name }), new MvcRouteHandler()) ); routes.Add(new Route( "Lookups/{searchtype}/{inputtype}", new RouteValueDictionary( new { controller = "Lookups", action = "Search", firstname = "", middlename = "", lastname = "", city = "", state = "", address = "" }), new MvcRouteHandler()) ); routes.Add(new Route( "Lookups/{searchtype}/{inputtype}", new RouteValueDictionary( new { controller = "Lookups", action = "Search", firstname = "", middlename = "", lastname = "", city = "", state = "", address = "", SearchType = SearchType.PeopleSearch, InputType = InputType.Name }), new MvcRouteHandler()) ); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Account", action = "LogOn", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); The following request works fine: http://localhost:2608/Lookups/PeopleSearch/Name/john/w/smith/seattle/wa/123 main This request does not work: http://localhost:2608/Lookups/PeopleSearch/Name/john//smith//wa/ Not all requests will have all paramters and I would like empty parameters to be passed to the method as empty string or null. Where am I going wrong? The method: public ActionResult Search(string firstname, string middlename, string lastname, string city, string state, string address, SearchType searchtype, InputType inputtype) { SearchRequest r = new SearchRequest { Firstname = firstname, Middlename = middlename, Lastname = lastname, City = city, State = state, Address = address, SearchType = searchtype, InputType = inputtype }; return View(r); }

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  • Windows Mobile : How to bind dropdown's selectedvalue to a column in table A and the list data to a

    - by Rob
    Hi, I am trying to learn the basics of Windows Mobile development against SQL CE and have come across a basic problem. I have two tables. One called Customers that stores customer info and has an identity column called ID as the primary key. The other table is called Orders which has a column called CustomerID (the FK constraint is present). I have added a DataSet to the project that contains both tables and have autogenerated the edit/view forms. This has produced a text control for the CustomerID column in the Order table for the new/edit form and I deleted it and replaced it with a dropdown list. Then, using the 'Advanced' databinding options (in Properties) I set the datasource of the list to the Customers table setting the value to the ID field and the text to the CustomerName field. I then set the SelectedValue of the list box to the CustomerID field of the Orders dataset. So far so good. When I run the app in the emulator and view the 'New' form for Orders the Customer dropdown is indeed populated with a list of customer names and I can select one and happily create a new order successfully. This is confirmed when I see the order appear in the Orders Grid form. However, when I then click on the order in the grid and then select 'Edit' the order loads but the dropdown always shows the first customer in the list and doesn't seem to bind the SelectedValue to the Orders dataset CustomerID field. Now I am an ASP.NET guy and normally hand craft the DAL and it's binding to the UI so I'm not entirely sure where to look to investigate what is going wrong here as this is all generated code. I am sure it is something very trivial but any pointers would be appreciated. My gut feeling is that the SelectedValue and the Customers.CustomerID values do not match for some reason? Many thanks, Rob.

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  • E-Commerce Security: Only Credit Card Fields Encrypted?!

    - by bizarreunprofessionalanddangerous
    I'd like your opinions on how a major bricks-and-mortar company is running the security for its shopping Web site. After a recent update, when you are logged into your shopping account, the session is now not secured. No 'https', no browser 'lock'. All the personal contact info, shopping history -- and if I'm not mistaken submit and change password -- are being sent unencrypted. There is a small frame around the credit card fields that is https. There's a little notice: "Our website is secure. Our website uses frames and because of this the secure icon will not appear in your browser" On top of this the most prominent login fields for the site are broken, and haven't gotten fixed for a week or longer (giving the distinct impression they have no clue what's going on and can't be trusted with anything). Now is it just me -- or is this simply incomprehensible for a billion dollar company, significant shopping site, in the year 2010. No lock. "We use frames" (maybe they forget "Best viewed in IE4"). Customers complaining, as you can see from their FAQ "explaining" why you aren't seeing https. I'm getting nowhere trying to convince customer service that they REALLY need to do something about this, and am about to head for the CEO. But I just want to make sure this is as BIZARRE and unprofessional and dangerous a situation as I think it is. (I'm trying to visualize what their Web technical team consists of. I'm getting A) some customer service reps who were given a 3 hour training course on Web site maintenance, B) a 14 year old boy in his bedroom masquerading as a major technical services company, C) a guy in a hut in a jungle with an e-commerce book from 1996.)

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  • Grouping a list of of entities which has a sublist in c#

    - by mikei
    I have a set of Entities which basically has this structure. {Stats Name="<Product name> (en)" TotalResources="10" ..} {DayStats Date="2009-12-10" TotalResources="5"} {DayStats Date="2009-12-11" TotalResources="5"} {Stats} {Stats Name="<Product name> (us)" TotalResources="10" ..} {DayStats Date="2009-12-10" TotalResources="5"} {DayStats Date="2009-12-11" TotalResources="5"} {Stats} ... What I wan't to extract from this set is a new set entities (or entity in the example above) where the first level has been grouped by the (ignoring the country label) where all/some of the properties has been summmed together, including the the sublist of {DayStas} on a per day basis. So the result set of the example would look something like this: {Stats Name="<Product name>" TotalResources="20" ..} {DayStats Date="2009-12-10" TotalResources="10"} {DayStats Date="2009-12-11" TotalResources="10"} {Stats} ... So my question is: Is it possible to do this in a more elegant way in LINQ rather than the vanilla "loop-trhough-each-entity-and-compare"-way? And I wan't the set to contain the same type of entities as the original set ({Stats}, {DayStats}), your answer doesn't need to include code for that, I can probably work that out by myself. Just letting you know incase you need to take that into account. (I'm sorry if this question has been discussed before, I tried searching to no avail. I guess my searching skills are fuubar ;)) Merry christmas =)

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  • How to use function to connect to database and how to work with queries?

    - by Abhilash Shukla
    I am using functions to work with database.. Now the way i have defined the functions are as follows:- /** * Database definations */ define ('db_type', 'MYSQL'); define ('db_host', 'localhost'); define ('db_port', '3306'); define ('db_name', 'database'); define ('db_user', 'root'); define ('db_pass', 'password'); define ('db_table_prefix', ''); /** * Database Connect */ function db_connect($host = db_host, $port = db_port, $username = db_user, $password = db_pass, $database = db_name) { if(!$db = @mysql_connect($host.':'.$port, $username, $password)) { return FALSE; } if((strlen($database) > 0) AND (!@mysql_select_db($database, $db))) { return FALSE; } // set the correct charset encoding mysql_query('SET NAMES \'utf8\''); mysql_query('SET CHARACTER_SET \'utf8\''); return $db; } /** * Database Close */ function db_close($identifier) { return mysql_close($identifier); } /** * Database Query */ function db_query($query, $identifier) { return mysql_query($query, $identifier); } Now i want to know whether it is a good way to do this or not..... Also, while database connect i am using $host = db_host Is it ok? Secondly how i can use these functions, these all code is in my FUNCTIONS.php The Database Definitions and also the Database Connect... will it do the needful for me... Using these functions how will i be able to connect to database and using the query function... how will i able to execute a query? VERY IMPORTANT: How can i make mysql to mysqli, is it can be done by just adding an 'i' to mysql....Like:- @mysql_connect @mysqli_connect

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  • How do programming languages bind identifiers to functions

    - by sub
    I'm talking about C and/or C++ here as this are the only languages I know used for interpreters where the following could be a problem: If we have an interpreted language X how can a library written for it add functions to the language which can then be called from within programs written in the language? PHP example: substr( $str, 5, 10 ); How is the function substr added to the "function pool" of PHP so it can be called from within scripts? It is easy for PHP storing all registered function names in an array and searching through it as a function is called in a script. However, as there obviously is no eval in C(++), how can the function then be called? I assume PHP doesn't have 100MB of code like: if( identifier == "substr" ) { return PHP_SUBSTR(...); } else if( ... ) { ... } Ha ha, that would be pretty funny. I hope you have understood my question so far. How do interpreters solve this problem? How can I solve this for my own experimental toy interpreter?

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  • Basic compile issue with QT4

    - by Cobus Kruger
    I've been trying to get a dead simple listing from a university textbook to compile with the newest QT SDK for Windows I downloaded last night. After struggling through the regular nonsense (no make.bat, need to manually add environment variables and so on) I am finally at the point where I can build. But only one of the two libraries seem to work. The .pro file I use is dead simple: SUBDIRS += utils \ dataobjects TEMPLATE = subdirs In each of these two subfolders I have the source for a library. Running QMAKE generates a makefile and running Make runs through all the preliminaries and then fails on the g++ call: g++ -enable-stdcall-fixup -Wl,-enable-auto-import -Wl,-enable-runtime-pseudo-reloc --out-implib,libdataobjects.a -shared -mthreads -Wl -Wl,--out-implib,c:\Users\Cobus\workspace\lib\libdataobjects.a -o ..\..\lib\dataobjects.dll object_script.dataobjects.Debug -L"c:\Users\Cobus\Portab~1\Qt\2010.02.1\qt\lib" -LC:\Users\Cobus\workspace\lib -lutils -lQtXmld4 -lQtGuid4 -lQtCored4 c:/users/cobus/portab~1/qt/2010.02.1/mingw/bin/../lib/gcc/mingw32/4.4.0/../../../../mingw32/bin/ld.exe: cannot find -lutils The problem seems to be right near the end of the command line, where -lutils is added, indicating that there is a library by the name of utils. While I would have expected to see that, you'll notice the library names after --out include lib in the name, so they become libutils and libdataobjects. I have tried to figure out why this is happening, to no avail. Anyone have an idea what's going on?

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  • Code Organization Connundrum: Web Project With Multiple Supporting DLLs?

    - by Code Sherpa
    Hi. I am trying to get a handle on the best practice for code organization within my project. I have looked around on the internet for good examples and, so far, I have seen examples of a web project with one or multiple supporting class libraries that it references or a web project with sub-folders that follow its namespace conventions. Assuming there is no right answer, this is what I currently have for code organization: MyProjectWeb This is my web site. I am referencing my class libraries here. MyProject.DLL As the base namespace, I am using this DLL for files that need to be generally consumable. For example, my class "Enums" that has all the enumerations in my project lives there. As does class MyProjectException for all exception handling. MyProject.IO.DLL This is a grouping of maybe 20 files that handle file upload and download (so far). MyProject.Utilities.DLL ALl my common classes and methods bunched up together in one generally consumable DLL. Each class follows a "XHelper" convention such as "SqlHelper, AuthHelper, SerializationHelper, and so on... MyProject.Web.DLL I am using this DLL as the main client interface. Right now, the majority of class files here are: 1) properties (such as School, Location, Account, Posts) 2) authorization stuff ( such as custom membership, custom role, & custom profile providers) My question is simply - does this seem logical? Also, how do I avoid having to cross reference DLLs from one project library to the next? For example, MyProject.Web.DLL uses code from MyProject.Utilities.DLL and MyProject.Utilities.DLL uses code from MyProject.DLL. Is this solved by clicking on properties and selecting "Dependencies"? I tried that but still don't seem to be accessing the namespaces of the assembly I have selected. Do I have to reference every assembly I need for each class library? Responses appreciated and thanks for your patience.

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  • Error in Postgres execute

    - by RAJA
    I'm using this function... -- Function: dbo.sp_acc_createaccount(character varying, integer, integer, character varying, character varying, character varying, character varying) -- DROP FUNCTION dbo.sp_acc_createaccount(character varying, integer, integer, character varying, character varying, character varying, character varying); CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION dbo.sp_acc_createaccount(IN in_orgmgrtype character varying, INOUT in_parentid integer, IN in_levelid integer, IN in_name character varying, IN in_phone character varying, IN in_webpage character varying, IN in_owner character varying, OUT out_accountid integer) RETURNS record AS $BODY$ DECLARE l_CoID int; l_CurrID int; l_OrgMgrId int; errmsg varchar(250); BEGIN IF in_ParentID = -1 THEN errmsg := 'execute sp_Acc_GetCompanyIDForUser failed'; l_CoID := dbo.sp_Acc_GetCompanyIDForUser(in_user); IF l_CoID = -2 THEN RAISE EXCEPTION 'execute sp_Acc_GetCompanyIDForUser failed'; END IF; errmsg := 'execute sp_Acc_GetOrgMgrIDForCompany failed'; l_OrgMgrID := dbo.sp_Acc_GetOrgMgrIDForCompany(in_OrgMgrType, l_CoID); IF l_OrgMgrID = -2 THEN RAISE EXCEPTION 'execute sp_Acc_GetOrgMgrIDForCompany failed'; END IF; in_ParentID := l_OrgMgrID; ELSE errmsg := 'Select orgmgrid failed'; SELECT OrgMgrID INTO l_CurrID FROM dbo.OrgMgr WHERE Name = in_Name AND ParentID = in_ParentID; END IF; -- if not, add it IF l_CurrID IS NULL THEN errmsg := 'Insert into orgmgr(account creation) failed'; INSERT INTO dbo.OrgMgr (ParentID, LevelID, Name, PrimaryPhone, WebPage, Owner) VALUES (in_ParentID, in_LevelID, in_Name, in_Phone, in_WebPage, in_Owner); out_AccountID := currval('dbo.OrgMgr_accountid_seq'); ELSE out_AccountID := -1; END IF; COMMIT; EXCEPTION WHEN RAISE_EXCEPTION THEN out_AccountID := 99; RAISE NOTICE 'ERROR : %',errmsg; WHEN OTHERS THEN out_AccountID := 99; RAISE EXCEPTION 'ERROR : %',errmsg; END $BODY$ LANGUAGE 'plpgsql' VOLATILE COST 100; ALTER FUNCTION dbo.sp_acc_createaccount(character varying, integer, integer, character varying, character varying, character varying, character varying) OWNER TO postgres; But.. it's showing error in execute time .. ERROR: SPI_execute_plan failed executing query "ROLLBACK": SPI_ERROR_TRANSACTION

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  • Log 2 N generic comparison tree

    - by Morano88
    Hey! I'm working on an algorithm for Redundant Binary Representation (RBR) where every two bits represent a digit. I designed the comparator that takes 4 bits and gives out 2 bits. I want to make the comparison in log 2 n so If I have X and Y .. I compare every 2 bits of X with every 2 bits of Y. This is smooth if the number of bits of X or Y equals n where (n = 2^X) i.e n = 2,4,8,16,32,... etc. Like this : However, If my input let us say is 6 or 10 .. then it becomes not smooth and I have to take into account some odd situations like this : I have a shallow experience in algorithms .. is there a generic way to do it .. so at the end I get only 2 bits no matter what the input is ? I just need hints or pseudo-code. If my question is not appropriate here .. so feel free to flag it or tell me to remove it. I'm using VHDL by the way!

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  • Is it possible to add JPA annotation to superclass instance variables?

    - by Kristofer Borgstrom
    Hi, I am creating entities that are the same for two different tables. In order do table mappings etc. different for the two entities but only have the rest of the code in one place - an abstract superclass. The best thing would be to be able to annotate generic stuff such as column names (since the will be identical) in the super class but that does not work because JPA annotations are not inherited by child classes. Here is an example: public abstract class MyAbstractEntity { @Column(name="PROPERTY") //This will not be inherited and is therefore useless here protected String property; public String getProperty() { return this.property; } //setters, hashCode, equals etc. methods } Which I would like to inherit and only specify the child-specific stuff, like annotations: @Entity @Table(name="MY_ENTITY_TABLE") public class MyEntity extends MyAbstractEntity { //This will not work since this field does not override the super class field, thus the setters and getters break. @Column(name="PROPERTY") protected String property; } Any ideas or will I have to create fields, getters and setters in the child classes? Thanks, Kris

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  • Class 'org.springframework.http.converter.ResourceHttpMessageConverter' not found - how to correct?

    - by Ash Kim
    Eclipse STS is reporting I have problem with my spring project. It's a fresh project generated from the Spring Web MVC Project Template (File-New-Spring Template Project-Spring Web MVC ). When I create the project it has no problems - it's only once I modify the pom (by adding the hibernate dependencies) that STS then picks up the spring problem. Strangely if I revert the pom the problem remains. Also I can run the project on a spring tc server and all works correctly. Any ideas how I can satisfy this problem report? "Class 'org.springframework.http.converter.ResourceHttpMessageConverter' not found" mvc-config.xml /src/main/webapp/WEB-INF/spring line 9 Spring Beans Problem mvc-config.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:mvc="http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc" xsi:schemaLocation=" http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc/spring-mvc-3.0.xsd"> <mvc:annotation-driven /> <!-- <= PROBLEMATIC LINE REPORTED BY STS --> <!-- Resolves view names to protected .jsp resources within the /WEB-INF/views directory --> <bean class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.InternalResourceViewResolver"> <property name="prefix" value="/WEB-INF/views/"/> <property name="suffix" value=".jsp"/> </bean> </beans>

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  • Host Primary Domain from a subfolder

    - by TandemAdam
    I am having a problem making a sub directory act as the public_html for my main domain, and getting a solution that works with that domains sub directories too. My hosting allows me to host multiple sites, which are all working great. I have set up a subfolder under my ~/public_html/ directory called /domains/, where I create a folder for each separate website. e.g. public_html domains websiteone websitetwo websitethree ... This keeps my sites nice and tidy. The only issue was getting my "main domain" to fit into this system. It seems my main domain, is somehow tied to my account (or to Apache, or something), so I can't change the "document root" of this domain. I can define the document roots for any other domains ("Addon Domains") that I add in cPanel no problem. But the main domain is different. I was told to edit the .htaccess file, to redirect the main domain to a subdirectory. This seemed to work great, and my site works fine on it's home/index page. The problem I'm having is that if I try to navigate my browser to say the images folder (just for example) of my main site, like this: www.yourmaindomain.com/images/ then it seems to ignore the redirect and shows the entire server directory in the url, like this: www.yourmaindomain.com/domains/yourmaindomain/images/ It still actually shows the correct "Index of /images" page, and show the list of all my images. Here is an example of my .htaccess file that I am using: RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^(www.)?yourmaindomain.com$ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/domains/yourmaindomain/ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /domains/yourmaindomain/$1 RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^(www.)?yourmaindomain.com$ RewriteRule ^(/)?$ domains/yourmaindomain/index.html [L] Does this htaccess file look correct? I just need to make it so my main domain behaves like an addon domain, and it's subdirectories adhere to the redirect rules.

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