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  • ajax to populate an input type text

    - by kawtousse
    hi, I have an input type text that i want to populate it with a value from data base using the ajax technique. first i define my text zone like the following: <td><input type=text id='st' value=" " name='stname' onclick="donnom();" /></td> in javascript i do the following: xhr5.onreadystatechange = function(){ if(xhr5.readyState == 4 && xhr5.status == 200) { selects5 = xhr5.responseText; // On se sert de innerHTML pour rajouter les options a la liste document.getElementById('st').innerHTML = selects5; } }; xhr5.open("POST","ajaxIDentifier5.jsp",true); xhr5.setRequestHeader('Content-Type','application/x-www-form-urlencoded'); id=document.getElementById(idIdden).value; xhr5.send("id="+id); in IDentifier5.jsp i put the next code: '<%String id=request.getParameter("id"); System.out.println("idDailyTimeSheet ajaxIDentifier5 as is:"+id); Session s = null; Transaction tx; try { s= HibernateUtil.currentSession(); tx=s.beginTransaction(); Query query = s.createQuery("select from Dailytimesheet dailytimesheet where dailytimesheet.IdDailyTimeSheet="+id+" " ); for(Iterator it=query.iterate();it.hasNext();) { if(it.hasNext()) { Dailytimesheet object=(Dailytimesheet)it.next(); out.print( "<input type=\"text\" id=\"st1\" value=\""+object.getTimeFrom()+"\" name=\"starting\" onclick=\"donnom()\" ></input>"); } } }catch (HibernateException e) { e.printStackTrace();} %> i want to get only the value in the input type text populated from database because after that i will be able to change it . thanks for help.

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  • Change flash src with jquery?

    - by Elliott
    Hi I have a flash menu showing a few links, but when the user is logged in I want to change the menu from menu1 to menu2 ... so that it will display "My Account" rather than "Signup" The code below is for my flash: <div id="menu"> <object classid="clsid:d27cdb6e-ae6d-11cf-96b8-444553540000" codebase="http://download.macromedia.com/pub/shockwave/cabs/flash/swflash.cab#version=9,0,0,0" width="825" height="69" id="menu1" align="middle"> <param name="allowScriptAccess" value="sameDomain" /> <param name="allowFullScreen" value="false" /> <param name="movie" value="menu1.swf" /><param name="quality" value="high" /><param name="wmode" value="transparent" /><param name="bgcolor" value="#ffffff" /> <embed src="menu1.swf" quality="high" wmode="transparent" bgcolor="#ffffff" width="825" height="69" name="menu1" align="middle" allowScriptAccess="sameDomain" allowFullScreen="false" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" pluginspage="http://www.macromedia.com/go/getflashplayer" /> </object> </div> Php: if (loggedin()) { echo '<script type="text/javascript"> CHANGE FLASH LINK HERE </script>'; } Could this be done without having to write all the above code out again? Thanks :)

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  • Quartz.Net scheduler works locally but not on remote host

    - by Glinkot
    Hi. I have a timed quartz.net job working fine on my dev machine, but once deployed to a remote server it is not triggering. I believe the job is scheduled ok, because if I postback, it tells me the job already exists (I normally check for postback however). The email code definitely works, as the 'button1_click' event sends emails successfully. I understand I have full or medium trust on the remove server. My host says they don't apply restrictions that they know of which would affect it. Any other things I need to do to get it running? using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using Quartz; using Quartz.Impl; using Quartz.Core; using Aspose.Network.Mail; using Aspose.Network; using Aspose.Network.Mime; using System.Text; namespace QuartzTestASP { public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!Page.IsPostBack) { ISchedulerFactory schedFact = new StdSchedulerFactory(); IScheduler sched = schedFact.GetScheduler(); JobDetail jobDetail = new JobDetail("testJob2", null, typeof(testJob)); //Trigger trigger = TriggerUtils.MakeMinutelyTrigger(1, 3); Trigger trigger = TriggerUtils.MakeSecondlyTrigger(10, 5); trigger.StartTimeUtc = DateTime.UtcNow; trigger.Name = "TriggertheTest"; sched.Start(); sched.ScheduleJob(jobDetail, trigger); } } protected void Button1_Click1(object sender, EventArgs e) { myutil.sendEmail(); } } class testJob : IStatefulJob { public testJob() { } public void Execute(JobExecutionContext context) { myutil.sendEmail(); } } public static class myutil { public static void sendEmail() { // tested code lives here and works fine when called from elsewhere } } }

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  • javascript pausing consistently. How do I find what is causing it to pause?

    - by pedalpete
    I've got a fairly ajax heavy site and I'm trying to tune the performance. I have a function that runs between 20 & 200 times, depending on the user. I'm outputting the time the function takes to execute via console.time in firefox. The function takes about 4-6ms to complete. The strange thing is that on my larger test with 200 or runs through that function, it runs through the first 31, then seems to pause for almost a second before completing the last 170 or so. However, that 'pause' doesn't show up in the console.time logs, and I'm not running any other functions, and the object that gets passed to the function looks the same as all other objects that get passed in. The function is called like this for (var s in thisGroup.events){ showEvent(thisGroup.events[s]) } so, I don't see how or why it would suddenly pause near the beginning. but only pause once and then continue through. The pause ALWAYS happens on the 31st time through the function. I've taken a close look at the 'thisGroup.events[s]' that it is being run through, and it looks like this for #31 "eventId":"5106", "sid":"68", "gid":"29", "uid":"70","type":"event", "startDate":"2010-03-22","startTime":"6:00 PM","endDate":"2010-03-22","endTime":"11:00 PM","durationLength":"5", "durationTime":"5:00", "note":"", "desc":"event" The event immediately after the pause, #32 looks like this "eventId":"5111", "sid":"68", "gid":"29", "uid":"71","type":"event", "startDate":"2010-03-22","startTime":"6:00 PM","endDate":"2010-03-22","endTime":"11:00 PM","durationLength":"5", "durationTime":"5:00", "note":"", "desc":"event" another event that runs through no problem looks like this "eventId":"5113", "sid":"68", "gid":"29", "uid":"72","type":"event", "startDate":"2010-03-22","startTime":"4:30 PM","endDate":"2010-03-22","endTime":"11:00 PM","durationLength":"6.5", "durationTime":"6:30", "note":"", "desc":"event" From the console outputs, it doesn't appear as there is anything hanging or taking up time in the function itself, as the console.time for each event including #31,32 is 4ms. Another strange thing here is that the total time running the for loop across the entire object is coming out as 1014ms which is right for 200 events at 4-6ms each. Any suggestions on how to find this 'pause'? I find it very interesting that it is consistently happening between #31 & #32 only!

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  • Passing an ActionScript JPG Byte Array to Javscript (and eventually to PHP)

    - by Gus
    Our web application has a feature which uses Flash (AS3) to take photos using the user's web cam, then passes the resulting byte array to PHP where it is reconstructed and saved on the server. However, we need to be able to take this web application offline, and we have chosen Gears to do so. The user takes the app offline, performs his tasks, then when he's reconnected to the server, we "sync" the data back with our central database. We don't have PHP to interact with Flash anymore, but we still need to allow users to take and save photos. We don't know how to save a JPG that Flash creates in a local database. Our hope was that we could save the byte array, a serialized string, or somehow actually persist the object itself, then pass it back to either PHP or Flash (and then PHP) to recreate the JPG. We have tried: - passing the byte array to Javascript instead of PHP, but javascript doesn't seem to be able to do anything with it (the object seems to be stripped of its methods) - stringifying the byte array in Flash, and then passing it to Javascript, but we always get the same string: ÿØÿà Now we are thinking of serializing the string in Flash, passing it to Javascript, then on the return route, passing that string back to Flash which will then pass it to PHP to be reconstructed as a JPG. (whew). Since no one on our team has extensive Flash background, we're a bit lost. Is serialization the way to go? Is there a more realistic way to do this? Does anyone have any experience with this sort of thing? Perhaps we can build a javascript class that is the same as the byte array class in AS?

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  • what kind of relationship is there between a common wall and the rooms that located next to it?

    - by siamak
    I want to know whats the Relationship between a common wall (that are located In an adjoining room ) and the rooms. As i know the relationship between a room and its walls is Composition not Aggregation (am i right ?) And according to the definition of Composition the contained object can't be shared between two containers, whereas in aggregation it is possible. now i am confused that whats the best modeling approach to represent the relationship between a common wall and the rooms located next to it ? It would be highly Appreciated if you could provide your advices with some code. |--------|--------| Approch1: (wall class ---- room class) /Composition Approach2: wall class ----- room class /Aggregation Approch3: we have a wall class and a Common wall class , Common wall class inherits from wall class adjoining room class ---- (1) Common wall class /Aggregation adjoining room class ---- (6) wall class / composition Approach4: I am a developer not a designer :) so this is my idea : class Room { private wall _firstwall ; private wall _secondtwall; private wall _thirdwall ; private wall _commonwall ; public Room( CommonWall commonwall) { _firstwall=new Wall(); _secondtwall=new Wall(); _thirdwall=new Wall(); _commonwall=commonwall; } } Class CommonWall:Wall { //... } // in somewher : static void main() { Wall _commonWall=new Wall(); Room room1=new Room(_commonWall); Room room2=new Room(_commonWall); Room [] adjacentRoom =new Room[2]{room1,room2}; } Edit 1: I think this is a clear question but just for more clarification : The point of the question is to find out whats the best pattern or approach to model a relationship for an object that is a component of two other objects in the same time. and about my example : waht i mean by a "room" ?,surely i mean an enclosed square room with 4 walls and one door.but in this case one of these walls is a common wall and is shared between two adjacent rooms.

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  • How to get the title and subtitle for a pin when we are implementing the MKAnnotation?

    - by wolverine
    I have implemented the MKAnnotation as below. I will put a lot of pins and the information for each of those pins are stored in an array. Each member of this array is an object whose properties will give the values for the title and subtitle of the pin. Each object corresponds to a pin. But how can I display these values for the pin when I click a pin?? @interface UserAnnotation : NSObject <MKAnnotation> { CLLocationCoordinate2D coordinate; NSString *title; NSString *subtitle; NSString *city; NSString *province; } @property (nonatomic, assign) CLLocationCoordinate2D coordinate; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *title; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *subtitle; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *city; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *province; -(id)initWithCoordinate:(CLLocationCoordinate2D)c; And .m is @implementation UserAnnotation @synthesize coordinate, title, subtitle, city, province; - (NSString *)title { return title; } - (NSString *)subtitle { return subtitle; } - (NSString *)city { return city; } - (NSString *)province { return province; } -(id)initWithCoordinate:(CLLocationCoordinate2D)c { coordinate=c; NSLog(@"%f,%f",c.latitude,c.longitude); return self; } @end

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  • Subclassing UIButton but can't access my properties

    - by Ross Ellerington
    Hi, I've created a sub class of UIButton: // // DetailButton.h #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import <MapKit/MapKit.h> @interface MyDetailButton : UIButton { NSObject *annotation; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSObject *annotation; @end // // DetailButton.m // #import "MyDetailButton.h" @implementation MyDetailButton @synthesize annotation; @end I figured that I can then create this object and set the annotation object by doing the following: MyDetailButton* rightButton = [MyDetailButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeDetailDisclosure]; rightButton.annotation = localAnnotation; localAnnotation is an NSObject but it is really an MKAnnotation. I can't see why this doesn't work but at runtime I get this error: 2010-05-27 10:37:29.214 DonorMapProto1[5241:207] *** -[UIButton annotation]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x445a190 2010-05-27 10:37:29.215 DonorMapProto1[5241:207] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[UIButton annotation]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x445a190' ' I can't see why it's even looking at UIButton because I've subclassed that so it should be looking at the MyDetailButton class to set that annotation property. Have I missed something really obvious. It feels like it :) Thanks in advance for any help you can provide Ross

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  • Debugging unexpected error message - possible memory management problem?

    - by Ben Packard
    I am trying to debug an application that is throwing up strange (to my untutored eyed) errors. When I try to simply log the count of an array... NSLog(@"Array has %i items", [[self startingPlayers] count]); ...I sometimes get an error: -[NSCFString count]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x1002af600 or other times -[NSConcreteNotification count]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x1002af600 I am not sending 'count' to any NSString or NSNotification, and this line of code works fine normally. A Theory... Although the error varies, the crash happens at predictable times, immediately after I have run through some other code where I'm thinking I might have a memory management issue. Is it possible that the object reference is still pointing to something that is meant to be destroyed? Sorry if my terms are off, but perhaps it's expecting the array at the address it calls 'count' on, but finds another previous object that shouldn't still be there (eg an NSString)? Would this cause the problem? If so, what is the most efficient way to debug and find out what is that address? Most of my debugging up until now involves inserting NSLogs, so this would be a good opportunity to learn how to use the debugger.

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  • Generate an ID via COM interop

    - by Erik van Brakel
    At the moment, we've got an unmaintanable ball of code which offers an interface to a third party application. The third party application has a COM assembly which MUST be used to create new entries. This process involves two steps: generate a new object (basically an ID), and update that object with new field values. Because COM interop is so slow, we only use that to generate the ID (and related objects) in the database. The actual update is done using a regular SQL query. What I am trying to figure out if it's possible to use NHibernate to do some of the heavy lifting for us, without bypassing the COM assembly. Here's the code for saving something to the database as I envision it: using(var s = sessionFactory.OpenSession()) using(var t = s.BeginTransaction()) { MyEntity entity = new MyEntity(); s.Save(entity); t.Commit(); } Regular NH code I'd say. Now, this is where it gets tricky. I think I have to supply my own implementation of NHibernate.Id.IIdentifierGenerator which calls the COM assembly in the Generate method. That's not a problem. What IS a problem is that the COM assembly requires initialisation, which does take a bit of time. It also doesn't like multiple instances in the same process, for some reason. What I would like to know is if there's a way to properly access an external service in the generator code. I'm free to use any technique I want, so if it involves something like an IoC container that's no problem. The thing I am looking for is where exactly to hook-up my code so I can access the things I need in my generator, without having to resort to using singletons or other nasty stuff.

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  • How to access a superclass's class attributes in Python?

    - by Brecht Machiels
    Have a look at the following code: class A(object): defaults = {'a': 1} def __getattr__(self, name): print('A.__getattr__') return self.get_default(name) @classmethod def get_default(cls, name): # some debug output print('A.get_default({}) - {}'.format(name, cls)) try: print(super(cls, cls).defaults) # as expected except AttributeError: #except for the base object class, of course pass # the actual function body try: return cls.defaults[name] except KeyError: return super(cls, cls).get_default(name) # infinite recursion #return cls.__mro__[1].get_default(name) # this works, though class B(A): defaults = {'b': 2} class C(B): defaults = {'c': 3} c = C() print('c.a =', c.a) I have a hierarchy of classes each with its own dictionary containing some default values. If an instance of a class doesn't have a particular attribute, a default value for it should be returned instead. If no default value for the attribute is contained in the current class's defaults dictionary, the superclass's defaults dictionary should be searched. I'm trying to implement this using the recursive class method get_default. The program gets stuck in an infinite recursion, unfortunately. My understanding of super() is obviously lacking. By accessing __mro__, I can get it to work properly though, but I'm not sure this is a proper solution. I have the feeling the answer is somewhere in this article, but I haven't been able to find it yet. Perhaps I need to resort to using a metaclass?

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  • NHibernate, legacy database, foreign keys that aren't

    - by Joe
    The project I'm working on has a legacy database with lots of information in it that's used to alter application behavior. Basically I'm stuck with something that I have to be super careful about changing. Onto my problem. In this database is a table and in this table is a column. This column contains integers and most of the pre-existing data have a value of zero for this column. The problem is that this column is in fact a foreign key reference to another entity, it was just never defined as such in the database schema. Now in my new code I defined my Fluent-NHibernate mapping to treat this column as a Reference so that I don't have to deal with entity id's directly in my code. This works fine until I come across an entity that has a value of 0 in this column. NHibernate thinks that a value of 0 is a valid reference. When my code tries to use that referenced object I get an ObjectNotFoundException as obviously there is no object in my database with an id of 0. How can I, either through mapping or some kind of convention (I'm using Fluent-nhibernate), get NHibernate to treat id's that are 0 the same as if it was NULL?

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  • Raising C# events with an extension method - is it bad?

    - by Kyralessa
    We're all familiar with the horror that is C# event declaration. To ensure thread-safety, the standard is to write something like this: public event EventHandler SomethingHappened; protected virtual void OnSomethingHappened(EventArgs e) { var handler = SomethingHappened; if (handler != null) handler(this, e); } Recently in some other question on this board (which I can't find now), someone pointed out that extension methods could be used nicely in this scenario. Here's one way to do it: static public class EventExtensions { static public void RaiseEvent(this EventHandler @event, object sender, EventArgs e) { var handler = @event; if (handler != null) handler(sender, e); } static public void RaiseEvent<T>(this EventHandler<T> @event, object sender, T e) where T : EventArgs { var handler = @event; if (handler != null) handler(sender, e); } } With these extension methods in place, all you need to declare and raise an event is something like this: public event EventHandler SomethingHappened; void SomeMethod() { this.SomethingHappened.RaiseEvent(this, EventArgs.Empty); } My question: Is this a good idea? Are we missing anything by not having the standard On method? (One thing I notice is that it doesn't work with events that have explicit add/remove code.)

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  • Does Apple's Reachability work with 3G connectivity?

    - by rickharrison
    I am developing an iPad application, and I am trying to figure out the best way to decide if a user can connect to the Internet. If the user has no connectivity, I will load cached data, otherwise I will load new data. I am trying to use Apple's reachability class for this, and I wanted to see if I am doing this correctly. In applicationDidFinishLaunchingWithOptions, I am doing this: [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver: self selector: @selector(reachabilityChanged:) name: kReachabilityChangedNotification object: nil]; Reachability hostReach = [[Reachability reachabilityWithHostName: @"www.apple.com"] retain]; [hostReach startNotifer]; Then my reachabilityChanged: looks like this: - (void)reachabilityChanged:(NSNotification* )note { Reachability *curReach = [note object]; self.internetConnectionStatus = [curReach currentReachabilityStatus]; if (internetConnectionStatus == NotReachable) { [viewController getDataOffline]; } else { if (![[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] objectForKey:kFIRST_LAUNCH]) [viewController getCurrentLocation]; else [viewController getData]; } } Right now, this is working perfectly for WiFi iPads. I just want to make sure that this will work for 3G iPads. Could you please let me know if I am doing this correctly or not?

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  • Chord Chart - Skip to key with a click

    - by Juan Gonzales
    I have a chord chart app that basically can transpose a chord chart up and down throughout the keys, but now I would like to expand that app and allow someone to pick a key and automatically go to that key upon a click event using a function in javascript or jquery. Can someone help me figure this out? The logic seems simple enough, but I'm just not sure how to implement it. Here are my current functions that allow the user to transpose up and down... var match; var chords = ['C','C#','D','D#','E','F','F#','G','G#','A','A#','B','C','Db','D','Eb','E','F','Gb','G','Ab','A','Bb','B','C']; var chords2 = ['C','Db','D','Eb','E','F','Gb','G','Ab','A','Bb','B','C','C#','D','D#','E','F','F#','G','G#','A','A#','C']; var chordRegex = /(?:C#|D#|F#|G#|A#|Db|Eb|Gb|Ab|Bb|C|D|E|F|G|A|B)/g; function transposeUp(x) { $('.chord'+x).each(function(){ ///// initializes variables ///// var currentChord = $(this).text(); // gatheres each object var output = ""; var parts = currentChord.split(chordRegex); var index = 0; ///////////////////////////////// while (match = chordRegex.exec(currentChord)){ var chordIndex = chords2.indexOf(match[0]); output += parts[index++] + chords[chordIndex+1]; } output += parts[index]; $(this).text(output); }); } function transposeDown(x){ $('.chord'+x).each(function(){ var currentChord = $(this).text(); // gatheres each object var output = ""; var parts = currentChord.split(chordRegex); var index = 0; while (match = chordRegex.exec(currentChord)){ var chordIndex = chords2.indexOf(match[0],1); //var chordIndex = $.inArray(match[0], chords, -1); output += parts[index++] + chords2[chordIndex-1]; } output += parts[index]; $(this).text(output); }); } Any help is appreciated. Answer will be accepted! Thank You

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  • Existing LINQ extension method similar to Parallel.For?

    - by Joel Martinez
    The linq extension methods for ienumerable are very handy ... but not that useful if all you want to do is apply some computation to each item in the enumeration without returning anything. So I was wondering if perhaps I was just missing the right method, or if it truly doesn't exist as I'd rather use a built-in version if it's available ... but I haven't found one :-) I could have sworn there was a .ForEach method somewhere, but I have yet to find it. In the meantime, I did write my own version in case it's useful for anyone else: using System.Collections; using System.Collections.Generic; public delegate void Function<T>(T item); public delegate void Function(object item); public static class EnumerableExtensions { public static void For(this IEnumerable enumerable, Function func) { foreach (object item in enumerable) { func(item); } } public static void For<T>(this IEnumerable<T> enumerable, Function<T> func) { foreach (T item in enumerable) { func(item); } } } usage is: myEnumerable.For<MyClass>(delegate(MyClass item) { item.Count++; });

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  • Assign delegate event handler from dynamically added child control

    - by mickyjtwin
    I have a control that handles commenting. In this control, I have set a delegate event handler for sending an email. I then have various types of controls, e.g. blog, articles etc, each of which may or may not have the commenting control added (which is done dynamically with me not knowing the id's), i.e. the commenting control is added outside this control. Each of these controls handles it's emailing differently(hence the event). What I'm trying to determine, is how to assign the event in the parent control. At the moment, I'm having to recursively search through all the controls on the page until I find the comment control, and set it that way. Example below explains: COMMENTING CONTROL public delegate void Commenting_OnSendEmail(); public partial class Commenting : UserControl { public Commenting_OnSendEmail OnComment_SendEmail(); private void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if(OnComment_SendEmail != null) { OnComment_SendEmail(); } } } PARENT CONTROL public partial class Blog : UserControl { private void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Commenting comControl = (Commenting)this.FindControl<Commenting>(this); if(comControl != null) { comCtrol.OnComment_SendEmail += new Commenting_OnSendMail(Blog_Comment_OnSendEmail); } } } Is there an easier way?

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  • iPhone Core Data does not refresh table

    - by Brian515
    Hi all, I'm trying to write an application with Core Data, and I have been able to successfully read and write to the core data database. However, if I write to the database in one view controller, my other view controllers will not see the change until the app is closed then reopened again. This is really frustrating. I'm not entirely sure how to get the refresh - (void)refreshObject:(NSManagedObject *)object mergeChanges:(BOOL)flag method to work. How do I get a reference to my managed object? Anyways, here's the code I'm using to read the data back. This is in the viewDidLoad method. NSFetchRequest *request = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Website" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [request setEntity:entity]; NSSortDescriptor *sortDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"siteName" ascending:NO]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortDescriptor, nil]; [request setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; [sortDescriptor release]; [sortDescriptors release]; NSError *error = nil; NSMutableArray *mutableFetchResults = [[managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:request error:&error] mutableCopy]; if(mutableFetchResults == nil) { //Handle the error } [self setNewsTitlesArray:mutableFetchResults]; [mutableFetchResults release]; [request release]; [newsSourcesTableView reloadData]; Thanks for help in advance!

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  • Deleting objects with FK constraints in Spring/Hibernate

    - by maxdj
    This seems like such a simple scenario to me, yet I cannot for the life of my find a solution online or in print. I have several objects like so (trimmed down): @Entity public class Group extends BaseObject implements Identifiable<Long> { private Long id; private String name; private Set<HiringManager> managers = new HashSet<HiringManager>(); private List<JobOpening> jobs; @ManyToMany(fetch=FetchType.EAGER) @JoinTable( name="group_hiringManager", joinColumns=@JoinColumn(name="group_id"), inverseJoinColumns=@JoinColumn(name="hiringManager_id") ) public Set<HiringManager> getManagers() { return managers; } @OneToMany(mappedBy="group", fetch=FetchType.EAGER) public List<JobOpening> getJobs() { return jobs; } } @Entity public class JobOpening extends BaseObject implements Identifiable<Long> { private Long id; private String name; private Group group; @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name="group_id", updatable=false, nullable=true) public Group getGroup() { return group; } } @Entity public class HiringManager extends User { @ManyToMany(mappedBy="managers", fetch=FetchType.EAGER) public Set<Group> getGroups() { return groups; } } Say I want to delete a Group object. Now there are dependencies on it in the JobOpening table and in the group_hiringManager table, which cause the delete function to fail. I don't want to cascade the delete, because the managers have other groups, and the jobopenings can be groupless. I have tried overriding the remove() function of my GroupManager to remove the dependencies, but it seems like no matter what I do they persist, and the delete fails! What is the right way to remove this object?

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  • After drawing circles on C# form how can i know on what circle i clicked?

    - by SorinA.
    I have to represent graphically an oriented graph like in the image below. i have a C# form, when i click with the mouse on it i have to draw a node. If i click somewhere on the form where is not already a node drawn it means i cliked with the intetion of drawing a node, if it is a node there i must select it and memorize it. On the next mouse click if i touch a place where there is not already a node drawn it means like before that i want to draw a new node, if it is a node where i clicked i need to draw the line from the first memorized node to the selected one and add road cost details. i know how to draw the circles that represent the nodes of the graph when i click on the form. i'm using the following code: namespace RepGraficaAUnuiGraf { public partial class Form1 : Form { Graphics graphDrawingArea; Bitmap bmpDrawingArea; Graphics graph; public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void Form1_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { bmpDrawingArea = new Bitmap(Width, Height); graphDrawingArea = Graphics.FromImage(bmpDrawingArea); graph = Graphics.FromHwnd(this.Handle); } private void Form1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { DrawCentralCircle(((MouseEventArgs)e).X, ((MouseEventArgs)e).Y, 15); graph.DrawImage(bmpDrawingArea, 0, 0); } void DrawCentralCircle(int CenterX, int CenterY, int Radius) { int start = CenterX - Radius; int end = CenterY - Radius; int diam = Radius * 2; bmpDrawingArea = new Bitmap(Width, Height); graphDrawingArea = Graphics.FromImage(bmpDrawingArea); graphDrawingArea.DrawEllipse(new Pen(Color.Blue), start, end, diam, diam); graphDrawingArea.DrawString("1", new Font("Tahoma", 13), Brushes.Black, new PointF(CenterX - 8, CenterY - 10)); } } } My question is how can i find out if at the coordinates (x,y) on my form i drew a node and which one is it? I thought of representing the nodes as buttons, having a tag or something similar as the node number(which in drawing should be 1 for Santa Barbara, 2 for Barstow etc.)

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  • How to get the Video-ID of a just uploaded Youtube movie

    - by murze
    Hi, how can i get the video-id of a just uploaded Youtube movie? I'm using this code: $yt = new Zend_Gdata_YouTube($httpClient); // create a new Zend_Gdata_YouTube_VideoEntry object $myVideoEntry = new Zend_Gdata_YouTube_VideoEntry(); // create a new Zend_Gdata_App_MediaFileSource object $filesource = $yt->newMediaFileSource('mytestmovie.mov'); $filesource->setContentType('video/quicktime'); // set slug header $filesource->setSlug('mytestmovie.mov'); // add the filesource to the video entry $myVideoEntry->setMediaSource($filesource); $myVideoEntry->setVideoTitle('My Test Movie'); $myVideoEntry->setVideoDescription('My Test Movie'); $myVideoEntry->setVideoCategory('Comedy'); // Note that category must be a valid YouTube category ! // set keywords, please note that this must be a comma separated string // and that each keyword cannot contain whitespace $myVideoEntry->setVideoTags('cars, funny'); // upload URI for the currently authenticated user $uploadUrl = 'http://uploads.gdata.youtube.com/feeds/api/users/default/uploads'; // try to upload the video, catching a Zend_Gdata_App_HttpException if available // or just a regular Zend_Gdata_App_Exception try { $newEntry = $yt->insertEntry($myVideoEntry, $uploadUrl, 'Zend_Gdata_YouTube_VideoEntry'); } catch (Zend_Gdata_App_HttpException $httpException) { echo $httpException->getRawResponseBody(); } catch (Zend_Gdata_App_Exception $e) { echo $e->getMessage(); } I assume it 'll be a property of $newEntry but i can't seem to find it! Thanks!

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  • How to deal with "partial" dates (2010-00-00) from MySQL in Django?

    - by Etienne
    In one of my Django projects that use MySQL as the database, I need to have a date fields that accept also "partial" dates like only year (YYYY) and year and month (YYYY-MM) plus normal date (YYYY-MM-DD). The date field in MySQL can deal with that by accepting 00 for the month and the day. So 2010-00-00 is valid in MySQL and it represent 2010. Same thing for 2010-05-00 that represent May 2010. So I started to create a PartialDateField to support this feature. But I hit a wall because, by default, and Django use the default, MySQLdb, the python driver to MySQL, return a datetime.date object for a date field AND datetime.date() support only real date. So it's possible to modify the converter for the date field used by MySQLdb and return only a string in this format 'YYYY-MM-DD'. Unfortunately the converter use by MySQLdb is set at the connection level so it's use for all MySQL date fields. But Django DateField rely on the fact that the database return a datetime.date object, so if I change the converter to return a string, Django is not happy at all. Someone have an idea or advice to solve this problem? How to create a PartialDateField in Django ? EDIT Also I should add that I already thought of 2 solutions, create 3 integer fields for year, month and day (as mention by Alison R.) or use a varchar field to keep date as string in this format YYYY-MM-DD. But in both solutions, if I'm not wrong, I will loose the special properties of a date field like doing query of this kind on them: Get all entries after this date. I can probably re-implement this functionality on the client side but that will not be a valid solution in my case because the database can be query from other systems (mysql client, MS Access, etc.)

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  • Display subclass data in XCode Expression window

    - by Nick VanderPyle
    I'm debugging an iPhone application I've written using XCode 3.2 and I cannot view the relevant public properties of an object I pull from Core Data. When I watch the object in the Expressions window it only displays the data from the base NSManagedObject. I'd like to see the properties that are on the subclass, not the superclass. If it helps, here's some of the code I'm using. Settings is a subclass of NSManagedObject. I created it using XCode's built-in modeler. Declared like: @interface Settings : NSManagedObject { } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSNumber * hasNews; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString * logoUrl; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSNumber * hasPaymentGateway; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString * customerCode; ... In the interface of my controller I have: Settings *settings; I populate settings with: settings = (Settings *)[NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"Settings" inManagedObjectContext:UIAppManagedObjectContext()]; I then set the properties like: settings.hasNews = [NSNumber numberWithBool:TRUE]; I've tried casting settings as (Settings *) in the Expression window but that doesn't help. All I see are the properties to NSManagedObject. I'm using NSLog but would rather not.

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  • How do I assert that two arbitrary type objects are equivalent, without requiring them to be equal?

    - by Tomas Lycken
    To accomplish this (but failing to do so) I'm reflecting over properties of an expected and actual object and making sure their values are equal. This works as expected as long as their properties are single objects, i.e. not lists, arrays, IEnumerable... If the property is a list of some sort, the test fails (on the Assert.AreEqual(...) inside the for loop). public void WithCorrectModel<TModelType>(TModelType expected, string error = "") where TModelType : class { var actual = _result.ViewData.Model as TModelType; Assert.IsNotNull(actual, error); Assert.IsInstanceOfType(actual, typeof(TModelType), error); foreach (var prop in typeof(TModelType).GetProperties()) { Assert.AreEqual(prop.GetValue(expected, null), prop.GetValue(actual, null), error); } } If dealing with a list property, I would get the expected results if I instead used CollectionAssert.AreEquivalent(...) but that requires me to cast to ICollection, which in turn requries me to know the type listed, which I don't (want to). It also requires me to know which properties are list types, which I don't know how to. So, how should I assert that two objects of an arbitrary type are equivalent? Note: I specifically don't want to require them to be equal, since one comes from my tested object and one is built in my test class to have something to compare with.

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  • Understanding Java Wait and Notify methods

    - by Maddy
    Hello all: I have a following program: import java.util.concurrent.ExecutorService; import java.util.concurrent.Executors; public class SimpleWaitNotify implements Runnable { final static Object obj = new Object(); static boolean value = true; public synchronized void flag() { System.out.println("Before Wait"); try { obj.wait(); } catch (InterruptedException e) { System.out.println("Thread interrupted"); } System.out.println("After Being Notified"); } public synchronized void unflag() { System.out.println("Before Notify All"); obj.notifyAll(); System.out.println("After Notify All Method Call"); } public void run() { if (value) { flag(); } else { unflag(); } } public static void main(String[] args) throws InterruptedException { ExecutorService pool = Executors.newFixedThreadPool(4); SimpleWaitNotify sWait = new SimpleWaitNotify(); pool.execute(sWait); SimpleWaitNotify.value = false; SimpleWaitNotify sNotify = new SimpleWaitNotify(); pool.execute(sNotify); pool.shutdown(); } } When I wait on obj, I get the following exception Exception in thread "pool-1-thread-1" java.lang.IllegalMonitorStateException: current thread not owner for each of the two threads. But if I use SimpleWaitNotify's monitor then the program execution is suspended. In other words, I think it suspends current execution thread and in turn the executor. Any help towards understanding what's going on would be duly appreciated. This is an area1 where the theory and javadoc seem straightforward, and since there aren't many examples, conceptually left a big gap in me.

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