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  • How to Create a Folder in the Current Document Library if it's not already present?

    - by Rosh Malai
    All I want to do is to create a folder "MetaFolder" inside a document library. User can be on any document library and I would like to create this folder after item is added (so on itemAdded event handler). I do NOT want workflow so please dont suggest workflow. This code works but I have to hardcode the url but need to get url from current url. also need to verify the folder uHippo does not exists in the current doc library... public override void ItemAdded(SPItemEventProperties properties) { base.ItemAdded(properties); using (SPSite currentSite = new SPSite(properties.WebUrl)) using (SPWeb currentWeb = currentSite.OpenWeb()) { // This code works and creates Folder in the "My TEST Doc library" //SPList docLib = currentWeb.Lists["My TEST Doc Library"]; //SPListItem folder = docLib.Folders.Add(docLib.RootFolder.ServerRelativeUrl, SPFileSystemObjectType.Folder, "My folder"); //folder.Update(); string doclibname = "Not a doclib"; //SPList doclibList = currentWeb.GetList(HttpContext.Current.Request.RawUrl); // NOT WORKING. Tried properties.weburl SPList doclibList = currentWeb.GetListFromUrl("https://mycompanyportal/sites/testsitecol/testwebsite/My%20TEST%20Doc%20Library/Forms/AllItems.aspx"); if (null != doclibList) { doclibname = doclibList.Title; } // this section also not working. // getting Object reference not set to an instance of an object or something like that. //if (currentWeb.GetFolder("uHippo").Exists == false) //{ SPListItem folder = doclibList.Folders.Add(doclibList.RootFolder.ServerRelativeUrl, SPFileSystemObjectType.Folder, "uHippo"); folder.Update(); //} } }

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  • 1. Get the Current Document Library 2. Create a Folder "MetaFolder" if it's not already present

    - by Rosh Malai
    All I want to do is to create a folder "MetaFolder" inside a document library. User can be on any document library and I would like to create this folder after item is added (so on itemAdded event handler). I do NOT want workflow so please dont suggest workflow. This code works but I have to hardcode the url but need to get url from current url. also need to verify the folder uHippo does not exists in the current doc library... Thanks public override void ItemAdded(SPItemEventProperties properties) { base.ItemAdded(properties); using (SPSite currentSite = new SPSite(properties.WebUrl)) using (SPWeb currentWeb = currentSite.OpenWeb()) { // This code works and creates Folder in the "My TEST Doc library" //SPList docLib = currentWeb.Lists["My TEST Doc Library"]; //SPListItem folder = docLib.Folders.Add(docLib.RootFolder.ServerRelativeUrl, SPFileSystemObjectType.Folder, "My folder"); //folder.Update(); string doclibname = "Not a doclib"; //SPList doclibList = currentWeb.GetList(HttpContext.Current.Request.RawUrl); // NOT WORKING. Tried properties.weburl SPList doclibList = currentWeb.GetListFromUrl("https://mycompanyportal/sites/testsitecol/testwebsite/My%20TEST%20Doc%20Library/Forms/AllItems.aspx"); if (null != doclibList) { doclibname = doclibList.Title; } // this section also not working. // getting Object reference not set to an instance of an object or something like that. //if (currentWeb.GetFolder("uHippo").Exists == false) //{ SPListItem folder = doclibList.Folders.Add(doclibList.RootFolder.ServerRelativeUrl, SPFileSystemObjectType.Folder, "uHippo"); folder.Update(); //} } }

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  • Checking for nil in view in Ruby on Rails

    - by seaneshbaugh
    I've been working with Rails for a while now and one thing I find myself constantly doing is checking to see if some attribute or object is nil in my view code before I display it. I'm starting to wonder if this is always the best idea. My rationale so far has been that since my application(s) rely on user input unexpected things can occur. If I've learned one thing from programming in general it's that users inputting things the programmer didn't think of is one of the biggest sources of run-time errors. By checking for nil values I'm hoping to sidestep that and have my views gracefully handle the problem. The thing is though I typically for various reasons have similar nil or invalid value checks in either my model or controller code. I wouldn't call it code duplication in the strictest sense, but it just doesn't seem very DRY. If I've already checked for nil objects in my controller is it okay if my view just assumes the object truly isn't nil? For attributes that can be nil that are displayed it makes sense to me to check every time, but for the objects themselves I'm not sure what is the best practice. Here's a simplified, but typical example of what I'm talking about: controller code def show @item = Item.find_by_id(params[:id]) @folders = Folder.find(:all, :order => 'display_order') if @item == nil or @item.folder == nil redirect_to(root_url) and return end end view code <% if @item != nil %> display the item's attributes here <% if @item.folder != nil %> <%= link_to @item.folder.name, folder_path(@item.folder) %> <% end %> <% else %> Oops! Looks like something went horribly wrong! <% end %> Is this a good idea or is it just silly?

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  • How to use a getter with a nullable?

    - by Desmond Lost
    I am reading a bunch of queries from a database. I had an issue with the queries not closing, so I added a CommandTimeout. Now, the individual queries read from the config file each time they are run. How would I make the code cache the int from the config file only once using a static nullable and getter. I was thinking of doing something along the lines of: static int? var; get{ var = null; if (var.HasValue) ...(i dont know how to complete the rest) My actual code: private object ExecuteQuery(string dbConnStr, bool fixIt) { object result = false; using (SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(dbConnStr)) { connection.Open(); using (SqlCommand sqlCmd = new SqlCommand()) { AddSQLParms(sqlCmd); sqlCmd.CommandTimeout = 30; sqlCmd.CommandText = _cmdText; sqlCmd.Connection = connection; sqlCmd.CommandType = System.Data.CommandType.Text; sqlCmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); } connection.Close(); } return result; }}

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  • C# async callback on disposed form

    - by Rodney Burton
    Quick question: One of my forms in my winform app (c#) makes an async call to a WCF service to get some data. If the form happens to close before the callback happens, it crashes with an error about accessing a disposed object. What's the correct way to check/handle this situation? The error happens on the Invoke call to the method to update my form, but I can't drill down to the inner exception because it says the code has been optimized. The Code: public void RequestUserPhoto(int userID) { WCF.Service.BeginGetUserPhoto(userID, new AsyncCallback(GetUserPhotoCB), userID); } public void GetUserPhotoCB(IAsyncResult result) { var photo = WCF.Service.EndGetUserPhoto(result); int userID = (int)result.AsyncState; UpdateUserPhoto(userID, photo); } public delegate void UpdateUserPhotoDelegate(int userID, Binary photo); public void UpdateUserPhoto(int userID, Binary photo) { if (InvokeRequired) { var d = new UpdateUserPhotoDelegate(UpdateUserPhoto); Invoke(d, new object[] { userID, photo }); } else { if (photo != null) { var ms = new MemoryStream(photo.ToArray()); var bmp = new System.Drawing.Bitmap(ms); if (userID == theForm.AuthUserID) { pbMyPhoto.BackgroundImage = bmp; } else { pbPhoto.BackgroundImage = bmp; } } } }

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  • Why would ASP.NET MVC use session state?

    - by ray247
    Recommended by the ASP.NET team to use cache instead of session, we stopped using session from working with the WebForm model the last few years. So we normally have the session turned off in the web.config <sessionState mode="Off" /> But, now when I'm testing out a ASP.NET MVC application with this setting it throw an error in class SessionStateTempDataProvider inside the mvc framework, it asked me to turn on session state, I did and it worked. Looking at the source it uses session Dictionary<string, object> tempDataDictionary = httpContext.Session[TempDataSessionStateKey] as Dictionary<string, object>; // line 20 in SessionStateTempDataProvider.cs So, why would they use session here? What am I missing? Thanks, Ray. ======================================================== Edit Sorry didn't mean for this post to debate on session vs. cache, but rather in the context of the ASP.NET MVC, I was just wondering why session is used here. In this Scott Watermasysk blog post he mentioned on turning off session too as a good practice, so I'm just wondering do I have to turn it on to use MVC from here on?

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  • ASP.NET MVC3 - Bug using Javascript

    - by ebb
    Hey there, I'm trying to use Ajax.BeginForm() to POST A Json result from my controller (I'm using MVC3). When the Json result is called it should be sent to a javascript function and extract the object using "var myObject = content.get_response().get_object();", However it just throws a "Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object doesn't support this property or method" when trying to invoke the Ajax POST. My code: Controller: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(string message) { return Json(new { Success = true, Message = message }); } View: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery-1.4.4.min.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery.unobtrusive-ajax.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/MicrosoftAjax.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/MicrosoftMvcAjax.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function JsonAdd_OnComplete(mycontext) { var myObject = mycontext.get_response().get_object(); alert(mycontext.Message); } </script> </head> <body> <div> @using(Ajax.BeginForm("Index", "Home", new AjaxOptions() { HttpMethod = "POST", OnComplete = "JsonAdd_OnComplete" })) { @Html.TextBox("message") <input type="submit" value="SUBMIT" /> } </div> </body> </html> The strange thing is that the exactly same code works in MVC2 - Is this a bug, or have I forgot something? Thanks in advance.

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  • ListBox selector odd behavior when there are dupes

    - by byte1918
    I'm working on a bigger project atm, but I made this simple example to show you what happens.. using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Windows; namespace txt { public partial class MainWindow { public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); } private void Window_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { var obsLst = new List<Info> { new Info { name = "asd" }, new Info { name = "asd" }, new Info { name = "asd" }, new Info { name = "asd" } }; var temp = new List<Info>(); for (var i = 1; i <= 3; i++) { temp.Add(obsLst[0]); //I add 3 of the same item from obsLst to temp } lst.DataContext = temp; //lst = ListBox } } public class Info { public string name { get; set; } } } The ListBox ItemsSource is set to {Binding}.. When I start the application I get 3 txt.Info objects displayed and if I click any of them, 2 or even all of them get selected aswell. From my understanding the problem relies in the fact that the listbox selector cannot differentiate between the items and therefor doesn't know which one I selected. Here's a picture of what it looks like.. I only clicked on the second txt.Info item. I found a solution where someone said that I have to specify the DisplayMemberPath, but I can't really do that in the other project because I have a datatemplate for the object. Any ideas on how I could fix this would be great.. Thx in advance.

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  • How do I dispatch to a method based on a parameter's runtime type in C# < 4?

    - by Evan Barkley
    I have an object o which guaranteed at runtime to be one of three types A, B, or C, all of which implement a common interface I. I can control I, but not A, B, or C. (Thus I could use an empty marker interface, or somehow take advantage of the similarities in the types by using the interface, but I can't add new methods or change existing ones in the types.) I also have a series of methods MethodA, MethodB, and MethodC. The runtime type of o is looked up and is then used as a parameter to these methods. public void MethodA(A a) { ... } public void MethodB(B b) { ... } public void MethodC(C c) { ... } Using this strategy, right now a check has to be performed on the type of o to determine which method should be invoked. Instead, I would like to simply have three overloaded methods: public void Method(A a) { ... } // these are all overloads of each other public void Method(B b) { ... } public void Method(C c) { ... } Now I'm letting C# do the dispatch instead of doing it manually myself. Can this be done? The naive straightforward approach doesn't work, of course: Cannot resolve method 'Method(object)'. Candidates are: void Method(A) void Method(B) void Method(C)

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  • how to get the checked ID's on submit click

    - by rockers
    $('#PbtnSubmit').click(function(event) { alert("ABC"); $('#PricingEditExceptions input[name=PMchk]').each(function() { if ($("#PricingEditExceptions input:checkbox:checked").length > 0) { var checked = $('#PricingEditExceptions input[name=PMchk]:checked'); alert(checked);.........................this is not working var PMstrIDs = checked.map(function() { return $(this).val(); }).get().join(','); alert(PMstrIDs); $('#1_exceptiontypes').attr('value', exceptiontypes) $('#1_PMstrIDs').attr('value', PMstrIDs); } else { alert("Please select atleast one exception"); event.preventDefault(); } }); when I use this On submit click i am getting first popup window as ABC.. but this.. var checked = $('#PricingEditExceptions input[name=PMchk]:checked'); but this returns Object-object.. in both Firefox and IE8.. but in Firefox alert("PMstrIDs"); return exactly how any checkboxes are check.. but in IE8 it is only returning first Checkbox ID not all..is that any differnce between IE8 and Firefox for this behaviour please can anybody help me out? or can i do this one any other method so that it will work in IE8 browser? thanks

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  • Can I get rid of this read lock?

    - by Pieter
    I have the following helper class (simplified): public static class Cache { private static readonly object _syncRoot = new object(); private static Dictionary<Type, string> _lookup = new Dictionary<Type, string>(); public static void Add(Type type, string value) { lock (_syncRoot) { _lookup.Add(type, value); } } public static string Lookup(Type type) { string result; lock (_syncRoot) { _lookup.TryGetValue(type, out result); } return result; } } Add will be called roughly 10/100 times in the application and Lookup will be called by many threads, many of thousands of times. What I would like is to get rid of the read lock. How do you normally get rid of the read lock in this situation? I have the following ideas: Require that _lookup is stable before the application starts operation. The could be build up from an Attribute. This is done automatically through the static constructor the attribute is assigned to. Requiring the above would require me to go through all types that could have the attribute and calling RuntimeHelpers.RunClassConstructor which is an expensive operation; Move to COW semantics. public static void Add(Type type, string value) { lock (_syncRoot) { var lookup = new Dictionary<Type, string>(_lookup); lookup.Add(type, value); _lookup = lookup; } } (With the lock (_syncRoot) removed in the Lookup method.) The problem with this is that this uses an unnecessary amount of memory (which might not be a problem) and I would probably make _lookup volatile, but I'm not sure how this should be applied. (John Skeets' comment here gives me pause.) Using ReaderWriterLock. I believe this would make things worse since the region being locked is small. Suggestions are very welcome.

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  • Sitecore development. Sitecore.Web.UI.WebControl.GetCacheKey() throws NullReferenceException

    - by user344010
    I just click submit button and got an exception. Unable to debug, because this happens before the submit event handler work. I tried to clear sitecore caches, browser caches and cookies... nothing helps. here the stack trace. [NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object.] Sitecore.Web.UI.WebControl.GetCacheKey() +242 Sitecore.Web.UI.WebControl.Render(HtmlTextWriter output) +61 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControlInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +27 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +99 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer) +25 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderChildrenInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ICollection children) +134 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderChildren(HtmlTextWriter writer) +19 System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlHead.RenderChildren(HtmlTextWriter writer) +17 System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlContainerControl.Render(HtmlTextWriter writer) +32 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControlInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +27 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +99 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer) +25 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderChildrenInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ICollection children) +134 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderChildren(HtmlTextWriter writer) +19 System.Web.UI.Page.Render(HtmlTextWriter writer) +29 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControlInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +27 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +99 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer) +25 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +1266

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  • activemerchant PayPalExpress transaction is invalid

    - by Ameya Savale
    I am trying to integrate activemerchant into my ruby on rails application. This is my controller where I get the purchase attirbutes and create a PaypalExpressResponse object def checkout total_as_cents, purchase_params = get_setup_params(Schedule.find(params[:schedule]), request) setup_response = @gateway.setup_purchase(total_as_cents, purchase_params) redirect_to @gateway.redirect_url_for(setup_response.token) end @gateway is my PaypalExpressGateway object which I create using this method in my controller def assign_gateway @gateway = PaypalExpressGateway.new( :login => api_user, :password => api_pass, :signature => api_signature ) end I got the api_user, api_pass, and api_signature values from my developer.paypal.com account, when I logged in for the first time there was already a sandbox user created as a merchant which is where I got the api credentials from. And finally here is my get_setup_params method: def get_setup_params(schedule, request) purchase_params = { :ip => request.remote_ip, :return_url => url_for(:action => 'review', :only_path => false, :sched => schedule.id), :cancel_return_url => register_path, :allow_note => true, :item => schedule.id } return to_cents(schedule.fee), purchase_params end How ever when I click on the checkout button, I get redirected to a sandbox paypal page saying "This transaction is invalid. Please return to the recipient's website to complete your transaction using their regular checkout flow." I'm not sure exactly what's wrong, I think the problem lies in the credentials but don't know why. Any help will be appreciated. One other point, I'm running this in my development environment so I have put this in my config file config.after_initialize do ActiveMerchant::Billing::Base.mode = :test end UPDATE Found out what the problem was, my return cancel url was invalid instead of using register_path, I used url_for(action: "action-name", :only_path => false) this answer helped me Rails ActiveMerchant - Paypal Express Checkout Error even though I wasn't able to see the output of the response like the person has managed to do

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  • i want to convert my aspx.cs to dll

    - by jay rathod
    i have a default.aspx page: <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="Default.aspx.cs" Inherits="_Default" %> <!DOCTYPE html> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:Button ID="btn" runat="server" Text="clicke here" OnClick="btn_Click"/> <asp:TextBox ID="txt" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <asp:Label runat="server" ID="lbl"></asp:Label> </div> </div> </form> </body> </html> and default.aspx.cs : public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { string test; protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { } protected void btn_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { test = txt.Text; lbl.Text = test; } } now i want to make the dll of my default.aspx.cs file and remove it from the website and give the reference of it. so how can i do this??

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  • JTable Insert row and refresh

    - by user269723
    Hi All, I am trying to create simple application where JTable gets updated and refreshed after data is changed.Structure is as follows. 1)Class Main which contains JFrame,JTable details. 2)SampleTableModel class which extends AbstractTableModel.I am overriding most of the methods.`import javax.swing.table.; import javax.swing.event.; import java.util.*; public class SampleTableModel extends AbstractTableModel { public SampleTableModel(){ // this.addTableModelListener( } String[] columnNames = {"A","B","C","D","E"}; int[][] data = {{1,2,3,4,5},{5,6,7,8,9},{12,13,14,15,16}}; Vector dataVector = new Vector(); public Object getValueAt(int rowIndex,int columnIndex) { return data[rowIndex][columnIndex]; } public int getColumnCount(){ return 5; } public int getRowCount(){ return 3; } public String getColumnName(int columnIndex){ return columnNames[columnIndex]; } public void setValueAt(Object value,int row,int column){ data[row][column] =99; } public void notifyTable(AEMessage message){ /* * This method will be called from another class to update JTable. * */ data[0][1]=999; data[0][2]=8838; data[1][1]=8883; fireTableRowsUpdated(0,3); } } ` As you can see, notifyTable will be called from another class(which is actually a thread-which calls this method frequently) Problem is I don't see data being changed in JTable.I see only the initialized data. In the Main class- I am setting like this- RVJDataTable.setModel(new SampleTableModel());

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  • What can be used instead of Datatable in LINQ

    - by Kabi
    I have a SQL query that returns a Datatable: var routesTable = _dbhelper.Select("SELECT [RouteId],[UserId],[SourceName],[CreationTime] FROM [Routes] WHERE UserId=@UserId AND RouteId=@RouteId", inputParams); and then we can work with Datatable object of routesTable if (routesTable.Rows.Count == 1) { result = new Route(routeId) { Name = (string)routesTable.Rows[0]["SourceName"], Time = routesTable.Rows[0]["CreationTime"] is DBNull ? new DateTime() : Convert.ToDateTime(routesTable.Rows[0]["CreationTime"]) }; result.TrackPoints = GetTrackPointsForRoute(routeId); } I want to change this code to linq but I don't know how can I simulate Datatable in LINQ ,I wrote this part: Route result = null; aspnetdbDataContext aspdb = new aspnetdbDataContext(); var Result = from r in aspdb.RouteLinqs where r.UserId == userId && r.RouteId==routeId select r; .... but I don't know how can I change this part: if (routesTable.Rows.Count == 1) { result = new Route(routeId) { Name = (string)routesTable.Rows[0]["SourceName"], Time = routesTable.Rows[0]["CreationTime"] is DBNull ? new DateTime() : Convert.ToDateTime(routesTable.Rows[0]["CreationTime"]) }; would you please tell me how can I do this? EDIT here you can see the whole block of code in original public Route GetById(int routeId, Guid userId) { Route result = null; var inputParams = new Dictionary<string, object> { {"UserId", userId}, {"RouteId", routeId} }; var routesTable = _dbhelper.Select("SELECT [RouteId],[UserId],[SourceName],[CreationTime] FROM [Routes] WHERE UserId=@UserId AND RouteId=@RouteId", inputParams); if (routesTable.Rows.Count == 1) { result = new Route(routeId) { Name = (string)routesTable.Rows[0]["SourceName"], Time = routesTable.Rows[0]["CreationTime"] is DBNull ? new DateTime() : Convert.ToDateTime(routesTable.Rows[0]["CreationTime"]) }; result.TrackPoints = GetTrackPointsForRoute(routeId); } return result; }

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  • Implementing IXmlSerializable on a generated class that has XmlTypeAttribute

    - by Josh
    Basically, the initial problem is I need to make a boolean value serialize as 0 or 1. The solution I found was to implement IXmlSerializable, which I did. Unfortunately the class I'm trying to serialize is generated code off a schema and has an XmlTypeAttribute on it. When I try to (de)serialize the object with the XmlSerializer created in the usual manner ( new XmlSerializer(type)) it throws this exception: System.InvalidOperationException: Only XmlRoot attribute may be specified for the type ______ Please use XmlSchemaProviderAttribute to specify schema type. Two options come to mind immediatly: 1) remove the attribute in the generated code. This change would have to be made every time the code was re-generated. 2) Use an XmlAttributeOverrides object when creating the serializer to remove the attribute. This would require the rest of the code base to "know" that it needs to override that attribute. Also, the exception thrown gives absolutly no clue as to what needs to be done to fix it. Both options kinda stink. Is there a third option?

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  • iphone NSMutableArray loses objects at end of method

    - by Brodie4598
    Hello - in my app, an NSMutableArray is populated with an object in viewDidLoad (eventually there will be many objects but I'm just doing one til I get it working right). I also start a timer that starts a method that needs to access the NSMutableArray every few seconds. The NSMutableArray works fine in viewDidLoad, but as soon as that method is finished, it loses the object. myApp.h @interface MyApp : UIViewController { NSMutableArray *myMutableArray; NSTimer *timer; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSMutableArray *myMutableArray; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSTimer *timer; @end myApp.m #import "MyApp.h" @implementation MyApp @synthesize myMutableArray; - (void) viewDidLoad { cycleTimer = [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:4.0 target:self selector:@selector(newCycle) userInfo: nil repeats:YES]; MyObject *myCustomUIViewObject = [[MyObject alloc]init]; [myMutableArray addObject:myCustomUIViewObject]; [myCustomUIViewObject release]; NSLog(@"%i",[myMutableArray count]); /////outputs "1" } -(void) newCycle { NSLog(@"%i",[myMutableArray count]); /////outputs "0" ?? why is this?? }

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  • how to edit a text message ( sms ) as it arrives in windows mobile 6 using managed code

    - by x86shadow
    I want to make an application to be installed on two pocket PCs and send Encrypted text messages and receive and decrypt them on the other device. I already made an application that gets special text messages ( starting with !farenc! ) and I know how to Encrypt/Decrypt the messages as well but I don't know how to edit a text message as it's arrive ( for decryption ). please help. thanks in advance and sorry for my bad English using System; using System.Linq; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Data; using System.Drawing; using System.Text; using System.Windows.Forms; using Microsoft.WindowsMobile; using Microsoft.WindowsMobile.PocketOutlook; using Microsoft.WindowsMobile.PocketOutlook.MessageInterception; namespace SMSDECRYPT { public partial class Form1 : Form { MessageInterceptor _SMSCatcher = new MessageInterceptor(InterceptionAction.Notify, true); MessageCondition _SMSFilter = new MessageCondition(); public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); _SMSFilter.Property = MessageProperty.Body; _SMSFilter.ComparisonType = MessagePropertyComparisonType.StartsWith; _SMSFilter.CaseSensitive = true; _SMSFilter.ComparisonValue = "!farenc!"; _SMSCatcher.MessageCondition = _SMSFilter; _SMSCatcher.MessageReceived += new MessageInterceptorEventHandler(_SMSCatcher_MessageReceived); } private void Form1_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { //... } void _SMSCatcher_MessageReceived(object sender, MessageInterceptorEventArgs e) { SmsMessage mySMS = (SmsMessage)e.Message; string sms = mySMS.Body.ToString(); sms = sms.Substring(8); //Decryption //... //Update the received message and replace it with the decrypted text //!!!HELP!!! } } }

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  • LINQ to objects: Is there

    - by Charles
    I cannot seem to find a way to have LINQ return the value from a specified accessor. I know the name of the accessors for each object, but am unsure if it is possible to pass the requested accessor as a variable or otherwise achieve the desired refactoring. Consider the following code snippet: // "value" is some object with accessors like: format, channels, language row = new List<String> { String.Join(innerSeparator, (from item in myObject.Audio orderby item.Key ascending select item.Value.format).ToArray()), String.Join(innerSeparator, (from item in myObject.Audio orderby item.Key ascending select item.Value.channels).ToArray()), String.Join(innerSeparator, (from item in myObject.Audio orderby item.Key ascending select item.Value.language).ToArray()), // ... } I'd like to refactor this into a method that uses the specified accessor, or perhaps pass a delegate, though I don't see how that could work. string niceRefactor(myObj myObject, string /* or whatever type */ ____ACCESSOR) { return String.Join(innerSeparator, (from item in myObject.Audio orderby item.Key ascending select item.Value.____ACCESSOR).ToArray()); } I have written a decent amount of C#, but am still new to the magic of LINQ. Is this the right approach? How would you refactor this?

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  • How to suppress jqgrid from initially loading data?

    - by Steve Johnston
    I have a page that has a couple of jqGrids on it, along with a few other fields. I want to make one AJAX call myself that pulls back a JSON object that has the data that should be used to fill the entire page. So, I would like to make the call myself, populate the "other fields" and then pull a couple of collections off of the main JSON object that was returned and populate each of the jqGrids with those collections "manually". I have this much working, but I can't get jqGrid to stop attempting to make an AJAX request itself. Shouldn't there be a way to tell jqGrid to NOT attempt an AJAX call when it is initialized? I found a similar question asked here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1850159/how-to-suppress-jqgrid-from-initially-loading-data But I don't have the option that solved it for the poster. It seems pretty logical to me that some people may want to use this plugin without having the table attempt to get its own data upon initialization. Am I missing an option somewhere in the documentation (wiki - options)? Thanks.

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  • How to setup/calculate texturebuffer in glTexCoordPointer when importing from OBJ-file

    - by JohnMurdoch
    Hi all, I'm parsing an OBJ-file in Android and my goal is to render & display the object. Everything works fine except the correct texture mapping (importing the resource/image into opengl etc works fine). I don't know how to populate the texture related data from the obj-file into an texturebuffer-object. In the OBJ-file I've vt-lines: vt 0.495011 0.389417 vt 0.500686 0.561346 and face-lines: f 127/73/62 98/72/62 125/75/62 My draw-routine looks like (only relevant parts): gl.glEnableClientState(GL10.GL_VERTEX_ARRAY); gl.glEnableClientState(GL10.GL_NORMAL_ARRAY); gl.glEnableClientState(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_COORD_ARRAY); gl.glVertexPointer(3, GL10.GL_FLOAT, 0, vertexBuffer); gl.glNormalPointer(GL10.GL_FLOAT, 0, normalsBuffer); gl.glTexCoordPointer(2, GL10.GL_SHORT, 0, t.getvtBuffer()); gl.glDrawElements(GL10.GL_TRIANGLES, t.getFacesCount(), GL10.GL_UNSIGNED_SHORT, t.getFaceBuffer()); Output of the counts of the OBJ-file: Vertex-count: 1023 Vns-count: 1752 Vts-count: 524 ///////////////////////// Part 0 Material name:default Number of faces:2037 Number of vnPointers:2037 Number of vtPointers:2037 Any advise is welcome.

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  • Binding update on adds news series to WPF Toolkit chart (instead of replacing/updating series)

    - by Mal Ross
    I'm currently recoding a bar chart in my app to make use of the Chart class in the WPF Toolkit. Using MVVM, I'm binding the ItemsSource of a ColumnSeries in my chart to a property on my viewmodel. Here's the relevant XAML: <charting:Chart> <charting:ColumnSeries ItemsSource="{Binding ScoreDistribution.ClassScores}" IndependentValuePath="ClassName" DependentValuePath="Score"/> </charting:Chart> And the property on the viewmodel: // NB: viewmodel derived from Josh Smith's BindableObject public class ExamResultsViewModel : BindableObject { // ... private ScoreDistributionByClass _scoreDistribution; public ScoreDistributionByClass ScoreDistribution { get { return _scoreDistribution; } set { if (_scoreDistribution == value) { return; } _scoreDistribution = value; RaisePropertyChanged(() => ScoreDistribution); } } However, when I update the ScoreDistribution property (by setting it to a new ScoreDistribution object), the chart gets an additional series (based on the new ScoreDistribution) as well as keeping the original series (based on the previous ScoreDistribution). To illustrate this, here are a couple of screenshots showing the chart before an update (with a single data point in ScoreDistribution.ClassScores) and after it (now with 3 data points in ScoreDistribution.ClassScores): Now, I realise there are other ways I could be doing this (e.g. changing the contents of the original ScoreDistribution object rather than replacing it entirely), but I don't understand why it's going wrong in its current form. Can anyone help?

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  • How to approach parallel processing of messages?

    - by Dan
    I am redesigning the messaging system for my app to use intel threading building blocks and am stumped trying to decide between two possible approaches. Basically, I have a sequence of message objects and for each message type, a sequence of handlers. For each message object, I apply each handler registered for that message objects type. The sequential version would be something like this (pseudocode): for each message in message_sequence <- SEQUENTIAL for each handler in (handler_table for message.type) apply handler to message <- SEQUENTIAL The first approach which I am considering processes the message objects in turn (sequentially) and applies the handlers concurrently. Pros: predictable ordering of messages (ie, we are guaranteed a FIFO processing order) (potentially) lower latency of processing each message Cons: more processing resources available than handlers for a single message type (bad parallelization) bad use of processor cache since message objects need to be copied for each handler to use large overhead for small handlers The pseudocode of this approach would be as follows: for each message in message_sequence <- SEQUENTIAL parallel_for each handler in (handler_table for message.type) apply handler to message <- PARALLEL The second approach is to process the messages in parallel and apply the handlers to each message sequentially. Pros: better use of processor cache (keeps the message object local to all handlers which will use it) small handlers don't impose as much overhead (as long as there are other handlers also to be run) more messages are expected than there are handlers, so the potential for parallelism is greater Cons: Unpredictable ordering - if message A is sent before message B, they may both be processed at the same time, or B may finish processing before all of A's handlers are finished (order is non-deterministic) The pseudocode is as follows: parallel_for each message in message_sequence <- PARALLEL for each handler in (handler_table for message.type) apply handler to message <- SEQUENTIAL The second approach has more advantages than the first, but non-deterministic ordering is a big disadvantage.. Which approach would you choose and why? Are there any other approaches I should consider (besides the obvious third approach: parallel messages and parallel handlers, which has the disadvantages of both and no real redeeming factors as far as I can tell)? Thanks!

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  • implementing stretchable dialog borders in iphone sdk

    - by Joey
    Hi, I want to implement dialog borders that scale to the size I require the dialog to be. Perhaps there is a better more conventional name for this sort of thing. If there is, if someone would edit the title, that'd be great. Anyhow, I'd like to do this so I can have dialogs of any size without the visual artifacts that come with scaling border art to small, large, or wacky unproportional dimentions. I have a few ideas on how this is done, but am not sure which is better for iphone. I have a few questions. 1) Should I make a containing view object that basically overloads its drawRect method and draws the images where they should be at their appropriate scale when the method is called, or should I main a containing view object that simply contains 8 UIImageViews? I suspect the latter approach won't work if I need to actively scale the resulting dialog class like in an animation. 1b) If overloading drawRect is the way to go, does someone have some sample code or a link to an example that demonstrates drawing an image directly from drawRect()? 2) Is it generally better to create a) a 3 x 3 image where the segments are in their appropriate 1x1 grid of the image? If so, is it simple to draw from a portion of this image onto my target view in drawRect (if the former assumption is correct that I should use drawRect)? b) The pieces separately in 8 different files?

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