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  • Adroid's DateFormat replacement - missing the format() with FieldPosition

    - by user331244
    Hi, I need to split a date string into pieces and I'm doing it using the public final StringBuffer format (Object object, StringBuffer buffer, FieldPosition field) from the java.text.DateFormat class. However, the implementation of this function is really slow, hence Android has an own implementation in android.text.format.DateFormat. BUT, in my case, I want to extract the different pieces of the date string (year, minute and so on). Since I need to be locale independent, I can not use SimpleDateFormat and custom strings. I do it as follows: Calendar c = ... // find out what field to extract int field = getField(); // Create a date string Field calendarField = DateFormat.Field.ofCalendarField(field); FieldPosition fieldPosition = new FieldPosition(calendarField); StringBuffer label = new StringBuffer(); label = getDateFormat().format(c.getTime(), label, fieldPosition); // Find the piece that we are looking for int beginIndex = fieldPosition.getBeginIndex(); int endIndex = fieldPosition.getEndIndex(); String asString = label.substring(beginIndex, endIndex); For some reason, the format() overload with the FieldPosition argument is not included in the android platform. Any ideas of how to do this in another way? Is there any easy way to tokenize the pattern string? Any other ideas?

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  • Why would ASP.NET MVC use session state?

    - by ray247
    Recommended by the ASP.NET team to use cache instead of session, we stopped using session from working with the WebForm model the last few years. So we normally have the session turned off in the web.config <sessionState mode="Off" /> But, now when I'm testing out a ASP.NET MVC application with this setting it throw an error in class SessionStateTempDataProvider inside the mvc framework, it asked me to turn on session state, I did and it worked. Looking at the source it uses session Dictionary<string, object> tempDataDictionary = httpContext.Session[TempDataSessionStateKey] as Dictionary<string, object>; // line 20 in SessionStateTempDataProvider.cs So, why would they use session here? What am I missing? Thanks, Ray. ======================================================== Edit Sorry didn't mean for this post to debate on session vs. cache, but rather in the context of the ASP.NET MVC, I was just wondering why session is used here. In this Scott Watermasysk blog post he mentioned on turning off session too as a good practice, so I'm just wondering do I have to turn it on to use MVC from here on?

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  • Static content not displayed with Zend FW

    - by shin
    I am trying to display a static content with Zend framework. When I go to http://square.localhost/content/services, I get an error message. Could anyone tell me how to fix this please? Thanks in advance. application.ini .... .... resources.layout.layoutPath = APPLICATION_PATH "/layouts" resources.layout.layout = "master" resources.router.routes.home.route = /home resources.router.routes.home.defaults.module = default resources.router.routes.home.defaults.controller = index resources.router.routes.home.defaults.action = index resources.router.routes.static-content.route = /content/:page resources.router.routes.static-content.defaults.module = default resources.router.routes.static-content.defaults.controller = static-content resources.router.routes.static-content.defaults.action = display application/modules/default/controllers/StaticContentController.php class StaticContentController extends Zend_Controller_Action { public function init() { } // display static views public function displayAction() { $page = $this->getRequest()->getParam('page'); if (file_exists($this->view->getScriptPath(null) . "/" . $this->getRequest()->getControllerName() . "/$page." . $this->viewSuffix)) { $this->render($page); } else { throw new Zend_Controller_Action_Exception('Page not found', 404); } } } application/modules/default/views/scripts/static-content/services.phtml some html ... ... Error message An error occurred Page not found Exception information: Message: Page not found Stack trace: #0 /var/www/square/library/Zend/Controller/Action.php(513): StaticContentController->displayAction() #1 /var/www/square/library/Zend/Controller/Dispatcher/Standard.php(295): Zend_Controller_Action->dispatch('displayAction') #2 /var/www/square/library/Zend/Controller/Front.php(954): Zend_Controller_Dispatcher_Standard->dispatch(Object(Zend_Controller_Request_Http), Object(Zend_Controller_Response_Http)) #3 /var/www/square/library/Zend/Application/Bootstrap/Bootstrap.php(97): Zend_Controller_Front->dispatch() #4 /var/www/square/library/Zend/Application.php(366): Zend_Application_Bootstrap_Bootstrap->run() #5 /var/www/square/public/index.php(26): Zend_Application->run() #6 {main} Request Parameters: array ( 'page' => 'services', 'module' => 'default', 'controller' => 'static-content', 'action' => 'display', )

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  • UIViewController memory management

    - by jAmi
    Hi I have a very basic issue of memory management with my UIViewController (or any other object that I create); The problem is that in Instruments my Object allocation graph is always rising even though I am calling release on then assigning them nil. I have 2 UIViewController sub-classes each initializing with a NIB; I add the first ViewController to the main window like [window addSubView:first.view]; Then in my first ViewController nib file I have a Button which loads the second ViewController like : -(IBAction)loadSecondView{ if(second!=nil){ //second is set as an iVar and @property (nonatomic, retain)ViewController2* sceond; [second release]; second=nil; } second=[[ViewController2* second]initWithNibName:@"ViewController2" bundle:nil]; [self.view addSubView:second.view]; } In my (second) ViewController2 i have a button with an action method -(IBAction) removeSecond{ [self.view removeFromSuperView]; } Please let me know if the above scheme works in a managed way for memory...? In Instruments It does not show release of any allocation and keeps the bar status graph keeps on rising.

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  • Can I get rid of this read lock?

    - by Pieter
    I have the following helper class (simplified): public static class Cache { private static readonly object _syncRoot = new object(); private static Dictionary<Type, string> _lookup = new Dictionary<Type, string>(); public static void Add(Type type, string value) { lock (_syncRoot) { _lookup.Add(type, value); } } public static string Lookup(Type type) { string result; lock (_syncRoot) { _lookup.TryGetValue(type, out result); } return result; } } Add will be called roughly 10/100 times in the application and Lookup will be called by many threads, many of thousands of times. What I would like is to get rid of the read lock. How do you normally get rid of the read lock in this situation? I have the following ideas: Require that _lookup is stable before the application starts operation. The could be build up from an Attribute. This is done automatically through the static constructor the attribute is assigned to. Requiring the above would require me to go through all types that could have the attribute and calling RuntimeHelpers.RunClassConstructor which is an expensive operation; Move to COW semantics. public static void Add(Type type, string value) { lock (_syncRoot) { var lookup = new Dictionary<Type, string>(_lookup); lookup.Add(type, value); _lookup = lookup; } } (With the lock (_syncRoot) removed in the Lookup method.) The problem with this is that this uses an unnecessary amount of memory (which might not be a problem) and I would probably make _lookup volatile, but I'm not sure how this should be applied. (John Skeets' comment here gives me pause.) Using ReaderWriterLock. I believe this would make things worse since the region being locked is small. Suggestions are very welcome.

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  • How to Create a Folder in the Current Document Library if it's not already present?

    - by Rosh Malai
    All I want to do is to create a folder "MetaFolder" inside a document library. User can be on any document library and I would like to create this folder after item is added (so on itemAdded event handler). I do NOT want workflow so please dont suggest workflow. This code works but I have to hardcode the url but need to get url from current url. also need to verify the folder uHippo does not exists in the current doc library... public override void ItemAdded(SPItemEventProperties properties) { base.ItemAdded(properties); using (SPSite currentSite = new SPSite(properties.WebUrl)) using (SPWeb currentWeb = currentSite.OpenWeb()) { // This code works and creates Folder in the "My TEST Doc library" //SPList docLib = currentWeb.Lists["My TEST Doc Library"]; //SPListItem folder = docLib.Folders.Add(docLib.RootFolder.ServerRelativeUrl, SPFileSystemObjectType.Folder, "My folder"); //folder.Update(); string doclibname = "Not a doclib"; //SPList doclibList = currentWeb.GetList(HttpContext.Current.Request.RawUrl); // NOT WORKING. Tried properties.weburl SPList doclibList = currentWeb.GetListFromUrl("https://mycompanyportal/sites/testsitecol/testwebsite/My%20TEST%20Doc%20Library/Forms/AllItems.aspx"); if (null != doclibList) { doclibname = doclibList.Title; } // this section also not working. // getting Object reference not set to an instance of an object or something like that. //if (currentWeb.GetFolder("uHippo").Exists == false) //{ SPListItem folder = doclibList.Folders.Add(doclibList.RootFolder.ServerRelativeUrl, SPFileSystemObjectType.Folder, "uHippo"); folder.Update(); //} } }

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  • 1. Get the Current Document Library 2. Create a Folder "MetaFolder" if it's not already present

    - by Rosh Malai
    All I want to do is to create a folder "MetaFolder" inside a document library. User can be on any document library and I would like to create this folder after item is added (so on itemAdded event handler). I do NOT want workflow so please dont suggest workflow. This code works but I have to hardcode the url but need to get url from current url. also need to verify the folder uHippo does not exists in the current doc library... Thanks public override void ItemAdded(SPItemEventProperties properties) { base.ItemAdded(properties); using (SPSite currentSite = new SPSite(properties.WebUrl)) using (SPWeb currentWeb = currentSite.OpenWeb()) { // This code works and creates Folder in the "My TEST Doc library" //SPList docLib = currentWeb.Lists["My TEST Doc Library"]; //SPListItem folder = docLib.Folders.Add(docLib.RootFolder.ServerRelativeUrl, SPFileSystemObjectType.Folder, "My folder"); //folder.Update(); string doclibname = "Not a doclib"; //SPList doclibList = currentWeb.GetList(HttpContext.Current.Request.RawUrl); // NOT WORKING. Tried properties.weburl SPList doclibList = currentWeb.GetListFromUrl("https://mycompanyportal/sites/testsitecol/testwebsite/My%20TEST%20Doc%20Library/Forms/AllItems.aspx"); if (null != doclibList) { doclibname = doclibList.Title; } // this section also not working. // getting Object reference not set to an instance of an object or something like that. //if (currentWeb.GetFolder("uHippo").Exists == false) //{ SPListItem folder = doclibList.Folders.Add(doclibList.RootFolder.ServerRelativeUrl, SPFileSystemObjectType.Folder, "uHippo"); folder.Update(); //} } }

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  • Silverlight 4 ComboBox - Binding to Nullable data (tried TargetNullValue but not working as expected)

    - by Laurence
    (Please note - I am a Silverlight beginner and am looking for the simplest solution here, e.g. that doesn't involve writing/installing a replacement for the ComboBox control!) This is an issue with a Silverlight 4 application that uses the View Model (MVVM) approach. I have a simple form for editing a "Product" object. Product has a CategoryID property which is nullable (int?). A ComboBox is used to view and set the CategoryID - this is bound to an ObservableCollection of Categories. Product also has number of non-nullable properties bound to TextBoxes. I want the user to see "N/A" in the ComboBox for a product with no category, and to be use this "N/A" option to set CategoryID to null. So, I manually added a Category object with CategoryID=0 and CategoryName="N/A" to the collection; then I set TargetNullValue=0 in the SelectedValue Binding of the ComboBox. My thinking was - when the ComboBox SelectedValue was bound to a null CategoryID it would substitute zero, and therefore select the "N/A" option. When editing a Product with a non-null CategoryID, everything works. However when a null CategoryID is found, two problems occur: No option is selected in the ComboBox (its blank) The ComboBox binding seems broken from this point onwards - any Product I subsequently edit (incl. ones with a non-null CategoryID) have nothing selected in the ComboBox (its still populated with all categories - just no selected item). I've seen reports of problem #2 (here, here) but I was under the impression that #1 should have worked. What am I missing to get the "N/A" option to be selected? XAML for ComboBox: <ComboBox x:Name="cboCategory" ItemsSource="{Binding colCategories, Mode=OneWay}" SelectedValuePath="CategoryID" DisplayMemberPath="CategoryName" SelectedValue="{Binding CurrentProduct.CategoryID, Mode=TwoWay, TargetNullValue=0}" Height="24" Width="344"></ComboBox>

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  • iphone NSMutableArray loses objects at end of method

    - by Brodie4598
    Hello - in my app, an NSMutableArray is populated with an object in viewDidLoad (eventually there will be many objects but I'm just doing one til I get it working right). I also start a timer that starts a method that needs to access the NSMutableArray every few seconds. The NSMutableArray works fine in viewDidLoad, but as soon as that method is finished, it loses the object. myApp.h @interface MyApp : UIViewController { NSMutableArray *myMutableArray; NSTimer *timer; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSMutableArray *myMutableArray; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSTimer *timer; @end myApp.m #import "MyApp.h" @implementation MyApp @synthesize myMutableArray; - (void) viewDidLoad { cycleTimer = [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:4.0 target:self selector:@selector(newCycle) userInfo: nil repeats:YES]; MyObject *myCustomUIViewObject = [[MyObject alloc]init]; [myMutableArray addObject:myCustomUIViewObject]; [myCustomUIViewObject release]; NSLog(@"%i",[myMutableArray count]); /////outputs "1" } -(void) newCycle { NSLog(@"%i",[myMutableArray count]); /////outputs "0" ?? why is this?? }

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  • How to use a getter with a nullable?

    - by Desmond Lost
    I am reading a bunch of queries from a database. I had an issue with the queries not closing, so I added a CommandTimeout. Now, the individual queries read from the config file each time they are run. How would I make the code cache the int from the config file only once using a static nullable and getter. I was thinking of doing something along the lines of: static int? var; get{ var = null; if (var.HasValue) ...(i dont know how to complete the rest) My actual code: private object ExecuteQuery(string dbConnStr, bool fixIt) { object result = false; using (SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(dbConnStr)) { connection.Open(); using (SqlCommand sqlCmd = new SqlCommand()) { AddSQLParms(sqlCmd); sqlCmd.CommandTimeout = 30; sqlCmd.CommandText = _cmdText; sqlCmd.Connection = connection; sqlCmd.CommandType = System.Data.CommandType.Text; sqlCmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); } connection.Close(); } return result; }}

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  • Return type from DAL class (Sql ce, Linq to Sql)

    - by bretddog
    Hi, Using VS2008 and Sql CE 3.5, and preferably Linq to Sql. I'm learning database, and unsure about DAL methods return types and how/where to map the data over to my business objects: I don't want direct UI binding. A business object class UserData, and a class UserDataList (Inherits List(Of UserData)), is represented in the database by the table "Users". I use SQL Compact and run SqlMetal which creates dbml/designer.vb file. This gives me a class with a TableAttribute: <Table()> _ Partial Public Class Users I'm unsure how to use this class. Should my business object know about this class, such that the DAL can return the type Users, or List(Of Users) ? So for example the "UserDataService Class" is a part of the DAL, and would have for example the functions GetAll and GetById. Will this be correct : ? Public Class UserDataService Public Function GetAll() As List(Of Users) Dim ctx As New MyDB(connection) Dim q As List(Of Users) = From n In ctx.Users Select n Return q End Function Public Function GetById(ByVal id As Integer) As Users Dim ctx As New MyDB(connection) Dim q As Users = (From n In ctx.Users Where n.UserID = id Select n).Single Return q End Function And then, would I perhaps have a method, say in the UserDataList class, like: Public Class UserDataList Inherits List(Of UserData) Public Sub LoadFromDatabase() Me.clear() Dim database as New UserDataService dim users as List(Of Users) users = database.GetAll() For each u in users dim newUser as new UserData newUser.Id = u.Id newUser.Name = u.Name Me.Add(newUser) Next End Sub End Class Is this a sensible approach? Would appreciate any suggestions/alternatives, as this is my first attempt on a database DAL. cheers!

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  • Checking for nil in view in Ruby on Rails

    - by seaneshbaugh
    I've been working with Rails for a while now and one thing I find myself constantly doing is checking to see if some attribute or object is nil in my view code before I display it. I'm starting to wonder if this is always the best idea. My rationale so far has been that since my application(s) rely on user input unexpected things can occur. If I've learned one thing from programming in general it's that users inputting things the programmer didn't think of is one of the biggest sources of run-time errors. By checking for nil values I'm hoping to sidestep that and have my views gracefully handle the problem. The thing is though I typically for various reasons have similar nil or invalid value checks in either my model or controller code. I wouldn't call it code duplication in the strictest sense, but it just doesn't seem very DRY. If I've already checked for nil objects in my controller is it okay if my view just assumes the object truly isn't nil? For attributes that can be nil that are displayed it makes sense to me to check every time, but for the objects themselves I'm not sure what is the best practice. Here's a simplified, but typical example of what I'm talking about: controller code def show @item = Item.find_by_id(params[:id]) @folders = Folder.find(:all, :order => 'display_order') if @item == nil or @item.folder == nil redirect_to(root_url) and return end end view code <% if @item != nil %> display the item's attributes here <% if @item.folder != nil %> <%= link_to @item.folder.name, folder_path(@item.folder) %> <% end %> <% else %> Oops! Looks like something went horribly wrong! <% end %> Is this a good idea or is it just silly?

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  • ASP.NET MVC3 - Bug using Javascript

    - by ebb
    Hey there, I'm trying to use Ajax.BeginForm() to POST A Json result from my controller (I'm using MVC3). When the Json result is called it should be sent to a javascript function and extract the object using "var myObject = content.get_response().get_object();", However it just throws a "Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object doesn't support this property or method" when trying to invoke the Ajax POST. My code: Controller: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(string message) { return Json(new { Success = true, Message = message }); } View: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery-1.4.4.min.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery.unobtrusive-ajax.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/MicrosoftAjax.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/MicrosoftMvcAjax.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function JsonAdd_OnComplete(mycontext) { var myObject = mycontext.get_response().get_object(); alert(mycontext.Message); } </script> </head> <body> <div> @using(Ajax.BeginForm("Index", "Home", new AjaxOptions() { HttpMethod = "POST", OnComplete = "JsonAdd_OnComplete" })) { @Html.TextBox("message") <input type="submit" value="SUBMIT" /> } </div> </body> </html> The strange thing is that the exactly same code works in MVC2 - Is this a bug, or have I forgot something? Thanks in advance.

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  • activemerchant PayPalExpress transaction is invalid

    - by Ameya Savale
    I am trying to integrate activemerchant into my ruby on rails application. This is my controller where I get the purchase attirbutes and create a PaypalExpressResponse object def checkout total_as_cents, purchase_params = get_setup_params(Schedule.find(params[:schedule]), request) setup_response = @gateway.setup_purchase(total_as_cents, purchase_params) redirect_to @gateway.redirect_url_for(setup_response.token) end @gateway is my PaypalExpressGateway object which I create using this method in my controller def assign_gateway @gateway = PaypalExpressGateway.new( :login => api_user, :password => api_pass, :signature => api_signature ) end I got the api_user, api_pass, and api_signature values from my developer.paypal.com account, when I logged in for the first time there was already a sandbox user created as a merchant which is where I got the api credentials from. And finally here is my get_setup_params method: def get_setup_params(schedule, request) purchase_params = { :ip => request.remote_ip, :return_url => url_for(:action => 'review', :only_path => false, :sched => schedule.id), :cancel_return_url => register_path, :allow_note => true, :item => schedule.id } return to_cents(schedule.fee), purchase_params end How ever when I click on the checkout button, I get redirected to a sandbox paypal page saying "This transaction is invalid. Please return to the recipient's website to complete your transaction using their regular checkout flow." I'm not sure exactly what's wrong, I think the problem lies in the credentials but don't know why. Any help will be appreciated. One other point, I'm running this in my development environment so I have put this in my config file config.after_initialize do ActiveMerchant::Billing::Base.mode = :test end UPDATE Found out what the problem was, my return cancel url was invalid instead of using register_path, I used url_for(action: "action-name", :only_path => false) this answer helped me Rails ActiveMerchant - Paypal Express Checkout Error even though I wasn't able to see the output of the response like the person has managed to do

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  • How to setup/calculate texturebuffer in glTexCoordPointer when importing from OBJ-file

    - by JohnMurdoch
    Hi all, I'm parsing an OBJ-file in Android and my goal is to render & display the object. Everything works fine except the correct texture mapping (importing the resource/image into opengl etc works fine). I don't know how to populate the texture related data from the obj-file into an texturebuffer-object. In the OBJ-file I've vt-lines: vt 0.495011 0.389417 vt 0.500686 0.561346 and face-lines: f 127/73/62 98/72/62 125/75/62 My draw-routine looks like (only relevant parts): gl.glEnableClientState(GL10.GL_VERTEX_ARRAY); gl.glEnableClientState(GL10.GL_NORMAL_ARRAY); gl.glEnableClientState(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_COORD_ARRAY); gl.glVertexPointer(3, GL10.GL_FLOAT, 0, vertexBuffer); gl.glNormalPointer(GL10.GL_FLOAT, 0, normalsBuffer); gl.glTexCoordPointer(2, GL10.GL_SHORT, 0, t.getvtBuffer()); gl.glDrawElements(GL10.GL_TRIANGLES, t.getFacesCount(), GL10.GL_UNSIGNED_SHORT, t.getFaceBuffer()); Output of the counts of the OBJ-file: Vertex-count: 1023 Vns-count: 1752 Vts-count: 524 ///////////////////////// Part 0 Material name:default Number of faces:2037 Number of vnPointers:2037 Number of vtPointers:2037 Any advise is welcome.

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  • handle large Parcelable ArrayList in Android

    - by Gal Ben-Haim
    I'm developing an Android app that is a client to a JSON webservice API. I have classes of resource objects (some are nested) and I pass results from an IntentService that access the webserive using the Parcelable interface for all the resource classes. the webservice returns arrays or results that can be potentially large (because of the nesting, for example, a post object also contains comments array, each comment also contains a user object). currently I'm either inserting the results into a SQlite database or displaying them in a ListView. (my relevant methods are accepting ArrayList<resourceClass> as arguments). (some data need to be persistent stored and some should not). since I don't know what size of lists I can handle this way without reaching the memory limits, is this a good practice ? is it a better idea to save the parsed JSON to a local file immediately and pass the file path to the ResultReceiver, then either insert to database from that file or display the data ? is there a better way to handle this ? btw - I'm parsing the JSON as a stream with Gson's Reader so there shouldn't be memory issues at that stage.

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  • how to get the checked ID's on submit click

    - by rockers
    $('#PbtnSubmit').click(function(event) { alert("ABC"); $('#PricingEditExceptions input[name=PMchk]').each(function() { if ($("#PricingEditExceptions input:checkbox:checked").length > 0) { var checked = $('#PricingEditExceptions input[name=PMchk]:checked'); alert(checked);.........................this is not working var PMstrIDs = checked.map(function() { return $(this).val(); }).get().join(','); alert(PMstrIDs); $('#1_exceptiontypes').attr('value', exceptiontypes) $('#1_PMstrIDs').attr('value', PMstrIDs); } else { alert("Please select atleast one exception"); event.preventDefault(); } }); when I use this On submit click i am getting first popup window as ABC.. but this.. var checked = $('#PricingEditExceptions input[name=PMchk]:checked'); but this returns Object-object.. in both Firefox and IE8.. but in Firefox alert("PMstrIDs"); return exactly how any checkboxes are check.. but in IE8 it is only returning first Checkbox ID not all..is that any differnce between IE8 and Firefox for this behaviour please can anybody help me out? or can i do this one any other method so that it will work in IE8 browser? thanks

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  • JTable Insert row and refresh

    - by user269723
    Hi All, I am trying to create simple application where JTable gets updated and refreshed after data is changed.Structure is as follows. 1)Class Main which contains JFrame,JTable details. 2)SampleTableModel class which extends AbstractTableModel.I am overriding most of the methods.`import javax.swing.table.; import javax.swing.event.; import java.util.*; public class SampleTableModel extends AbstractTableModel { public SampleTableModel(){ // this.addTableModelListener( } String[] columnNames = {"A","B","C","D","E"}; int[][] data = {{1,2,3,4,5},{5,6,7,8,9},{12,13,14,15,16}}; Vector dataVector = new Vector(); public Object getValueAt(int rowIndex,int columnIndex) { return data[rowIndex][columnIndex]; } public int getColumnCount(){ return 5; } public int getRowCount(){ return 3; } public String getColumnName(int columnIndex){ return columnNames[columnIndex]; } public void setValueAt(Object value,int row,int column){ data[row][column] =99; } public void notifyTable(AEMessage message){ /* * This method will be called from another class to update JTable. * */ data[0][1]=999; data[0][2]=8838; data[1][1]=8883; fireTableRowsUpdated(0,3); } } ` As you can see, notifyTable will be called from another class(which is actually a thread-which calls this method frequently) Problem is I don't see data being changed in JTable.I see only the initialized data. In the Main class- I am setting like this- RVJDataTable.setModel(new SampleTableModel());

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  • Why doesn't C# do "simple" type inference on generics?

    - by Ken Birman
    Just curious: sure, we all know that the general case of type inference for generics is undecidable. And so C# won't do any kind of subtyping at all: if Foo<T> is a generic, Foo<int> isn't a subtype of Foo<T>, or Foo<Object> or of anything else you might cook up. And sure, we all hack around this with ugly interface or abstract class definitions. But... if you can't beat the general problem, why not just limit the solution to cases that are easy. For example, in my list above, it is OBVIOUS that Foo<int> is a subtype of Foo<T> and it would be trivial to check. Same for checking against Foo<Object>. So is there some other deep horror that would creep forth from the abyss if they were to just say, aw shucks, we'll do what we can? Or is this just some sort of religious purity on the part of the language guys at Microsoft?

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  • What can be used instead of Datatable in LINQ

    - by Kabi
    I have a SQL query that returns a Datatable: var routesTable = _dbhelper.Select("SELECT [RouteId],[UserId],[SourceName],[CreationTime] FROM [Routes] WHERE UserId=@UserId AND RouteId=@RouteId", inputParams); and then we can work with Datatable object of routesTable if (routesTable.Rows.Count == 1) { result = new Route(routeId) { Name = (string)routesTable.Rows[0]["SourceName"], Time = routesTable.Rows[0]["CreationTime"] is DBNull ? new DateTime() : Convert.ToDateTime(routesTable.Rows[0]["CreationTime"]) }; result.TrackPoints = GetTrackPointsForRoute(routeId); } I want to change this code to linq but I don't know how can I simulate Datatable in LINQ ,I wrote this part: Route result = null; aspnetdbDataContext aspdb = new aspnetdbDataContext(); var Result = from r in aspdb.RouteLinqs where r.UserId == userId && r.RouteId==routeId select r; .... but I don't know how can I change this part: if (routesTable.Rows.Count == 1) { result = new Route(routeId) { Name = (string)routesTable.Rows[0]["SourceName"], Time = routesTable.Rows[0]["CreationTime"] is DBNull ? new DateTime() : Convert.ToDateTime(routesTable.Rows[0]["CreationTime"]) }; would you please tell me how can I do this? EDIT here you can see the whole block of code in original public Route GetById(int routeId, Guid userId) { Route result = null; var inputParams = new Dictionary<string, object> { {"UserId", userId}, {"RouteId", routeId} }; var routesTable = _dbhelper.Select("SELECT [RouteId],[UserId],[SourceName],[CreationTime] FROM [Routes] WHERE UserId=@UserId AND RouteId=@RouteId", inputParams); if (routesTable.Rows.Count == 1) { result = new Route(routeId) { Name = (string)routesTable.Rows[0]["SourceName"], Time = routesTable.Rows[0]["CreationTime"] is DBNull ? new DateTime() : Convert.ToDateTime(routesTable.Rows[0]["CreationTime"]) }; result.TrackPoints = GetTrackPointsForRoute(routeId); } return result; }

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  • Binding update on adds news series to WPF Toolkit chart (instead of replacing/updating series)

    - by Mal Ross
    I'm currently recoding a bar chart in my app to make use of the Chart class in the WPF Toolkit. Using MVVM, I'm binding the ItemsSource of a ColumnSeries in my chart to a property on my viewmodel. Here's the relevant XAML: <charting:Chart> <charting:ColumnSeries ItemsSource="{Binding ScoreDistribution.ClassScores}" IndependentValuePath="ClassName" DependentValuePath="Score"/> </charting:Chart> And the property on the viewmodel: // NB: viewmodel derived from Josh Smith's BindableObject public class ExamResultsViewModel : BindableObject { // ... private ScoreDistributionByClass _scoreDistribution; public ScoreDistributionByClass ScoreDistribution { get { return _scoreDistribution; } set { if (_scoreDistribution == value) { return; } _scoreDistribution = value; RaisePropertyChanged(() => ScoreDistribution); } } However, when I update the ScoreDistribution property (by setting it to a new ScoreDistribution object), the chart gets an additional series (based on the new ScoreDistribution) as well as keeping the original series (based on the previous ScoreDistribution). To illustrate this, here are a couple of screenshots showing the chart before an update (with a single data point in ScoreDistribution.ClassScores) and after it (now with 3 data points in ScoreDistribution.ClassScores): Now, I realise there are other ways I could be doing this (e.g. changing the contents of the original ScoreDistribution object rather than replacing it entirely), but I don't understand why it's going wrong in its current form. Can anyone help?

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  • URL equals and checking Internet access

    - by James P.
    On http://java.sun.com/j2se/1.5.0/docs/api/java/net/URL.html it states that: Compares this URL for equality with another object. If the given object is not a URL then this method immediately returns false. Two URL objects are equal if they have the same protocol, reference equivalent hosts, have the same port number on the host, and the same file and fragment of the file. Two hosts are considered equivalent if both host names can be resolved into the same IP addresses; else if either host name can't be resolved, the host names must be equal without regard to case; or both host names equal to null. Since hosts comparison requires name resolution, this operation is a blocking operation. Note: The defined behavior for equals is known to be inconsistent with virtual hosting in HTTP. According to this, equals will only work if name resolution is possible. Since I can't be sure that a computer has internet access at a given time, should I just use Strings to store addresses instead? Also, how do I go about testing if access is available when requested?

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  • Sitecore development. Sitecore.Web.UI.WebControl.GetCacheKey() throws NullReferenceException

    - by user344010
    I just click submit button and got an exception. Unable to debug, because this happens before the submit event handler work. I tried to clear sitecore caches, browser caches and cookies... nothing helps. here the stack trace. [NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object.] Sitecore.Web.UI.WebControl.GetCacheKey() +242 Sitecore.Web.UI.WebControl.Render(HtmlTextWriter output) +61 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControlInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +27 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +99 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer) +25 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderChildrenInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ICollection children) +134 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderChildren(HtmlTextWriter writer) +19 System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlHead.RenderChildren(HtmlTextWriter writer) +17 System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlContainerControl.Render(HtmlTextWriter writer) +32 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControlInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +27 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +99 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer) +25 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderChildrenInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ICollection children) +134 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderChildren(HtmlTextWriter writer) +19 System.Web.UI.Page.Render(HtmlTextWriter writer) +29 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControlInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +27 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +99 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer) +25 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +1266

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  • Creating a function in Postgresql that does not return composite values

    - by celenius
    I'm learning how to write functions in Postgresql. I've defined a function called _tmp_myfunction() which takes in an id and returns a table (I also define a table object type called _tmp_mytable) -- create object type to be returned CREATE TYPE _tmp_mytable AS ( id integer, cost double precision ); -- create function which returns query CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION _tmp_myfunction( id integer ) RETURNS SETOF _tmp_mytable AS $$ BEGIN RETURN QUERY SELECT id, cost FROM sales WHERE id = sales.id; END; $$ LANGUAGE plpgsql; This works fine when I use one id and call it using the following approach: SELECT * FROM _tmp_myfunction(402); What I would like to be able to do is to call it, but to use a column of values instead of just one value. However, if I use the following approach I end up with all values of the table in one column, separated by commas: -- call function using all values in a column SELECT _tmp_myfunction(t.id) FROM transactions as t; I understand that I can get the same result if I use SELECT _tmp_myfunction(402); instead of SELECT * FROM _tmp_myfunction(402); but I don't know how to construct my query in such a way that I can separate out the results.

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  • ListBox selector odd behavior when there are dupes

    - by byte1918
    I'm working on a bigger project atm, but I made this simple example to show you what happens.. using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Windows; namespace txt { public partial class MainWindow { public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); } private void Window_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { var obsLst = new List<Info> { new Info { name = "asd" }, new Info { name = "asd" }, new Info { name = "asd" }, new Info { name = "asd" } }; var temp = new List<Info>(); for (var i = 1; i <= 3; i++) { temp.Add(obsLst[0]); //I add 3 of the same item from obsLst to temp } lst.DataContext = temp; //lst = ListBox } } public class Info { public string name { get; set; } } } The ListBox ItemsSource is set to {Binding}.. When I start the application I get 3 txt.Info objects displayed and if I click any of them, 2 or even all of them get selected aswell. From my understanding the problem relies in the fact that the listbox selector cannot differentiate between the items and therefor doesn't know which one I selected. Here's a picture of what it looks like.. I only clicked on the second txt.Info item. I found a solution where someone said that I have to specify the DisplayMemberPath, but I can't really do that in the other project because I have a datatemplate for the object. Any ideas on how I could fix this would be great.. Thx in advance.

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