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  • How to: generate UnhandledException?

    - by serhio
    I use this code to catch the WinForm application UnhandledException. [STAThread] static void Main(string[] args) { // Add the event handler for handling UI thread exceptions to the event. Application.ThreadException += new System.Threading.ThreadExceptionEventHandler(Application_ThreadException); // Set the unhandled exception mode to force all Windows Forms errors // to go through our handler. Application.SetUnhandledExceptionMode(UnhandledExceptionMode.CatchException); // Add the event handler for handling non-UI thread exceptions to the event. AppDomain.CurrentDomain.UnhandledException += new UnhandledExceptionEventHandler(CurrentDomain_UnhandledException); try { Application.Run(new MainForm()); } catch.... There I will try to restart the application. Now my problem is to simulate a exception like this. I tried before try (in main): throw new NullReferenceException("test"); VS caught it. Tried also in MainForm code with button : private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs ev) { ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem(new WaitCallback(TestMe), null); } protected void TestMe(object state) { string s = state.ToString(); } did not help, VS caught it, even in Release mode. How should I, finally, force the application generate UnhandleldException? Will I be able to restart the application in CurrentDomain_UnhandledException?

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  • C# async callback on disposed form

    - by Rodney Burton
    Quick question: One of my forms in my winform app (c#) makes an async call to a WCF service to get some data. If the form happens to close before the callback happens, it crashes with an error about accessing a disposed object. What's the correct way to check/handle this situation? The error happens on the Invoke call to the method to update my form, but I can't drill down to the inner exception because it says the code has been optimized. The Code: public void RequestUserPhoto(int userID) { WCF.Service.BeginGetUserPhoto(userID, new AsyncCallback(GetUserPhotoCB), userID); } public void GetUserPhotoCB(IAsyncResult result) { var photo = WCF.Service.EndGetUserPhoto(result); int userID = (int)result.AsyncState; UpdateUserPhoto(userID, photo); } public delegate void UpdateUserPhotoDelegate(int userID, Binary photo); public void UpdateUserPhoto(int userID, Binary photo) { if (InvokeRequired) { var d = new UpdateUserPhotoDelegate(UpdateUserPhoto); Invoke(d, new object[] { userID, photo }); } else { if (photo != null) { var ms = new MemoryStream(photo.ToArray()); var bmp = new System.Drawing.Bitmap(ms); if (userID == theForm.AuthUserID) { pbMyPhoto.BackgroundImage = bmp; } else { pbPhoto.BackgroundImage = bmp; } } } }

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  • Trying to write up a C daemon, but don't know enough C to continue

    - by JamesM-SiteGen
    Okay, so I want this daemon to run in the background with little to no interaction. I plan to have it work with Apache, lighttpd, etc to send the session & request information to allow C to generate a website from an object DB, saving will have to be an option so, you can start the daemon with an existing DB but will not save to it unless you login to the admin area and enable, and restart the daemon. Summary of the daemon: Load a database from file. Have a function to restart the daemon. Allow Apache, lighttpd, etc to get necessary data about the request and session. A varible to allow the database to be saved to the file, otherwise it will only be stored in ram. If it is set to save back to the file, then only have neccessary data in ram. Use sql-light for the database file. Build a webpage from some template files. $(myVar) for getting variables. Get templates from a directory. ./templates/01-test/{index.html,template.css,template.js} Live version of the code and more information: http://typewith.me/YbGB1h1g1p Also I am working on a website CMS in php, but I am tring to switch to C as it is faster than php. ( php is quite fast, but the fact that making a few mySQL requests for every webpage is quite unefficent and I'm sure that it can be far better, so an object that we can recall data from in C would have to be faster ) P.S I am using Arch-Linux not MS-Windows, with the package group base-devel for the common developer tools such as make and makepgk. Edit: Oupps, forgot the question ;) Okay, so the question is, how can I turn this basic C daemon into a base to what I am attempting to do here?

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  • Getting wierd issue with TO_NUMBER function in Oracle

    - by Fazal
    I have been getting an intermittent issue when executing to_number function in the where clause on a varchar2 column if number of records exceed a certain number n. I used n as there is no exact number of records on which it happens. On one DB it happens after n was 1 million on another when it was 0.1. million. E.g. I have a table with 10 million records say Table Country which has field1 varchar2 containing numberic data and Id If I do a query as an example select * from country where to_number(field1) = 23 and id 1 and id < 100000 This works But if i do the query select * from country where to_number(field1) = 23 and id 1 and id < 100001 It fails saying invalid number Next I try the query select * from country where to_number(field1) = 23 and id 2 and id < 100001 It works again As I only got invalid number it was confusing, but in the log file it said Memory Notification: Library Cache Object loaded into SGA Heap size 3823K exceeds notification threshold (2048K) KGL object name :with sqlplan as ( select c006 object_owner, c007 object_type,c008 object_name from htmldb_collections where COLLECTION_NAME='HTMLDB_QUERY_PLAN' and c007 in ('TABLE','INDEX','MATERIALIZED VIEW','INDEX (UNIQUE)')), ws_schemas as( select schema from wwv_flow_company_schemas where security_group_id = :flow_security_group_id), t as( select s.object_owner table_owner,s.object_name table_name, d.OBJECT_ID from sqlplan s,sys.dba_objects d It seems its related to SGA size, but google did not give me much help on this. Does anyone have any idea about this issue with TO_NUMBER or oracle functions for large data?

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  • Java KeyListener in separate class

    - by Chris
    So I have my main class here, where basically creates a new jframe and adds a world object to it. The world object is basically where all drawing and keylistening would take place... public class Blobs extends JFrame{ public Blobs() { super("Blobs :) - By Chris Tanaka"); setVisible(true); setResizable(false); setSize(1000, 1000); setIgnoreRepaint(true); setDefaultCloseOperation(EXIT_ON_CLOSE); add(new World()); } public static void main(String[] args) { new Blobs(); } } How exactly would you get key input from the world class? (So far I have my world class extending a jpanel and implementing a keylistener. In the constructor i addKeyListener(this). I also have these methods since they are auto implemented: public void keyPressed(KeyEvent e) { if (e.getKeyCode() == KeyEvent.VK_W) System.out.println("Hi"); } public void keyReleased(KeyEvent e) {} public void keyTyped(KeyEvent e) {} However this does not seem to work?

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  • Python unittest (using SQLAlchemy) does not write/update database?

    - by Jerry
    Hi, I am puzzled at why my Python unittest runs perfectly fine without actually updating the database. I can even see the SQL statements from SQLAlchemy and step through the newly created user object's email -- ...INFO sqlalchemy.engine.base.Engine.0x...954c INSERT INTO users (user_id, user_name, email, ...) VALUES (%(user_id)s, %(user_name)s, %(email)s, ...) ...INFO sqlalchemy.engine.base.Engine.0x...954c {'user_id': u'4cfdafe3f46544e1b4ad0c7fccdbe24a', 'email': u'[email protected]', ...} > .../tests/unit_tests/test_signup.py(127)test_signup_success() -> user = user_q.filter_by(user_name='test').first() (Pdb) n ...INFO sqlalchemy.engine.base.Engine.0x...954c SELECT users.user_id AS users_user_id, ... FROM users WHERE users.user_name = %(user_name_1)s LIMIT 1 OFFSET 0 ...INFO sqlalchemy.engine.base.Engine.0x...954c {'user_name_1': 'test'} > .../tests/unit_tests/test_signup.py(128)test_signup_success() -> self.assertTrue(isinstance(user, model.User)) (Pdb) user <pweb.models.User object at 0x9c95b0c> (Pdb) user.email u'[email protected]' Yet at the same time when I login to the test database, I do not see the new record there. Is it some feature from Python/unittest/SQLAlchemy/Pyramid/PostgreSQL that I'm totally unaware of? Thanks. Jerry

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  • Looping through a file in VB.NET

    - by Ousman
    I am writing a VB.NET program and I'm trying to accomplish the following: Read and loop through a text file line by line Show the event of the loop on a textbox or label until a button is pressed The loop will then stop on any number that happened to be at the loop event and When a button is pressed again the loop will continue. Code Imports System.IO Public Class Form1 'Dim nFileNum As Integer = FreeFile() ' Get a free file number Dim strFileName As String = "C:\scb.txt" Dim objFilename As FileStream = New FileStream(strFileName, _ FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read, FileShare.Read) Dim objFileRead As StreamReader = New StreamReader(objFilename) 'Dim lLineCount As Long 'Dim sNextLine As String Private Sub btStart_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, _ ByVal e As System.EventArgs) _ Handles btStart.Click Try If objFileRead.ReadLine = Nothing Then MsgBox("No Accounts Available to show!", _ MsgBoxStyle.Information, _ MsgBoxStyle.DefaultButton2 = MsgBoxStyle.OkOnly) Return Else Do While (objFileRead.Peek() > -1) Loop lblAccounts.Text = objFileRead.ReadLine() 'objFileRead.Close() 'objFilename.Close() End If Catch ex As Exception MessageBox.Show(ex.Message) Finally 'objFileRead.Close() 'objFilename.Close() End Try End Sub Private Sub Form1_Load(ByVal sender As System.Object, _ ByVal e As System.EventArgs) _ Handles MyBase.Load End Sub End Class Problem I'm able to read the text file but my label will only loop if I hit the start button. It goes to the next line, but I want it to continue to loop through the entire file until I hit a button telling it to stop.

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  • ASP.NET MVC3 - Bug using Javascript

    - by ebb
    Hey there, I'm trying to use Ajax.BeginForm() to POST A Json result from my controller (I'm using MVC3). When the Json result is called it should be sent to a javascript function and extract the object using "var myObject = content.get_response().get_object();", However it just throws a "Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object doesn't support this property or method" when trying to invoke the Ajax POST. My code: Controller: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(string message) { return Json(new { Success = true, Message = message }); } View: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery-1.4.4.min.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery.unobtrusive-ajax.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/MicrosoftAjax.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/MicrosoftMvcAjax.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function JsonAdd_OnComplete(mycontext) { var myObject = mycontext.get_response().get_object(); alert(mycontext.Message); } </script> </head> <body> <div> @using(Ajax.BeginForm("Index", "Home", new AjaxOptions() { HttpMethod = "POST", OnComplete = "JsonAdd_OnComplete" })) { @Html.TextBox("message") <input type="submit" value="SUBMIT" /> } </div> </body> </html> The strange thing is that the exactly same code works in MVC2 - Is this a bug, or have I forgot something? Thanks in advance.

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  • activemerchant PayPalExpress transaction is invalid

    - by Ameya Savale
    I am trying to integrate activemerchant into my ruby on rails application. This is my controller where I get the purchase attirbutes and create a PaypalExpressResponse object def checkout total_as_cents, purchase_params = get_setup_params(Schedule.find(params[:schedule]), request) setup_response = @gateway.setup_purchase(total_as_cents, purchase_params) redirect_to @gateway.redirect_url_for(setup_response.token) end @gateway is my PaypalExpressGateway object which I create using this method in my controller def assign_gateway @gateway = PaypalExpressGateway.new( :login => api_user, :password => api_pass, :signature => api_signature ) end I got the api_user, api_pass, and api_signature values from my developer.paypal.com account, when I logged in for the first time there was already a sandbox user created as a merchant which is where I got the api credentials from. And finally here is my get_setup_params method: def get_setup_params(schedule, request) purchase_params = { :ip => request.remote_ip, :return_url => url_for(:action => 'review', :only_path => false, :sched => schedule.id), :cancel_return_url => register_path, :allow_note => true, :item => schedule.id } return to_cents(schedule.fee), purchase_params end How ever when I click on the checkout button, I get redirected to a sandbox paypal page saying "This transaction is invalid. Please return to the recipient's website to complete your transaction using their regular checkout flow." I'm not sure exactly what's wrong, I think the problem lies in the credentials but don't know why. Any help will be appreciated. One other point, I'm running this in my development environment so I have put this in my config file config.after_initialize do ActiveMerchant::Billing::Base.mode = :test end UPDATE Found out what the problem was, my return cancel url was invalid instead of using register_path, I used url_for(action: "action-name", :only_path => false) this answer helped me Rails ActiveMerchant - Paypal Express Checkout Error even though I wasn't able to see the output of the response like the person has managed to do

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  • Strange inheritance behaviour in Objective-C

    - by Smikey
    Hi all, I've created a class called SelectableObject like so: #define kNumberKey @"Object" #define kNameKey @"Name" #define kThumbStringKey @"Thumb" #define kMainStringKey @"Main" #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> @interface SelectableObject : NSObject <NSCoding> { int number; NSString *name; NSString *thumbString; NSString *mainString; } @property (nonatomic, assign) int number; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *name; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *thumbString; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *mainString; @end So far so good. And the implementation section conforms to the NSCoding protocol as expected. HOWEVER, when I add a new class which inherits from this class, i.e. #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import "SelectableObject.h" @interface Pet : SelectableObject <NSCoding> { } @end I suddenly get the following compiler error in the Selectable object class! SelectableObject.h:16: error: expected '=', ',', ';', 'asm' or '__attribute__' before 'interface' This makes no sense to me. Why is the interface declaration for the SelectableObject class suddenly broken? I also import it in a couple of other classes I've written... Any help would be very much appreciated. Thanks! Michael

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  • performSelector:withObject:afterDelay: not working from scrollViewDidZoom

    - by oldbeamer
    Hi all, I feel like I should know this but I've been stumped for hours now and I've run out of ideas. The theory is simple, the user manipulates the zoom and positioning in a scrollview using a pinch. If they hold that pinch for a short period of time then the scrollview records the zoom level and content offsets. So I thought I'd start a performSelector:withObject:withDelay on the scrollViewDidZoom delegate method. If it expires then I record the settings. I delete the scheduled call every time scrollViewDidZoom is called and when the pinch gesture finishes. This is what I have: - (void)scrollViewDidZoom:(UIScrollView *)scrollView{ NSLog(@"resetting timer"); [NSObject cancelPreviousPerformRequestsWithTarget:self selector:@selector(positionLock) object:nil]; [self performSelector:@selector(positionLock) withObject:nil afterDelay:0.4]; } -(void)positionLock{ NSLog(@"position locked "); } - (void)scrollViewDidEndZooming:(UIScrollView *)scrollView withView:(UIView *)view atScale:(float)scale{ NSLog(@"deleting timer"); [NSObject cancelPreviousPerformRequestsWithTarget:self selector:@selector(positionLock) object:nil]; } This is the output: 2010-05-19 22:43:01.931 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:01.964 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:02.231 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:02.253 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:02.269 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:02.298 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:05.399 deleting timer As you can see the delay between the last and second last events should have been more than enough for the delayed selector call to execute. If I replace performSelector:withObject:withDelay with plain old performSelector: I get this: 2010-05-19 23:08:30.333 resetting timer 2010-05-19 23:08:30.333 position locked 2010-05-19 23:08:30.366 resetting timer 2010-05-19 23:08:30.367 position locked 2010-05-19 23:08:30.688 deleting timer Which isn't what I want but serves to show that it's only the delay that's causing it to not function, not something to do with the selector not being declared in the header, being misspelt or any other reason. Any ideas as to why it's not working?

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  • What changes in Core Data after a save?

    - by Splash6
    I have a Core Data based mac application that is working perfectly well until I save a file. When I save a file it seems like something changes in core data because my original fetch request no longer fetches anything. This is the fetch request that works before saving but returns an empty array after saving. NSEntityDescription *outputCellEntityDescription = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"OutputCell" inManagedObjectContext:[[self document] managedObjectContext]]; NSFetchRequest *outputCellRequest = [[[NSFetchRequest alloc] init] autorelease]; [outputCellRequest setEntity:outputCellEntityDescription]; NSPredicate *outputCellPredicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"(cellTitle = %@)", outputCellTitle]; [outputCellRequest setPredicate:outputCellPredicate]; NSError *outputCellError = nil; NSArray *outputCellArray = [[[self document] managedObjectContext] executeFetchRequest:outputCellRequest error:&outputCellError]; I have checked with [[[self document] managedObjectContext] registeredObjects] to see that the object still exists after the save and nothing seems to have changed and the object still exists. It is probably something fairly basic but does anyone know what I might be doing wrong? If not can anyone give me any pointers to what might be different in the Core Data model after a save so I might have some clues why the fetch request stops working after saving?

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  • Very strange Application.ThreadException behaviour.

    - by Brann
    I'm using the Application.ThreadException event to handle and log unexpected exceptions in my winforms application. Now, somewhere in my application, I've got the following code (or rather something equivalent, but this dummy code is enough to reproduce my issue) : try { throw new NullReferenceException("test"); } catch (Exception ex) { throw new Exception("test2", ex); } I'm clearly expecting my Application_ThreadException handler to be passed the "test2" exception, but this is not always the case. Typically, if another thread marshals my code to the UI, my handler receives the "test" exception, exactly as if I hadn't caught "test" at all. Here is a short sample reproducing this behavior. I have omitted the designer's code. static class Program { [STAThread] static void Main() { Application.ThreadException += new System.Threading.ThreadExceptionEventHandler(Application_ThreadException); Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); Application.Run(new Form1()); } static void Application_ThreadException(object sender, System.Threading.ThreadExceptionEventArgs e) { Console.WriteLine(e.Exception.Message); } } public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); button1.Click+=new EventHandler(button1_Click); System.Threading.Thread t = new System.Threading.Thread(new System.Threading.ThreadStart(ThrowEx)); t.Start(); } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { throw new NullReferenceException("test"); } catch (Exception ex) { throw new Exception("test2", ex); } } void ThrowEx() { this.BeginInvoke(new EventHandler(button1_Click)); } } The output of this program on my computer is : test ... here I click button1 test2 I've reproduced this on .net 2.0,3.5 and 4.0. Does someone have a logical explanation ?

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  • NHibernate Criteria question

    - by Jeneatte Jolie
    I have a person object, which can have unlimited number of first names. So the first names are another object. ie person --- name             --- name             --- name What I want to do is write an nhiberate query using which will get me a person who has certain names. so one query might be find someone whose names are alison and jane and philippa, then next query may be one to find someone whose names are alison and jane. I only want to return people who have all the names I'm search on. So far I've got ICriteria criteria = session.CreateCriteria(typeof (Person)); criteria.CreateAlias("Names", "name"); ICriterion expression = null; foreach (string name in namesToFind) { if (expression == null) { expression = Expression.Like("name.Value", "%" + name + "%"); } else { expression = Expression.Or( expression, Expression.Like("name.Value", "%" + name + "%")); } } if (expression != null) criteria.Add(expression); But this is returning every person with ANY of the names I'm searching on, not ALL the names. Can anyone help me out with this? Thanks!

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  • Performance of VIEW vs. SQL statement

    - by Matt W.
    I have a query that goes something like the following: select <field list> from <table list> where <join conditions> and <condition list> and PrimaryKey in (select PrimaryKey from <table list> where <join list> and <condition list>) and PrimaryKey not in (select PrimaryKey from <table list> where <join list> and <condition list>) The sub-select queries both have multiple sub-select queries of their own that I'm not showing so as not to clutter the statement. One of the developers on my team thinks a view would be better. I disagree in that the SQL statement uses variables passed in by the program (based on the user's login Id). Are there any hard and fast rules on when a view should be used vs. using a SQL statement? What kind of performance gain issues are there in running SQL statements on their own against regular tables vs. against views. (Note that all the joins / where conditions are against indexed columns, so that shouldn't be an issue.) EDIT for clarification... Here's the query I'm working with: select obj_id from object where obj_id in( (select distinct(sec_id) from security where sec_type_id = 494 and ( (sec_usergroup_id = 3278 and sec_usergroup_type_id = 230) or (sec_usergroup_id in (select ug_gi_id from user_group where ug_ui_id = 3278) and sec_usergroup_type_id = 231) ) and sec_obj_id in ( select obj_id from object where obj_ot_id in (select of_ot_id from obj_form left outer join obj_type on ot_id = of_ot_id where ot_app_id = 87 and of_id in (select sec_obj_id from security where sec_type_id = 493 and ( (sec_usergroup_id = 3278 and sec_usergroup_type_id = 230) or (sec_usergroup_id in (select ug_gi_id from user_group where ug_ui_id = 3278) and sec_usergroup_type_id = 231) ) ) and of_usage_type_id = 131 ) ) ) ) or (obj_ot_id in (select of_ot_id from obj_form left outer join obj_type on ot_id = of_ot_id where ot_app_id = 87 and of_id in (select sec_obj_id from security where sec_type_id = 493 and ( (sec_usergroup_id = 3278 and sec_usergroup_type_id = 230) or (sec_usergroup_id in (select ug_gi_id from user_group where ug_ui_id = 3278) and sec_usergroup_type_id = 231) ) ) and of_usage_type_id = 131 ) and obj_id not in (select sec_obj_id from security where sec_type_id = 494) )

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  • How to approach parallel processing of messages?

    - by Dan
    I am redesigning the messaging system for my app to use intel threading building blocks and am stumped trying to decide between two possible approaches. Basically, I have a sequence of message objects and for each message type, a sequence of handlers. For each message object, I apply each handler registered for that message objects type. The sequential version would be something like this (pseudocode): for each message in message_sequence <- SEQUENTIAL for each handler in (handler_table for message.type) apply handler to message <- SEQUENTIAL The first approach which I am considering processes the message objects in turn (sequentially) and applies the handlers concurrently. Pros: predictable ordering of messages (ie, we are guaranteed a FIFO processing order) (potentially) lower latency of processing each message Cons: more processing resources available than handlers for a single message type (bad parallelization) bad use of processor cache since message objects need to be copied for each handler to use large overhead for small handlers The pseudocode of this approach would be as follows: for each message in message_sequence <- SEQUENTIAL parallel_for each handler in (handler_table for message.type) apply handler to message <- PARALLEL The second approach is to process the messages in parallel and apply the handlers to each message sequentially. Pros: better use of processor cache (keeps the message object local to all handlers which will use it) small handlers don't impose as much overhead (as long as there are other handlers also to be run) more messages are expected than there are handlers, so the potential for parallelism is greater Cons: Unpredictable ordering - if message A is sent before message B, they may both be processed at the same time, or B may finish processing before all of A's handlers are finished (order is non-deterministic) The pseudocode is as follows: parallel_for each message in message_sequence <- PARALLEL for each handler in (handler_table for message.type) apply handler to message <- SEQUENTIAL The second approach has more advantages than the first, but non-deterministic ordering is a big disadvantage.. Which approach would you choose and why? Are there any other approaches I should consider (besides the obvious third approach: parallel messages and parallel handlers, which has the disadvantages of both and no real redeeming factors as far as I can tell)? Thanks!

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  • URL equals and checking Internet access

    - by James P.
    On http://java.sun.com/j2se/1.5.0/docs/api/java/net/URL.html it states that: Compares this URL for equality with another object. If the given object is not a URL then this method immediately returns false. Two URL objects are equal if they have the same protocol, reference equivalent hosts, have the same port number on the host, and the same file and fragment of the file. Two hosts are considered equivalent if both host names can be resolved into the same IP addresses; else if either host name can't be resolved, the host names must be equal without regard to case; or both host names equal to null. Since hosts comparison requires name resolution, this operation is a blocking operation. Note: The defined behavior for equals is known to be inconsistent with virtual hosting in HTTP. According to this, equals will only work if name resolution is possible. Since I can't be sure that a computer has internet access at a given time, should I just use Strings to store addresses instead? Also, how do I go about testing if access is available when requested?

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  • Can I get rid of this read lock?

    - by Pieter
    I have the following helper class (simplified): public static class Cache { private static readonly object _syncRoot = new object(); private static Dictionary<Type, string> _lookup = new Dictionary<Type, string>(); public static void Add(Type type, string value) { lock (_syncRoot) { _lookup.Add(type, value); } } public static string Lookup(Type type) { string result; lock (_syncRoot) { _lookup.TryGetValue(type, out result); } return result; } } Add will be called roughly 10/100 times in the application and Lookup will be called by many threads, many of thousands of times. What I would like is to get rid of the read lock. How do you normally get rid of the read lock in this situation? I have the following ideas: Require that _lookup is stable before the application starts operation. The could be build up from an Attribute. This is done automatically through the static constructor the attribute is assigned to. Requiring the above would require me to go through all types that could have the attribute and calling RuntimeHelpers.RunClassConstructor which is an expensive operation; Move to COW semantics. public static void Add(Type type, string value) { lock (_syncRoot) { var lookup = new Dictionary<Type, string>(_lookup); lookup.Add(type, value); _lookup = lookup; } } (With the lock (_syncRoot) removed in the Lookup method.) The problem with this is that this uses an unnecessary amount of memory (which might not be a problem) and I would probably make _lookup volatile, but I'm not sure how this should be applied. (John Skeets' comment here gives me pause.) Using ReaderWriterLock. I believe this would make things worse since the region being locked is small. Suggestions are very welcome.

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  • Textures in Opengl ES 2 not working properly

    - by Adl
    Hi! I'm working with Opengl ES 2 on iphone and right now I am trying to get my textures working on my objects. I'm using .obj files and all the data in them are correct. I have written a parser myself to retrieve all data, I convert it to static arrays in C. I discard the material properties for now, only getting the image path from the .mtl files manually. I have an object with 336 triangles, making this non-trivial to observe, with appertaining vertices, vertex faces and texture coordinates (u,v). Passing all data into the shaders, the resulting image is this: http://img530.imageshack.us/img530/9637/pic1io.png http://img404.imageshack.us/img404/7358/pic2pg.png But it should look like this (Displaying it in an object viewer). Please ignore the material properties. http://img16.imageshack.us/img16/1401/pic3cq.png Using this image as a texture: http://img217.imageshack.us/img217/1300/shirtdiffuse.png I'm thinking it might have to do with texture coordinate faces ? It is defined in my .obj file, and I'm not using them at all. In books and tutorials I have not found anything concerning this. Regards Niclas

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  • Web User Control og Event

    - by Mcoroklo
    I have a web user control, CreateQuestion.ascx, in ASP.NET. I want an event "QuestionAdded" to fire when a specific button is clicked. I don't want to send any data, I just want to know WHEN the button is fired. My implementation: CreateQuestion.ascx: public event EventHandler QuestionAdded; protected virtual void OnQuestionAdded(EventArgs e) { if (QuestionAdded != null) QuestionAdded(this, e); } /// This is the button I want to know when is fired protected void SubmitButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //question.Save(); this.OnQuestionAdded(new EventArgs()); } On the page AnswerQuestion.aspx, I use this: private void SetupControls(int myId) { CreateQuestionControl.QuestionAdded += new EventHandler(QuestionAdded); } private void QuestionAdded(object sender, EventArgs e) { Response.Write("HEJ KARL?"); } My problem No matter what, the event is never fired. I know that both SetupControls() is being run, and the code behind the button which should fire the event is run. When I debug, I can see the event QuestionAdded always are null. How do I make this work? Thanks a lot

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  • Should I strip the XML declaration from suds output before parsing with lxml?

    - by mikl
    I’m trying to implement a SOAP webservice in Python 2.6 using the suds library. That is working well, but I’ve run into a problem when trying to parse the output with lxml. Suds returns a suds.sax.text.Text object with the reply from the SOAP service. The suds.sax.text.Text class is a subclass of the Python built-in Unicode class. In essence, it would be comparable with this Python statement: u'<?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?><root><lotsofelements \></root>' Which is incongrous, since if the XML declaration is correct, the contents are UTF-8 encoded, and thus not a Python Unicode object (because those are stored in some internal encoding like UCS4). lxml will refuse to parse this, as documented, since there is no clear answer to what encoding it should be interpreted as. As I see it, there are two ways out of this bind: Strip the <?xml> declaration, including the encoding. Convert the output from Suds into a bytestring, using the specified encoding. Currently, the data I’m receiving from the webservice is within the ASCII-range, so either way will work, but both feels very much like ugly hacks to me, and I’m not quite sure what would happen, if I start to receive data that would need a wider range of Unicode characters. Any good ideas? I can’t imagine I’m the first one in this position…

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  • Moq.Mock<T> - how to setup a method that takes an expression

    - by Paul
    I am Mocking my repository interface and am not sure how to setup a method that takes an expression and returns an object? I am using Moq and NUnit Interface: public interface IReadOnlyRepository : IDisposable { IQueryable<T> All<T>() where T : class; T Single<T>(Expression<Func<T, bool>> expression) where T : class; } Test with IQueryable already setup, but don't know how to setup the T Single: private Moq.Mock<IReadOnlyRepository> _mockRepos; private AdminController _controller; [SetUp] public void SetUp() { var allPages = new List<Page>(); for (var i = 0; i < 10; i++) { allPages.Add(new Page { Id = i, Title = "Page Title " + i, Slug = "Page-Title-" + i, Content = "Page " + i + " on page content." }); } _mockRepos = new Moq.Mock<IReadOnlyRepository>(); _mockRepos.Setup(x => x.All<Page>()).Returns(allPages.AsQueryable()); //Not sure what to do here??? _mockRepos.Setup(x => x.Single<Page>() //---- _controller = new AdminController(_mockRepos.Object); }

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  • Binding update on adds news series to WPF Toolkit chart (instead of replacing/updating series)

    - by Mal Ross
    I'm currently recoding a bar chart in my app to make use of the Chart class in the WPF Toolkit. Using MVVM, I'm binding the ItemsSource of a ColumnSeries in my chart to a property on my viewmodel. Here's the relevant XAML: <charting:Chart> <charting:ColumnSeries ItemsSource="{Binding ScoreDistribution.ClassScores}" IndependentValuePath="ClassName" DependentValuePath="Score"/> </charting:Chart> And the property on the viewmodel: // NB: viewmodel derived from Josh Smith's BindableObject public class ExamResultsViewModel : BindableObject { // ... private ScoreDistributionByClass _scoreDistribution; public ScoreDistributionByClass ScoreDistribution { get { return _scoreDistribution; } set { if (_scoreDistribution == value) { return; } _scoreDistribution = value; RaisePropertyChanged(() => ScoreDistribution); } } However, when I update the ScoreDistribution property (by setting it to a new ScoreDistribution object), the chart gets an additional series (based on the new ScoreDistribution) as well as keeping the original series (based on the previous ScoreDistribution). To illustrate this, here are a couple of screenshots showing the chart before an update (with a single data point in ScoreDistribution.ClassScores) and after it (now with 3 data points in ScoreDistribution.ClassScores): Now, I realise there are other ways I could be doing this (e.g. changing the contents of the original ScoreDistribution object rather than replacing it entirely), but I don't understand why it's going wrong in its current form. Can anyone help?

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  • Passing an arbitrary JSONValue to a JSNI function

    - by Riley Lark
    I have a JSONValue in my Java that may be a JSONArray, a JSONObject, a JSONString, etc. I want to pass it to a JSNI function that can accept any of those types. If I naively write my JSNI as something like: public final native jsni(Object parameter) /*-{ doSomething(parameter); }-*/; public void useFunction(JSONValue value) { jsni(value); //Throws js exception at runtime :( } then I get a javascript exception, because GWT doesn't know how to convert the JSONValue to a JavaScriptObject (or native string / number value). My current workaround is public final native jsniForJSO(Object parameter) /*-{ doSomething(parameter); }-*/; public final native jsniForString(String parameter) /*-{ doSomething(parameter); }-*/; public final native jsniForNumber(double parameter) /*-{ doSomething(parameter); }-*/; public actuallyUseFunction(JSONValue value) { if (value.isObject()) { jsniForJSO(value.isObject().getJavaScriptObject()); } else if (value.isString()) { jsniForString(value.isString().stringValue()); } else { //etc } } This is a big burden for code maintainability, etc... especially if you have more than one parameter. Is there a way to generate these functions automatically, or get around this issue altogether? I've taken to wrapping everything in a JSONObject first, so I can definitely get a JavaScriptObject to pass to my jsni, but that's another clumsy mechanic.

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  • How to setup/calculate texturebuffer in glTexCoordPointer when importing from OBJ-file

    - by JohnMurdoch
    Hi all, I'm parsing an OBJ-file in Android and my goal is to render & display the object. Everything works fine except the correct texture mapping (importing the resource/image into opengl etc works fine). I don't know how to populate the texture related data from the obj-file into an texturebuffer-object. In the OBJ-file I've vt-lines: vt 0.495011 0.389417 vt 0.500686 0.561346 and face-lines: f 127/73/62 98/72/62 125/75/62 My draw-routine looks like (only relevant parts): gl.glEnableClientState(GL10.GL_VERTEX_ARRAY); gl.glEnableClientState(GL10.GL_NORMAL_ARRAY); gl.glEnableClientState(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_COORD_ARRAY); gl.glVertexPointer(3, GL10.GL_FLOAT, 0, vertexBuffer); gl.glNormalPointer(GL10.GL_FLOAT, 0, normalsBuffer); gl.glTexCoordPointer(2, GL10.GL_SHORT, 0, t.getvtBuffer()); gl.glDrawElements(GL10.GL_TRIANGLES, t.getFacesCount(), GL10.GL_UNSIGNED_SHORT, t.getFaceBuffer()); Output of the counts of the OBJ-file: Vertex-count: 1023 Vns-count: 1752 Vts-count: 524 ///////////////////////// Part 0 Material name:default Number of faces:2037 Number of vnPointers:2037 Number of vtPointers:2037 Any advise is welcome.

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