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• Wordpress 403/404 Errors: You don't have permission to access /wp-admin/themes.php on this server

  - by Glen

  Some background: I setup six blogs this week, all using Wordpress 2.92, installed with Fantastico on a baby croc plan with Hostgator. I used the same theme (heatmap 2.5.4) and plugins for each blog. They were all up and running, no issues at all. I go to create a new blog this morning, using the same setup, and when I try to change the theme settings, I get the following error: Forbidden You don't have permission to access /wp-admin/themes.php on this server. Additionally, a 404 Not Found error was encountered while trying to use an ErrorDocument to handle the request. Apache/2.2.15 (Unix) mod_ssl/2.2.15 OpenSSL/0.9.8n DAV/2 mod_fcgid/2.3.5 mod_auth_passthrough/2.1 mod_bwlimited/1.4 FrontPage/5.0.2.2635 Server at http://www.mydomain.com Port 80 I tried uninstalling WP and doing a clean install, still the same issue with a clean installation. So I went back and checked the six other blogs that I had setup over the last week or so, and they are also now giving me 403 or 404 errors when trying to change theme settings, and everytime there's an error it points to either themes.php or functions.php At this point I'm at my wits end trying to figure out what the problem is. Hostgator support looked at it and thought maybe it was a permissions issue but they reset those and I'm still having the problem. At first I thought the problem might have been related to a plugin I recently installed on the previous six blogs that morning (ByREV Fix Missed Shedule Plugin) to deal with a missed schedule bug with WP 2.92, and that maybe that had mucked things up. But then I checked a blog I built months ago, also using the same theme and plugins, and now it too is also encountering the same problem. Any ideas? I tried deleting my htaccess, uploading a blank one, uploading one with this snippet I found on the hostgator forum: # BEGIN WordPress <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule . /index.php [L] </IfModule> # END WordPress Nothing has worked. I still get 403 or 404 errors everytime. Everything was working perfectly yesterday so I know this setup DOES WORK, I've just mucked something up somewhere and I'm clueless what it is. I read a related thread here and tried chmoding the wp-content folder to 0755 and still having the issue. Any thoughts? Thanks!

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• WCF Timeout issue - should there even be a socket connection?

  - by stiank81

  I have a .Net application which is split into a client and server side. The communication between them is handled using WCF. I'm not using the automagic service references, but instead I've built the connection manually like described in the Screencast by Miguel Castro. Summarized this means that I create a console application on the server side that holds ServiceHost objects for the different services: var myServiceHost = new System.ServiceModel.ServiceHost(typeof(MyService), new Uri("net.tcp://localhost:8002")); myServiceHost.Open(); And on the client side I have service proxies creating channels using the ChannelFactory: IMyService proxy = new ChannelFactory<IMyService>("MyServiceEndpoint").CreateChannel(); The client and server side share the service contract defined in the interface IMyService. And another advantage is that I get minimal App.config files - without all the autogenerated stuff created through the Service References. Example from client side: <?xml version="1.0"?> <configuration> <system.serviceModel> <client> <endpoint address="net.tcp://localhost:8002/MyEndpoint" binding="netTcpBinding" contract="IMyService" name="MyServiceEndpoint"/> </client> </system.serviceModel> </configuration> So - to my problem. I create the proxy once, and it holds a channel all the way through the application. However, if I leave the application without use for a few minutes the channel has timed out, and I get the following exception: The socket connection was aborted. This could be caused by an error processing your message or a receive timeout being exceeded by the remote host, or an underlying network resource issue. Local socket timeout was '00:00:59.9979998'. How do I prevent this? I'm assuming I need to specify a higher timeout in my configuration? But I don't want it to ever time out. But on the other hand - I don't want a socket connection! Do I need one? Thought I could go connection less with WCF... What's the permanent solution and best practice on solving this? Set timeout to "never".. Create a new channel for each request? I'm assuming there is some overhead creating the channel?.. Increase the timeout to e.g. 5minutes and create new channel if the connection did timeout? Make it connection less somehow? (Without the overhead of creating channels..) Something else...

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• Why does the proxy generated code create the wrong class namespace when a MessageContract is in my W

  - by DaleyKD

  I have created two WCF Services (Shipping & PDFGenerator). They both, along with my ClientApp, share an assembly named Kyle.Common.Contracts. Within this assembly, I have three classes: namespace Kyle.Common.Contracts { [MessageContract] public class PDFResponse { [MessageHeader] public string fileName { get; set; } [MessageBodyMember] public System.IO.Stream fileStream { get; set; } } [MessageContract] public class PDFRequest { [MessageHeader] public Enums.PDFDocumentNameEnum docType { get; set; } [MessageHeader] public int? pk { get; set; } [MessageHeader] public string[] emailAddress { get; set; } [MessageBodyMember] public Kyle.Common.Contracts.TrackItResult[] trackItResults { get; set; } } [DataContract(Name = "TrackResult", Namespace = "http://kyle")] public class TrackResult { [DataMember] public int SeqNum { get; set; } [DataMember] public int ShipmentID { get; set; } [DataMember] public string StoreNum { get; set; } } } My PDFGenerator ServiceContract looks like: namespace Kyle.WCF.PDFDocs { [ServiceContract(Namespace="http://kyle")] public interface IPDFDocsService { [OperationContract] PDFResponse GeneratePDF(PDFRequest request); [OperationContract] void GeneratePDFAsync(Kyle.Common.Contracts.Enums.PDFDocumentNameEnum docType, int? pk, string[] emailAddress); [OperationContract] Kyle.Common.Contracts.TrackResult[] Test(); } } If I comment out the GeneratePDF stub, the proxy generated by VS2010 realizes that Test returns an array of Kyle.Common.Contracts.TrackResult. However, if I leave GeneratePDF there, the proxy refuses to use Kyle.Common.Contracts.TrackResult, and instead creates a new class, ClientApp.PDFDocServices.TrackResult, and uses that as the return type of Test. Is there a way to force the proxy generator to use Kyle.Common.Contracts.TrackResult whenever I use a MessageContract? Perhaps there's a better method for using a Stream and File Name as return types? I just don't want to have to create a Copy method to copy from ClientApp.PDFDocServices.TrackResult to Kyle.Common.Contracts.TrackResult, since they should be the exact same class. Thanks in advance, Kyle

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• How do I merge a transient entity with a session using Castle ActiveRecordMediator?

  - by Daniel T.

  I have a Store and a Product entity: public class Store { public Guid Id { get; set; } public int Version { get; set; } public ISet<Product> Products { get; set; } } public class Product { public Guid Id { get; set; } public int Version { get; set; } public Store ParentStore { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } In other words, I have a Store that can contain multiple Products in a bidirectional one-to-many relationship. I'm sending data back and forth between a web browser and a web service. The following steps emulates the communication between the two, using session-per-request. I first save a new instance of a Store: using (new SessionScope()) { // this is data from the browser var store = new Store { Id = Guid.Empty }; ActiveRecordMediator.SaveAndFlush(store); } Then I grab the store out of the DB, add a new product to it, and then save it: using (new SessionScope()) { // this is data from the browser var product = new Product { Id = Guid.Empty, Name = "Apples" }); var store = ActiveRecordLinq.AsQueryable<Store>().First(); store.Products.Add(product); ActiveRecordMediator.SaveAndFlush(store); } Up to this point, everything works well. Now I want to update the Product I just saved: using (new SessionScope()) { // data from browser var product = new Product { Id = Guid.Empty, Version = 1, Name = "Grapes" }; var store = ActiveRecordLinq.AsQueryable<Store>().First(); store.Products.Add(product); // throws exception on this call ActiveRecordMediator.SaveAndFlush(store); } When I try to update the product, I get the following exception: a different object with the same identifier value was already associated with the session: 00000000-0000-0000-0000-000000000000, of entity:Product" As I understand it, the problem is that when I get the Store out of the database, it also gets the Product that's associated with it. Both entities are persistent. Then I tried to save a transient Product (the one that has the updated info from the browser) that has the same ID as the one that's already associated with the session, and an exception is thrown. However, I don't know how to get around this problem. If I could get access to a NHibernate.ISession, I could call ISession.Merge() on it, but it doesn't look like ActiveRecordMediator has anything similar (SaveCopy threw the same exception). Does anyone know the solution? Any help would be greatly appreciated!

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• Creating a Blog ruby on Rails - Problem Deleting Comments

  - by bgadoci

  As I always type I am new to rails and programming in general so go easy. Thanks in advance. I have successfully followed the initial tutorial from Ryan Bates on how to build a weblog in 15 minutes. If you don't know this tutorial takes you through creating posts and allowing for comments on those post. It even introduces AJAX through the creating and displaying comments on the posts show.html.erb page. All works great. Here's the hiccup, when Ryan takes you though this tutorial he clears out the comments_controller and only shows the code for creating comments. I am trying to add back the ability to edit and destroy comments. Can't see to get it to work, keeps deleting the actual post not the comment (log shows that I keep sending DELETE request to PostsController). Here is my code: class CommentsController < ApplicationController def create @post = Post.find(params[:post_id]) @comment = @post.comments.create!(params[:comment]) respond_to do |format| format.html { redirect_to @post } format.js end end def destroy @comment = Comment.find(params[:id]) @comment.destroy respond_to do |format| format.html { redirect_to(posts_url) } format.xml { head :ok } end end end /views/posts/show.html.erb <%= render :partial => @post %> <p> <%= link_to 'Edit', edit_post_path (@post) %> | <%= link_to 'Destroy', @post, :method => :delete, :confirm => "Are you sure?" %> | <%= link_to 'See All Posts', posts_path %> </p> <h2>Comments</h2> <div id="comments"> <%= render :partial => @post.comments %> </div> <% remote_form_for [@post, Comment.new] do |f| %> <p> <%= f.label :body, "New Comment" %><br/> <%= f.text_area :body %> </p> <p> <%= f.submit "Add Comment" %></p> <% end %> /views/comments/_comment.html.erb <% div_for comment do %> <p> <strong>Posted <%= time_ago_in_words(comment.created_at) %> ago </strong><br/> <%= h(comment.body) %><br/> <%= link_to 'Destroy', @comments, :method => :delete, :confirm => "Are you sure?" %> </p> <% end %>

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• When should I use Perl's AUTOLOAD?

  - by Robert S. Barnes

  In "Perl Best Practices" the very first line in the section on AUTOLOAD is: Don't use AUTOLOAD However all the cases he describes are dealing with OO or Modules. I have a stand alone script in which some command line switches control which versions of particular functions get defined. Now I know I could just take the conditionals and the evals and stick them naked at the top of my file before everything else, but I find it convenient and cleaner to put them in AUTOLOAD at the end of the file. Is this bad practice / style? If you think so why, and is there a another way to do it? As per brian's request I'm basically using this to do conditional compilation based on command line switches. I don't mind some constructive criticism. sub AUTOLOAD { our $AUTOLOAD; (my $method = $AUTOLOAD) =~ s/.*:://s; # remove package name if ($method eq 'tcpdump' && $tcpdump) { eval q( sub tcpdump { my $msg = shift; warn gf_time()." Thread ".threads->tid().": $msg\n"; } ); } elsif ($method eq 'loginfo' && $debug) { eval q( sub loginfo { my $msg = shift; $msg =~ s/$CRLF/\n/g; print gf_time()." Thread ".threads->tid().": $msg\n"; } ); } elsif ($method eq 'build_get') { if ($pipelining) { eval q( sub build_get { my $url = shift; my $base = shift; $url = "http://".$url unless $url =~ /^http/; return "GET $url HTTP/1.1${CRLF}Host: $base$CRLF$CRLF"; } ); } else { eval q( sub build_get { my $url = shift; my $base = shift; $url = "http://".$url unless $url =~ /^http/; return "GET $url HTTP/1.1${CRLF}Host: $base${CRLF}Connection: close$CRLF$CRLF"; } ); } } elsif ($method eq 'grow') { eval q{ require Convert::Scalar qw(grow); }; if ($@) { eval q( sub grow {} ); } goto &$method; } else { eval "sub $method {}"; return; } die $@ if $@; goto &$method; }

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• Android: Using onStart() method in Bluetooth application

  - by Nii

  Hello, I am getting a nullpointer exception when my onStart() method is called. Here is the breakdown of my Android app: Opening the app brings a user to the homescreen: The user is then presented with the first 6 icons to choose from. When the user presses the "Sugar" icon it takes them to the SugarTabActivity. The SugarTabActivity is a Tabbed layout with two tabs. I'm concerned with the first tab. The first tab calls the getDefaultAdapter() method in its onCreate() method. Once it calls this, it checks if the bluetooth adapter is null on the phone, and if its null it shows a toast saying "Bluetooth is not available". This works just fine. Then I call the onStart() method. In the onStart() method I check if bluetooth is enabled, and if it isnt, then I start a new activity from the BluetoothAdapter enable bluetooth intent; otherwise, I start my bluetooth service. The exact error I'm getting is 04-19 00:44:45.674: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(225): Caused by: java.lang.NullPointerException 04-19 00:44:45.674: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(225): at com.nii.glucose.Glucose.onStart(Glucose.java:313). Heading Override public void onCreate(Bundle icicle) { super.onCreate(icicle); if(D) Log.d(TAG, "+++ ON CREATE +++"); setContentView(R.layout.glucose_layout); mBluetoothAdapter = BluetoothAdapter.getDefaultAdapter(); if(mBluetoothAdapter==null){ Toast.makeText(this, "Bluetooth not available", Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); //finish(); return; } } Override public void onStart() { super.onStart(); if(D) Log.e(TAG, "++ ON START ++"); // If BT is not on, request that it be enabled. // setupChat() will then be called during onActivityResult if (!mBluetoothAdapter.isEnabled()) { Intent enableIntent = new Intent(BluetoothAdapter.ACTION_REQUEST_ENABLE); startActivityForResult(enableIntent, REQUEST_ENABLE_BT); // Otherwise, setup the chat session } else { if (mGlucoseService == null) mGlucoseService = new BluetoothService(this, mHandler); } } @Override public synchronized void onResume(){ super.onResume(); if(D) Log.e(TAG,"==== ON RESUME ======"); // Performing this check in onResume() covers the case in which BT was // not enabled during onStart(), so we were paused to enable it... // onResume() will be called when ACTION_REQUEST_ENABLE activity returns. if (mGlucoseService != null) { // Only if the state is STATE_NONE, do we know that we haven't started already if (mGlucoseService.getState() == BluetoothService.STATE_NONE) { // Start the Bluetooth chat services mGlucoseService.start(); } } } @Override public synchronized void onPause(){ super.onPause(); //isActive.set(false); if(D) Log.e(TAG,"==== ON PAUSE ======"); } @Override public void onDestroy() { super.onDestroy(); // Stop the Bluetooth chat services if (mGlucoseService != null) mGlucoseService.stop(); if(D) Log.e(TAG, "--- ON DESTROY ---"); }

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• C# .net How we valiadate a xml with Multiple xml-schemas

  - by allen8374

  <SOAP-ENV:Envelope xmlns:SOAP-ENV="http://www.w3.org/2003/05/soap-envelope" xmlns:SOAP-ENC="http://www.w3.org/2003/05/soap-encoding" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:m0="http://www.MangoDSP.com/schema" xmlns:m1="http://www.onvif.org/ver10/schema"> <SOAP-ENV:Body> <m:CreateView xmlns:m="http://www.MangoDSP.com/mav/wsdl"> <m:View token=""> <m0:Name>View1</m0:Name> <m0:ProfileToken>AnalyticProfile1</m0:ProfileToken> <m0:IgnoreZone> <m0:Polygon> <m1:Point y="0.14159" x="0.12159"/> <m1:Point y="0.24159" x="0.34159"/> <m1:Point y="0.14359" x="0.94159"/> </m0:Polygon> </m0:IgnoreZone> <m0:SceneType>Outdoor</m0:SceneType> <m0:CustomParameters> <m0:CustomParameter> <m0:Name>ViewParam1</m0:Name> <m0:CustomParameterInt>0</m0:CustomParameterInt> </m0:CustomParameter> </m0:CustomParameters> <m0:SnapshotURI><!--This element is ignored for the create view request --> <m1:Uri>http://www.blabla.com</m1:Uri> <m1:InvalidAfterConnect>true</m1:InvalidAfterConnect> <m1:InvalidAfterReboot>true</m1:InvalidAfterReboot> <m1:Timeout>P1Y2M3DT10H30M</m1:Timeout> </m0:SnapshotURI> </m:View> </m:CreateView> </SOAP-ENV:Body> </SOAP-ENV:Envelope> xmlns:m="http://www.MangoDSP.com/mav/wsdl" as localfile:"ma.wsdl" xmlns:m0="http://www.MangoDSP.com/schema" as localfile:"MaTypes.xsd" how can i validate it.

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• My ashx stopped working (Works locally, but not online)

  - by Madi D.

  i have a simple ASHX file that returns pictures upon request (mainly a counter), previously the code simply fetched pre-made pictures(already uploaded and available) and sent them to the requester.. i just modified the code,so it would take a base picture, do some modifications on it, save it to the server, then serve it to the user.. tested it locally and it worked like a charm. however when i uploaded the code to my hosting service (Godaddy..) it didnt work. Can someone point the problem out to me? Note: ASHX worked with me before,so i know the web.config and IIS are handling them properly, however i think i am missing something .. Code: <%@ WebHandler Language="C#" Class="NWEmpPhotoHandler" %> using System; using System.Web; using System.IO; using System.Drawing; using System.Drawing.Imaging; public class NWEmpPhotoHandler : IHttpHandler { public bool IsReusable { get { return true; } } public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext ctx) { try { //Some Code to fetch # of vistors from DB int x = 10,000; // # of Vistors, fetched from DB string numberOfVistors = (1000 + x).ToString(); string filePath = ctx.Server.MapPath("counter.jpg"); Bitmap myBitmap = new Bitmap(filePath); Graphics g = Graphics.FromImage(myBitmap); g.TextRenderingHint = System.Drawing.Text.TextRenderingHint.AntiAlias; StringFormat strFormat = new StringFormat(); g.DrawString(numberOfVistors , new Font("Tahoma", 24), Brushes.Maroon, new RectangleF(55, 82, 500, 500),null); string PathToSave = ctx.Server.MapPath("counter-" + numberOfVistors + ".jpg"); saveJpeg(PathToSave, myBitmap, 100); if (File.Exists(PathToSave)) { ctx.Response.ContentType = "image/jpg"; ctx.Response.WriteFile(PathToSave); //ctx.Response.OutputStream.Write(picByteArray, 0, picByteArray.Length); } } catch (ArgumentException exe) { } } private ImageCodecInfo getEncoderInfo(string mimeType) { // Get image codecs for all image formats ImageCodecInfo[] codecs = ImageCodecInfo.GetImageEncoders(); // Find the correct image codec for (int i = 0; i < codecs.Length; i++) if (codecs[i].MimeType == mimeType) return codecs[i]; return null; } private void saveJpeg(string path, Bitmap img, long quality) { // Encoder parameter for image quality EncoderParameter qualityParam = new EncoderParameter(Encoder.Quality, quality); // Jpeg image codec ImageCodecInfo jpegCodec = this.getEncoderInfo("image/jpeg"); if (jpegCodec == null) return; EncoderParameters encoderParams = new EncoderParameters(1); encoderParams.Param[0] = qualityParam; img.Save(path, jpegCodec, encoderParams); } }

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• Why does the proxy generated code create a new class when a MessageContract is in my WCF Service?

  - by DaleyKD

  I have created two WCF Services (Shipping & PDFGenerator). They both, along with my ClientApp, share an assembly named Kyle.Common.Contracts. Within this assembly, I have three classes: namespace Kyle.Common.Contracts { [MessageContract] public class PDFResponse { [MessageHeader] public string fileName { get; set; } [MessageBodyMember] public System.IO.Stream fileStream { get; set; } } [MessageContract] public class PDFRequest { [MessageHeader] public Enums.PDFDocumentNameEnum docType { get; set; } [MessageHeader] public int? pk { get; set; } [MessageHeader] public string[] emailAddress { get; set; } [MessageBodyMember] public Kyle.Common.Contracts.TrackItResult[] trackItResults { get; set; } } [DataContract(Name = "TrackResult", Namespace = "http://kyle")] public class TrackResult { [DataMember] public int SeqNum { get; set; } [DataMember] public int ShipmentID { get; set; } [DataMember] public string StoreNum { get; set; } } } My PDFGenerator ServiceContract looks like: namespace Kyle.WCF.PDFDocs { [ServiceContract(Namespace="http://kyle")] public interface IPDFDocsService { [OperationContract] PDFResponse GeneratePDF(PDFRequest request); [OperationContract] void GeneratePDFAsync(Kyle.Common.Contracts.Enums.PDFDocumentNameEnum docType, int? pk, string[] emailAddress); [OperationContract] Kyle.Common.Contracts.TrackResult[] Test(); } } If I comment out the GeneratePDF stub, the proxy generated by VS2010 realizes that Test returns an array of Kyle.Common.Contracts.TrackResult. However, if I leave GeneratePDF there, the proxy refuses to use Kyle.Common.Contracts.TrackResult, and instead creates a new class, ClientApp.PDFDocServices.TrackResult, and uses that as the return type of Test. Is there a way to force the proxy generator to use Kyle.Common.Contracts.TrackResult whenever I use a MessageContract? Perhaps there's a better method for using a Stream and File Name as return types? I just don't want to have to create a Copy method to copy from ClientApp.PDFDocServices.TrackResult to Kyle.Common.Contracts.TrackResult, since they should be the exact same class. Thanks in advance, Kyle

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• How to GET a read-only vs editable resource in REST style?

  - by Val

  I'm fairly familiar with REST principles, and have read the relevant dissertation, Wikipedia entry, a bunch of blog posts and StackOverflow questions on the subject, but still haven't found a straightforward answer to a common case: I need to request a resource to display. Depending on the resource's state, I need to render either a read-only or an editable representation. In both cases, I need to GET the resource. How do I construct a URL to get the read-only or editable version? If my user follows a link to GET /resource/<id>, that should suffice to indicate to me that s/he needs the read-only representation. But if I need to server up an editable form, what does that URL look like? GET /resource/<id>/edit is obvious, but it contains a verb in the URL. Changing that to GET /resource/<id>/editable solves that problem, but at a seemingly superficial level. Is that all there is to it -- change verbs to adjectives? If instead I use POST to retrieve the editable version, then how do I distinguish between the POST that initially retrieves it, vs the POST that saves it? My (weak) excuse for using POST would be that retrieving an editable version would cause a change of state on the server: locking the resource. But that only holds if my requirements are to implement such a lock, which is not always the case. PUT fails for the same reason, plus PUT is not enabled by default on the Web servers I'm running, so there are practical reasons not to use it (and DELETE). Note that even in the editable state, I haven't made any changes yet; presumably when I submit the resource to the Web server again, I'd POST it. But to get something that I can later POST, the server has to first serve up a particular representation. I guess another approach would be to have separate resources at the collection level: GET /read-only/resource/<id> and GET /editable/resource/<id> or GET /resource/read-only/<id> and GET /resource/editable/<id> ... but that looks pretty ugly to me. Thoughts?

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• 401 error when consuming a Web service with HTTP Basic authentication using CXF

  - by seanhodges

  I'm trying to consume a remote Web service that uses HTTP basic authentication, using Apache CXF, within a JUnit test. The error I am getting is: javax.xml.ws.WebServiceException: Failed to access the WSDL at: http://localhost:8080/services/MyService?wsdl. It failed with: Server returned HTTP response code: 401 for URL: http://localhost:8080/services/MyService?wsdl. at com.sun.xml.internal.ws.wsdl.parser.RuntimeWSDLParser.tryWithMex(RuntimeWSDLParser.java:151) at com.sun.xml.internal.ws.wsdl.parser.RuntimeWSDLParser.parse(RuntimeWSDLParser.java:133) at com.sun.xml.internal.ws.client.WSServiceDelegate.parseWSDL(WSServiceDelegate.java:254) at com.sun.xml.internal.ws.client.WSServiceDelegate.<init>(WSServiceDelegate.java:217) at com.sun.xml.internal.ws.client.WSServiceDelegate.<init>(WSServiceDelegate.java:165) at com.sun.xml.internal.ws.spi.ProviderImpl.createServiceDelegate(ProviderImpl.java:93) at javax.xml.ws.Service.<init>(Service.java:76) at com.wave2.marketplace.importer.impl.adportal.ws.MyServiceService.<init>(MyServiceService.java:37) at com.wave2.marketplace.importer.impl.adportal.MyWSTest.testConsumingTheWS(MyWSTest.java:22) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:57) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:43) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:616) at junit.framework.TestCase.runTest(TestCase.java:168) at junit.framework.TestCase.runBare(TestCase.java:134) at junit.framework.TestResult$1.protect(TestResult.java:110) at junit.framework.TestResult.runProtected(TestResult.java:128) at junit.framework.TestResult.run(TestResult.java:113) at junit.framework.TestCase.run(TestCase.java:124) at junit.framework.TestSuite.runTest(TestSuite.java:232) at junit.framework.TestSuite.run(TestSuite.java:227) at org.junit.internal.runners.JUnit38ClassRunner.run(JUnit38ClassRunner.java:83) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit4.runner.JUnit4TestReference.run(JUnit4TestReference.java:46) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.TestExecution.run(TestExecution.java:38) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.RemoteTestRunner.runTests(RemoteTestRunner.java:467) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.RemoteTestRunner.runTests(RemoteTestRunner.java:683) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.RemoteTestRunner.run(RemoteTestRunner.java:390) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.RemoteTestRunner.main(RemoteTestRunner.java:197) Caused by: java.io.IOException: Server returned HTTP response code: 401 for URL: http://localhost:8080/services/MyService?wsdl at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.getInputStream(HttpURLConnection.java:1269) at java.net.URL.openStream(URL.java:1029) at com.sun.xml.internal.ws.wsdl.parser.RuntimeWSDLParser.createReader(RuntimeWSDLParser.java:793) at com.sun.xml.internal.ws.wsdl.parser.RuntimeWSDLParser.resolveWSDL(RuntimeWSDLParser.java:251) at com.sun.xml.internal.ws.wsdl.parser.RuntimeWSDLParser.parse(RuntimeWSDLParser.java:118) ... 26 more Having read this StackOverflow post, I have attempted to add the auth credentials to my request context, as follows: @Test public void testConsumingTheWS() throws Exception { URL wsdl = new URL("http://localhost:8080/services/MyService?wsdl"); MyServiceService provider = new MyServiceService(wsdl); // <-- Error occurs here MyService service = provider.getMyService(); BindingProvider binding = (BindingProvider)service; binding.getRequestContext().put(BindingProvider.USERNAME_PROPERTY, "username"); binding.getRequestContext().put(BindingProvider.PASSWORD_PROPERTY, "password"); Ping out = service.getPing(); assertNotNull(out); } However, as my in-line comment indicates, the error is occurring before the BindingProvider code is reached, so the error remains the same. I did have a read of this article and its follow-up, but so far I've had trouble determining how to go about adding the interceptor code without the use of Spring (this is for a JUnit test). How might I go about authenticating against this Web service?

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• Facebook Connect 'next' error

  - by Mark

  I am trying to experiment with the new facebook authentication system, and I can't getthe login to work. I'm getting the following error message: API Error Code: 100 API Error Description: Invalid parameter Error Message: next is not owned by the application. The url that is being sent to facebook is: http://www.facebook.com/connect/uiserver.php?app_id=444444444444444&next=http%3A%2F%2Fstatic.ak.fbcdn.net%2Fconnect%2Fxd_proxy.php%23%3F%3D%26cb%3Df357eceb0361a8a%26origin%3Dhttp%253A%252F%252Fwww.mysite.com%252Ff38fea4f9ea573%26relation%3Dopener%26transport%3Dpostmessage%26frame%3Df23b800f8a78%26result%3DxxRESULTTOKENxx&display=popup&channel=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.mysite.com%2Ffbtester.php&cancel=http%3A%2F%2Fstatic.ak.fbcdn.net%2Fconnect%2Fxd_proxy.php%23%3F%3D%26cb%3Df6095a98598be8%26origin%3Dhttp%253A%252F%252Fwww.mysite.com%252Ff38fea4f9ea573%26relation%3Dopener%26transport%3Dpostmessage%26frame%3Df23b800f8a78%26result%3DxxRESULTTOKENxx&locale=en_US&return_session=1&session_version=3&fbconnect=1&canvas=0&legacy_return=1&method=permissions.request Note that the 'Next' variable in the url is: next=http%3A%2F%2Fstatic.ak.fbcdn.net%2Fconnect%2Fxd_proxy.php%23%3F%3D%26cb%3Df357eceb0361a8a%26origin%3Dhttp%253A%252F%252Fwww.mysite.com%252Ff38fea4f9ea573%26relation%3Dopener%26transport%3Dpostmessage%26frame%3Df23b800f8a78%26result%3DxxRESULTTOKENxx Any ideas what could be going wrong? All I've done is copy and paste the facebook login demo code from facebook's website: <?php define('FACEBOOK_APP_ID', 'your application id'); define('FACEBOOK_SECRET', 'your application secret'); function get_facebook_cookie($app_id, $application_secret) { $args = array(); parse_str(trim($_COOKIE['fbs_' . $app_id], '\\"'), $args); ksort($args); $payload = ''; foreach ($args as $key => $value) { if ($key != 'sig') { $payload .= $key . '=' . $value; } } if (md5($payload . $application_secret) != $args['sig']) { return null; } return $args; } $cookie = get_facebook_cookie(FACEBOOK_APP_ID, FACEBOOK_SECRET); ?> <!DOCTYPE html> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xmlns:fb="http://www.facebook.com/2008/fbml"> <body> <?php if ($cookie) { ?> Your user ID is <?= $cookie['uid'] ?> <?php } else { ?> <fb:login-button></fb:login-button> <?php } ?> <div id="fb-root"></div> <script src="http://connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js"></script> <script> FB.init({appId: '<?= FACEBOOK_APP_ID ?>', status: true, cookie: true, xfbml: true}); FB.Event.subscribe('auth.login', function(response) { window.location.reload(); }); </script> </body> </html> Thanks for the help!

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• Using ASP.NET MVC, Linq To SQL, and StructureMap causing DataContext to cache data

  - by Dragn1821

  I'll start by telling my project setup: ASP.NET MVC 1.0 StructureMap 2.6.1 VB I've created a bootstrapper class shown here: Imports StructureMap Imports DCS.Data Imports DCS.Services Public Class BootStrapper Public Shared Sub ConfigureStructureMap() ObjectFactory.Initialize(AddressOf StructureMapRegistry) End Sub Private Shared Sub StructureMapRegistry(ByVal x As IInitializationExpression) x.AddRegistry(New MainRegistry()) x.AddRegistry(New DataRegistry()) x.AddRegistry(New ServiceRegistry()) x.Scan(AddressOf StructureMapScanner) End Sub Private Shared Sub StructureMapScanner(ByVal scanner As StructureMap.Graph.IAssemblyScanner) scanner.Assembly("DCS") scanner.Assembly("DCS.Data") scanner.Assembly("DCS.Services") scanner.WithDefaultConventions() End Sub End Class I've created a controller factory shown here: Imports System.Web.Mvc Imports StructureMap Public Class StructureMapControllerFactory Inherits DefaultControllerFactory Protected Overrides Function GetControllerInstance(ByVal controllerType As System.Type) As System.Web.Mvc.IController Return ObjectFactory.GetInstance(controllerType) End Function End Class I've modified the Global.asax.vb as shown here: ... Sub Application_Start() RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes) 'StructureMap BootStrapper.ConfigureStructureMap() ControllerBuilder.Current.SetControllerFactory(New StructureMapControllerFactory()) End Sub ... I've added a Structure Map registry file to each of my three projects: DCS, DCS.Data, and DCS.Services. Here is the DCS.Data registry: Imports StructureMap.Configuration.DSL Public Class DataRegistry Inherits Registry Public Sub New() 'Data Connections. [For](Of DCSDataContext)() _ .HybridHttpOrThreadLocalScoped _ .Use(New DCSDataContext()) 'Repositories. [For](Of IShiftRepository)() _ .Use(Of ShiftRepository)() [For](Of IMachineRepository)() _ .Use(Of MachineRepository)() [For](Of IShiftSummaryRepository)() _ .Use(Of ShiftSummaryRepository)() [For](Of IOperatorRepository)() _ .Use(Of OperatorRepository)() [For](Of IShiftSummaryJobRepository)() _ .Use(Of ShiftSummaryJobRepository)() End Sub End Class Everything works great as far as loading the dependecies, but I'm having problems with the DCSDataContext class that was genereated by Linq2SQL Classes. I have a form that posts to a details page (/Summary/Details), which loads in some data from SQL. I then have a button that opens a dialog box in JQuery, which populates the dialog from a request to (/Operator/Modify). On the dialog box, the form has a combo box and an OK button that lets the user change the operator's name. Upon clicking OK, the form is posted to (/Operator/Modify) and sent through the service and repository layers of my program and updates the record in the database. Then, the RedirectToAction is called to send the user back to the details page (/Summary/Details) where there is a call to pull the data from SQL again, updating the details view. Everything works great, except the details view does not show the new operator that was selected. I can step through the code and see the DCSDataContext class being accessed to update the operator (which does actually change the database record), but when the DCSDataContext is accessed to reload the details objects, it pulls in the old value. I'm guessing that StructureMap is causing not only the DCSDataContext class but also the data to be cached? I have also tried adding the following to the Global.asax, but it just ends up crashing the program telling me the DCSDataContext has been disposed... Private Sub MvcApplication_EndRequest(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.EndRequest StructureMap.ObjectFactory.ReleaseAndDisposeAllHttpScopedObjects() End Sub Can someone please help?

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• Does subTable support reRender?

  - by Tom

  Here is a minimal rich:dataTable with an a4j:commandLink inside. When clicked it sends an AJAX request to my bean and reRenders the dataTable. <rich:dataTable id="dataTable" value="#{carManager.all}" var="item"> <rich:column> <f:facet name="header">name</f:facet> <h:outputText value="#{item.name}" /> </rich:column> <rich:column> <f:facet name="header">action</f:facet> <a4j:commandLink reRender="dataTable" value="Delete" action="#{carForm.delete}"> <f:setPropertyActionListener value="#{item.id}" target="#{carForm.id}" /> <f:param name="from" value="list" /> </a4j:commandLink> </rich:column> </rich:dataTable> The exmaple obove works fine so far. But when I add a rich:subTable to the table, reRendering fails... <rich:dataTable id="dataTable" value="#{garageManager.all}" var="garage"> <f:facet name="header"> <rich:columnGroup> <rich:column>name</rich:column> <rich:column>action</rich:column> </rich:columnGroup> </f:facet> <rich:column colspan="2"> <h:outputText value="#{garage.name}" /> </rich:column> <rich:subTable value="#{garage.cars}" var="car"> <rich:column><h:ouputText value="#{car.name}" /></rich:column> <rich:column> <a4j:commandLink reRender="dataTable" value="Delete" action="#{carForm.delete}"> <f:setPropertyActionListener value="#{item.id}" target="#{carForm.id}" /> <f:param name="from" value="list" /> </a4j:commandLink> </rich:column> </rich:column> </rich:dataTable> Now the rich:dataTable is not rerendered but the item gets deleted since the item does not show up after a complete page refresh. Does subTable support reRender the way i'd like to use it here? Tanks Tom

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• C# Confusing Results from Performance Test

  - by aip.cd.aish

  I am currently working on an image processing application. The application captures images from a webcam and then does some processing on it. The app needs to be real time responsive (ideally < 50ms to process each request). I have been doing some timing tests on the code I have and I found something very interesting (see below). clearLog(); log("Log cleared"); camera.QueryFrame(); camera.QueryFrame(); log("Camera buffer cleared"); Sensor s = t.val; log("Sx: " + S.X + " Sy: " + S.Y); Image<Bgr, Byte> cameraImage = camera.QueryFrame(); log("Camera output acuired for processing"); Each time the log is called the time since the beginning of the processing is displayed. Here is my log output: [3 ms]Log cleared [41 ms]Camera buffer cleared [41 ms]Sx: 589 Sy: 414 [112 ms]Camera output acuired for processing The timings are computed using a StopWatch from System.Diagonostics. QUESTION 1 I find this slightly interesting, since when the same method is called twice it executes in ~40ms and when it is called once the next time it took longer (~70ms). Assigning the value can't really be taking that long right? QUESTION 2 Also the timing for each step recorded above varies from time to time. The values for some steps are sometimes as low as 0ms and sometimes as high as 100ms. Though most of the numbers seem to be relatively consistent. I guess this may be because the CPU was used by some other process in the mean time? (If this is for some other reason, please let me know) Is there some way to ensure that when this function runs, it gets the highest priority? So that the speed test results will be consistently low (in terms of time). EDIT I change the code to remove the two blank query frames from above, so the code is now: clearLog(); log("Log cleared"); Sensor s = t.val; log("Sx: " + S.X + " Sy: " + S.Y); Image<Bgr, Byte> cameraImage = camera.QueryFrame(); log("Camera output acuired for processing"); The timing results are now: [2 ms]Log cleared [3 ms]Sx: 589 Sy: 414 [5 ms]Camera output acuired for processing The next steps now take longer (sometimes, the next step jumps to after 20-30ms, while the next step was previously almost instantaneous). I am guessing this is due to the CPU scheduling. Is there someway I can ensure the CPU does not get scheduled to do something else while it is running through this code?

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• Conflict between Jquery Validate and Asp.net MVC

  - by chobo2

  Hi I am using asp.net mvc 2.0 and jquery validate 1.7 (http://bassistance.de/jquery-plugins/jquery-plugin-validation/) What happens is this. A user can click on a link to edit a product. When a user clicks on which product they want to edit a jquery dialog box appears with a form of textboxes and dropdown lists. These html controls have information filled in them. Say if the user chooses to edit the Ipad product a dialog will appear and one of the form textboxes will have "Ipad" in it. Now this form gets rendered on the server side(the form is in a partial view). When loading the dialog box a ajax request is made to get that partial view and in the response part of the ajax call I do something like $('#EditDialog).html(ajaxresponse).dialog({...}); So I would have something like this rendered in my dialog box <form id="EditProduct"> Product Name: <input type="text" value="IPad" name="ProductName" /> </form> Now my jquery validate would be something like this. $("#EditProduct").validate( { errorContainer: "#Errorbox", errorLabelContainer: "#Errorbox ul", wrapper: "li", rules: { ProductName: "required" } }); So I know this works because I use the same validate for add product and if you try to leave ProductName blank it will show a validation error. Now it does not work with the edit one though and I think I know the reason why but not how to fix it. The value for the textbox is "IPad" this is how the Html.TextBoxFor() renders it. However if a user goes and changes the product name to "Iphone" or blank the value never changes. It is always "Ipad" in the html. So I think when the validate goes and looks it goes oh there is a value already in it. It is valid even though in reality it might be blank. When I post to the server through ajax it gets the right value and the server side validation stops it but my entire clientside validation is rendered useless because of this problem as it will never change the html.

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• Using will_paginate with AJAX live search with jQuery in Rails

  - by Mark Richman

  I am using will_paginate to successfully page through records. I am also using AJAX live search via jQuery to update my results div. No problem so far. The issue I have is when trying to paginate through those live search results. I simply get "Page is loading..." with no div update. Am I missing something fundamental? # index.html.erb <form id="searchform" accept-charset="utf-8" method="get" action="/search"> Search: <input id="search" name="search" type="text" autocomplete="off" title="Search location, company, description..." /> <%= image_tag("spinner.gif", :id => "spinner", :style =>"display: none;" ) %> </form> # JobsController#search def search if params[:search].nil? @jobs = Job.paginate :page => params[:page], :order => "created_at desc" elsif params[:search] and request.xhr? @jobs = Job.search params[:search], params[:page] end render :partial => "jobs", :layout => false, :locals => { :jobs => @jobs } end # Job#search def self.search(search, page) logger.debug "Job.paginate #{search}, #{page}" paginate :per_page => @@per_page, :page => page, :conditions => ["description LIKE ? or title LIKE ? or company LIKE ?", "%#{search}%", "%#{search}%", "%#{search}%"], :order => 'created_at DESC' end # search.js $(document).ready(function(){ $("#search").keyup(function() { $("#spinner").show(); // show the spinner var form = $(this).parents("form"); // grab the form wrapping the search bar. var url = form.attr("action"); // grab the URL from the form's action value. var formData = form.serialize(); // grab the data in the form $.get(url, formData, function(html) { // perform an AJAX get, the trailing function is what happens on successful get. $("#spinner").hide(); // hide the spinner $("#jobs").html(html); // replace the "results" div with the result of action taken }); }); });

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• C# Nested Property Accessing overloading OR Sequential Operator Overloading

  - by Tim

  Hey, I've been searching around for a solution to a tricky problem we're having with our code base. To start, our code resembles the following: class User { int id; int accountId; Account account { get { return Account.Get(accountId); } } } class Account { int accountId; OnlinePresence Presence { get { return OnlinePresence.Get(accountId); } } public static Account Get(int accountId) { // hits a database and gets back our object. } } class OnlinePresence { int accountId; bool isOnline; public static OnlinePresence Get(int accountId) { // hits a database and gets back our object. } } What we're often doing in our code is trying to access the account Presence of a user by doing var presence = user.Account.Presence; The problem with this is that this is actually making two requests to the database. One to get the Account object, and then one to get the Presence object. We could easily knock this down to one request if we did the following : var presence = UserPresence.Get(user.id); This works, but sort of requires developers to have an understanding of the UserPresence class/methods that would be nice to eliminate. I've thought of a couple of cool ways to be able to handle this problem, and was wondering if anyone knows if these are possible, if there are other ways of handling this, or if we just need to think more as we're coding and do the UserPresence.Get instead of using properties. Overload nested accessors. It would be cool if inside the User class I could write some sort of "extension" that would say "any time a User object's Account property's Presence object is being accessed, do this instead". Overload the . operator with knowledge of what comes after. If I could somehow overload the . operator only in situations where the object on the right is also being "dotted" it would be great. Both of these seem like things that could be handled at compile time, but perhaps I'm missing something (would reflection make this difficult?). Am I looking at things completely incorrectly? Is there a way of enforcing this that removes the burden from the user of the business logic? Thanks! Tim

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• Passing a ManagedObjectContext to a second view

  - by amo

  I'm writing my first iPhone/Cocoa app. It has two table views inside a navigation view. When you touch a row in the first table view, you are taken to the second table view. I would like the second view to display records from the CoreData entities related to the row you touched in the first view. I have the CoreData data showing up fine in the first table view. You can touch a row and go to the second table view. I'm able to pass info from the selected object from the first to the second view. But I cannot get the second view to do its own CoreData fetching. For the life of me I cannot get the managedObjectContext object to pass to the second view controller. I don't want to do the lookups in the first view and pass a dictionary because I want to be able to use a search field to refine results in the second view, as well as insert new entries to the CoreData data from there. Here's the function that transitions from the first to the second view. - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { // Navigation logic may go here -- for example, create and push another view controller. NSManagedObject *selectedObject = [[self fetchedResultsController] objectAtIndexPath:indexPath]; SecondViewController *secondViewController = [[SecondViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"SecondView" bundle:nil]; secondViewController.tName = [[selectedObject valueForKey:@"name"] description]; secondViewController.managedObjectContext = [self managedObjectContext]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:secondViewController animated:YES]; [secondViewController release]; } And this is the function inside SecondViewController that crashes: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; self.title = tName; NSError *error; if (![[self fetchedResultsController] performFetch:&error]) { // <-- crashes here // Handle the error... } } - (NSFetchedResultsController *)fetchedResultsController { if (fetchedResultsController != nil) { return fetchedResultsController; } /* Set up the fetched results controller. */ // Create the fetch request for the entity. NSFetchRequest *fetchRequest = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; // Edit the entity name as appropriate. // **** crashes on the next line because managedObjectContext == 0x0 NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"SecondEntity" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [fetchRequest setEntity:entity]; // <snip> ... more code here from Apple template, never gets executed because of the crashing return fetchedResultsController; } Any ideas on what I am doing wrong here? managedObjectContext is a retained property. UPDATE: I inserted a NSLog([[managedObjectContext registeredObjects] description]); in viewDidLoad and it appears managedObjectContext is being passed just fine. Still crashing, though. Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: '+entityForName: could not locate an NSManagedObjectModel for entity name 'SecondEntity''

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• jquery and requirejs and knockout; reference requirejs object from within itself

  - by Thomas

  We use jquery and requirejs to create a 'viewmodel' like this: define('vm.inkoopfactuurAanleveren', ['jquery', 'underscore', 'ko', 'datacontext', 'router', 'messenger', 'config', 'store'], function ($, _, ko, datacontext, router, messenger, config, store) { var isBusy = false, isRefreshing = false, inkoopFactuur = { factuurNummer: ko.observable("AAA") }, activate = function (routeData, callback) { messenger.publish.viewModelActivated({ canleaveCallback: canLeave }); getNewInkoopFactuurAanleveren(callback); var restricteduploader = new qq.FineUploader({ element: $('#restricted-fine-uploader')[0], request: { endpoint: 'api/InkoopFactuurAanleveren', forceMultipart: true }, multiple: false, failedUploadTextDisplay: { mode: 'custom', maxChars: 250, responseProperty: 'error', enableTooltip: true }, text: { uploadButton: 'Click or Drop' }, showMessage: function (message) { $('#restricted-fine-uploader').append('<div class="alert alert-error">' + message + '</div>'); }, debug: true, callbacks: { onComplete: function (id, fileName, responseJSON) { var response = responseJSON; }, } }); }, invokeFunctionIfExists = function (callback) { if (_.isFunction(callback)) { callback(); } }, loaded = function (factuur) { inkoopFactuur = factuur; var ids = config.viewIds; ko.applyBindings(this, getView(ids.inkoopfactuurAanleveren)); /*<----- THIS = OUT OF SCOPE!*/ / }, bind = function () { }, saved = function (success) { var s = success; }, saveCmd = ko.asyncCommand({ execute: function (complete) { $.when(datacontext.saveNewInkoopFactuurAanleveren(inkoopFactuur)) .then(saved).always(complete); return; }, canExecute: function (isExecuting) { return true; } }), getView = function (viewName) { return $(viewName).get(0); }, getNewInkoopFactuurAanleveren = function (callback) { if (!isRefreshing) { isRefreshing = true; $.when(datacontext.getNewInkoopFactuurAanleveren(dataOptions(true))).then(loaded).always(invokeFunctionIfExists(callback)); isRefreshing = false; } }, dataOptions = function (force) { return { results: inkoopFactuur, // filter: sessionFilter, //sortFunction: sort.sessionSort, forceRefresh: force }; }, canLeave = function () { return true; }, forceRefreshCmd = ko.asyncCommand({ execute: function (complete) { //$.when(datacontext.sessions.getSessionsAndAttendance(dataOptions(true))) // .always(complete); complete; } }), init = function () { // activate(); // Bind jQuery delegated events //eventDelegates.sessionsListItem(gotoDetails); //eventDelegates.sessionsFavorite(saveFavorite); // Subscribe to specific changes of observables //addFilterSubscriptions(); }; init(); return { activate: activate, canLeave: canLeave, inkoopFactuur: inkoopFactuur, saveCmd: saveCmd, forceRefreshCmd: forceRefreshCmd, bind: bind, invokeFunctionIfExists: invokeFunctionIfExists }; }); On the line ko.applyBindings(this, getView(ids.inkoopfactuurAanleveren)); in the 'loaded' method the 'this' keyword doens't refer to the 'viewmodel' object. the 'self' keyword seems to refer to a combination on methods found over multiple 'viewmodels'. The saveCmd property is bound through knockout, but gives an error since it cannot be found. How can the ko.applyBindings get the right reference to the viewmodel? In other words, with what do we need to replace the 'this' keyword int he applyBindings. I would imagine you can 'ask' requirejs to give us the ealiers instantiated object with identifier 'vm.inkoopfactuurAanleveren' but I cannot figure out how.

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• Client-side templating frameworks to streamline using jQuery with REST/JSON

  - by Tauren

  I'm starting to migrate some html generation tasks from a server-side framework to the client. I'm using jQuery on the client. My goal is to get JSON data via a REST api and use this data to populate HTML into the page. Right now, when a user on my site clicks a link to My Projects, the server generates HTML like this: <dl> <dt>Clean Toilet</dt> <dd>Get off your butt and clean this filth!</dd> <dt>Clean Car</dt> <dd>I think there's something growing in there...</dd> <dt>Replace Puked on Baby Sheets</dt> </dl> I'm changing this so that clicking My Projects will now do a GET request that returns something like this: [ { "name":"Clean Car", "description":"I think there's something growing in there..." }, { "name":"Clean Toilets", "description":"Get off your butt and clean this filth!" }, { "name":"Replace Puked on Baby Sheets" } ] I can certainly write custom jQuery code to take that JSON and generate the HTML from it. This is not my question, and I don't need advice on how to do that. What I'd like to do is completely separate the presentation and layout from the logic (jquery code). I don't want to be creating DL, DT, and DD elements via jQuery code. I'd rather use some sort of HTML templates that I can fill the data in to. These templates could simply be HTML snippets that are hidden in the page that the application was loaded from. Or they could be dynamically loaded from the server (to support user specific layouts, i18n, etc.). They could be displayed a single time, as well as allow looping and repeating. Perhaps it should support sub-templates, if/then/else, and so forth. I have LOTS of lists and content on my site that are presented in many different ways. I'm looking to create a simple and consistent way to generate and display content without creating custom jQuery code for every different feature on my site. To me, this means I need to find or build a small framework on top of jQuery (probably as a plugin) that meets these requirements. The only sort of framework that I've found that is anything like this is jTemplates. I don't know how good it is, as I haven't used it yet. At first glance, I'm not thrilled by it's template syntax. Anyone know of other frameworks or plugins that I should look into? Any blog posts or other resources out there that discuss doing this sort of thing? I just want to make sure that I've surveyed everything out there before building it myself. Thanks!

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• JAX-WS errors when SOAP body contains UTF-8 BOM

  - by Vinny Carpenter

  I have developed a Web Service using JAX-WS (v2.1.3 - Sun JDK 1.6.0_05) deployed on WebLogic 10.3 that works just fine when I use a Java client or SoapUI or other Web Services testing tools. I need to consume this service using 2005 Microsoft SQL Server Reporting Services and I get the following error Couldn't create SOAP message due to exception: XML reader error: unexpected character content SEVERE: Couldn't create SOAP message due to exception: XML reader error: unexpected character content: "?" com.sun.xml.ws.protocol.soap.MessageCreationException: Couldn't create SOAP message due to exception: XML reader error: unexpected character content: "?" at com.sun.xml.ws.encoding.SOAPBindingCodec.decode(SOAPBindingCodec.java:292) at com.sun.xml.ws.transport.http.HttpAdapter.decodePacket(HttpAdapter.java:276) at com.sun.xml.ws.transport.http.HttpAdapter.access$500(HttpAdapter.java:93) at com.sun.xml.ws.transport.http.HttpAdapter$HttpToolkit.handle(HttpAdapter.java:432) at com.sun.xml.ws.transport.http.HttpAdapter.handle(HttpAdapter.java:244) at com.sun.xml.ws.transport.http.servlet.ServletAdapter.handle(ServletAdapter.java:134) at com.sun.xml.ws.transport.http.servlet.WSServletDelegate.doGet(WSServletDelegate.java:129) at com.sun.xml.ws.transport.http.servlet.WSServletDelegate.doPost(WSServletDelegate.java:160) at com.sun.xml.ws.transport.http.servlet.WSServlet.doPost(WSServlet.java:75) at javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:727) at javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:820) at weblogic.servlet.internal.StubSecurityHelper$ServletServiceAction.run(StubSecurityHelper.java:227) at weblogic.servlet.internal.StubSecurityHelper.invokeServlet(StubSecurityHelper.java:125) at weblogic.servlet.internal.ServletStubImpl.execute(ServletStubImpl.java:292) at weblogic.servlet.internal.ServletStubImpl.execute(ServletStubImpl.java:175) at weblogic.servlet.internal.WebAppServletContext$ServletInvocationAction.run(WebAppServletContext.java:3498) at weblogic.security.acl.internal.AuthenticatedSubject.doAs(AuthenticatedSubject.java:321) at weblogic.security.service.SecurityManager.runAs(Unknown Source) at weblogic.servlet.internal.WebAppServletContext.securedExecute(WebAppServletContext.java:2180) at weblogic.servlet.internal.WebAppServletContext.execute(WebAppServletContext.java:2086) at weblogic.servlet.internal.ServletRequestImpl.run(ServletRequestImpl.java:1406) at weblogic.work.ExecuteThread.execute(ExecuteThread.java:201) at weblogic.work.ExecuteThread.run(ExecuteThread.java:173) Caused by: com.sun.xml.ws.streaming.XMLStreamReaderException: XML reader error: unexpected character content: "?" at com.sun.xml.ws.streaming.XMLStreamReaderUtil.nextElementContent(XMLStreamReaderUtil.java:102) at com.sun.xml.ws.encoding.StreamSOAPCodec.decode(StreamSOAPCodec.java:174) at com.sun.xml.ws.encoding.StreamSOAPCodec.decode(StreamSOAPCodec.java:296) at com.sun.xml.ws.encoding.StreamSOAPCodec.decode(StreamSOAPCodec.java:128) at com.sun.xml.ws.encoding.SOAPBindingCodec.decode(SOAPBindingCodec.java:287) ... 22 more If I use a HTTP proxy to sniff out what SSRS is sending to JAX-WS, I see EF BB BF as the beginning of the post body and JAX-WS doesn't like that. If I remove the special characters and resubmit the request using Fiddler, then the web-service invocation works. Why does JAX-WS blow up with the standard UTF-8 BOM? Is there a workaround to get past this issue? Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated. Thanks --Vinny

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• Where does the version number come from?

  - by Robert Schneider

  I have a version control system (e.g. Subversion) and now I'd like to set up a build process. Now I have to create a version number and insert it into the system. But where does the version number come from and get into? Assume I want to use this common <major.<minor.<bugfix/revision scheme. Should I pass a number to the build script? Or should I pass arguments like increaseMajor, increaseMinor, increaseRevision? Or would you recommend to create a branch with the number which will be detected by the build script? I could imagine that the major and minor version number have to be put in manually somewhere. The revision number could be increased automaically. But still I don't know where I would place the major and minor number. In my case I have some php files that I would like to zip, but before I have to insert some version numbers into php file. I have edited this post to try to make my request clearer: I do not use Subversion, that was just an example. And I don't want to discuss the version number scheme. Imagine I want to create version 3.5.0 or 3.5.1. Would I pass this version number to a build script? Would the script create the branch in the repository with this number or would it expect that someone has already created this branch? Manually? Or would the build script look for name of the branch (e.g. '3.5.1) and use it for further things? And does the version number come from my brain or is it automatically created (I guess the major/minor number it comes from my little brain and revision number is created)? Or would you place the number into a file that may gets inserted into the repository? I guess if would use a release management tool I would insert the version number there. But I don't use one yet.

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• MooseX::Types declaration issue, tight test case :)

  - by TJ Thompson

  So after an embarrassing amount of time debugging, I've finally stripped this issue ([http://stackoverflow.com/questions/4621589/perl-moose-typedecorator-error-how-do-i-debug][1]) down to a simple test case. I would humbly request some help understanding why it's failing :) Here is the error message I'm getting: plxc16479 $h2/tmp/tmp18.pl This method [new] requires a single argument. at /nfs/pdx/disks/nehalem.pde.077/perl/5.12.2/lib64/site_perl/MooseX/Types/TypeDecorator.pm line 91 MooseX::Types::TypeDecorator::new('MooseX::Types::TypeDecorator=HASH(0x655b90)') called at /nfs/pdx/disks/nehalem.pde.077/projects/lib/Program-Plist-Pl/lib/Program/Plist/Pl.pm line 10 Program::Plist::Pl::BUILD('Program::Plist::Pl=HASH(0x63d478)', 'HASH(0x63d220)') called at generated method (unknown origin) line 29 Program::Plist::Pl::new('Program::Plist::Pl') called at /nfs/pdx/disks/nehalem.pde.077/tmp/tmp18.pl line 10 Wrapper test script: use strict; use warnings; BEGIN {push(@INC, split(':', $ENV{PERL_TEST_LIBS}))}; use Program::Plist::Pl; my $obj = Program::Plist::Pl->new(); Program::Plist::Pl file: package Program::Plist::Pl; use Moose; use namespace::autoclean; use Program::Types qw(Pattern); # <-- Removing this fixes error use Program::Plist::Pl::Pattern; sub BUILD { my $pattern_obj = Program::Plist::Pl::Pattern->new(); } __PACKAGE__->meta->make_immutable; 1; Program::Types file: package Program::Types; use MooseX::Types -declare => [qw(Pattern)]; class_type Pattern, {class => 'Program::Plist::Pl::Pattern'}; 1; And the Program::Plist::Pl::Pattern file: package Program::Plist::Pl::Pattern; use Moose; use namespace::autoclean; __PACKAGE__->meta->make_immutable; 1; Notes: While I don't need the Pattern type from Program::Types in the above code, I do in other code that is stripped out. The PERL_TEST_LIBS env var I'm pulling INC paths from only contains paths to the project modules. There are no other modules loaded from these paths. It appears the MooseX::Types definition for Pattern is causing problems, but I'm not sure why. Documentation shows the syntax I am using, but it's possible I'm misusing class_type as there isn't much said about it. Intent is to be able to use Pattern for type checking via MooseX::Params::Validate to verify the argument is a 'Program::Plist::Pl::Program' object. I've found that removing the intervening class Program::Plist::Pl from the equation by directly calling Pattern-new from the tmp18.pl wrapper results in no error, even when the Program::Types Pattern type is imported.

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