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  • Synchronizing ASP.NET MVC action methods with ReaderWriterLockSlim

    - by James D
    Any obvious issues/problems/gotchas with synchronizing access (in an ASP.NET MVC blogging engine) to a shared object model (NHibernate, but it could be anything) at the Controller/Action level via ReaderWriterLockSlim? (Assume the object model is very large and expensive to build per-request, so we need to share it among requests.) Here's how a typical "Read Post" action would look. Enter the read lock, do some work, exit the read lock. public ActionResult ReadPost(int id) { // ReaderWriterLockSlim allows multiple concurrent writes; this method // only blocks in the unlikely event that some other client is currently // writing to the model, which would only happen if a comment were being // submitted or a new post were being saved. _lock.EnterReadLock(); try { // Access the model, fetch the post with specificied id // Pseudocode, etc. Post p = TheObjectModel.GetPostByID(id); ActionResult ar = View(p); return ar; } finally { // Under all code paths, we must release the read lock _lock.ExitReadLock(); } } Meanwhile, if a user submits a comment or an author authors a new post, they're going to need write access to the model, which is done roughly like so: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult SaveComment(/* some posted data */) { // try/finally omitted for brevity _lock.EnterWriteLock(); // Save the comment to the DB, update the model to include the comment, etc. _lock.ExitWriteLock(); } Of course, this could also be done by tagging those action methods with some sort of "synchronized" attribute... but however you do it, my question is is this a bad idea? ps. ReaderWriterLockSlim is optimized for multiple concurrent reads, and only blocks if the write lock is held. Since writes are so infrequent (1000s or 10,000s or 100,000s of reads for every 1 write), and since they're of such a short duration, the effect is that the model is synchronized , and almost nobody ever locks, and if they do, it's not for very long.

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  • Connect two client sockets

    - by Hernán Eche
    Good morning, let's say Java has two kind of sockets... server sockets "ServerSocket" client sockets or just "Socket" ////so Simple ! Imagine the situation of two processes: X Client <-- Y Server The server process Y : has a "ServerSocket", that is listening to a TCP port The client process X : send a connection request through a -client type- "Socket" X ////so Simple ! then the accept() method (in server Y) returns a new client type "Socket", when it occurs, great the two Sockets get "interconected", so the -client socket- in client process, is connected with the -client socket- in the server process then (reading/writing in socket X is like reading/writing in socket Y, and viceversa. ) TWO CLIENT SOCKETS GET INTERCONECTED!! ////so Simple ! BUT... (there is always a But..) What if I create the two CLIENT sockets in same process, and I want to get them "interconected" ? ////mmm Complex =(... even posible? Let's say how to have TWO CLIENT SOCKETS GET INTERCONECTED WITHOUT using an intermediate ServerSocket ? I 've solved it.. by creating two threads for continuously reading A and writing B, and other for reading B and writng A... but I think could be a better way..(or should!) (Those world-energy-consuming threads are not necessary with the client-server aproach) Any help or advice would be appreciated!! Thanks

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  • Athentication Problem - not recognizing 'else' - Ruby on rails...

    - by bgadoci
    I can't seem to figure out what I am doing wrong here. I have implemented the Super Simple Authentication from Ryan Bates tutorial and while the login portion is functioning correctly, I can't get an error message and redirect to happen correctly for a bad login. Ryan Bates admits in his comments he left this out but can't seem to implement his recommendation. Basically what is happening is that when someone logs in correctly it works. When a bad password is entered it does the same redirect and flashes 'successfully logged in' thought they are not. The admin links do not show (which is correct and are the links protected by the <% if admin? %) but I need it to say 'failed login' and redirect to login path. Here is my code: SessionsController class SessionsController < ApplicationController def create if session[:password] = params[:password] flash[:notice] = 'Successfully logged in' redirect_to posts_path else flash[:notice] = "whoops" redirect_to login_path end end def destroy reset_session flash[:notice] = 'Successfully logged out' redirect_to posts_path end end ApplicationController class ApplicationController < ActionController::Base helper_method :admin? protected def authorize unless admin? flash[:error] = "unauthorized request" redirect_to posts_path false end end def admin? session[:password] == "string0826" end helper :all # include all helpers, all the time protect_from_forgery # See ActionController::RequestForgeryProtection for details # end

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  • Application design in Spring MVC

    - by Ravi
    Hello All, I'm new to Spring MVC and trying out a simple project.It will contain a simple adding, viewing, updating and deleting user work flows. It will have login page and once authenticated the user will be taken to a welcome screen which will have links to add, view, update and delete users. Clicking on any of the links will take to individual pages where the user can do the specific tasks. What I'm doing here is, I'm using a MultiActionController to group together all requests related to User work flow. So the request from "Add User" link will handled by the addUser method in the UserController which will redirect the user to the "Add User" page, and the user can then fill in the details and save the new user. Now here is where I'm getting confused. Where should I put the save process of the new user, should I put that in new mehtod inside UserController, or use the same "addUser" method. What is the best way to handle this kind of scenario. I hope I was able to clear my question.

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  • semi dynamic cdn

    - by dwi kristianto
    i'm developing couple of websites using php (directory script, etc.) and wordpress as cms. i need to improve its performance, by using cdn for static files (css, js, images). the problem is, css and javascript files are generated on the fly. i did that due to yahoo and some expert advice to combine the files into one file. also changing basic color of css files. for the time being, i use couple of small vps but still its not fast enough. i already contact maxcdn and the support guy said that they dont have such kind of services. what i need is: a cdn that will serve the request from user/visitor and there's no file in local disk, the cdn will redirect/fetch it from another domain/server. in vps, it could be done easily using combination of .htaccess and php, but NOT in the cdn. most of cdn only support purely static files. is there any such cdn that will server semi-dynamic files?

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  • Changing customErrors in web.config semi-dynamically

    - by Tom Ritter
    The basic idea is we have a test enviroment which mimics Production so customErrors="RemoteOnly". We just built a test harness that runs against the Test enviroment and detects breaks. We would like it to be able to pull back the detailed error. But we don't want to turn customErrors="On" because then it doesn't mimic Production. I've looked around and thought a lot, and everything I've come up with isn't possible. Am I wrong about any of these points? We can't turn customErrors on at runtime because when you call configuration.Save() - it writes the web.config to disk and now it's Off for every request. We can't symlink the files into a new top level directory with it's own web.config because we're on windows and subversion on windows doesn't do symlinks. We can't use URL-Mapping to make an empty folder dir2 with its own web.config and make the files in dir1 appear to be in dir2 - the web.config doesn't apply We can't copy all the aspx files into dir2 with it's own web.config because none of the links would be consistent and it's a horrible hacky solution. We can't change customErrors in web.config based on hostname (e.g. add another dns entry to the test server) because it's not possible/supported We can't do any virtual directory shenanigans to make it work. If I'm not, is there a way to accomplish what I'm trying to do? Turn on customErrors site-wide under certain circumstances (dns name or even a querystring value)?

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  • How to create resource manager in ASP.NET

    - by Bart
    Hello, I would like to create resource manager on my page and use some data stored in my resource files. (default.aspx.resx and default.aspx.en.resx) The code looks like this: System.Resources.ResourceManager myResourceManager = System.Resources.ResourceManager.CreateFileBasedResourceManager("resource", Server.MapPath("App_LocalResources") + Path.DirectorySeparatorChar, null); if (User.Identity.IsAuthenticated) { Welcome.Text = myResourceManager.GetString("LoggedInWelcomeText"); } else { Welcome.Text = myResourceManager.GetString("LoggedOutWelcomeText"); } but when i compile and run it on my local server i get this type of error: Could not find any resources appropriate for the specified culture (or the neutral culture) on disk. baseName: resource locationInfo: fileName: resource.resources Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.Resources.MissingManifestResourceException: Could not find any resources appropriate for the specified culture (or the neutral culture) on disk. baseName: resource locationInfo: fileName: resource.resources Source Error: Line 89: else Line 90: { Line 91: Welcome.Text = myResourceManager.GetString("LoggedOutWelcomeText"); Line 92: } Line 93: can you please assist me with this issue?

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  • Django1.1 model field value preprocessing before returning

    - by Satoru.Logic
    Hi, all. I have a model class like this: class Note(models.Model): author = models.ForeignKey(User, related_name='notes') content = NoteContentField(max_length=256) NoteContentField is a custom sub-class of CharField that override the to_python method in purpose of doing some twitter-text-conversion processing. class NoteContentField(models.CharField): __metaclass__ = models.SubfieldBase def to_python(self, value): value = super(NoteContentField, self).to_python(value) from ..utils import linkify return mark_safe(linkify(value)) However, this doesn't work. When I save a Note object like this: note = Note(author=request.use, content=form.cleaned_data['content']) note.save() The conversed value is saved into the database, which is not what I wanna see. What I'm trying to do is to save the raw content into the database, and only make the conversion when the content attribute is later accessed. Would you please tell me what's wrong with this? Thanks to Pierre and Daniel. I have figured out what's wrong. I thought the text-conversion code should be in either to_python or get_db_prep_value, and that's wrong. I should override both of them, make to_python do the conversion and get_db_prep_value return the unconversed value: from ..utils import linkify class NoteContentField(models.CharField): __metaclass__ = models.SubfieldBase def to_python(self, value): self._raw_value = super(NoteContentField, self).to_python(value) return mark_safe(linkify(self._raw_value)) def get_db_prep_value(self, value): return self._raw_value I wonder if there is a better way to implement this?

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  • CSRF Protection in AJAX Requests using MVC2

    - by mnemosyn
    The page I'm building depends heavily on AJAX. Basically, there is just one "page" and every data transfer is handled via AJAX. Since overoptimistic caching on the browser side leads to strange problems (data not reloaded), I have to perform all requests (also reads) using POST - that forces a reload. Now I want to prevent the page against CSRF. With form submission, using Html.AntiForgeryToken() works neatly, but in AJAX-request, I guess I will have to append the token manually? Is there anything out-of-the box available? My current attempt looks like this: I'd love to reuse the existing magic. However, HtmlHelper.GetAntiForgeryTokenAndSetCookie is private and I don't want to hack around in MVC. The other option is to write an extension like public static string PlainAntiForgeryToken(this HtmlHelper helper) { // extract the actual field value from the hidden input return helper.AntiForgeryToken().DoSomeHackyStringActions(); } which is somewhat hacky and leaves the bigger problem unsolved: How to verify that token? The default verification implementation is internal and hard-coded against using form fields. I tried to write a slightly modified ValidateAntiForgeryTokenAttribute, but it uses an AntiForgeryDataSerializer which is private and I really didn't want to copy that, too. At this point it seems to be easier to come up with a homegrown solution, but that is really duplicate code. Any suggestions how to do this the smart way? Am I missing something completely obvious?

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  • Help me convert this PHP SOAP code to C#

    - by Andrew G. Johnson
    Hi, I am trying to do some C# SOAP calls and can't seem to get any good examples on how to do it. I read an old question of mine about a SOAP call in PHP and thought maybe asking you guys to rewrite it in C# would be a good place to start. Here is the PHP code: $client = new SoapClient('http://www.hotelscombined.com/api/LiveRates.asmx?WSDL'); $client->__soapCall('HotelSearch', array( array('request' => array( 'ApiKey' => 'THE_API_KEY_GOES_HERE', // note that in the actual code I put the API key in... 'UserID' => session_id(), 'UserAgent' => $_SERVER['HTTP_USER_AGENT'], 'UserIPAddress' => $_SERVER['REMOTE_ADDR'], 'HotelID' => '50563', 'Checkin' => '07/02/2009', 'Checkout' => '07/03/2009', 'Guests' => '2', 'Rooms' => '1', 'LanguageCode' => 'en', 'DisplayCurrency' => 'usd', 'TimeOutInSeconds' => '90' ) ) ) );

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  • [NSFetchedResultsController sections] returns nil?

    - by Chris
    Hi Everyone, I am trying to resolve this for days at this stage and I'm hoping you can help. I have two ViewControllers which query two different tables from the same database using Core Data. The first ViewController is opened with the app and displays fine. The second is called from within the first ViewController, using a pretty standard fetch setup: - (NSFetchedResultsController *)fetchedClients { // Set up the fetched results controller if needed. if (fetchedClients == nil) { // Create the fetch request for the entity. NSFetchRequest *fetchRequest = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; // Edit the entity name as appropriate. NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Clients" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [fetchRequest setEntity:entity]; // Edit the sort key as appropriate. NSSortDescriptor *sortDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"clientsName" ascending:YES]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortDescriptor, nil]; [fetchRequest setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; // Edit the section name key path and cache name if appropriate. // nil for section name key path means "no sections". NSFetchedResultsController *aFetchedResultsController = [[NSFetchedResultsController alloc] initWithFetchRequest:fetchRequest managedObjectContext:managedObjectContext sectionNameKeyPath:nil cacheName:@"Root"]; aFetchedResultsController.delegate = self; self.fetchedClients = aFetchedResultsController; [aFetchedResultsController release]; [fetchRequest release]; [sortDescriptor release]; [sortDescriptors release]; } return fetchedClients; } When I call [self.fetchedClients sections], I get a nil (0x0) return. I have examined the database using an external application to ensure data exists in the "Clients" table. Can anyone think of a reason why [self.fetchedClients sections] would return nil? Many thanks for any help you can provide. Regards, Chris

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  • JMS MessageCreator.createMessage() in Grails

    - by Hans Wurst
    Hi there, I am trying to implement jms to my grails application. I have several JMS consumer in a spring based enviroment listining on an ActiveMQ broker. I wrote a simple test commandline client which creates messages and receives them in an request response manner. Here is the snippet that sends a MapMessage in Spring JMS way. This works for me as long I am in my spring world. final String corrID = UUID.randomUUID().toString(); asyncJmsTemplate.send("test.RequestQ", new MessageCreator() { public Message createMessage(Session session) throws JMSException { try { MapMessage msg = session.createMapMessage(); msg.setStringProperty("json", mapper.writeValueAsString(List<of some objects>)); msg.setJMSCorrelationID(corrID); msg.setJMSReplyTo(session.createQueue("test.ReplyQ")); return msg; } catch (JsonGenerationException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } catch (JsonMappingException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } catch (IOException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } return null; } }); BUT when I tried to implement this methods to my grails test app I receive some METHOD_DEF exceptions. Sending simple TextMessages via the jmsTemplate.convertAndSende(Queue, Message) provided by the JMS Plugin works. Can any one help me? Is this a common problem? Cheers Hans

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  • Strange ng-model behavior inside ng-repeat

    - by Mike Fisher
    I'm trying to build up a complex post request to run a report in my Angular app. I have a list of inputs all dynamically generated via an ng-repeat a simple version of my html looks like this. <div ng-repeat="filter in lists.filters"> <input type="checkbox" ng-model="report.options.filters[filter.value]['type']/> <input type="text" ng-model="report.options.filters[filter.value]['values']/> </div> ng-repeat is looping over this array [ {name: 'Advertisers', value: 'advertisers'}, {name: 'Sizes', value: 'sizes'}, {name: 'Campaign IDs', value: 'campaigns'}, {name: 'Creative IDs', value: 'creatives'}, {name: 'Publishers', value: 'publishers'}, {name: 'Placement IDs', value: 'placements'}, {name: 'Seller Types', value: 'seller_types'}, {name: 'Impression Types', value: 'impression_types'}, {name: 'Bid Types', value: 'bid_types'}, {name: 'Seller Members', value: 'seller_members'}, {name: 'Buyer Members', value: 'buyer_members'}, {name: 'Insertion Order Ids', value: 'insertion_orders'}, {name: 'Countries', value: 'countries'}, {name: 'Site Ids', value: 'sites'}, {name: 'Sources', value: 'sources'} ]; The JSON I'm sending back needs to be structured like this: "filters": { "state": "all", "campaigns": {type:"include", values":[1,2]}, "creatives": {type:"exclude","values":[1,2]}, "publishers": {"values":[1,2]}, "placements": {type:"exclude",values":[1,2]}, "advertisers": {"values":[1,2]}, "sizes": {"values":[1,2]}, "countries": {"values":[1,2]}, "insertion_orders": {"values":[1,2]}, "sites": {"values":[1,2]}, "bid_types": {"values":[1,2]}, "seller_types": {"values":[1,2]}, "impression_types": {"values":[1,2]}, "seller_members": {"values":[1,2]}, "buyer_members": {"values":[1,2]}, "sources": {"values":[1,2]} } When I do this Angular throws an error: 'Cannot set property 'values' of undefined' and 'Cannot set property 'type' of undefined' Yet if I do this (inside ng-repeat) <input type="text" ng-model="report.options.filters[filter.value]/> Or this outside of ng-repeat <input type="text" ng-model="report.options.filters[filter.value]['values']/> No errors are thrown and everything works fine. I'm positive that filter.value is defined and available on the scope even though Angular thinks it's not for some reason. I'm not quite sure what I'm doing wrong. Any help is much appreciated.

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  • How to Debug an exception: Type is not marked as serializable... when the type is marked as serializ

    - by rism
    I'm trying to: ((Request.Params["crmid"] != null)) in a web page. But it keeps throwing a serialzation exception: Type 'QC.Security.SL.SiteUser' in assembly 'QC.Security, Version=1.0.0.1, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' is not marked as serializable. The type is however marked as serializable as follows: [Serializable()] public class SiteUser : IIdentity { private long _userId; public long UserId { get { return _userId; } set { _userId = value; } } private string _name; public string Name { get { return _name; } } private bool _isAuthenticated; public bool IsAuthenticated { get { return _isAuthenticated; } } private string _authenticationType; public string AuthenticationType { get { return _authenticationType; } } I've no idea how to debug this as I cant step into the serializer code to find out why its falling over. The call stack is only one frame deep before it hits [External Code]. And the error message is next to useless given that type is clearly marked as serializable. It was working fine. But now "all of a sudden" it doesn't which typically means some dumb bug in Visual Studio but rebooting doesn't help "this" time. So now I dont know if it's a stupid VS bug or a completely unrelated error for which Im getting a serialization exception or something I'm doing wrong. The truth is I just dont trust VS anymore given the number of wild goose chases Ive been on over the last several months which were "fixed" by rebooting VS 2008 or some other rediculous workaround.

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  • Mysterious socket / HttpWebRequest timeouts

    - by Daniel Mošmondor
    I have a great app for capturing shoutcast streams :-) . So far, it worked with a charm on dozens of machines, and never exhibited behaviour I found now, which is ultimately very strange. I use HttpWebRequest to connect to the shoutcast server and when I connect two streams, everything's OK. When I go for third one, response = (HttpWebResponse)request.GetResponse(); throws with Connection Timeout exception. WTF? I must point out that I had to create .config for the application in order to allow my headers to be sent out from the application, otherwise it wouldn't work at all. Here it is: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <system.net> <settings> <httpWebRequest useUnsafeHeaderParsing = "true" /> </settings> </system.net> </configuration> Does any of this ring a bell?

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  • HttpModule to Write Out JavaScript Script References to the Response

    - by Chris
    On my page in the Page_Load event I add a collection of strings to the Context object. I have an HttpModule that will fire EndRequest and retrieve the collection of strings. What I then do is write out a script reference tag (based on the collection of strings) to the response. The problem is that the page reads the script reference but doesn't retrieve the contents of the file (I imagine because this is occurring in the EndRequest event). I can't fire the BeginRequest event because I won't have access to the Context Items collection. I tried to also registering an HttpHandler which Processes the request of the script reference but I can't access the collection of strings in the Context.Items from there. Any suggestions? Page_Load: protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Context.Items.Add("ScriptFile", "/UserControls.js"); } HttpModule: public void OnEndRequest(Object s, EventArgs e) { HttpApplication app = s as HttpApplication; object script = app.Context.Items["ScriptFile"]; app.Response.Write("<script type='text/javascript' src='" + script + "'></script>"); }

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  • Best pratice: How do I implement a list that can be rendered both server-side and client-side?

    - by André Pena
    Technologies involved: ASP.NET Web-forms Javascript (jQuery for instance) Case To make it clearer let's give the Stackoverflow authors list as an example. This list can be manipulated at client-side. I can search, page and so forth. So obviously we would need to call jQuery.ajax to retrieve the HTML of each page given a search. Alright. Now this leaves me with the first question: What is the best way to render the response for the jQuery.ajax at server-side? I can't use templates I suppose, so the most obvious solution I think is to create the HTML tags as server-controls and render them as the result of an ASHX request? Is this is best approach? Nice. That solved we have yet another problem: When the user first enters the Authors List the first list page should already come from the server completely rendered alright? Of course we could render the first page as well as an ajax call but I don't think it's better. This time I CAN use templates to render the list but this template couldn't be reused in case 1. What do I do? Now the final question: Now we have 2 rendering strategies: 1) Client and 2) Server. How do I reuse code for the 2 renderings? What are the best pratices for solving these problems?

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  • HTTP 1.0 vs 1.1

    - by Jason Baker
    Could somebody give me a brief overview of the differences between HTTP 1.0 and HTTP 1.1? I've spent some time with both of the RFCs, but haven't been able to pull out a lot of difference between them. Wikipedia says this: HTTP/1.1 (1997-1999) Current version; persistent connections enabled by default and works well with proxies. Also supports request pipelining, allowing multiple requests to be sent at the same time, allowing the server to prepare for the workload and potentially transfer the requested resources more quickly to the client. But that doesn't mean a lot to me. I realize this is a somewhat complicated subject, so I'm not expecting a full answer, but can someone give me a brief overview of the differences at a bit lower level? By this I mean that I'm looking for the info I would need to know to implement either an HTTP server or application. I realize that this can be a somewhat complicated subject (based on what I know about HTTP as of right now), so I'm not necessarily looking for a full answer. I'm really more looking for a nudge in the right direction so that I can figure it out on my own.

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  • Why does my Workflow Service (4.0) variable go null in a DoWhile Activity?

    - by jlafay
    I have a WF service that I'm trying to setup receive activities to "Subscribe" and "Unsubscribe". I'm using This WF Durable Duplex Tutorial as a basis because my service performs callbacks to clients. Basically, think of it as a chat service. I can make client calls to the two receive activities just fine. What happens is the callback address of the client is passed in to Subscribe() on the service. The address is stored as a variable in the WF service and everything looks like it would work as to be expected. When a client calls Unsubscribe(), my watch I have set on the address var during debugging shows it as null. So what gives? Here's the basic setup of my WF service layout... Everything is enveloped in a DoWhile activity. Inside of that is a Pick activity and two Pick branches. The first branch is for subscribing activities. It has a receive-sendreply activity that assigns the string passed by the client to the WF address var. The second branch handles unsubscribing. The trigger is the Request activity and the client address is again passed in. From there it goes into a sequence, starting with an If. It checks to see if the unsubscribeAddress equals the address already subscribed. If it does, then it sets the address to String.Empty and sends a success message back to the client. Why would a variable that's scoped to the enveloping DoWhile activity be implicitly assigned to null? I'm trying to get this to work so I can implement multiple client subscribers from there and work on triggers that invoke callbacks to multiple clients. CONCAT EDIT: I set a breakpoint at the DoWhile level and my var is null once Unsubscribe() is called. When Subscribe() is invoked, the watch shows a value in the var all the way through. Until I Unsubscribe() with a client. Should I be using a While Activity instead?

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  • message queue full error in blackberry

    - by Rahul Varma
    Hi , I have coded to get the info from the user and send an email of clicking a button. The program is getting executed for a while and then the simulator is crashing showing error "DE427"-Message queue full... Here's the code that i have done... if(field==SendMail) { Message m = new Message(); Address a = null; try { a = new Address("[email protected]", "Rahul"); } catch (AddressException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } Address[] addresses = {a}; try { m.addRecipients(net.rim.blackberry.api.mail.Message.RecipientType.TO, addresses); m.setContent("Name:"+Name.getText().toString()+"\n"+ "Phone :"+Phone.getText().toString()+ "\n"+ "Date & Time:"+DateShow.getText().toString()+"\n"+"Make:"+Make.getText().toString()+ "\n"+"Model:"+Model.getText().toString()+"\n"+"Miles:"+Miles.getText().toString()+"\n"); m.setSubject("Appointment Request (Via Blackberry app)"); } catch (MessagingException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } Invoke.invokeApplication(Invoke.APP_TYPE_MESSAGES, new MessageArguments(m)); } Can anyone tell me what the error is and how to rectify the problem....Plz...

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  • google static maps via TIdHTTP

    - by cloudstrif3
    Hi all. I'm trying to return content from maps.google.com from within Delphi 2006 using the TIdHTTP component. My code is as follows procedure TForm1.GetGoogleMap(); var t_GetRequest: String; t_Source: TStringList; t_Stream: TMemoryStream; begin t_Source := TStringList.Create; try t_Stream := TMemoryStream.Create; try t_GetRequest := 'http://maps.google.com/maps/api/staticmap?' + 'center=Brooklyn+Bridge,New+York,NY' + '&zoom=14' + '&size=512x512' + '&maptype=roadmap' + '&markers=color:blue|label:S|40.702147,-74.015794' + '&markers=color:green|label:G|40.711614,-74.012318' + '&markers=color:red|color:red|label:C|40.718217,-73.998284' + '&sensor=false'; IdHTTP1.Post(t_GetRequest, t_Source, t_Stream); t_Stream.SaveToFile('google.html'); finally t_Stream.Free; end; finally t_Source.Free; end; end; However I keep getting the response HTTP/1.0 403 Forbidden. I assume this means that I don't have permission to make this request but if I copy the url into my web browser IE 8, it works fine. Is there some header information that I need or something else? thanks you advance.

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  • Ruby on Rails - Static page as start page

    - by meetraghu28
    Hello! I am developing an app in RoR which has static and dynamic parts. The static portion is placed in the public/ folder of the app. Now if i have an index.html in my public folder then i will not be able to use the routes configured in my routes.rb The default configurations like map.connect /:controller/:action will not be usable if i have an index.html. So i removed the index html. Now i have a static page startpage.html in my public/ folder which has to be the starting page of the app. And the i have links in it for other static/dynamic pages. The RoR app is hosted in apache and i tried to configure the Virtual Host configuration by adding the DirectoryIndex param so that when ever a request comes for the site it will direct it to the startpage.html but still it takes me to the default controller that i have specified in routes.rb with map.root I dont want to add a dummy controller and action and create a view which has the startpage and configure routes.rb to use it as the root. What i am looking to do here is Basically startpage.html should be my first page in the app served as a static page from the public/ folder. This will then have links to other pages and controllers/actions Here i am not able to apache to redirect to the html page instead of passing on the control to rails application. Directory listing is also enabled by using Options Indexes but still no change. Any pointers anyone?

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  • Ldap query returns null result when deployed.

    - by Trey Carroll
    I'm using a very simple Ldap query in my asp.net mvc 2.0 site: String ldapPath = ConfigReader.LdapPath; String emailAddress = null; try { DirectorySearcher search = new DirectorySearcher(ConfigReader.LdapPath); search.Filter = String.Format("(&(objectClass=user)(objectCategory=person)(objectSid={0})) ", securityIdentifierValue); // add the mail property to the list of props to retrieve search.PropertiesToLoad.Add("mail"); var result = search.FindOne(); if (result == null) { throw new Exception("Ldap Query with filter:" + search.Filter.ToString() + " returned a null value (no match found)"); } else { emailAddress = result.Properties["mail"][0].ToString(); } } catch (ArgumentOutOfRangeException aoorEx) { throw new Exception( "The query could not find an email for this user."); } catch (Exception ex) { //_log.Error(string.Format("======!!!!!! ERROR ERROR ERROR !!!!! in LdapLookupUtil.cs getEmailFromLdap Exception: {0}", ex)); throw ex; } return emailAddress; It works fine on my localhost machine. It works fine when I run it in VS2010 on the server. It always returns a null result when deployed. Here is my web.config: Asp.Net Configuration option in Visual Studio. A full list of settings and comments can be found in machine.config.comments usually located in \Windows\Microsoft.Net\Framework\v2.x\Config -- section enables configuration of the security authentication mode used by ASP.NET to identify an incoming user. -- <!-- -- section enables configuration of what to do if/when an unhandled error occurs during the execution of a request. Specifically, it enables developers to configure html error pages to be displayed in place of a error stack trace. -- I'm running it under the default app pool. Does anybody see the problem? This is driving me crazy!

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  • Hooking the http/https protocol in IE causes GET requests to be sequential

    - by watsonmw
    I'm using the PassthruAPP method to hook into HTTP/HTTPS requests made by IE. It's working well for the most part, however I noticed a problem. Only one download thread is active at a time. I can see two IInternetProtocol objects getting created, but IE uses only one at a time. This is happening with IE7. The odd thing is that the problem occurs when overriding the existing default HTTP/HTTPS handler, even if the handler is not the one being used to make the request. E.g. Registering a handler for the HTTPS protocol will cause HTTP requests to be made sequentially, even though HTTP requests are not hooked. I installed Google Gears and it has the same problem. This always happens for the first few items on the page, but it seems that after the document complete is issued, concurrent downloads can occur again. For example Javascript code that is executed after the page has finished loading can load images concurrently just fine. One option is to try to IAT patch the 'IInternetProtocol' registered for HTTP requests, but Google Gears does this already and it has the same problem. I know installing a HTTP Proxy is another option, but I don't want to monkey with the users' HTTP Proxy settings if there another option.

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  • Core data relationship memory leak

    - by cfihelp
    I have a strange (to me) memory leak when accessing an entity in a relationship. Series and Tiles have an inverse relationship to each other. // set up the fetch request NSFetchRequest *fetchRequest = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Series" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [fetchRequest setEntity:entity]; // grab all of the series in the core data store NSError *error = nil; availableSeries = [[NSArray alloc] initWithArray:[managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:fetchRequest error:&error]]; [fetchRequest release]; // grab one of the series Series *currentSeries = [availableSeries objectAtIndex:1]; // load all of the tiles attached to the series through the relationship NSArray *myTiles = [currentSeries.tile allObjects]; // 16 byte leak here! Instruments reports back that the final line has a 16 byte leak cause by NSPlaceHolderString. Stack trace: 2 UIKit UIApplicationMain 3 UIKit -[UIApplication _run] 4 CoreFoundation CFRunLoopRunInMode 5 CoreFoundation CFRunLoopRunSpecific 6 GraphicsServices PurpleEventCallback 7 UIKit _UIApplicationHandleEvent 8 UIKit -[UIApplication sendEvent:] 9 UIKit -[UIApplication handleEvent:withNewEvent:] 10 UIKit -[UIApplication _runWithURL:sourceBundleID:] 11 UIKit -[UIApplication _performInitializationWithURL:sourceBundleID:] 12 Memory -[AppDelegate_Phone application:didFinishLaunchingWithOptions:] /Users/cfish/svnrepo/Memory/src/Memory/iPhone/AppDelegate_Phone.m:49 13 UIKit -[UIViewController view] 14 Memory -[HomeScreenController_Phone viewDidLoad] /Users/cfish/svnrepo/Memory/src/Memory/iPhone/HomeScreenController_Phone.m:58 15 CoreData -[_NSFaultingMutableSet allObjects] 16 CoreData -[_NSFaultingMutableSet willRead] 17 CoreData -[NSFaultHandler retainedFulfillAggregateFaultForObject:andRelationship:withContext:] 18 CoreData -[NSSQLCore retainedRelationshipDataWithSourceID:forRelationship:withContext:] 19 CoreData -[NSSQLCore newFetchedPKsForSourceID:andRelationship:] 20 CoreData -[NSSQLCore rawSQLTextForToManyFaultStatement:stripBindVariables:swapEKPK:] 21 Foundation +[NSString stringWithFormat:] 22 Foundation -[NSPlaceholderString initWithFormat:locale:arguments:] 23 CoreFoundation _CFStringCreateWithFormatAndArgumentsAux 24 CoreFoundation _CFStringAppendFormatAndArgumentsAux 25 Foundation _NSDescriptionWithLocaleFunc 26 CoreFoundation -[NSObject respondsToSelector:] 27 libobjc.A.dylib class_respondsToSelector 28 libobjc.A.dylib lookUpMethod 29 libobjc.A.dylib _cache_addForwardEntry 30 libobjc.A.dylib _malloc_internal I think I'm missing something obvious but I can't quite figure out what. Thanks for your help! Update: I've copied the offending chunk of code to the first part of applicationDidFinishLaunching and it still leaks. Could there be something wrong with my model?

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