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• Opscenter repair service times out. ERROR: Requested range intersects a local range [...]

  - by jlemire-zs

  My production cluster had the repair service enabled since april 16th with the default 9 days time to completion and repairs would complete properly. However, since may 22nd, it is being disabled automatically by Opscenter: From /var/log/opscenter/opscenterd.log: [...] 2014-06-03 21:13:47-0400 [zs_prod] ERROR: Repair task (<Node 10.1.0.22='6417880425364517165'>, (-4019838962446882275L, -4006140687792135587L), set(['zs_logging', 'OpsCenter'])) timed out after 3600 seconds. 2014-06-03 22:16:44-0400 [zs_prod] ERROR: Repair task (<Node 10.1.0.22='6417880425364517165'>, (-4006140687792135587L, -4006140687792135586L), set(['zs_logging', 'OpsCenter'])) timed out after 3600 seconds. 2014-06-03 22:16:44-0400 [zs_prod] ERROR: More than 100 errors during repair service, shutting down repair service 2014-06-03 22:16:44-0400 [zs_prod] INFO: Stopping repair service [...] From /var/log/opscenter/repair_service/zs_prod.log: [...] 2014-06-03 22:16:44-0400 [zs_prod] ERROR: Repair task (<Node 10.1.0.22='6417880425364517165'>, (-4006140687792135587L, -4006140687792135586L), set(['zs_logging', 'OpsCenter'])) timed out after 3600 seconds. 2014-06-03 22:16:44-0400 [zs_prod] ERROR: Task (<Node 10.1.0.22='6417880425364517165'>, (-4006140687792135587L, -4006140687792135586L), set(['zs_logging', 'OpsCenter'])) has failed 1 times. 2014-06-03 22:16:44-0400 [zs_prod] ERROR: 101 errors have ocurred out of 100 allowed. 2014-06-03 22:16:44-0400 [zs_prod] ERROR: More than 100 errors during repair service, shutting down repair service 2014-06-03 22:16:44-0400 [zs_prod] INFO: Stopping repair service On the nodes on which the repair fails, from /var/log/cassandra/system.log: ERROR [RMI TCP Connection(93502)-10.1.0.22] 2014-06-03 20:12:28,858 StorageService.java (line 2560) Repair session failed: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Requested range intersects a local range but is not fully contained in one; this would lead to i mprecise repair at org.apache.cassandra.service.ActiveRepairService.getNeighbors(ActiveRepairService.java:164) at org.apache.cassandra.repair.RepairSession.<init>(RepairSession.java:128) at org.apache.cassandra.repair.RepairSession.<init>(RepairSession.java:117) at org.apache.cassandra.service.ActiveRepairService.submitRepairSession(ActiveRepairService.java:97) at org.apache.cassandra.service.StorageService.forceKeyspaceRepair(StorageService.java:2620) at org.apache.cassandra.service.StorageService$5.runMayThrow(StorageService.java:2556) at org.apache.cassandra.utils.WrappedRunnable.run(WrappedRunnable.java:28) These errors, which only occurs if the repair service is running, are the only errors these nodes experience. Outside of the repair task, the Cassandra cluster works perfectly. I am running Opscenter 4.1.2 with a 6 nodes DSE 4.0.2 cluster installed on linux virtual machines. The nodes run a vanilla installation of Ubuntu Server 12.04 64-bit and DSE was installed and secured according to the provided installation documentation. I have been experiencing that problem on my development cluster for a while too (with DSE 4.0.0, 4.0.1 and 4.0.2), but I thought this was because of some configuration error on my part. The problem has appeared spontaneously at some point too. The Cassandra cluster has been working very smoothly with a good write throughput. It is very stable and has enough resources to work with. We did not notice any problems with the applications that depend on it.

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• VPN Connection Causes Internal LAN Connection Loss with Server

  - by sleepisfortheweak

  I've tried configuring basic PPTP VPN at my small business using a number of different tutorials. As far as I can tell, the actual VPN connection worked fine, but upon connecting a client, the Server 'disappears' from the internal LAN. The RRAS service must be stopped before the connection is restored. My Setup: The network is simply a DSL Gateway/Router to the outside functioning as NAT/Firewall/DHCP. The server is a Win Server 2008 machine at fixed IP 192.168.1.200. The server has 1 NIC, so I used the 'custom' option when configuring RRAS. The RRAS settings should be default except that I've disabled ports for connection types I'm not using and reduced PPTP ports to 10. I've also created an address pool and disabled DHCP packet forwarding. The server only functions as a File Share and now a VPN Server. Local LAN computers all have mapped network shares to the server authenticated based on Local User/Group setup on the server. The Problem: The moment a client connects through VPN, the server 'disappears' from the local network. All mapped drives disconnect and there is no response to a ping 192.168.1.200. Even if the client disconnects, the server does not re-appear at that address until the RRAS service is stopped. I've Tried: Using an Address Pool inside and outside the local subnet. Using DCHP Relay Checking Inbound/Outbound filters (none enabled) The fact that nothing I've tried has had any effect, and that I can connect and successfully obtain an IP tells me that it's something more fundamental I'm missing. My gut tells me that it's something to do with the second IP address added by the VPN client somehow taking over the interface or traffic from the local LAN accidently getting routed to the VPN client instead of handled at the server once RRAS has become 'active' when a client connects. Hopefully this may be obvious to someone with real IT experience. I've been doing this a while and almost never been stumped. I'm starting to think it might actually be something tricky since my setup is pretty basic yet refuses to work. I'll be happy to include more info if this doesn't ring any bells right away for anyone. Thanks

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• Why does pinging a local router return "Destination Host Unreachable"?

  - by Matt H

  I have two tomato routers. One is bridged wirelessly with the other. I have a new server on the network. It's running Ubuntu Server 11.04. They are all connected like this: A - Linux PC B - New Server C - Mac Mini D - Macbook T1 - Tomato 1 T2 - Tomato 2 They are connected like so: A -----+-T1 ==== wireless bridge ==== T2----- ADSL modem | | C & D Connected wirelessly to T2 B -----+ A, C & D do not experience any issues. I have an active SSH session to B from A and it's not experiencing any loss. B, the new server occasionally cannot ping T2 and therefore cannot connect to the internet. However, A can always contact B and B can ping A and B When the network is lost, B can still ping T1, but not T2 yet at the same as B has lost connection to T2, A can still ping T2. Any ideas on what this could be? there is nothing that gives any clues in any of the logs on either router or the linux server. One thing that is interesting is that I set up a ping running between B and T2. T2 has the IP address 192.68.1.1 Here is what I am seeing: From 192.168.1.1 icmp_seq=26 Destination Host Unreachable From 192.168.1.1 icmp_seq=27 Destination Host Unreachable From 192.168.1.1 icmp_seq=28 Destination Host Unreachable From 192.168.1.1 icmp_seq=29 Destination Host Unreachable From 192.168.1.1 icmp_seq=30 Destination Host Unreachable From 192.168.1.1 icmp_seq=31 Destination Host Unreachable From 192.168.1.1 icmp_seq=33 Destination Host Unreachable From 192.168.1.1 icmp_seq=34 Destination Host Unreachable From 192.168.1.1 icmp_seq=35 Destination Host Unreachable 64 bytes from 192.168.1.1: icmp_req=36 ttl=63 time=3.40 ms 64 bytes from 192.168.1.1: icmp_req=37 ttl=63 time=5.70 ms 64 bytes from 192.168.1.1: icmp_req=38 ttl=63 time=2.25 ms 64 bytes from 192.168.1.1: icmp_req=39 ttl=63 time=2.18 ms 64 bytes from 192.168.1.1: icmp_req=40 ttl=63 time=3.12 ms 64 bytes from 192.168.1.1: icmp_req=41 ttl=63 time=2.15 ms 64 bytes from 192.168.1.1: icmp_req=42 ttl=63 time=1.97 ms 64 bytes from 192.168.1.1: icmp_req=43 ttl=63 time= And it cycles to being reachable and not. So I guess you could say the question is, why is the router responding that it cannot be reached?

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• Why would a process monitoring script use exit 1; on finding no problems?

  - by user568458

  General question: On a Linux (Centos) server, if a process monitoring script run by cron is set to close with exit 1; rather than exit 0; on finding that everything is okay and that no action is needed, is that a mistake? Or are there legitimate reasons for calling exit 1; instead of exit 0; on the "Everything's fine, no action needed" condition? exit 0; on finding no problems seems to me to be more appropriate. But maybe there's something I'm not aware of. For example, maybe there's something specific to Cron? Or maybe there's a convention in process monitoring scripts that 'failure' means 'this script failed to need to fix a problem' (rather than what I would expect which is that exit 1; would mean 'the process being monitored has failed'?) My specific case: I'm looking at a process monitoring script written by my web hosting company. By process monitoring script, I mean a script executed by Cron on a regular basis that checks if an important system process is running, and if it isn't running, takes actions such as mailing an administrator or restarting the process. Here's the (generalised) structure of their script, for a service running on port 8080 (in this case, Apache Tomcat): SERVICE=$(/usr/sbin/lsof -i tcp:8080 | wc -l); if [ $SERVICE != 0 ]; then exit 1; else #take action fi Seems simple enough even for someone with limited knowledge like me, except the exit 1; part seems odd. As I understand it, exit 0; closes a program and signifies to the parent that executed the program that everything is fine, exit n; where n0 and n<127 signifies that there has been some kind of error or problem. Here, their script seems to go against that rule - it calls exit 1; in the condition where everything is fine, and doesn't exit after taking remedial action in the problem condition. To me, this looks like a mistake - but my experience in this area is limited. Are there cases where calling exit 1; in the "Everything's fine, no action needed" condition is more appropriate than calling exit 0;? Or is it a mistake? Wider context is pretty simple. It's a Centos VPS, running Plesk. The script is being called by Cron via Plesk's "Scheduled tasks" Cron manager. There's no custom layer between Cron and this script that would respond in an unusual way to the exit call. It's a fairly average, almost out-of-the box Plesk-managed Centos VPS (in so far as there is such a thing). The process being monitored by this script is Apache Tomcat.

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• Cannot access boot menu with compaq 8510p

  - by pinouchon

  I have a problem with my HP compaq 8510p laptop: when I start it, the fan starts and the power light is on, but the screen displays nothing. When I insert a bootable hard drive, it activates the hard drive light (meaning that the CD is recognized) but it stops after a few seconds. Same thing with any hard drive: the drive is recognized but does not boot. What I've tried so far: Changing the hard drive or booting with no hard drive (same problem) Plugging anoher display via VGA : no display on the other screen Inserting a windows-7 CD (same problem) Booting only on battery, with battery and power cable, only with power cable (same problem) So it looks like something is preventing the laptop from booting and displaying the boot menu. Do you have experienced something similar with a laptop ? What could be wrong ? The laptop is out of warranty. The system used to be windows-7 x64. Edit: I went to the help desk of my university. A guy took a look (he also tried to plug an external screen) and said that the computer is dead: on the HP laptops eventually the GPU card dies and so does the motherboard because they are linked. He saw this many times, and even if I can fix the problem, the laptop would crash again after a while. Do you have similar experience with HP laptops ? (mine is 4 years old) Edit 2: Believe it or not, my laptop is magically working again. I have no clue about what is going on. Now it is like starting and old car: when you turn it on you secretly hope it will actually start... With that said, I expect my laptop to break again in the near future (its an HP after all) and I will accept an answer or add my own accordingly. Edit 3: As expected, the laptop is down again. This time, sometimes when I power it up, it shuts down automatically after 3 seconds, sometimes not at all. In addition, when it does not shut down on its own, the power button does not work : the only way to shut it down is by unplugging the battery. As before, the screen is black, and only the power and battery lights are on. (the other ones: hard drive and wifi are off). I have tried to plug in another power plug, removing the battery and removing the hard drive without success. I might buy another laptop. I've brought the laptop to a repair shop. The problem is indeed that the graphic card is down. It will be replaced by a new one.

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• Low FPS in some games, but hardware not fully used

  - by Mario De Schaepmeester

  I just did a little funny experiment in the game/sim "Train Simulator 2013". I normally have good FPS in it (around 30) at full settings. What I did was make a really, really long train so that the calculations the sim needed to make were enormous (the sim is quite realistic, it takes all things into account like speed/acceleration, G-forces, comfort levels, possible wheel slip and many more, and most of those things on each carriage seperately). This resulted in only 14FPS as reported by the game, but it felt more like 8FPS or so. I have a Logitech G15 keyboard which has an LCD, and it allows me to monitor CPU/RAM and video card load on it. The strange thing is, all CPU cores were busy, but the total load was only about 60% maximum at all times. The video card was only on 30% load (possibly an important note, the memory was full, which is however not unusual for the game in question). The RAM had plenty of room and there weren't many operations as it didn't grow or shrink much. I just have the feeling that the game would run smoother if it used more of my hardware power. Why is it not doing so? I had the same in another game, The Elder Scrolls: Morrowind when using more than 100 mods (that all use scripting) and a few high res texture mods, + a full-on graphics improvement program. The engine is very old (2003), and so I thought this might be the cause (not being optimised for multithreading). I had thought of possible causes, like: The operating system doesn't let the games use all the resources. It doesn't make use of multi-threading appropriately. To eliminate the former, I tried a CPU stress tool and that got 100% CPU juice as I let it run, so the OS is not the problem. I gave its thread the "higher" priority though. My actual question In both games, I did things the engine was not really built to do or support. Can those games' framerate be limited cause of their own engine not being able to cope? What is the real reason and more importantly, can I help it? And in any case, could something actually be wrong with my hardware? It's all reasonably new, a couple of months, and I (almost) never experience any other trouble. Modern and much more demanding games work absolutely fine. Specs CPU: AMD Phenom II 965 X4 @ 3.4gHz RAM: 8GB of DDR3 RAM Video: MSI GTX560 (nVidia chip) with 1GB of GDDR5 memory OS: Windows 7 Ultimate 64 bit Nothing overclocked.

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• Troubleshooting Network Speeds -- The Age Old Inquiry

  - by John K

  I'm looking for help with what I'm sure is an age old question. I've found myself in a situation of yearning to understand network throughput more clearly, but I can't seem to find information that makes it "click" We have a few servers distributed geographically, running various versions of Windows. Assuming we always use one host (a desktop) as the source, when copying data from that host to other servers across the country, we see a high variance in speed. In some cases, we can copy data at 12MB/s consistently, in others, we're seeing 0.8 MB/s. It should be noted, after testing 8 destinations, we always seem to be at either 0.6-0.8MB/s or 11-12 MB/s. In the building we're primarily concerned with, we have an OC-3 connection to our ISP. I know there are a lot of variables at play, but I guess I was hoping the experts here could help answer a few basic questions to help bolster my understanding. 1.) For older machines, running Windows XP, server 2003, etc, with a 100Mbps Ethernet card and 72 ms typical latency, does 0.8 MB/s sound at all reasonable? Or do you think that slow enough to indicate a problem? 2.) The classic "mathematical fastest speed" of "throughput = TCP window / latency," is, in our case, calculated to 0.8 MB/s (64Kb / 72 ms). My understanding is that is an upper bounds; that you would never expect to reach (due to overhead) let alone surpass that speed. In some cases though, we're seeing speeds of 12.3 MB/s. There are Steelhead accelerators scattered around the network, could those account for such a higher transfer rate? 3.) It's been suggested that the use SMB vs. SMB2 could explain the differences in speed. Indeed, as expected, packet captures show both being used depending on the OS versions in play, as we would expect. I understand what determines SMB2 being used or not, but I'm curious to know what kind of performance gain you can expect with SMB2. My problem simply seems to be a lack of experience, and more importantly, perspective, in terms of what are and are not reasonable network speeds. Could anyone help impart come context/perspective?

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• Hardware for multipurpose home server

  - by Michael Dmitry Azarkevich

  Hi guys, I'm looking to set up a multipurpose home server and hoped you could help me with the hardware selection. First of all, the services it will provide: Hosting a MySQL database (for training and testing purposes) FTP server Personal Mail Server Home media server So with this in mind I've done some research, and found some viable solutions: A standard PC with the appropriate software (Either second hand or new) A non-solid state mini-ITX system A solid state, fanless mini-ITX system I've also noted the pros and cons of each system: A standard second hand PC with old hardware would be the cheapest option. It could also have lacking processing power, not enough RAM and generally faulty hardware. Also, huge power consumption heat generation and noise levels. A standard new PC would have top-notch hardware and will stay that way for quite some time, so it's a good investment. But again, the main problem is power consumption, heat generation and noise levels. A non-solid state mini-ITX system would have the advantages of lower power consumption, lower cost (as far as I can see) and long lasting hardware. But it will generate noise and heat which will be even worse because of the size. A solid state, fanless mini-ITX system would have all the advantages of a non-solid state mini-ITX but with minimal noise and heat. The main disadvantage is the read\write problems of flash memory. All in all I'm leaning towards a non-solid state mini-ITX because of the read\write issues of flash memory. So, after this overview of what I do know, my questions are: Are all these services even providable from a single server? To my best understanding they are, but then again, I might be wrong. Is any of these solutions viable? If yes, which one is the best for my purposes? If not, what would you suggest? Also, on a more software oriented note: OS wise, I'm planning to run Linux. I'm currently thinking of four options I've been recommended: CentOS, Gentoo, DSL (Damn Small Linux) and LFS (Linux From Scratch). Any thoughts on this? Any other distro you would recomend? Regarding FTP services, I've herd good things about FileZila. Anyone has any experience with that? Do you recommend it? Do you recommend something else? Regarding the Mail service, I know nothing about this except that it exists. Any software you recommend for this task? Home media, same as mail service. Any recommended software? Thank you very much.

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• Successfully concatenating multiple videos

  - by wiseguydigital

  My mission is to create videos out of old web slideshows. To start with I have jpegs and audio files that worked as Flash slideshows in an old system, structured such as this: Audio structure my_audio_1.mp3 (this file is a 3 second mp3 of silence) my_audio_2.mp3 my_audio_3.mp3 my_audio_4 etc... roughly 30 mp3s per slideshow Image structure my_image_1.jpg (this acts as the opening slide) my_image_2.jpg my_image_3.jpg my_image_4. etc... roughly 30 images per slideshow. As there are almost 100 slideshows that must be converted to video, I have created a web-based interface using PHP to automate the process, that sits on a local system and attempts to combine the files using shell_exec(). The process uses the following workflow: Loop through each slide and make an avi or mpeg. So for instance my_mini_video_2.avi would be a video that consists of my_image_2.jpg and has a soundtrack of my_audio_2.mp3. This slide would last the length of my_audio_2.mp3. Join / stitch / concat all of the mini videos to create the final video (Using a combination of cat and either mencoder or ffmpeg (I have also tried avimerge but to no avail). Transcode the new 'master' video to various formats such as flv etc. I thought this would be simple and have been close on many occasions but it still won't work. I can't get past stage 2 as I can't get a perfect 'master' video. I have now experimented with Mencoder, FFMpeg and seem to have been through every combination I can think of. The problem is that the audio and visuals never sync, no matter what I try. Also, I have even tried created audio-less mini videos, joining the MP3s into one long MP3 using both cat and mp3wrap and then assigning the new long MP3 as the audio track, but this always produces either a very short file or a badly slowed down file and makes the female voiceover sound like a male boxer!!! There appears to be no problems at all with the original files. Does anybody have any experience in producing a video successfully from the same kind of starting point? Or any ideas on what I may be doing wrong? As an example: If I create silent mini-videos, and stitch them together into 'temp-master.mpg' and then join the MP3s together into single MP3 called 'temp-master-audio.mp3', the audio file's duration is 09:10 and the video file's duration is 08:35. They should be the same and the audio will seem sloooow. I haven't posted code as I have written lots and lots of combinations.

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• Reliable file copy (move) process - mostly Unix/Linux

  - by mfinni

  Short story : We have a need for a rock-solid reliable file mover process. We have source directories that are often being written to that we need to move files from. The files come in pairs - a big binary, and a small XML index. We get a CTL file that defines these file bundles. There is a process that operates on the files once they are in the destination directory; that gets rid of them when it's done. Would rsync do the best job, or do we need to get more complex? Long story as follows : We have multiple sources to pull from : one set of directories are on a Windows machine (that does have Cygwin and an SSH daemon), and a whole pile of directories are on a set of SFTP servers (Most of these are also Windows.) Our destinations are a list of directories on AIX servers. We used to use a very reliable Perl script on the Windows/Cygwin machine when it was our only source. However, we're working on getting rid of that machine, and there are other sources now, the SFTP servers, that we cannot presently run our own scripts on. For security reasons, we can't run the copy jobs on our AIX servers - they have no access to the source servers. We currently have a homegrown Java program on a Linux machine that uses SFTP to pull from the various new SFTP source directories, copies to a local tmp directory, verifies that everything is present, then copies that to the AIX machines, and then deletes the files from the source. However, we're finding any number of bugs or poorly-handled error checking. None of us are Java experts, so fixing/improving this may be difficult. Concerns for us are: With a remote source (SFTP), will rsync leave alone any file still being written? Some of these files are large. From reading the docs, it seems like rysnc will be very good about not removing the source until the destination is reliably written. Does anyone have experience confirming or disproving this? Additional info We will be concerned about the ingestion process that operates on the files once they are in the destination directory. We don't want it operating on files while we are in the process of copying them; it waits until the small XML index file is present. Our current copy job are supposed to copy the XML file last. Sometimes the network has problems, sometimes the SFTP source servers crap out on us. Sometimes we typo the config files and a destination directory doesn't exist. We never want to lose a file due to this sort of error. We need good logs If you were presented with this, would you just script up some rsync? Or would you build or buy a tool, and if so, what would it be (or what technologies would it use?) I (and others on my team) are decent with Perl.

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• FTP script needs blank line

  - by Ones and Zeroes

  I am trying to determine the reason for some FTP servers requiring a blank line in the script as follows: open server.com username ftp_commands bye Refer to blank line required after username credentials. Example from: FTP from batch file another reference to the same: http://newsgroups.derkeiler.com/Archive/Comp/comp.sys.ibm.as400.misc/2008-05/msg00227.html Also discussed here: archive.midrange.com/midrange-l/200601/msg00048.html "The behavior I'm observing is the same as if I didn't specify the password to login." with an answer referring to our same fix... archive.midrange.com/midrange-l/200601/msg00053.html and archive.midrange.com/midrange-l/200601/msg00065.html Note: It is my experience that FTP questions attract uncouth responses. Admittedly FTP is outdated, but many clients still have legacy systems, which they cannot upgrade or replace. The reason thereof should not be discussed here. The intention of this question is to invite a positive response. Please do not respond if you disagree with the above. If you have never encountered this same issue, please do not respond. I suspect this may be limited to FTP scripts executed from Windows machines, but have been told that this happens often and with many different servers. My specific interest is to understand what may cause this as I have a real world example of a production system suddenly requiring this as a workaround fix, after running for many years without issue. The server belongs to a third party who claims no change on their end. Server details unknown and cannot be determined. Any help or encouragement from someone who has come across the same, would be appreciated. ps. Sorry for the many words and references to painful responses, but I have asked similar questions on serverfault and elsewhere and unfortunately got back kneejerk responses to FTP and respondents debating the validity of the question. I would truly not ask, or re-post this question online if I had a better understanding of the issue. I know of people who have seen this issue, but don't know what causes it. I am wary that this question would again turn into another irrelevant discussion. Please, I ask very nicely: Please do not respond if you have not encountered a similar issue. FURTHER EDIT: Please do not suggest changing the product. The problem is not the blank line requirement. We know this fixes the issue. The problem is not being able to explain the reason for the blank line in the first place. Slight difference, but a critical point to note wrt the answering of this question.

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• Ajax comments form in ASP.NET MVC2

  - by Artiom Chilaru

  I've been playing around with different aspects of MVC for some time now, and I've reached a situation where I'm not sure what would be the best way to solve a problem. I'm hoping that the SO community will help me out here :P I've seen a number of examples of Ajax.BeginForm on the internet, and it seems like a very nifty idea. E.g. you have a dropdown where you select a customer - and on selecting one it will load this client's details in some placeholder on the page. This works perfectly fine. But what to do if you want to tie in some validation in the box? Just hypothetically, imagine an article page, and user comments in the bottom. Below the comments area there's an ajax-y "Add comment" box. When a user adds a comment, it will appear in the comments area, below the last comment there. If I set the Ajax.BeginForm to Append the result of the call to the Comments area, it will work fine. But what if the data posted is not valid? Instead of appending a "successful" comment to the comments area I have to show the user validation errors. At this point I decided that the area INSIDE the Ajax.BeginForm will be inside a partial, and the form's submits will return this partial. Validation works fine. On each submit we reload the contents inside the form element. But how to add the successful comment to the top? Other things to consider: The comment form also has a "Preview" button. When the user clicks on Preview, I should load the rendered comment into a preview box. This will probably be inside the form area as well. I was thinking of using Json results instead. When the user submits the form, the server code will generate a Json object with a Success value, and html rendered partials as some properties. Something like { "success": true, "form": "<html form data>", "comment": "successful comment html to inject into the page" } This would be a perfect solution, except there's no way in MVC to render a partial into a string, inside the controller (separation of context, remember?). So.. what should I do then? Any "correct" way to implement this?

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• How to diagnose cause, fix, or work around Adobe ActiveX / COM related error 0x80004005 progmaticall

  - by Streamline

  I've built a C# .NET app that uses the Adobe ActiveX control to display a PDF. It relies on a couple DLLs that get shipped with the application. These DLLs interact with the locally installed Adobe Acrobat or Adobe Acrobat Reader installed on the machine. This app is being used by some customer already and works great for nearly all users ( I check to see that the local machine is running at least version 9 of either Acrobat or Reader already ). I've found 3 cases where the app returns the error message "Error HRESULT E_FAIL has been returned from a call to a COM component" when trying to load (when the activex control is loading). I've checked one of these user's machines and he has Acrobat 9 installed and is using it frequently with no problems. It does appear that Acrobat 7 and 8 were installed at one time since there are entries for them in the registry along with Acrobat 9. I can't reproduce this problem locally, so I am not sure exactly which direction to go. The error at the top of the stacktrace is: System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException (0x80004005): Error HRESULT E_FAIL has been returned from a call to a COM component. Some research into this error indicates it is a registry problem. Does anyone have a clue as to how to fix or work around this problem, or determine how to get to the core root of the problem? The full content of the error message is this: System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException (0x80004005): Error HRESULT E_FAIL has been returned from a call to a COM component.    at System.Windows.Forms.UnsafeNativeMethods.CoCreateInstance(Guid& clsid, Object punkOuter, Int32 context, Guid& iid)    at System.Windows.Forms.AxHost.CreateWithoutLicense(Guid clsid)    at System.Windows.Forms.AxHost.CreateWithLicense(String license, Guid clsid)    at System.Windows.Forms.AxHost.CreateInstanceCore(Guid clsid)    at System.Windows.Forms.AxHost.CreateInstance()    at System.Windows.Forms.AxHost.GetOcxCreate()    at System.Windows.Forms.AxHost.TransitionUpTo(Int32 state)    at System.Windows.Forms.AxHost.CreateHandle()    at System.Windows.Forms.Control.CreateControl(Boolean fIgnoreVisible)    at System.Windows.Forms.Control.CreateControl(Boolean fIgnoreVisible)    at System.Windows.Forms.AxHost.EndInit()    at AcrobatChecker.Viewer.InitializeComponent()    at AcrobatChecker.Viewer..ctor()    at AcrobatChecker.Form1.btnViewer_Click(Object sender, EventArgs e)    at System.Windows.Forms.Control.OnClick(EventArgs e)    at System.Windows.Forms.Button.OnClick(EventArgs e)    at System.Windows.Forms.Button.OnMouseUp(MouseEventArgs mevent)    at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WmMouseUp(Message& m, MouseButtons button, Int32 clicks)    at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WndProc(Message& m)    at System.Windows.Forms.ButtonBase.WndProc(Message& m)    at System.Windows.Forms.Button.WndProc(Message& m)    at System.Windows.Forms.Control.ControlNativeWindow.OnMessage(Message& m)    at System.Windows.Forms.Control.ControlNativeWindow.WndProc(Message& m)    at System.Windows.Forms.NativeWindow.Callback(IntPtr hWnd, Int32 msg, IntPtr wparam, IntPtr lparam)

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• Why do many software projects fail today?

  - by TomTom

  As long as there are software projects, the world is wondering why they fail so often. I would like to know if there is a list or something equivalent which shows how many software projects fail today. Would be nice if there would be a comparison over the last 20 - 30 years. You can also add your top reason why a software project fails. Mine is "Requirements are poor or not even existing." which includes also "No (real) customer / user involved". EDIT: It is nearly impossible to clearly define the term "fail". Let's say that fail means: The project was more than 10% over budget and time. In my opinion the 10% + / - is a good range for an offer / tender. EDIT: Until now (Feb 11) it seems that most posters agree that a fail of the project is basically a failure of the project management (whatever fail means). But IMHO it comes out, that most developers are not happy with this situation. Perhaps because not the manager get penalized when a project was not successful, but the lazy, incompetent developer teams? When I read the posts I can also hear-out that there is a big "gap" between the developer side and the managment side. The expectations (perhaps also the requirements) seem to be so different, that a project cannot be successful in the end (over time / budget; users are not happy; not all first-prio features implemented; too many bugs because developers were forced to implement in too short timeframes ...) I',m asking myself: How can we improve it? Or do we have the possibility to improve it? Everybody seems to be unsatisfied with the way it goes now. Can we close the gap between these two worlds? Should we (the developers) go on strike and fight for "high quality reqiurements" and "realistic / iteration based time shedules"? EDIT: Ralph Westphal and Stefan Lieser have founded a new "community" called: Clean-Code-Developer. The aim of the group is to bring more professionalism into software engineering. Independently if a developer has a degree or tons of years of experience you can be part of this movement. Clean Code Developers live principles like SOLID every day. A professional developer is the biggest reviewer of his own work. And he has an internal value system which helps him to improve and become better. Check it out on: Clean Code Developer EDIT: Our company is doing at the moment a thing called "Application Development and Maintenance Benchmarking". This is a service offered by IBM to get a feedback from someone external on your software engineering process quality etc. When we get the results, I will tell you more about it.

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• Android Packaging Problem: resources.ap_ does not exist

  - by Galip

  I am trying to fix a problem in Eclipse for like 3 hours and I haven't made any progress. Tomorrow is the customer coming to look at my app, and I have no time left. This is really frustrating! This morning when I was coding and I wanted to run my app on my device Eclipse crashed all of a sudden. 'aapt.exe has stopped working' After this Eclipse wasn't starting anymore. It froze at the splash image. I looked on the internet and tried different solutions like going back to Java SE 6 update 20, changing .ini file etc. in the end reinstalling Eclipse did the job. Shortly after that the 'aapt.exe has stopped working' returned. I found a solution by changing my projects target. 1.5, 1.6, 2.2 doesn't matter, as long as it's different than the one before. Now I get the Error generating final archive: java.io.FileNotFoundException: C:\xxx\bin\resources.ap_ does not exist error. I tried clean but that doesn't work. Deleting and automatically regenarting R.java also didn't work. I ran the same code in Netbeans with the Android plugin and there it gives me the 'aapt.exe has stopped working' again :( Please guys, how can I fix this? Edit: I think I may have found the reason. These are the error lines in the console: org.xmlpull.v1.XmlPullParserException: Binary XML file line #3: <bitmap> requires a valid src attribute at android.graphics.drawable.BitmapDrawable.inflate(BitmapDrawable.java:341) at android.graphics.drawable.Drawable.createFromXmlInner(Drawable.java:779) at android.graphics.drawable.Drawable.createFromXml(Drawable.java:720) at com.android.layoutlib.bridge.ResourceHelper.getDrawable(ResourceHelper.java:150) at com.android.layoutlib.bridge.BridgeTypedArray.getDrawable(BridgeTypedArray.java:668) at android.view.View.<init>(View.java:1846) at android.view.View.<init>(View.java:1795) at android.view.ViewGroup.<init>(ViewGroup.java:282) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Unknown Source) at org.eclipse.equinox.launcher.Main.invokeFramework(Main.java:619) at org.eclipse.equinox.launcher.Main.basicRun(Main.java:574) at org.eclipse.equinox.launcher.Main.run(Main.java:1407) at org.eclipse.equinox.launcher.Main.main(Main.java:1383) [2011-01-17 16:37:20 - gegevens.xml] Unable to resolve drawable "com.android.layoutlib.utils.ResourceValue@267e33de" in attribute "background" The file it's talking about is 'bg.png'. It's a small png file which I repeat in a .xml file. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <bitmap xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:src="@drawable/bg" android:tileMode="repeat" /> This file has worked from the first time without any problems. I deleted it from the drawable folder, waited for an error message, and then added it back. The red x next to the foldername got away, but still nothing different...

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• How do I add a listener that will work on individual Fieldset in Extjs? Clicking the "Add" button sh

  - by Nair

  Testing Window /*! * Ext JS Library 3.0.0 * Copyright(c) 2006-2009 Ext JS, LLC * [email protected] * http://www.extjs.com/license */ Ext.onReady(function(){ Ext.override( Ext.data.Store, { findExact: function( fld, val ) { var hit = null; this.each( function(rec) { if( rec.get(fld) == val ) { hit = rec; return false; }; } ); return hit; } }); var listAdded = 0; var addListBtn = { text: 'Add', handler: function() { Ext.getCmp('tab_list').add(getList()); Ext.getCmp('tab_list').doLayout(); } } var testData = new Ext.data.SimpleStore({ fields: ['no', 'name', 'address','phone','businessPhone'], data: [['68', 'Target','123 Valley Road','(345) 908-9087','(345) 908-9087'], ['69', 'Walmart','456 Main Road','(345) 908-9999','(345) 908-9990']] }); var getList = function() { listAdded++; var items = new Ext.form.FieldSet( { id:listAdded, title: listAdded, collapsible: true, layout: 'form', autoHeight: true, defaults: {width: 300}, defaultType: 'textfield', bodyStyle: 'padding:5px', labelWidth: 225, items: [ { xtype: 'combo', fieldLabel: 'Customer No', name: 'changescustomerNo', hiddenName: 'changescustomerNo', store: new Ext.data.SimpleStore({ fields: ['id','value'], data: [['68','Test1'],['69','Test2']] }), displayField: 'value', valueField: 'id', selectOnFocus: true, mode: 'local', editable: false, triggerAction: 'all', value: ' ', listeners:{select:{ fn:function(combo, value) { var m = testData.findExact( 'no', this.value ); if(m) { //alert(this.id); Ext.getCmp('currentName').setValue(m.get('name')); Ext.getCmp('currentAddress').setValue(m.get('address')); Ext.getCmp('currentTelephoneNumber').setValue(m.get('phone')); Ext.getCmp('currentBusTelephoneNumber').setValue(m.get('businessPhone')); } }//function }//select }//listeners },{ id: 'currentName', fieldLabel: 'Current Name', name: 'currentName', value: '' },{ id: 'currentAddress', width: 298, xtype: 'textarea', fieldLabel: 'Current Address', name: 'currentAddress', value: '' },{ id:'currentTelephoneNumber', fieldLabel: 'Current Telephone Number', name: 'currentTelephoneNumber', value: '' },{ id: 'currentBusTelephoneNumber', fieldLabel: 'Current Business Telephone Number', name: 'currentBusTelephoneNumber', value: '' } ] } ); return items; } var pnlMain = new Ext.Panel({ id: 'theForm', title: 'Sample List', bodyStyle:'padding:5px', autoWidth: true, frame: true, items: [{ xtype: 'tabpanel', id: 'tabpanel', activeTab: 0, height: 540, width: '100%', resizeTabs: true, tabWidth: 125, minTabWidth: 125, layoutOnTabChange: true, deferredRender: false, // Create all form elements on load defaults: { bodyStyle: 'padding:10px', autoScroll: true, layout: 'form', defaultType: 'textfield', labelWidth: 160 }, items:[{ id: 'tab_list', title: 'List', items: getList(), buttons: [ addListBtn ] }] }] }); pnlMain.render('main'); });

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• How to track deleted self-tracking entities in ObservableCollection without memory leaks

  - by Yannick M.

  In our multi-tier business application we have ObservableCollections of Self-Tracking Entities that are returned from service calls. The idea is we want to be able to get entities, add, update and remove them from the collection client side, and then send these changes to the server side, where they will be persisted to the database. Self-Tracking Entities, as their name might suggest, track their state themselves. When a new STE is created, it has the Added state, when you modify a property, it sets the Modified state, it can also have Deleted state but this state is not set when the entity is removed from an ObservableCollection (obviously). If you want this behavior you need to code it yourself. In my current implementation, when an entity is removed from the ObservableCollection, I keep it in a shadow collection, so that when the ObservableCollection is sent back to the server, I can send the deleted items along, so Entity Framework knows to delete them. Something along the lines of: protected IDictionary<int, IList> DeletedCollections = new Dictionary<int, IList>(); protected void SubscribeDeletionHandler<TEntity>(ObservableCollection<TEntity> collection) { var deletedEntities = new List<TEntity>(); DeletedCollections[collection.GetHashCode()] = deletedEntities; collection.CollectionChanged += (o, a) => { if (a.OldItems != null) { deletedEntities.AddRange(a.OldItems.Cast<TEntity>()); } }; } Now if the user decides to save his changes to the server, I can get the list of removed items, and send them along: ObservableCollection<Customer> customers = MyServiceProxy.GetCustomers(); customers.RemoveAt(0); MyServiceProxy.UpdateCustomers(customers); At this point the UpdateCustomers method will verify my shadow collection if any items were removed, and send them along to the server side. This approach works fine, until you start to think about the life-cycle these shadow collections. Basically, when the ObservableCollection is garbage collected there is no way of knowing that we need to remove the shadow collection from our dictionary. I came up with some complicated solution that basically does manual memory management in this case. I keep a WeakReference to the ObservableCollection and every few seconds I check to see if the reference is inactive, in which case I remove the shadow collection. But this seems like a terrible solution... I hope the collective genius of StackOverflow can shed light on a better solution. Thanks!

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• jQuery unbinding click event when maximum number of children are displayed

  - by RyanP13

  I have a personal details form that alows you to enter a certain number of dependants which is determined by the JSP application. The first dependant is visible and the user has the option to add dependants up to the maximum number. All other dependants are hidden by default and are displayed when a user clicks the 'Add another dependant button'. When the maximum number of dependants has been reached the button is greyed out and a message is generated via jQuery and displayed to tell the user exactly this. The issue i am having is when the maximum number of dependants has been reached the message is displayed but then the user can click the button to add more dependants and the message keeps on generating. I thought unbinding the click event would sort this but it seems to still be able to generate a second message. Here is the function i wrote to generate the message: // Dependant message function function maxDependMsg(msgElement) { // number of children can change per product, needs to be dynamic // count number of dependants in HTML var $dependLength = $("div.dependant").length; // add class maxAdd to grey out Button // create maximum dependants message and display, will not be created if JS turned off $(msgElement) .addClass("maxAdd") .after($('<p>') .addClass("maxMsg") .append("The selected web policy does not offer cover for more than " + $dependLength + " children, please contact our customer advisers if you wish discuss alternative policies available.")); } There is a hyperlink with a click event attached like so: $("a.add").click(function(){ // Show the next hidden table on clicking add child button $(this).closest('form').find('div.dependant:hidden:first').show(); // Get the number of hidden tables var $hiddenChildren = $('div.dependant:hidden').length; if ($hiddenChildren == 0) { // save visible state of system message $.cookies.set('cpqbMaxDependantMsg', 'visible'); // show system message that you can't add anymore dependants than what is on page maxDependMsg("a.add"); $(this).unbind("click"); } // set a cookie for the visible state of all child tables $('div.dependant').each(function(){ var $childCount = $(this).index('div.dependant'); if ($(this).is(':visible')) { $.cookies.set('cpqbTableStatus' + $childCount, 'visible'); } else { $.cookies.set('cpqbTableStatus' + $childCount, 'hidden'); } }); return false; }); All of the cookies code is for state saving when users are going back and forward through the process.

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• Entity Attribute Value Database vs. strict Relational Model Ecommerce question

  - by Dr. Zim

  It is safe to say that the EAV/CR database model is bad. That said, Question: What database model, technique, or pattern should be used to deal with "classes" of attributes describing e-commerce products which can be changed at run time? In a good E-commerce database, you will store classes of options (like TV resolution then have a resolution for each TV, but the next product may not be a TV and not have "TV resolution"). How do you store them, search efficiently, and allow your users to setup product types with variable fields describing their products? If the search engine finds that customers typically search for TVs based on console depth, you could add console depth to your fields, then add a single depth for each tv product type at run time. There is a nice common feature among good e-commerce apps where they show a set of products, then have "drill down" side menus where you can see "TV Resolution" as a header, and the top five most common TV Resolutions for the found set. You click one and it only shows TVs of that resolution, allowing you to further drill down by selecting other categories on the side menu. These options would be the dynamic product attributes added at run time. Further discussion: So long story short, are there any links out on the Internet or model descriptions that could "academically" fix the following setup? I thank Noel Kennedy for suggesting a category table, but the need may be greater than that. I describe it a different way below, trying to highlight the significance. I may need a viewpoint correction to solve the problem, or I may need to go deeper in to the EAV/CR. Love the positive response to the EAV/CR model. My fellow developers all say what Jeffrey Kemp touched on below: "new entities must be modeled and designed by a professional" (taken out of context, read his response below). The problem is: entities add and remove attributes weekly (search keywords dictate future attributes) new entities arrive weekly (products are assembled from parts) old entities go away weekly (archived, less popular, seasonal) The customer wants to add attributes to the products for two reasons: department / keyword search / comparison chart between like products consumer product configuration before checkout The attributes must have significance, not just a keyword search. If they want to compare all cakes that have a "whipped cream frosting", they can click cakes, click birthday theme, click whipped cream frosting, then check all cakes that are interesting knowing they all have whipped cream frosting. This is not specific to cakes, just an example.

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• What Is The Best Database For Delphi Desktop Applications That Supports Stored Procedures?

  - by Cape Cod Gunny

  I started with Turbo Pascal 3, went to TP5, Bought TP6 called Borland the next day and downgraded to TP5.5. Bought Delphi 3, and now have Delphi 5 Enterprise. I sort of lost interest in writing code about 4-5 years ago for two reasons; Spent all day writing ASP & SQL for someone else. PC Techniques magazine went away. I've got a few programs in the shareware market that are solid performers but are in need of serious updating. I love Delphi or did when it was Borland (before Borland bought DBase and all the other crap), I'd like to salvage as much of my D5E code as possible but I doubt I can. I plan on upgrading to Delphi 2010. My next software release needs to interact with a database. I'm very proficient with MS Sql and like to put all of the database code in stored procedures. What is the best database choice that interacts well with Delphi, allows stored procedures and is so easy to deploy that even the Geico gecko could deploy it? 10/25/2009 18:53 PM EST Re-Opened After Reading Install Docs for Delphi 2010 I downloaded a trial version of Delphi 2010 and unzipped the install. I've been reading the install docs included in the package. I started with the install.htm inside the zip package. install.htm wisely tells you to see the following two articles: Installation Notes: http://edn.embarcadero.com/article/39754 Release Notes: http://edn.embarcadero.com/article/39758 the release notes state the following... MSSQL driver requires the installation of the SQL Native Client. SQL Native Client 2008 is required for dbxmss.dll. SQL Native Client 2005 is required for dbxmss9.dll I checked my machine to see if SQL Native Client is installed. Nope. I wasn't done reading the docs so I made a note to install SQL Native Client. I googled dbxmss.dll and dbxmss9.dll and found a very interesting thread on the Embarcadero forums. read thread here. After reading this thread and some careful thought I don't think I will be using Microsoft SQL Express. I can't rely on my customers having the right drivers installed. So, I'm back to looking for a different solution. If I'm selling a $40 product to the general masses I need to have a bulletproof solution that doesn't require my brand new customer to update their machine before my software will work.

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• xslt broken: pattern does not match

  - by krisvandenbergh

  I'm trying to query an xml file using the following xslt: <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" xmlns:rdf="http://www.w3.org/1999/02/22-rdf-syntax-ns#" xmlns:rdfs="http://www.w3.org/2000/01/rdf-schema#" xmlns:bpmn="http://dkm.fbk.eu/index.php/BPMN_Ontology"> <!-- Participants --> <xsl:template match="/"> <html> <body> <table> <xsl:for-each select="Package/Participants/Participant"> <tr> <td><xsl:value-of select="ParticipantType" /></td> <td><xsl:value-of select="Description" /></td> </tr> </xsl:for-each> </table> </body> </html> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet> Here's the contents of the xml file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <?xml-stylesheet type="text/xsl" href="xpdl2bpmn.xsl"?> <Package xmlns="http://www.wfmc.org/2008/XPDL2.1" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" Id="25ffcb89-a9bf-40bc-8f50-e5afe58abda0" Name="1 price setting" OnlyOneProcess="false"> <PackageHeader> <XPDLVersion>2.1</XPDLVersion> <Vendor>BizAgi Process Modeler.</Vendor> <Created>2010-04-24T10:49:45.3442528+02:00</Created> <Description>1 price setting</Description> <Documentation /> </PackageHeader> <RedefinableHeader> <Author /> <Version /> <Countrykey>CO</Countrykey> </RedefinableHeader> <ExternalPackages /> <Participants> <Participant Id="008af9a6-fdc0-45e6-af3f-984c3e220e03" Name="customer"> <ParticipantType Type="RESOURCE" /> <Description /> </Participant> <Participant Id="1d2fd8b4-eb88-479b-9c1d-7fe6c45b910e" Name="clerk"> <ParticipantType Type="ROLE" /> <Description /> </Participant> </Participants> </Package> Despite, the simple pattern, the foreach doesn't work. What is wrong with Package/Participants/Participant ? What do I miss here? Thanks a lot!

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• jQuery Ajax (beforeSend and complete) working properly on FireFox but not on IE8 and Chrome

  - by Farhan Zia

  I am using jQuery ajax version 1.4.1 in my MVC application (though the issue I am discussing was same with the old jQuery version 3.2.1) as well, to check during customer registration if the username is already registered. As the user clicks on the "Check Availibility" button, I am showing a busy image in place of the check button (actually hiding the check button and showing the image) while checking the availibility on the server and then displaying a message. It is a Sync call (async: false) and I used beforeSend: and complete: to show and hide the busy image and the check button. This thing is working well on Firefox but in IE 8 and Chrome, neither the busy image appear nor the check button hides rather the check button remained pressed as the whole thing has hanged. The available and not available messages appear correctly though. Below is the code: HTML in a User Control (ascx): (i have replaced the angular braces with square below) [div id="available"]This Username is Available [div id="not_available"]This Username is not available [input id="txtUsername" name="txtUsername" type="text" size="50" /]  [button id="check" name="check" type="button"]Check Availability[/button] [img id="busy" src="/Content/Images/busy.gif" /] On the top of this user control, I am linking an external javascript file that has the following code: $(document).ready(function() { $('img#busy').hide(); $('div#available').hide(); $('div#not_available').hide(); $("button#check").click(function() { var available = checkUsername($("input#txtUsername").val()); if (available == "1") { $("div#available").show(); $("div#not_available").hide(); } else { $("div#available").hide(); $("div#not_available").show(); } }); }); function checkUsername(username) { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "/SomeController/SomeAction", data: { "id": username }, timeout: 3000, async: false, beforeSend: function() { $("button#check").hide(); $("img#busy").show(); }, complete: function() { $("button#check").show(); $("img#busy").hide(); }, cache: false, success: function(result) { return result; }, error: function(error) { $("img#busy").hide(); $("button#check").show(); alert("Some problems have occured. Please try again later: " + error); } }); }

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• Ajax comments form in ASP.NET MVC2, howto?

  - by Artiom Chilaru

  I've been playing around with different aspects of MVC for some time now, and I've reached a situation where I'm not sure what would be the best way to solve a problem. I'm hoping that the SO community will help me out here :P I've seen a number of examples of Ajax.BeginForm on the internet, and it seems like a very nifty idea. E.g. you have a dropdown where you select a customer - and on selecting one it will load this client's details in some placeholder on the page. This works perfectly fine. But what to do if you want to tie in some validation in the box? Just hypothetically, imagine an article page, and user comments in the bottom. Below the comments area there's an ajax-y "Add comment" box. When a user adds a comment, it will appear in the comments area, below the last comment there. If I set the Ajax.BeginForm to Append the result of the call to the Comments area, it will work fine. But what if the data posted is not valid? Instead of appending a "successful" comment to the comments area I have to show the user validation errors. At this point I decided that the area INSIDE the Ajax.BeginForm will be inside a partial, and the form's submits will return this partial. Validation works fine. On each submit we reload the contents inside the form element. But how to add the successful comment to the top? Other things to consider: The comment form also has a "Preview" button. When the user clicks on Preview, I should load the rendered comment into a preview box. This will probably be inside the form area as well. I was thinking of using Json results instead. When the user submits the form, the server code will generate a Json object with a Success value, and html rendered partials as some properties. Something like { "success": true, "form": "<html form data>", "comment": "successful comment html to inject into the page" } This would be a perfect solution, except there's no way in MVC to render a partial into a string, inside the controller (separation of context, remember?). So.. what should I do then? Any "correct" way to implement this? Anyone???

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• JSF Navigation issue Facelets and Beans

  - by ortho

  Hi, I have an issue with navigation in my simple jsf system. I have MainBean that has two methods: public String register() and public String login(). I have played with faces-config.xml for several hours and I feel like I miss something very important because I think like I have tried all simple solutions so far :). I have added the mysql connector (jdbc) to Tomcat's lib folder and I am able to register the table to mySQL databse. It even allows my users to log in to the page. The only problem is that I can't use navigation in any other page than login.xhtml. Seems like navigation is only active on this one. I tried to use * but is no joy. I am sure that there is a simple fix for that and someone will come up with correct solution soon. Let's skip all the mysql part and try to fix the navigation issue please. faces-config.xml: http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/javaee/web-facesconfig_1_2.xsd" version="1.2" com.sun.facelets.FaceletViewHandler mainBean dk.itu.beans.MainBean session registerBean dk.itu.beans.RegisterBean session /login.xhtml success /welcome.xhtml failure /login_failed.xhtml sign /register.xhtml /login_failed.xhtml back /login.xhtml Here the last navigation-rule from login_failed.xhtml does not work at all. login.xhtml (which is the main - starting view): login_failed.xhtml: Here I tried many options. I used action="#{mainBean.register})" method that returns "sign" string and none of these worked. There is one more file (not specified in faces-config.xml file, because did not work either - but going from login.xhtml by button works fine. I tried to manage navigation from login_failed.xhtml first, then I will apply the same rool for registration to come back to login page when customer registers his nick name). register.xhtml: Basicaly mainBean.register now calls the database and returns string, but obviously it doesn't navigate to any view (but gives an entry to database). I believe it is simple fix for most of the experienced web developers and any help will be greately appreciated. I use eclipse, tomcat 6 and Widows Vista if that helps :) Thank you in advance. Kindest regards.

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• XSLT: Splitting none continues Elements/Grouping continues Elements

  - by Gerald

  Hi! Need some help with this problem in implementing with Xslt, I had already implemented a java code of this one using sax parser but it is a troublesome due to customer request to change something... so we are doing it now using an XSLT with don't need to be compiled and deployed to a web server. I have an xml like the one below Example 1: <ShotRows> <ShotRow row="3" col="3" bit="1" position="1"/> <ShotRow row="3" col="4" bit="1" position="2"/> <ShotRow row="3" col="5" bit="1" position="3"/> <ShotRow row="3" col="6" bit="1" position="4"/> <ShotRow row="3" col="7" bit="1" position="5"/> <ShotRow row="3" col="8" bit="1" position="6"/> <ShotRow row="3" col="9" bit="1" position="7"/> <ShotRow row="3" col="10" bit="1" position="8"/> <ShotRow row="3" col="11" bit="1" position="9"/> </ShotRows> Output 1: <ShotRows> <ShotRow row="3" colStart="3" colEnd="11" /> </ShotRows> -- Be cause the col is continues from 3 to 11 Example 2: <ShotRows> <ShotRow row="3" col="3" bit="1" position="1"/> <ShotRow row="3" col="4" bit="1" position="2"/> <ShotRow row="3" col="6" bit="1" position="3"/> <ShotRow row="3" col="7" bit="1" position="4"/> <ShotRow row="3" col="8" bit="1" position="5"/> <ShotRow row="3" col="10" bit="1" position="6"/> <ShotRow row="3" col="11" bit="1" position="7"/> <ShotRow row="3" col="15" bit="1" position="8"/> <ShotRow row="3" col="19" bit="1" position="9"/> </ShotRows> Output 2: <ShotRows> <ShotRow row="3" colStart="3" colEnd="4" /> <ShotRow row="3" colStart="6" colEnd="8" /> <ShotRow row="3" colStart="10" colEnd="11" /> <ShotRow row="3" colStart="15" colEnd="15" /> <ShotRow row="3" colStart="19" colEnd="19" /> </ShotRows> -- Basic idea is to group any continues col into one element, like the col 3 to 4, col 6 to 8, col 10 to 11, col 15 is only one, and col 19 is only one. Thanks in advance. Sincerely, Gerald

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