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  • Peoplesoft queries - performance

    - by DBa
    Hi, I'm facing a problem with PeopleSoft queries (using Oracle backend database): when a rather complex query involving multiple records is set off by a user, PS does an enforced join of security records, thus producing SQL like this: select .... from ps_job a, PS_EMPL_SRCQRY a1, ps_table2 b, ps_sec_rcd2 b1, ps_table3 c, ps_sec_rcd3 c1 where (...security joins a-a1, b-b1, c-c1...) and (...joins of a, b and c...) and a.setid_dept = 'XYZ'; (let's assume the last condition has a high selectivity and there is an index on the column) Obviously, due to the arrangement of the conditions, first a huge join is created, written to the temp segment, and when the last condition is finally applied, only a small subset is selected. A query formulated in this way is very likely to hit the preset timeout of the APPSRV, and even of the QRYSRV. When writing the query manually, I would rather move the most selective condition to the start, thus limiting the amount of the data being handled, to a considerable level. Any ideas on how to make PS behave like this? Actually, already rewriting "Oracle-styled" SQL to ANSI SQL seems to accelerate the queries - however, PS writes Oracle-style queries... Thanks in advance DBa

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  • Devise password reset issue (new_user?)

    - by rabid_zombie
    When a user's email is inputted into the forgot password form and submitted, I am receiving an error saying login can't be blank. I looked around devise.en.yml for this error message, but can't seem to find it anywhere. Here is my views/devise/passwords/new.html.haml: %div.registration_page %h2 Forgot your password? = form_for(resource, :as => resource_name, :url => user_password_path, :html => { :method => :post, :id => 'forgot_pw_form', :class => 'forgot_pw' }) do |f| %div = f.email_field :email, :placeholder => 'Email', :autofocus => true, :autocomplete => 'off' %div.email_error.error %input.btn.btn-success{:type => 'submit', :value => 'Send Instructions'} = render "devise/shared/links" The form is posting to users/password like it should, but I noticed that my forgot password form attaches class = 'new_user'. Here is what my form displays: <form accept-charset='UTF-8' action='/users/password' class='new_user' id='forgot_pw_form' method='post' novalidate='novalidate'></form> My routes for devise (I have custom sessions and registrations controllers): devise_for :users, :controllers => {:sessions => 'sessions', :registrations => 'registrations'} How can I setup devise's forgot password functionality? Why am I receiving this error message and why is that class being added there? I've tried: Adding my own passwords controller and adding new routes for my custom controller. Same error Adding my own class and id to the form. This successfully changes the id and class of the form, but reverts back to class and id of new_user Thanks.

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  • Error logging/handling on application basis?

    - by Industrial
    Hi everybody, We have a web server that we're about to launch a number of applications on. On the server-level we have managed to work out the error handling with the help of Hyperic to notify the person who is in charge in the event of a database/memcached server is going down. However, we are still in the need of handling those eventual error and log events that happen on application level to improve the applications for our customers, before the customers notices. So, what's then a good solution to do this? Utilizing PHP:s own error log would quickly become cloggered if we would run a big number of applications at the same time. It's probably isn't the best option if you like structure. One idea is to build a off-site lightweight error-handling application that has a REST/JSON API that receives encrypted and serialized arrays of error messages and stores them into a database. Maybe it could, depending on the severity of the error also be directly inputted into our bug tracker. Could be a few well spent hours, but it seems like a quite fragile solution and I am sure that there's better more-reliable alternatives out there already. Thanks,

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  • Chat app vs REST app - use a thread in an Activity or a thread in a Service?

    - by synic
    In Virgil Dobjanschi's talk, "Developing Android REST client applications" (link here), he said a few things that took me by surprise. Including: Don't run http queries in threads spawned by your activities. Instead, communicate with a service to do them, and store the information in a ContentProvider. Use a ContentObserver to be notified of changes. Always perform long running tasks in a Service, never in your Activity. Stop your Service when you're done with it. I understand that he was talking about a REST API, but I'm trying to make it fit with some other ideas I've had for apps. One of APIs I've been using uses long-polling for their chat interface. There is a loop http queries, most of which will time out. This means that, as long as the app hasn't been killed by the OS, or the user hasn't specifically turned off the chat feature, I'll never be done with the Service, and it will stay open forever. This seems less than optimal. Long question short: For a chat application that uses long polling to simulate push and immediate response, is it still best practice to use a Service to perform the HTTP queries, and store the information in a ContentProvider?

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  • Querying using table-valued parameter

    - by antmx
    I need help please with writing a sproc, it takes a table-valued parameter @Locations, whose Type is defined as follows: CREATE TYPE [dbo].[tvpLocation] AS TABLE( [CountryId] [int] NULL, [ResortName] [nvarchar](100) NULL, [Ordinal] [int] NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [Ordinal] ASC )WITH (IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF) ) @Locations will contain at least 1 row. Each row WILL have a non-null CountryId, and MAY have a non-null ResortName. Each row will have a unique Ordinal, the first being 0. The combinations of CountryId and ResortName in @Locations will be unique. The sproc needs to search against the following table structure. The image can be seen better by right-clicking it and View Image, or similar depending on your browser. Now this is where I'm stuck, the sproc should be able to find Tours where: The Tour's 1st TourHotel (Ordinal 0) has the same CountryId (and ResortName if specified) of the 1st row of @Locations (Ordinal 0). And also if @Locations has 1 row, the Tour must have additional TourHotels, ALL of which must be in the remaining CountryIds (and ResortNames if specified) of these remaining @Locations rows. Edit This is the code I finally used, based on Anthony Faull's suggestion. Thank you so much Anthony: select distinct T.Id from tblTour T join tblTourHotel TH on TH.TourId = T.Id join tblHotel H ON H.Id = TH.HotelId JOIN @Locations L ON ( ( L.Ordinal = 0 AND TH.Ordinal = 0 ) OR ( L.Ordinal > 0 AND TH.Ordinal > 0 ) ) AND L.CountryId = H.CountryId AND ( L.ResortName = H.ResortName OR L.ResortName IS NULL ) cross apply( select COUNT(TH2.Id) AS [Count] FROM tblTourHotel TH2 where TH2.TourId = TH.TourId ) TourHotelCount where TourHotelCount.[Count] = @LocationCount group by T.Id, T.TourRef, T.Description, T.DepartureDate, T.NumNights, T.DepartureAirportId, T.DestinationAirportId, T.AirlineId, T.FEPrice having COUNT(distinct TH.Id) = @LocationCount

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  • Laravel4: Checking many-to-many relationship attribute even when it does not exist

    - by Simo A.
    This is my first time with Laravel and also Stackoverflow... I am developing a simple course management system. The main objects are User and Course, with a many-to-many relationship between them. The pivot table has an additional attribute, participant_role, which defines whether the user is a student or an instructor within that particular course. class Course extends Eloquent { public function users() { return $this->belongsToMany('User')->withPivot('participant_role')->withTimestamps(); } } However, there is an additional role, system admin, which can be defined on the User object. And this brings me mucho headache. In my blade view I have the following: @if ($course->pivot->participant_role == 'instructor') { // do something here... } This works fine when the user has been assigned to that particular $course and there is an entry for this user-course combination in the pivot table. However, the problem is the system administrator, who also should be able to access course details. The if-clause above gives Trying to get property of non-object error, apparently because there is no entry in the pivot table for system administrator (as the role is defined within the User object). I could probably solve the problem by using some off-the-shelf bundle for handling role-based permissions. Or I could (but don't want to) do something like this with two internal if-clauses: if (!empty($course->pivot)) { if ($course->pivot->participant_role == 'instructor') { // do something... } } Other options (suggested in partially similar entries in Stackoverflow) would include 1) reading all the pivot table entries to an array, and use in_array to check if a role exists, or even 2) SQL left join to do this on database level. However, ultimately I am looking for a compact one-line solution? Can I do anything similar to this, which unfortunately does not seem to work? if (! empty ($course->pivot->participant_role == 'instructor') ) { // do something... } The shorter the answer, the better :-). Thanks a lot!

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  • Sharepoint 2010 start workflow programmatically error

    - by user522429
    I have a workflow associated with a content type. I try to kick it off from code from within the event receiver on the same content type, so when an item is updated, if there is a certain condition (status = ready for review) I start it. //This line does find the workflow association var assoc = properties.Web.ContentTypes["Experiment Document Set"].WorkflowAssociations.GetAssociationByName("Experiment Review Workflow", ultureInfo.CurrentUICulture); //I had tried to use this line from something I found online, but it would return null //var assoc = properties.Web.WorkflowAssociations.GetAssociationByName("Experiment Review Workflow", CultureInfo.CurrentUICulture); var result = properties.Web.Site.WorkflowManager.StartWorkflow(properties.ListItem, assoc, string.Empty, SPWorkflowRunOptions.Synchronous); //The line above gives me this error: System.ArgumentException: Workflow failed to start because the workflow is associated with a content type that does not exist in a list. Before re-starting the workflow, the content type must be added to the list. To check this, I was looking at the content type of the list item being updated and it is correct properties.ListItem.ContentType.Name "Experiment Document Set" So basically I have a workfow associated with the content type "Experiment Document Set". When I try to start a workflow from an event receiver in "Experiment Document Set", I get an error saying the content type "Experiment Document Set" does not exist in the list which doesn't make sense.

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  • Facebook / Offline Permission - Trying to perform an action on a set of offline users.

    - by blueigloo
    Hi there, We're building an app which in part of its functionality tries to capture the number of likes associated to a particular video owned by a user. Users of the app are asked for extended off-line access and we capture the key for each user: The format is like this: 2.hg2QQuYeftuHx1R84J1oGg__.XXXX.1272394800-nnnnnn Each user has their offline / infinite key stored in a table in a DB. The object_id which we're interested in is also stored in the DB. At a later stage (offline) we try to run a batch job which reads the number of likes for each user's video. (See attached code) For some reason however, after the first iteration of the loop - which yields the likes correctly, we get a failure with the oh so familiar message: "Session key is invalid or no longer valid" Any insight would be most appreciated. Thanks, B List<DVideo> videoList = db.SelectVideos(); foreach (DVideo video in videoList) { long userId = 0; ConnectSession fbSession = new ConnectSession(APPLICATION_KEY, SECRET_KEY); //session key is attached to the video object for now. fbSession.SessionKey = video.UserSessionKey; fbSession.SessionExpires = false; string fbuid =video.FBUID; long.TryParse(fbuid, out userId); if (userId > 0) { fbSession.UserId = userId; fbSession.Login(); Api fbApi = new Facebook.Rest.Api(fbSession); string xmlQueryResult = fbApi.Fql.Query("SELECT user_id FROM like WHERE object_id = " + video.FBVID); XmlDocument xmlDoc = new XmlDocument(); xmlDoc.Load(new StringReader(xmlQueryResult)); int likesCount = xmlDoc.GetElementsByTagName("user_id").Count; //Write entry in VideoWallLikes if (likesCount > 0) { db.CountWallLikes(video.ID, likesCount); } fbSession.Logout(); } fbSession = null; }

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  • Alignment for image display on hover works only in IE7?

    - by Ram
    Hello, I tried to display a image when a mouseover on text occurs. It works fine. And the alignment of the image should be shown such that the end of the image should be at the container. It works fine with the code shown below, Only in IE7. In everything, it gets chopped off.. What is wrong here? <td valign="middle" class="table_td td" style="width: 347px"> <span class="feature_text" style="cursor:pointer" onmouseover="ShowPicture('Style16',1)" onmouseout="ShowPicture('Style16',0)" id="a16"> Storefront Window Decal</span> <div id="Style16" style="position:relative;height:0px;left:50%;bottom:700%; visibility:hidden; border:solid 0px #CCC; padding:5px"> <img src="images/window-decal-image.gif"></div> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> function ShowPicture(id,Source) { var vis, elem; if (1 == Source) { vis = "visible"; } else if (0 == Source) { vis = "hidden"; } else { throw new RangeError("Unknown Flag"); } if (elem = document.getElementById(id)) { elem.style.visibility = vis; } else { throw new TypeError("Element with id '"+id+"' does not exist."); } return vis; } </script> Can someone help me out. Thanks in advance!!

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  • Django Save Incomplete Progress on Form

    - by jimbob
    I have a django webapp with multiple users logging in and fill in a form. Some users may start filling in a form and lack some required data (e.g., a grant #) needed to validate the form (and before we can start working on it). I want them to be able to fill out the form and have an option to save the partial info (so another day they can log back in and complete it) or submit the full info undergoing validation. Currently I'm using ModelForm for all the forms I use, and the Model has constraints to ensure valid data (e.g., the grant # has to be unique). However, I want them to be able to save this intermediary data without undergoing any validation. The solution I've thought of seems rather inelegant and un-django-ey: create a "Save Partial Form" button that saves the POST dictionary converts it to a shelf file and create a "SavedPartialForm" model connecting the user to partial forms saved in the shelf. Does this seem sensible? Is there a better way to save the POST dict directly into the db? Or is an add-on module that does this partial-save of a form (which seems to be a fairly common activity with webforms)? My biggest concern with my method is I want to eventually be able to do this form-autosave automatically (say every 10 minutes) in some ajax/jquery method without actually pressing a button and sending the POST request (e.g., so the user isn't redirected off the page when autosave is triggered). I'm not that familiar with jquery and am wondering if it would be possible to do this.

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  • How do I form a Rails link_to with custom field value as parameter

    - by rwheadon
    I have an invoice form where I'm giving the user opportunity to apply coupons to the invoice total. These coupons are held in another Model and I am going to do a lookup on the Coupon code (something like "20OFFONFRIDAY") which I will use to find what the restrictions and benefits of the coupon. (and to see if it even exists at all) The invoice does not have "coupon_code" on it so I hand forged the field onto my form with html: <% if (@invoice.status == 'new') %> <input id="coupon_code" name="coupon_code" type="text"/> <% end %> and I am calling a controller method with link_to and would like something like the following jquery enhanced link_to to work: <%= link_to "Apply Coupon", { :controller=>"invoices", :id=>@invoice.id, :coupon_code=>$('.coupon_code').val(), :action=>"apply_coupon_code" }, :method=>"post" %> ^formatted for easier reading Then inside my "apply_coupon_code" method I will go off to a couple other models and perform business logic before returning the updated invoice page. ...but maybe it's a pipe dream. I guess if push came to shove I could add the "coupon_code" field to my invoice model (even though it's persisted elsewhere.) so it's part of the entity and thus easily available on my form to send back into a controller, but I just hate adding a column to make a coupon validation easier. I figured I'd ping stackoverflow before taking that path.

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  • How to make 2 incompatible types, but with the same members, interchangeable?

    - by Quigrim
    Yesterday 2 of the guys on our team came to me with an uncommon problem. We are using a third-party component in one of our winforms applications. All the code has already been written against it. They then wanted to incorporate another third-party component, by the same vender, into our application. To their delight they found that the second component had the exact same public members as the first. But to their dismay, the 2 components have completely separate inheritance hierarchies, and implement no common interfaces. Makes you wonder... Well, makes me wonder. An example of the problem: public class ThirdPartyClass1 { public string Name { get { return "ThirdPartyClass1"; } } public void DoThirdPartyStuff () { Console.WriteLine ("ThirdPartyClass1 is doing its thing."); } } public class ThirdPartyClass2 { public string Name { get { return "ThirdPartyClass2"; } } public void DoThirdPartyStuff () { Console.WriteLine ("ThirdPartyClass2 is doing its thing."); } } Gladly they felt copying and pasting the code they wrote for the first component was not the correct answer. So they were thinking of assigning the component instant into an object reference and then modifying the code to do conditional casts after checking what type it was. But that is arguably even uglier than the copy and paste approach. So they then asked me if I can write some reflection code to access the properties and call the methods off the two different object types since we know what they are, and they are exactly the same. But my first thought was that there goes the elegance. I figure there has to be a better, graceful solution to this problem.

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  • Collision Detection (Ground & Slopes) in 2D Platform Game using Pygame Rects

    - by RedCap
    Hi, First off, I am not after any instructions on logic for collision detection; I get it. What I am trying to work out is the least complicated way to do this with Pygame using Sprites & Rects. I want to be able to check collisions for the Player against ground, walls & slopes. In theory it is quite straight forward, but I'm having difficulty because it seems like you cannot do this with one Rect. One Rect is simple enough to get you collisions in the X plane against walls. The same Rect could be used also be used in the Y plane against solids, but not with slopes - since with the collision routines in Pygame it checks the whole Rect (or mask), rather than perhaps just the bottom middle of the Rect. It seems in addition you need to have a number of "sprites" to check collisions with, that are 1x1 pixel in various places around the Player. What's the easiest way to do this, without having a bunch of 3, 4, or more separate "collision pixels" to check against slopes? Geoff

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  • Jquery - removing an image before the client browser attempts to download it

    - by ajbrun
    Hi there, I wonder if anyone could help me with a problem I've been having. I have a number of large images available, but due to space limitations, I can't create multiple copies of these at various sizes. I have used PHP GD functions to resize the images to the sizes I need and output them to the browser. This works, but obviously takes some processing time, which therefore impacts pages load times. I'm fine with this, but I only want to show the image once it's fully loaded, and have a loading gif in its place until that time. I'm using jquery to do this. The problem I'm having is making the page functional whether the client has javascript enabled or not. If JS is not enabled, I want standard img tags to be outputted, otherwise the images are removed and replaced with a loading gif until they have been fully loaded. The link below shows a simple non-javascript unfriendly example of a what I want to do (try turning JS off): http://jqueryfordesigners.com/demo/image-load-demo.php I've been testing the basics using the code below. The attr() function will be replaced with something like remove(). This is just a test to make something happen to the image before the browser tries to load it. $(document).ready(function() { $( "#Thumbnails .thumbnail img" ).attr('src', '#'); }); In IE, this works correctly - the image source is replaced with "#" BEFORE the client browser gets a chance to start downloading the image. In firefox however, it downloads the image, and THEN changes the source. It seems to me that firefox is loading the jquery onready event later than it should. As far as I know, this should be executed before the standard onload event and before anything has started loading. If it helps, I'm testing it with a good number of images on screen (81). Am I doing something wrong?

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  • Firefox "intelligently" and silently fixes incorrect file references in CSS and Scripts at runtime.

    - by bobsoap
    Well this is a really weird issue, I really didn't find anything on this elsewhere so I thought I'd address it here. Say I have an "image.jpg" and accidentally reference it in the CSS like so: url(imag.jpg) Note the missing "e". Now for me, Firefox is so incredibly clever that it will still find the correct image, but NOT SPIT OUT A WARNING. So I assume that everything is ok. But later, when I test the page in any other browser, all of a sudden the image doesn't display (and rightly so). That's because Firefox thought it was a good idea to correct my error without telling me. This becomes more critical with scripts. Firefox will also auto-correct a typo in a reference. I just wasted a whole hour scratching my head and trying to debug an ajax function in Webkit - turns out, I just had a typo where I included the file. Why on earth does Firefox do this without telling, and where the heck can I turn this off? This has first occured somewhere around FF 3.0 and still persists in 3.6.3. /rant an thank fo any inpu ;)

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  • How to override jquery's show() and hide() functions

    - by Max Williams
    hi all Short version of question: see title Long version of question: I've used jquery's show() and hide() functions extensively in my code and just encountered a bit of a problem: they work by changing the display attribute of the element to 'block' or 'none' respectively, so that if you have somethin that has display: inline and then hide and show it, you've changed its display to block, which screws up the layout in a couple of cases. In my code, whenever i want something to be hidden initially i give it a class 'hidden'. This class is simply {display: none}. I'd like the change show and hide to remove or add this class, instead of directly changing the display attribute, so that if you add the hidden class and then remove it again (ie hide and show something) then it's back to exactly how it was to start off with (since adding a class overrides the attributes rather than directly changing them). Something like this (this is a little pseucodey as i don't know how to set the function up properly - let's assume that 'this' is the object that show/hide was called on) function show(){ this.removeClass("hidden"); } function hide(){ this.addClass("hidden"); } how and where would i go about overriding the jquery methods? (I'm not a javascript expert) thanks - max

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  • Does the Eclipse editor have an equivalent of emacs's "align-regex"?

    - by rjray
    I've been using Eclipse pretty regularly for several years now, but I admit to not having explored all the esoterica it has to offer, particularly in the areas of what formatting features the editors offer. The main thing I miss from (X)emacs is the "align-regex" command, which let me take several lines into a region and then format them so that some common pattern in all lines was aligned. The simplest example of this is a series of variable assignments: var str = new String('aString'); var index = 0; var longCamelCaseObjectName = new LongNameObject(); After doing align-regex on "=", that would become: var str = new String('aString'); var index = 0; var longCamelCaseObjectName = new LongNameObject(); Now, you may have your own thoughts on stylistic (ab)use of white space and alignment, etc., but that's just an example (I'm actually trying to align a different kind of mess entirely). Can anyone tell me off-hand if there's an easy key-combo-shortcut for this in Eclipse? Or even a moderately-tricky one?

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  • Python - Access a class from a list using a key

    - by Fake Name
    Is there any way to make a list of classes behave like a set in python? Basically, I'm working on a piece of software that does some involved string comparison, and I have a custom class for handling the strings. Therefore, there is an instance of the class for each string. As a result, I have a large list containing all these classes. I would like to be able to access them like list[key], where in this case, the key is a string the class is based off of. It seems to me that I sould be able to do this somewhat easily, by adding something like __cmp__ to the class, but either I'm being obtuse (likely), or Im missing someting in the docs. Basically, I want to be able to do something like this (Python prompt example): >>class a: ... def __init__(self, x): ... self.var = x ... >>> from test import a >>> cl = set([a("Hello"), a("World"), a("Pie")]) >>> print cl set([<test.a instance at 0x00C866C0>, <test.a instance at 0x00C866E8>, <test.a instance at 0x00C86710>]) >>> cl["World"] <test.a instance at 0x00C866E8> Thanks!

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  • Doing a virus check on a file from a build script

    - by the_mandrill
    I would like to be be able to invoke a virus check as the final stage of the build process (please don't question why a dev machine would get a virus, it's just a belt-and-braces approach to avoid the risk of getting sued by customers...). Also I'd like the option of having AV on a machine but switching the auto file system protection off (at least for the build directories). What I would like is a generic way of scanning a file using whatever AV system is in place. I'm assuming that there's an Windows API to do this, given that Windows detects the presence of an AV system, and browsers such as Firefox invoke a virus scan whenever a file is downloaded. So what's the API that they're using? There's the Microsoft AntiVirus API but that seems to be specific to Office documents. Does the approach involve using WMI? (and if you can detect the AV provider from there, how do you then invoke it to scan a file?) I know that I could write the script to manually call the AV scanner that I know to be installed, but as an intellectual exercise I'm more interested to know how apps like Firefox are doing this.

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  • Getting document.getElementsByName from another page PHP/javascript

    - by DarkN3ss
    so i have been looking around on how to do this but with no success. Im trying to get the value of the name test from an external website <input type="hidden" name="test" value="ThisIsAValue" /> But so far i have only found how to get the value of that with an ID <input type="hidden" id="test" name="test" value="ThisIsAValue" autocomplete="off" /> but I need to try find it without a ID is my problem. And this is an example on how to get it from the ID <?php $doc = new DomDocument; $doc->validateOnParse = true; $doc->loadHtml(file_get_contents('http://example.com/bla.php')); var_dump($doc->getElementById('test')); ?> And i have found how to get it from name and NOT ID on the same page <script> function getElements() { var test = document.getElementsByName("test")[0].value; alert(test); } </script> But again I dont know how to get the value of it by name from an external page eg "http://example.com/bla.php", any help? Thanks

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  • Summary statistics in visual basic

    - by ben
    Below I am trying to write a script the goal of which is to calculate some summary statistics for a few different columns of numbers. I have gotten some help on it up to the "Need help below" mark. But beyond that I am flabergasted as to how to calculate the simple stats (sum, mean, standard deviation, coefficient of variation). I know VB has scripts for these stats, which I have included in my code, but I guess I need to do some extra declaring or something. Advice much appreciated. Thanks. Sub TOAinput() Const n As Integer = 648 Dim stratum(n), hybrid(n), acres(n), hhsz(n), offinc(n) Dim s1 As Integer Dim s2 As Integer Dim i As Integer For i = 1 To n stratum(i) = Worksheets("hhid level").Cells(i + 1, 2).Value Next i s1 = 0 s2 = 0 For i = 1 To n If stratum(i) = 1 Then s1 = s1 + 1 Else: s2 = s2 + 1 End If Next i Dim acres1(), hhsz1(), offinc1(), acres2(), hhsz2(), offinc2() ReDim acres1(s1), hhsz1(s1), offinc1(s1), acres2(s2), hhsz2(s2), offinc2(s2) 'data infiles: acres, hh size, off-farm income, For i = 1 To n acres(i) = Worksheets("hhid level").Cells(i + 1, 4).Value hhsz(i) = Worksheets("hhid level").Cells(i + 1, 5).Value offinc(i) = Worksheets("hhid level").Cells(i + 1, 6).Value Next i s1 = 0 s2 = 0 For i = 1 To n If stratum(i) = 1 Then s1 = s1 + 1 acres1(s1) = acres(i) hhsz1(s1) = hhsz(i) offinc1(s1) = offinc(i) Else: s2 = s2 + 1 acres2(s2) = acres(i) hhsz2(s2) = hhsz(i) offinc2(s2) = offinc(i) End If Next i '**************************** 'Need help below '**************************** Dim sumac1, sumac2, mhhsz1, mhhsz2, cvhhsz1, cvhhsz2 sumac1 = Sum(acres1) sumac2 = Sum(acres2) mhhsz1 = Average(hhsz1) mhhsz2 = Average(hhsz2) cvhhsz1 = StDev(hhsz1) / Average(hhsz1) cvhhsz2 = StDev(hhsz2) / Average(hhsz2) End Sub

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  • What are good examples of perfectly acceptable approaches to development that are NOT test driven development (TDD)?

    - by markbruns
    The TDD cycle is test, code, refactor, (repeat) and then ship. TDD implies development that is driven by testing, specifically that means understanding requirements and then writing tests first before developing or writing code. My natural inclination is a philosophical bias in favor of TDD; I would like to be convinced that there are other approaches that now work well or even better than TDD so I have asked this question. What are examples of perfectly acceptable approaches that NOT test driven development? I can think of plenty approaches that are not TDD but could be a lot more trouble than what they are worth ... it's not moral judgement, it's just that they are cost more than they are worth ... the following are simply examples of things that might be ok as learning exercises, but approaches I'd find to be NOT acceptable in serious production and NOT TDD might include: Inspecting quality into your product -- Focusing efforts on developing a proficiency in testing/QA can be problematic, especially if you don't work on the requirements and development side first ... symptom of this include bug triaging where the developers have so many different bugs to deal with it, it is necessary to employ a form of triage -- each development cycle gets worse and worse, programmers work more and more hours, sleep less and less, struggle to keep going in death march until they are consumed. Superstition ... believing in things that you don't understand -- this would involve borrowing code that you believe has been proven or tested from somewhere, e.g. legacy code, a magic code starter wizard or an open source project, and you go forward hacking up a storm of modifications, sliding FaceBook Connect into your the user interface, inventing some new magic features on the fly (e.g. a mashup using the Twitter API, GoogleMaps API and maybe Zappos API), showing off your cool new "product" to a few people and then writing up a simple "specification" and list of "test cases" and turning that over to Mechanical Turk for testing.

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  • View Controller Question

    - by user341444
    First off I'm new at programming. I'm creating an app with one navigation bar controller. The app is pretty basic except for a quiz section that is comprised of 12 xibs. As the users takes the quiz a new xib is pushed onto the stack. I want to create a button that takes the user back to the home screen if they do not want to complete the quiz. The back button takes them to the previous xib which could be 11 deep. Is it possible to dismiss the modal views and reload the rootView controller? Here's the code from my delegate @synthesize window; @synthesize navigationController; (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application { // Override point for customization after application launch [window addSubview:[navigationController view]]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; } (void)dealloc { [window release]; [navigationController release]; [super dealloc]; } This is how I'm pushing new xibs onto the stack (IBAction) showTesting: (id)sender { Testing *varTesting = [[[Testing alloc] initWithNibName:@"Testing" bundle:nil] autorelease]; [[self navigationController] pushViewController:varTesting animated: YES]; } Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks

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  • UIViewController maintains state after being nilled

    - by Eric
    In my app, I made a BookViewController class that displays and animates the pages of a book and a MainMenuViewController class that displays a set of books the user can read. In the latter class, when the user taps on one of the books, a function is called that should create a completely new instance of BookViewController, but for some reason the instance maintains its state (i.e. it resumes from the page the user left off). How can this be if I set it to nil? What am I missing here? (Note that I'm using ARC). MainMenuViewController.m @interface MainMenuViewController () @property (strong) BookViewController *bookViewController; @end @implementation MainMenuViewController @synthesize bookViewController; -(void)bookTapped:(UIButton *)sender{ NSString *bookTitle; if(sender == book1button) bookTitle = @"book1"; else if(sender == book2button) bookTitle = @"book2"; bookViewController = nil; bookViewController = [[BookViewController alloc] initWithBookTitle:bookTitle]; [self presentViewController:bookViewController animated:YES completion:nil]; } BookViewController.h @interface BookViewController : UIViewController -(id)initWithBookTitle:(NSString *)bookTitle; @end BookViewController.m @implementation BookViewController -(id)initWithBookTitle:(NSString *)theBookTitle{ self = [super init]; if(self){ bookTitle = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@", theBookTitle]; [self setModalTransitionStyle:UIModalTransitionStyleCrossDissolve]; NSLog(@"init a BookViewController with bookTitle: %@", bookTitle); } return self; } Every time a book is tapped, bookTapped: is called, and thee console always prints: 2012-08-31 16:29:51.750 AppName[25713:c07] init a BookViewController with bookTitle: book1 So if a new instance of BookViewController is being created, how come it seems to be returning the old one?

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  • Is there a maximum number of input controls that can be used on an HTML form?

    - by Rich
    I have an ambitious requirement for an asp.net 2.0 web page that contains a table (gridview), and each row in the grid contains 6 select (dropdown) controls for data entry. The number of rows that will be displayed is dependent upon the user's search parameters, which are specified in another area of the page. Unfortunately, with the default (and even basic) search parameters specified, the grid could contain several hundred rows. I've noticed that the browser, in this case IE8, starts behaving rather erratically once I reach a large number of rows -- no documented evidence for the number of rows where this begins to be a problem. For example, trying to view the source of the page results in a message from IE stating that there was a problem with the page that forced the browser to reload it, and I never get the source. Obviously the page loads and renders rather slowly also. I know that my solution is probably going to involve paging the gridview such that it only displays 20 or so rows per page, and I'll have to write code to handle the saving of changes in the dropdown values when the user changes pages. I can probably turn off viewstate on the gridview also. However, the question I really want to pose is this -- has anyone seen a documented rule indicating the maximum number of input controls that an HTML browser form is supposed to be able to contain? I could not find anything on the Internet after doing a search, and I suspect the answer may be whatever the browser can handle based on the machine configuration it is running on. Any rules of thumb you use? Thanks for any suggestions. Rich

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