Search Results

Search found 16208 results on 649 pages for 'pass community'.

Page 560/649 | < Previous Page | 556 557 558 559 560 561 562 563 564 565 566 567  | Next Page >

• Observer Design Pattern - multiple event types

  - by David

  I'm currently implementing the Observer design pattern and using it to handle adding items to the session, create error logs and write messages out to the user giving feedback on their actions (e.g. You've just logged out!). I began with a single method on the subject called addEvent() but as I added more Observers I found that the parameters required to detail all the information I needed for each listener began to grow. I now have 3 methods called addMessage(), addStorage() and addLog(). These add data into an events array that has a key related to the event type (e.g. log, message, storage) but I'm starting to feel that now the subject needs to know too much about the listeners that are attached. My alternative thought is to go back to addEvent() and pass an event type (e.g. USER_LOGOUT) along with the data associated and each Observer maintains it's own list of event handles it is looking for (possibly in a switch statement), but this feels cumbersome. Also, I'd need to check that sufficient data had also been passed along with the event type. What is the correct way of doing this? Please let me know if I can explain any parts of this further. I hope you can help and see the problem I'm battling with.

  Read the article

• SWIG interface to receive an opaque struct reference in Java through function argument

  - by Beeo

  I am trying to use SWIG in order to use the Spotify API (libspotify) for Android: https://developer.spotify.com/technologies/libspotify/ I am having trouble defining the SWIG interface file to be able to successfully call the following native C function: sp_error sp_session_create(const sp_session_config * config, sp_session ** sess); Which in C would be called like this: //config struct defined previously sp_session *sess; sp_session_create(&config, &sess); But in Java I would need to call it like this: //config object defined previously sp_session javaSess = new sp_session(); sp_session_create(config, javaSess); sp_session is an opaque struct and is only defined in libspotify's API.h file as: typedef struct sp_session sp_session; I'm expecting the libspotify library to create it and give me a reference to it. The only thing I need that reference for then is to pass to other functions in the API. I believe the answer lies within the SWIG interface and typemaps, but I have been unsuccessful in trying to apply the examples I found in the documentation: http://www.swig.org/Doc2.0/SWIGDocumentation.html#Java_struct_pointer_pointer `http://www.swig.org/Doc2.0/SWIGDocumentation.html#Java_using_typemaps_return_arguments Help!

  Read the article

• Python FTP grabbing and saving images issue

  - by PylonsN00b

  OK So I have been messing with this all day long. I am fairly new to Python FTP. So I have searched through here and came up w/ this: images = notions_ftp.nlst() for image_name in image_names: if found_url == False: try: for image in images: ftp_image_name = "./%s" % image_name if ftp_image_name == image: found_url = True image_name_we_want = image_name except: pass # We failed to find an image for this product, it will have to be done manually if found_url == False: log.info("Image ain't there baby -- SKU: %s" % sku) return False # Hey we found something! Open the image.... notions_ftp.retrlines("RETR %s" % image_name_we_want, open(image_name_we_want, "rb")) 1/0 So I have narrowed the error down to the line before I divide by zero. Here is the error: Traceback (most recent call last): File "<console>", line 6, in <module> File "<console>", line 39, in insert_image IOError: [Errno 2] No such file or directory: '411483CC-IT,IM.jpg' So if you follow the code you will see that the image IS in the directory because image_name_we_want is set if found in that directory listing on the first line of my code. And I KNOW it's there because I am looking at the FTP site myself and ...it's freakin there. So at some point during all of this I got the image to save locally, which is most desired, but I have long since forgot what I used to make it do that. Either way, why does it think that the image isn't there when it clearly finds it in the listing.

  Read the article

• urllib2.Request() with data returns empty url

  - by Mr. Polywhirl

  My main concern is the function: getUrlAndHtml() If I manually build and append the query to the end of the uri, I can get the response.url(), but if I pass a dictionary as the request data, the url does not come back. Is there anyway to guarantee the redirected url? In my example below, if thisWorks = True I get back a url, but the returned url is the request url as opposed to a redirect link. On a sidenote, the encoding for .E2.80.93 does not translate to - for some reason? #!/usr/bin/python import pprint import urllib import urllib2 from bs4 import BeautifulSoup from sys import argv URL = 'http://en.wikipedia.org/w/index.php?' def yesOrNo(boolVal): return 'yes' if boolVal else 'no' def getTitleFromRaw(page): return page.strip().replace(' ', '_') def getUrlAndHtml(title, printable=False): thisWorks = False if thisWorks: query = 'title={:s}&printable={:s}'.format(title, yesOrNo(printable)) opener = urllib2.build_opener() opener.addheaders = [('User-agent', 'Mozilla/5.0')] response = opener.open(URL + query) else: params = {'title':title,'printable':yesOrNo(printable)} data = urllib.urlencode(params) headers = {'User-agent':'Mozilla/5.0'}; request = urllib2.Request(URL, data, headers) response = urllib2.urlopen(request) return response.geturl(), response.read() def getSoup(html, name=None, attrs=None): soup = BeautifulSoup(html) if name is None: return None return soup.find(name, attrs) def setTitle(soup, newTitle): title = soup.find('div', {'id':'toctitle'}) h2 = title.find('h2') h2.contents[0].replaceWith('{:s} for {:s}'.format(h2.getText(), newTitle)) def updateLinks(soup, url): fragment = '#' for a in soup.findAll('a', href=True): a['href'] = a['href'].replace(fragment, url + fragment) def writeToFile(soup, filename='out.html', indentLevel=2): with open(filename, 'wt') as out: pp = pprint.PrettyPrinter(indent=indentLevel, stream=out) pp.pprint(soup) print('Wrote {:s} successfully.'.format(filename)) if __name__ == '__main__': def exitPgrm(): print('usage: {:s} "<PAGE>" <FILE>'.format(argv[0])) exit(0) if len(argv) == 2: help = argv[1] if help == '-h' or help == '--help': exitPgrm() if False:''' if not len(argv) == 3: exitPgrm() ''' page = 'Led Zeppelin' # argv[1] filename = 'test.html' # argv[2] title = getTitleFromRaw(page) url, html = getUrlAndHtml(title) soup = getSoup(html, 'div', {'id':'toc'}) setTitle(soup, page) updateLinks(soup, url) writeToFile(soup, filename)

  Read the article

• How should I configure grub for booting linux kernel from a USB hard drive?

  - by skolima

  I have a laptop hard drive in an external enclosure which I use as a large pendrive. For an added twist, I have installed Linux on it, so I can boot any machine with my distribution of choice (e.g. for data recovery or repairing a b0rked system or just using a borrowed laptop without destroying the preinstalled Windows). The problem is that, depending on the hardware configuration, the USB hard drive may be visible under different paths. For grub configuration I just use (hda0,0) as it is relative to the device the grub was launched from. I have UUID entries in /etc/fstab. I also specify rootwait in the kernel parameters so that it waits for the USB subsystem to settle down before trying to mount the device. What should I pass to the kernel as root= ? Currently boot from the pendrive once, check the debug messages to see what /dev/sdX device has been assigned to the USB drive by the kernel, then reboot and edit the grub configuration. I can't change anything on the PC besides enabling Boot from USB hard drive in BIOS and setting it to higher priority than internal hard drives. There are various initrd generating scripts which include support for UUID in root device path, unfortunately the Gentoo native one (genkernel) does not support rootwait and I had no luck trying to use others. The boot process goes like this (it is quite similar in Windows): The BIOS chooses the boot device and loads whatever is its MBR (which happens to be grub stage-1). Grub loads it's configuration and stage-2 files from device it has set as root, using (hd0) for the device it was loaded from by BIOS. Grub loads and starts a kernel (still the same numbering, so I can use (hd0,0) again ). Kernel initializes all built-in devices (rootwait does it's magic now). Kernel mounts the partition it was passed as root (this is a kernel parameter, not grub parameter). init.d starts the userland booting process, including mounting things from /etc/fstab. Part 5 is the one giving me problems.

  Read the article

• Best way to transfer an Entity Framework object over the web and back via JSON

  - by AVH

  I've got some MVC code that serializes an EF 3.5 object into an anonymous type for return as a JSON result to an AJAX call on my page. The hurdle I have is that when I send the object back to the server via JSON, (and let the ModelBinder deserialize it for me into my EF type), I have to update it in my Entity Framework context manually. Or at least that's what I'm doing now. It has no EntityKey, so attaching it fails. I end up having to look up the old object and update it property by property. Any ideas around this? Is the solution to pass the EntityKey around with my object? Here's what I have: public void Update(Album album) { using (var db = new BandSitesMasterEntities()) { var albumToUpdate = db.Album.First(x => x.ID == album.ID); albumToUpdate.AlbumTitle = album.AlbumTitle; albumToUpdate.Description = album.Description; albumToUpdate.ReleaseYear = album.ReleaseYear; albumToUpdate.ImageURL = album.ImageURL; albumToUpdate.OtherURL = album.OtherURL; db.SaveChanges(); } } And here's what I'd like to do, or something similar: public void Update(Album album) { using (var db = new BandSitesMasterEntities()) { db.Attach(album) db.SaveChanges(); } }

  Read the article

• adding a token onto a webservice or wcf call

  - by duncanUK

  I have an httphandler which I am using to log the http soap request and response for each webservice that is called from my application as a comms log. i would like to inject a token ont he 1st call (possibly the 1st call to invoke the service that is being logged) and then be able to track all subsequent webservice calls run in the same context with this token so i can tie the subsequent calls back up to the original call. so for example. main webservice -> 2nd web service -> another web service [token] [token] [token] -> nth web service [token] I would like to inject the token on the first call to the main webservice (http handler checks if no token, add it), I would like to use the same http handler to intercept each call to the subsequent webservices and pass on the token if it exists already (the job of the httphandler is to log the in/out soap with the token to reference with. I have managed to inject the first token, but my problem is how do I add the token on the subsequent calls.. can I make it stick on the same context or session? My worry is that when we call a new webservice, we create a whole new proxy/http request which will not inhrit the token... or will it?! Ideally I would like it to persist on the http header as I am setting the token as a header at the moment? has anyone got any ideas or a better way of doing this? I would be most greatful for you comments!

  Read the article

• Java - Call to start method on thread : how does it route to Runnable interface's run () ?

  - by Bhaskar

  Ok , I know the two standard ways to create a new thread and run it in Java : 1 Implement Runnable in a class , define run method ,and pass an instance of the class to a new Thread. When the start method on the thread instance is called , the run method of the class instance will be invoked. 2 Let the class derive from Thread, so it can to override the method run() and then when a new instance's start method is called , the call is routed to overridden method. In both methods , basically a new Thread object is created and its start method invoked. However , while in the second method , the mechanism of the call being routed to the user defined run() method is very clear ,( its a simple runtime polymorphism in play ), I dont understand how the call to start method on the Thread object gets routed to run() method of the class implementing Runnable interface. Does the Thread class have an private field of Type Runnable which it checks first , and if it is set then invokes the run method if it set to an object ? that would be a strange mechanism IMO. How does the call to start() on a thread get routed to the run method of the Runnable interface implemented by the class whose object is passed as a parameter when contructing the thread ?

  Read the article

• How does DateTime.Now affect query plan caching in SQL Server?

  - by Bill Paetzke

  Question: Does passing DateTime.Now as a parameter to a proc prevent SQL Server from caching the query plan? If so, then is the web app missing out on huge performance gains? Possible Solution: I thought DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) would be a possible solution. It would pass the same end-date to the sql proc (per day). And the user would still get the latest data. Please speak to this as well. Given Example: Let's say we have a stored procedure. It reports data back to a user on a webpage. The user can set a date range. If the user sets today's date as the "end date," which includes today's data, the web app passes DateTime.Now to the sql proc. Let's say that one user runs a report--5/1/2010 to now--over and over several times. On the webpage, the user sees 5/1/2010 to 5/4/2010. But the web app passes DateTime.Now to the sql proc as the end date. So, the end date in the proc will always be different, although the user is querying a similar date range. Assume the number of records in the table and number of users are large. So any performance gains matter. Hence the importance of the question. Example proc and execution (if that helps to understand): CREATE PROCEDURE GetFooData @StartDate datetime @EndDate datetime AS SELECT * FROM Foo WHERE LogDate >= @StartDate AND LogDate < @EndDate Here's a sample execution using DateTime.Now: EXEC GetFooData '2010-05-01', '2010-05-04 15:41:27' -- passed in DateTime.Now Here's a sample execution using DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) EXEC GetFooData '2010-05-01', '2010-05-05' -- passed in DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) The same data is returned for both procs, since the current time is: 2010-05-04 15:41:27.

  Read the article

• mod_rewrite to redirect URL with query string

  - by meeble

  I've searched all over stackoverflow, but none of the answers seem to be working for this situation. I have a lot of working mod_rewrite rules already in my httpd.conf file. I just recently found that Google had indexed one of my non-rewritten URLs with a query string in it: http://domain.com/?state=arizona I would like to use mod_rewrite to do a 301 redirect to this URL: http://domain.com/arizona The issue is that later on in my rewrite rules, that 2nd URL is being rewritten to pass query variables on to WordPress. It ends up getting rewritten to: http://domain.com/index.php?state=arizona Which is the proper functionality. Everything I have tried so far has either not worked at all or put me in an endless rewrite loop. This is what I have right now, which is getting stuck in a loop: RewriteCond %{QUERY_STRING} state=arizona [NC] RewriteRule .* http://domain.com/arizona [R=301,L] #older rewrite rule that passes query string based on URL: RewriteRule ^([A-Za-z-]+)$ index.php?state=$1 [L] which gives me an endless rewrite loop and takes me to this URL: http://domain.com/arizona?state=arizona I then tried this: RewriteRule .* http://domain.com/arizona? [R=301,L] which got rid of the query string in the URL, but still creates a loop.

  Read the article

• PHP OOP: Avoid Singleton/Static Methods in Domain Model Pattern

  - by sunwukung

  I understand the importance of Dependency Injection and its role in Unit testing, which is why the following issue is giving me pause: One area where I struggle not to use the Singleton is the Identity Map/Unit of Work pattern (Which keeps tabs on Domain Object state). //Not actual code, but it should demonstrate the point class Monitor{//singleton construction omitted for brevity static $members = array();//keeps record of all objects static $dirty = array();//keeps record of all modified objects static $clean = array();//keeps record of all clean objects } class Mapper{//queries database, maps values to object fields public function find($id){ if(isset(Monitor::members[$id]){ return Monitor::members[$id]; } $values = $this->selectStmt($id); //field mapping process omitted for brevity $Object = new Object($values); Monitor::new[$id]=$Object return $Object; } $User = $UserMapper->find(1);//domain object is registered in Id Map $User->changePropertyX();//object is marked "dirty" in UoW // at this point, I can save by passing the Domain Object back to the Mapper $UserMapper->save($User);//object is marked clean in UoW //but a nicer API would be something like this $User->save(); //but if I want to do this - it has to make a call to the mapper/db somehow $User->getBlogPosts(); //or else have to generate specific collection/object graphing methods in the mapper $UserPosts = $UserMapper->getBlogPosts(); $User->setPosts($UserPosts); Any advice on how you might handle this situation? I would be loathe to pass/generate instances of the mapper/database access into the Domain Object itself to satisfy DI - At the same time, avoiding that results in lots of calls within the Domain Object to external static methods. Although I guess if I want "save" to be part of its behaviour then a facility to do so is required in its construction. Perhaps it's a problem with responsibility, the Domain Object shouldn't be burdened with saving. It's just quite a neat feature from the Active Record pattern - it would be nice to implement it in some way.

  Read the article

• Execute javascript in PHP

  - by Andreas Bonini

  I'm generating your typical Web 2.0 HTML page with PHP: it contains a lot of <script> tags and javascript code that will substantially change the DOM after the load event. Is there a way to get the final HTML code directly from PHP, without opening the page with any browser? For example, let's say the HTML for the page is (it's just an example): <html> <head> <script>...the jquery library code...</script> <script>$(document).ready(function() { $("body").append("<p>Hi!</p>");</script> </head> <body> </body> </html> This HTML is saved in the $html PHP variable. Now, I want to pass that variable to some function that will return $result = <html>....<body><p>Hi!</p></body></html>. Is this possible?

  Read the article

• odd nullreference error at foreach when rendering view

  - by giddy

  This error is so weird I Just can't really figure out what is really wrong! In UserController I have public virtual ActionResult Index() { var usersmdl = from u in RepositoryFactory.GetUserRepo().GetAll() select new UserViewModel { ID = u.ID, UserName = u.Username, UserGroupName = u.UserGroupMain.GroupName, BranchName = u.Branch.BranchName, Password = u.Password, Ace = u.ACE, CIF = u.CIF, PF = u.PF }; if (usersmdl != null) { return View(usersmdl.AsEnumerable()); } return View(); } My view is of type @model IEnumerable<UserViewModel> on the top. This is what happens: Where and what exactly IS null!? I create the users from a fake repository with moq. I also wrote unit tests, which pass, to ensure the right amount of mocked users are returned. Maybe someone can point me in the right direction here? Top of the stack trace is : at lambda_method(Closure , User ) at System.Linq.Enumerable.WhereSelectArrayIterator`2.MoveNext() at ASP.Index_cshtml.Execute() Is it something to do with linq here? Tell me If I should include the full stack trace.

  Read the article

• Passing variables from a thread to another form using C#

  - by kirstom14

  Hi, I am trying to pass 2 variables from a thread, in the MainForm, to another form, but when doing so an error occurs. private void TrackingThread( ) { float targetX = 0; float targetY = 0; while ( true ) { camera1Acquired.WaitOne( ); camera2Acquired.WaitOne( ); lock ( this ) { // stop the thread if it was signaled if ( ( x1 == -1 ) && ( y1 == -1 ) && ( x2 == -1 ) && ( y2 == -1 ) ) { break; } // get middle point targetX = ( x1 + x2 ) / 2; targetY = ( y1 + y2 ) / 2; } if (directionForm != null) { directionForm.RunMotors(targetX, targetY); } } } In the form, directionForm, I am simply displaying the variables targetX and targetY. The code for the directionForm.RunMotors() is the following: public void RunMotors(float x, float y) { label1.Text = "X-ordinate " + x.ToString(); label2.Text = "Y-ordinate " + y.ToString(); } The error happen when I am trying to display the two variables: "InvalidOperationException was unhandled Cross-threading operation not valid: Control label1 accessed from a thread other than . the thread it was created on" What shall I do??? Thanks in advance

  Read the article

• Really Need a Facebook App to post to Facebook Page Wall?

  - by Lee Englestone

  Hi, I'm using the Facebook API Graph (C# & ASP.NET) to try to dynamically post to a Facebook page I created. Looking at the code samples floating around.. they suggest creating a Facebook App first (which I have done).. However.. I have 3 different pages I want to post to.. Do I need to create an app for each? (I want to post different things to the 3 pages, not the same posts to each) I just want messages & links to appear as Wall posts. I'm not bothered about having an 'app' that has 'canvas' that is placed in an IFrame. Question : So do I still need to write one or more Facebook Apps to post to my 3 different Facebook pages?? Where I am so far.. I can pass in my apps credentials and get back the access_token. But my posts don't appear to be going anywhere. I'd rather drop the 'facebook application /canvas' approach if possible If I can post directly to a wall (For the above reasons). Oh, and before you ask. I don't want to post to my Apps Wall page, I want to post to my other pages (Unless I have to post to my Apps Wall page first?). I'm sure loads of people have the same questions.. Thanks in advance. -- Lee

  Read the article

• What are the elegant ways to do MixIns in Python?

  - by Slava Vishnyakov

  I need to find an elegant way to do 2 kinds of MixIns. First: class A(object): def method1(self): do_something() Now, a MixInClass should make method1 do this: do_other() - A.method1() - do_smth_else() - i.e. basically "wrap" the older function. I'm pretty sure there must exist a good solution to this. Second: class B(object): def method1(self): do_something() do_more() In this case, I want MixInClass2 to be able to inject itself between do_something() and do_more(), i.e.: do_something() - MixIn.method1 - do_more(). I understand that probably this would require modifying class B - that's ok, just looking for simplest ways to achieve this. These are pretty trivial problems and I actually solved them, but my solution is tainted. Fisrt one by using self._old_method1 = self.method1(); self.method1() = self._new_method1(); and writing _new_method1() that calls to _old_method1(). Problem: multiple MixIns will all rename to _old_method1 and it is inelegant. Second MixIn one was solved by creating a dummy method call_mixin(self): pass and injecting it between calls and defining self.call_mixin(). Again inelegant and will break on multiple MixIns.. Any ideas?

  Read the article

• Fake serial communication under Linux

  - by kigurai

  I have an application where I want to simulate the connection between a device and a "modem". The device will be connected to a serial port and will talk to the software modem through that. For testing purposes I want to be able to use a mock software device to test send and receive data. Example Python code device = Device() modem = Modem() device.connect(modem) device.write("Hello") modem_reply = device.read() Now, in my final app I will just pass /dev/ttyS1 or COM1 or whatever for the application to use. But how can I do this in software? I am running Linux and application is written in Python. I have tried making a FIFO (mkfifo ~/my_fifo) and that does work, but then I'll need one FIFO for writing and one for reading. What I want is to open ~/my_fake_serial_port and read and write to that. I have also lpayed with the ptymodule, but can't get that to work either. I can get a master and slave file descriptor from pty.openpty() but trying to read or write to them only causes IOError Bad File Descriptor error message.

  Read the article

• File streaming in PHP - How to replicate this C#.net code in PHP?

  - by openid_kenja

  I'm writing an interface to a web service where we need to upload configuration files. The documentation only provides a sample in C#.net which I am not familiar with. I'm trying to implement this in PHP. Can someone familiar with both languages point me in the right direction? I can figure out all the basics, but I'm trying to figure out suitable PHP replacements for the FileStream, ReadBytes, and UploadDataFile functions. I believe that the RecService object contains the URL for the web service. Thanks for your help! private void UploadFiles() { clientAlias = “<yourClientAlias>”; string filePath = “<pathToYourDataFiles>”; string[] fileList = {"Config.txt", "ProductDetails.txt", "BrandNames.txt", "CategoryNames.txt", "ProductsSoldOut.txt", "Sales.txt"}; RecommendClient RecService = new RecommendClient(); for (int i = 0; i < fileList.Length; i++) { bool lastFile = (i == fileList.Length - 1); //start generator after last file try { string fileName = filePath + fileList[i]; if (!File.Exists(fileName)) continue; // file not found } // set up a file stream and binary reader for the selected file and convert to byte array FileStream fStream = new FileStream(fileName, FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read); BinaryReader br = new BinaryReader(fStream); byte[] data = br.ReadBytes((int)numBytes); br.Close(); // pass byte array to the web service string result = RecService.UploadDataFile(clientAlias, fileList[i], data, lastFile); fStream.Close(); fStream.Dispose(); } catch (Exception ex) { // log an error message } } }

  Read the article

• Python: Errors saving and loading objects with pickle module

  - by Peterstone

  Hi, I am trying to load and save objects with this piece of code I get it from a question I asked a week ago: Python: saving and loading objects and using pickle. The piece of code is this: class Fruits: pass banana = Fruits() banana.color = 'yellow' banana.value = 30 import pickle filehandler = open("Fruits.obj","wb") pickle.dump(banana,filehandler) filehandler.close() file = open("Fruits.obj",'rb') object_file = pickle.load(file) file.close() print(object_file.color, object_file.value, sep=', ') At a first glance the piece of code works well, getting load and see the 'color' and 'value' of the saved object. But, what I pursuit is to close a session, open a new one and load what I save in a past session. I close the session after putting the line filehandler.close() and I open a new one and I put the rest of your code, then after putting object_file = pickle.load(file) I get this error: Traceback (most recent call last): File "<pyshell#5>", line 1, in <module> object_file = pickle.load(file) File "C:\Python31\lib\pickle.py", line 1365, in load encoding=encoding, errors=errors).load() AttributeError: 'module' object has no attribute 'Fruits' Can anyone explain me what this error message means and telling me how to solve this problem? Thank so much and happy new year!!

  Read the article

• C# - default parameter values from previous parameter

  - by Sagar R. Kothari

  namespace HelloConsole { public class BOX { double height, length, breadth; public BOX() { } // here, I wish to pass 'h' to remaining parameters if not passed // FOLLOWING Gives compilation error. public BOX (double h, double l = h, double b = h) { Console.WriteLine ("Constructor with default parameters"); height = h; length = l; breadth = b; } } } // // BOX a = new BOX(); // default constructor. all okay here. // BOX b = new BOX(10,20,30); // all parameter passed. all okay here. // BOX c = new BOX(10); // Here, I want = length=10, breadth=10,height=10; // BOX d = new BOX(10,20); // Here, I want = length=10, breadth=20,height=10; Question is : 'To achieve above, Is 'constructor overloading' (as follows) is the only option? public BOX(double h) { height = length = breadth = h; } public BOX(double h, double l) { height = breadth = h; length = l; }

  Read the article

• Dynamically generate client-side HTML form control using JavaScript and server-side Python code in Google App Engine

  - by gisc

  I have the following client-side front-end HTML using Jinja2 template engine: {% for record in result %} <textarea name="remark">{{ record.remark }}</textarea> <input type="submit" name="approve" value="Approve" /> {% endfor %} Thus the HTML may show more than 1 set of textarea and submit button. The back-end Python code retrieves a variable number of records from a gql query using the model, and pass this to the Jinja2 template in result. When a submit button is clicked, it triggers the post method to update the record: def post(self): if self.request.get('approve'): updated_remark = self.request.get('remark') record.remark = db.Text(updated_remark) record.put() However, in some instances, the record updated is NOT the one that correspond to the submit button clicked (eg if a user clicks on record 1 submit, record 2 remark gets updated, but not record 1). I gather that this is due to the duplicate attribute name remark. I can possibly use JavaScript/jQuery to generate different attribute names. The question is, how do I code the back-end Python to get the (variable number of) names generated by the JavaScript? Thanks.

  Read the article

• Returning data from SQL Server reporting web service call

  - by user79339

  Hi, I am generating a report that contains the version number. The version number is stored in the DB and retrieved/incremented as part of the report generation. The only problem is, I am calling SSRS via a web service call, which returns the generated report as a byte array. Is there any way to get the version number out of this generated report? For example to display a dialog that says "You generated Status Report, Version number 3". I tried passing in an output parameter and setting it inside the storedproc. Its modified when i execute it in sql management studio, but not in the reporting studio. Or atleast i can't seem to bind to the modified, post execution value (using expression "=Parameters!ReportVersion.Value"). Of course, I could get/increment the version number from database myself before calling the SSRS webservice and pass it along as a parameter to the Report, but that might cause concurrancy problems. On the whole, it just seems neater for the storedproc to access/generate a version number and return it to the ReportingEngine, which will generate the report with the version number and return the updated version number to the WebService client. Any thoughts/Ideas?

  Read the article

• Access Controller Context/ TempData from business objects

  - by thanikkal

  I am trying to build a session/tempdata provider that can be swapped. The default provider will work on top of asp.net mvc and it needed to access the .net mvc TempData from the business object class. I know the tempdata is available through the controller context, but i cant seem to find if that is exposed through HttpContext or something. I dont really want to pass the Controller context as an argument as that would dilute my interface definition since only asp.net based session provider needs this, other (using NoSQL DB etc) doesn't care about Controller Context. To clarify further, adding little more code here. my ISession interface look like this. and when this code goes to production, the session/tempdata is expected to work using NoSql db. But i also like to have another implementation that works on top of asp.net mvc session/tempdata for my dev testing etc. public interface ISession { T GetTempData<T>(string key); void PutTempData<T>(string key, T value); T GetSessiondata<T>(string key); void PutSessiondata<T>(string key, T value); }

  Read the article

• C++ converting back and forth from derived and base classes

  - by user127817

  I was wondering if there is a way in C++ to accomplish the following: I have a base class called ResultBase and two class that are Derived from it, Variable and Expression. I have a few methods that do work on vector<ResultBase> . I want to be able to pass in vectors of Variable and Expression into these methods. I can achieve this by creating a vector<ResultBase> and using static_cast to fill it with the members from my vector of Variable/Expression. However, once the vector has run through the methods, I want to be able to get it back as the vector of Result/Expression. I'll know for sure which one I want back. static_cast won't work here as there isn't a method to reconstruct a Variable/Expression from a ResultBase, and more importantly I wouldn't have the original properties of the Variables/Expressions The methods modify some of the properties of the ResultBase and I need those changes to be reflected in the original vectors. (i.e. ResultBase has a property called IsLive, and one of the methods will modify this property. I want this IsLive value to be reflected in the derived class used to create the ResultBase Whats the easiest way to accomplish this?

  Read the article

• Should uni provide "correct answer" after programming assignment is due?

  - by Michael Mao

  Hi all: This is my very first subjective question. And I think it is programming related - the assignment is to be written in a programming language. I am not for "getting the full marks out of a subject". I am actually not for a "correct answer", but for a "better solution", so that I can compare, and can improve. I reckon it is good that I practice programming first and check the solution later to pick up the things I've done wrong/bad. Without a "benchmark" to against, this would be much harder. Unfortunately as far as I know, not all programming subjects taught in uni would kindly provide the students with a "correct answer" in the end, after the assignment is due. One bad metaphor for this is like someone asks you a question which they don't have a clear answer themselves and hope to take advantage of your answer as the basis for their answer. Personally, I feel having a assignment solution provided by the academic staff is essential to students. I do appreciate this, and I feel I might not be the only one. I am a very proactive student in uni. I learn more, I practice more, an assignment for me is more like a challenge to achieve "the best solution I can come up with", not something "I have to pass"... The cause of this question is that for the past few days I have crafted 500+ lines of Perl code, for a tiny assignment. I feel pain when I look at my solution(not finished yet) and I feel like I am an idiot doing some crap code. I know there must be a much better solution. And I reckon it is better for the lecturer in this subject to get me one, rather than asking for an answer here, even I would shamelessly add the link to my solution apart from the assignment requirements. I know in SO, there are a lot of tutors/lecturers for programming subjects/courses. I'd like to hear your words on this question.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 556 557 558 559 560 561 562 563 564 565 566 567  | Next Page >