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• MySQL-problem when baking with CakePHP.

  - by timkl

  I am currently reading "Beginning CakePHP:From Novice to Professional" by David Golding. At one point I have to use the CLI-command "cake bake", I get the welcome-screen but when I try to bake e.g. a Controller I get the following error messages: Warning: mysql_connect(): Can't connect to local MySQL server through socket '/var/mysql/mysql.sock' (2) in /Applications/MAMP/htdocs/blog/cake/libs/model/datasources/dbo/dbo_mysql.php on line 117 Warning: mysql_select_db(): supplied argument is not a valid MySQL-Link resource in /Applications/MAMP/htdocs/blog/cake/libs/model/datasources/dbo/dbo_mysql.php on line 122 Warning: mysql_get_server_info(): supplied argument is not a valid MySQL-Link resource in /Applications/MAMP/htdocs/blog/cake/libs/model/datasources/dbo/dbo_mysql.php on line 130 Warning: mysql_query(): supplied argument is not a valid MySQL-Link resource in /Applications/MAMP/htdocs/blog/cake/libs/model/datasources/dbo/dbo_mysql.php on line 154 Error: Your database does not have any tables. I suspect that the error-messages has to do with php trying to access the wrong mysql-socket, namely the default osx mysql-socket - instead of the one that MAMP uses. Hence I change my database configurations to connect to the UNIX mysql-socket (:/Applications/MAMP/tmp/mysql/mysql.sock): class DATABASE_CONFIG { var $default = array( 'driver' => 'mysql', 'connect' => 'mysql_connect', 'persistent' => false, 'host' =>':/Applications/MAMP/tmp/mysql/mysql.sock', // UNIX MySQL-socket 'login' => 'my_user', 'password' => 'my_pass', 'database' => 'blog', 'prefix' => '', ); } But I get the same error-messages with the new socket: Warning: mysql_connect(): Can't connect to local MySQL server through socket '/Applications/MAMP/tmp/mysql/mysql.sock:3306' (2) in /Applications/MAMP/htdocs/blog/cake/libs/model/datasources/dbo/dbo_mysql.php on line 117 Warning: mysql_select_db(): supplied argument is not a valid MySQL-Link resource in /Applications/MAMP/htdocs/blog/cake/libs/model/datasources/dbo/dbo_mysql.php on line 122 Warning: mysql_get_server_info(): supplied argument is not a valid MySQL-Link resource in /Applications/MAMP/htdocs/blog/cake/libs/model/datasources/dbo/dbo_mysql.php on line 130 Warning: mysql_query(): supplied argument is not a valid MySQL-Link resource in /Applications/MAMP/htdocs/blog/cake/libs/model/datasources/dbo/dbo_mysql.php on line 154 Error: Your database does not have any tables. Also, even though I use the UNIX-socket that MAMP show on it's welcome-screen, CakePHP loses the database-connection, when using this socket instead of localhost. Any ideas on how I can get bake to work?

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• Model-View-Controller in JavaScript

  - by Casey Hope

  tl;dr: How does one implement MVC in JavaScript in a clean way? I'm trying to implement MVC in JavaScript. I have googled and reorganized with my code countless times but have not found a suitable solution. (The code just doesn't "feel right".) Here's how I'm going about it right now. It's incredibly complicated and is a pain to work with (but still better than the pile of code I had before). It has ugly workarounds that sort of defeat the purpose of MVC. And behold, the mess, if you're really brave: // Create a "main model" var main = Model0(); function Model0() { // Create an associated view and store its methods in "view" var view = View0(); // Create a submodel and pass it a function // that will "subviewify" the submodel's view var model1 = Model1(function (subview) { view.subviewify(subview); }); // Return model methods that can be used by // the controller (the onchange handlers) return { 'updateModel1': function (newValue) { model1.update(newValue); } }; } function Model1(makeSubView) { var info = ''; // Make an associated view and attach the view // to the parent view using the passed function var view = View1(); makeSubView(view.__view); // Dirty dirty // Return model methods that can be used by // the parent model (and so the controller) return { 'update': function (newValue) { info = newValue; // Notify the view of the new information view.events.value(info); } }; } function View0() { var thing = document.getElementById('theDiv'); var input = document.getElementById('theInput'); // This is the "controller", bear with me input.onchange = function () { // Ugly, uses a global to contact the model main.updateModel1(this.value); }; return { 'events': {}, // Adds a subview to this view. 'subviewify': function (subview) { thing.appendChild(subview); } }; } // This is a subview. function View1() { var element = document.createElement('div'); return { 'events': { // When the value changes this is // called so the view can be updated 'value': function (newValue) { element.innerHTML = newValue; } }, // ..Expose the DOM representation of the subview // so it can be attached to a parent view '__view': element }; } How does one implement MVC in JavaScript in a cleaner way? How can I improve this system? Or is this the completely wrong way to go, should I follow another pattern?

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• Ajax problem not displaying data using multiple javascript calls...

  - by Ronedog

  I'm writing an app that uses ajax to retrieve data from a mysql db using php. Because of the nature of the app, the user clicks an href link that has an "onclick" event used to call the javascript/ajax. I'm retrieving the data from mysql, then calling a separate php function which creates a small html table with the necessary data in it. The new table gets passed back to the responseText and is displayed inside a div tag. The tables only have around 10-20 rows of data in them. This functionality is working fine and displays the data in html form exactly as it needs to be on the page. The problem is this. the HREF "onclick" event needs to run multiple scripts one right after the other. The first script updates the "existing" data and inside the "update_existing" function is a call to refresh a section of the page with the updated HTML from the responseText. Then when that is done a "display_html" function is called which also updates a different section of the page with it's newly created HTML table. The event looks like this: Update This string gets built dynamically using php with parameters supplied, but for this example I simply took the parameters out so it didn't get confusing. The "update_existion() function actually calls the display_html() function which updates a section of the page as needed. I need to update a different section of the page on the same click of the mouse right after the update, which is why I'm calling the display_html() again, right after it. The problem is only the last call is being updated on my screen. In other words, the 2nd function call "display_html()" executes and displays the refreshed data just fine, but the previous call to update_existing() runs and updates the database properly, but doesn't display on the screen unless I press the browsers "refresh" button, which of course displays the new data exactly how I want it to, but I don't want the users to have to press the "refresh" button. I tried adding multiple "display_html() calls one right after the other, separating all of them with the semicolon and learned that only the very last function call actually refreshed the div element on the html page with the table information, although all the previous display_html() calls worked, they couldn't be seen on the page without a refresh of the browser. Is this a problem with javascript, or the ajax call, or is this a limitation in the DOM that only allows one element to be updated at a time. The ajax call is asynchroneous, but I've tried both, only async works period. This is the same in both Firefox and Internet Explorer Any ideas what's going on and how to get around it so I can run these multiple scripts?

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• iPhone App not saving values to .plist file

  - by Trent

  Hey everyone. I am working on an app that displays a modal the first time the consumer uses it. I have a .plist file that will store the information I request once the Save button is pressed. I can read from the .plist file fine and when I run my save method it SEEMS to work fine but the .plist file is not updating. I'm not so sure of the problem here. I show the modal like this. - (void) getConsumerInfo { NSString *filePath = [[[NSBundle mainBundle] resourcePath] stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"consumer.plist"]; NSMutableDictionary *plistConsumerInfo = [[NSMutableDictionary alloc] initWithContentsOfFile:filePath]; NSString *hasAppeared = [plistConsumerInfo objectForKey:@"HasAppeared"]; if(hasAppeared != kHasAppeared) { ConsumerInfoViewController *tmpConsumerInfoVC = [[ConsumerInfoViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"ConsumerInfoView" bundle:nil]; self.consumerInfoViewController = tmpConsumerInfoVC; [self presentModalViewController:consumerInfoViewController animated:YES]; [tmpConsumerInfoVC release]; } } This is called by the viewDidLoad method in the first view phone when the app is started. Within the consumerInfoViewController I have textfields that have data entered and when the Save button is pressed it calls this method. - (IBAction)saveConsumerInfo:(id)sender { NSString *filePath = [[[NSBundle mainBundle] resourcePath] stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"consumer.plist"]; NSMutableDictionary *plistDict = [[NSMutableDictionary alloc] initWithContentsOfFile:filePath]; NSString *tmpDiversName = txtDiversName.text; NSString *tmpLicenseType = txtLicenseType.text; NSString *tmpLicenseNum = txtLicenseNumber.text; NSString *tmpHasAppeared = @"1"; NSString *tmpNumJumps = @"3"; [plistDict setValue:[[NSString alloc] initWithFormat:@"%@", tmpDiversName] forKey:@"ConsumerName"]; [plistDict setValue:[[NSString alloc] initWithFormat:@"%@", tmpLicenseType] forKey:@"LicenseType"]; [plistDict setValue:[[NSString alloc] initWithFormat:@"%@", tmpLicenseNum] forKey:@"LicenseNumb"]; [plistDict setValue:[[NSString alloc] initWithFormat:@"%@", tmpNumJumps] forKey:@"NumJumps"]; [plistDict setValue:[[NSString alloc] initWithFormat:@"%d", tmpHasAppeared] forKey:@"Show"]; [plistDict writeToFile:filePath atomically: YES]; NSLog([[NSString alloc] initWithContentsOfFile:filePath]); [self dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; } This all runs fine with no hiccups but the file is never updated. I would like it to update so I can use this information throughout the app and update the flag so it will not show the view again once the data is entered. Please let me know if there is anymore information you need. Thanks in advance!

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• How do I use IImgCtx to get load an image with an alpha channel?

  - by fret

  I have some working code that uses IImgCtx to load images, but I can't work out how to get at the alpha channel. For images like .gif's and .png's there are transparent pixels, but using anything other than a 24-bit bitmap as a drawing surface doesn't work. For reference on the interface: http://www.codeproject.com/KB/graphics/JianImgCtxDecoder.aspx My code looks like this: IImgCtx *Ctx = 0; HRESULT hr = CoCreateInstance(CLSID_IImgCtx, NULL, CLSCTX_INPROC_SERVER, IID_IImgCtx, (LPVOID*)&Ctx); if (SUCCEEDED(hr)) { GVariant Fn = Name; hr = Ctx->Load(Fn.WStr(), 0); if (SUCCEEDED(hr)) { SIZE Size = { -1, -1 }; ULONG State = 0; while (true) { hr = Ctx->GetStateInfo(&State, &Size, false); if (SUCCEEDED(hr)) { if ((State & IMGLOAD_COMPLETE) || (State & IMGLOAD_STOPPED) || (State & IMGLOAD_ERROR)) { break; } else { LgiSleep(1); } } else break; } if (Size.cx > 0 && Size.cy > 0 && pDC.Reset(new GMemDC)) { if (pDC->Create(Size.cx, Size.cy, 32)) { HDC hDC = pDC->StartDC(); if (hDC) { RECT rc = { 0, 0, pDC->X(), pDC->Y() }; Ctx->Draw(hDC, &rc); pDC->EndDC(); } } else pDC.Reset(); } } Ctx->Release(); Where "StartDC" basically wraps CreateCompatibleDC(NULL) and "EndDC" wraps DeleteDC, with appropriate SelectObjects for the HBITMAPS etc. And pDC-Create(x, y, bit_depth) calls CreateDIBSection(...DIB_RGB_COLORS...). So it works if I create a 24 bits/pixel bitmap but has no alpha to speak of, and it leaves the 32 bits/pixel bitmap blank. Now this interface apparently is used by Internet Explorer to load images, and obviously THAT supports transparency, so I believe that it's possible to get some level of alpha out of the interface. The question is how? (I also have fall back code that will call libpng/libjpeg/my .gif loader etc)

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• How to program a real-time accurate audio sequencer on the iphone?

  - by Walchy

  Hi... I want to program a simple audio sequencer on the iphone but I can't get accurate timing. The last days I tried all possible audio techniques on the iphone, starting from AudioServicesPlaySystemSound and AVAudioPlayer and OpenAL to AudioQueues. In my last attempt I tried the CocosDenshion sound engine which uses openAL and allows to load sounds into multiple buffers and then play them whenever needed. Here is the basic code: init: int channelGroups[1]; channelGroups[0] = 8; soundEngine = [[CDSoundEngine alloc] init:channelGroups channelGroupTotal:1]; int i=0; for(NSString *soundName in [NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"base1", @"snare1", @"hihat1", @"dit", @"snare", nil]) { [soundEngine loadBuffer:i fileName:soundName fileType:@"wav"]; i++; } [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:0.14 target:self selector:@selector(drumLoop:) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]; In the initialisation I create the sound engine, load some sounds to different buffers and then establish the sequencer loop with NSTimer. audio loop: - (void)drumLoop:(NSTimer *)timer { for(int track=0; track<4; track++) { unsigned char note=pattern[track][step]; if(note) [soundEngine playSound:note-1 channelGroupId:0 pitch:1.0f pan:.5 gain:1.0 loop:NO]; } if(++step>=16) step=0; } Thats it and it works as it should BUT the timing is shaky and instable. As soon as something else happens (i.g. drawing in a view) it goes out of sync. As I understand the sound engine and openAL the buffers are loaded (in the init code) and then are ready to start immediately with alSourcePlay(source); - so the problem may be with NSTimer? Now there are dozens of sound sequencer apps in the appstore and they have accurate timing. I.g. "idrum" has a perfect stable beat even in 180 bpm when zooming and drawing is done. So there must be a solution. Does anybody has any idea? Thanks for any help in advance! Best regards, Walchy

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• Is there a way to handle the dynamic change of a dropdown for a single row in a grid-based datawindo

  - by TomatoSandwich

  Is there a way to handle the dynamic change of a dropdown for a single row in a grid-based datawindow? Example: NAME LIKABILITY PURCHASED IN COLOUR (Text) (DropDown*) (Text) (Text) Bananas [Good] Hands Yellow [Bad] [Bananas are good] Apples [Good] Bags Red [Bad] Given the above is a grid-based datawindow, where the fields 'NAME','PURCHASED IN' and 'COLOUR' are text fields, where as the 'LIKABILITY' field is a dropdown*. I say dropdown* because the same visual representation can be created by using a DropDownList (hardcoded within the datawindow element at design time), or a DropDownDW (or DDDW, a select statement that can be based on other elements in the datawindow). However, there is no way I can get 'Bananas' having it's 3 dropdowns, while Apples has only 2. If I enter multiple rows of 'Bananas', then all rows have 3 dropdowns, but as soon as I add an Apples row, all dropdowns revert to 2 selections. To attempt to achieve this functionality, I have tried the following options: -- 1) dw_1.Object.likability.values("Good~tG/Bad~tB/Bananas are good~tDRWHO") on ue_itemchange when editing NAME. FAILS: edits all instances of LIKABILITY instead of the current row. -- 2) Duplicate Dropdowns, having one filtered, one unfiltered selection list per row, visible based on NAME selection. FAILS: can't set visibility/overlapping columns on grid-based datawindow. (Source) -- 3) Hard-code display value as Database value, or Vice Versa. Have 'GOOD','BAD','BANANASAREGOOD' as the display and database values, and change handling of options from G, B, DRWHO to these new values. FAILS: 3rd option appears for all rows, still selectable on Apple rows, which is wrong. -- 4) DDDW retrieve list of options for dropdown. Create a DDDW that uses the value of NAME to determine what selections it should have for the dropdown. FAILS: edits all instances of the dropdown, not just the current row. -- 5) DDDW retrieve counter of options available (if B then 3 else 2), then have duplicate dropdown columns that protect/unprotect based on DDDW counter. FAILS: Can't autoselect dddw value to populate column to cause protect on other two columns, ugly solution in any case. -- There is now a bounty on this question for anyone who can give me a solution that will enable me to edit a dropdown column for a single row on a grid-based datawindow in PB 10.5

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• Tomcat 403 error after LDAP authentication.

  - by user352636

  I'm currently trying to use an LDAP server to authenticate users who are trying to access our Tomcat setup. I believe I have managed to get the LDAP authentication working in the form of a JNDI realm call from Tomcat, but immediately after the user enters their password Tomcat starts throwing 403 (permission denied) errors for everything except from the root page (ttp://localhost:1337/). I have no idea why this is happening. I am following the example at http://blog.mc-thias.org/?title=tomcat_ldap_authentication&more=1&c=1&tb=1&pb=1 . server.xml (the interesting/changed bits) <Realm className="org.apache.catalina.realm.JNDIRealm" debug="99" connectionURL="ldap://localhost:389" userPattern="uid={0},ou=People,o=test,dc=company,dc=uk" userSubTree="true" roleBase="ou=Roles,o=test,dc=company,dc=uk" roleName="cn" roleSearch="memberUid={1}" /> <Valve className="org.apache.catalina.authenticator.SingleSignOn" /> web.xml (the interesting/changed bits) <security-constraint> <display-name>Security Constraint</display-name> <web-resource-collection> <web-resource-name>Protected Area</web-resource-name> <!-- Define the context-relative URL(s) to be protected --> <url-pattern>/*</url-pattern> <!-- If you list http methods, only those methods are protected --> </web-resource-collection> <auth-constraint> <!-- Anyone with one of the listed roles may access this area --> <role-name>admin</role-name> <role-name>regular</role-name> </auth-constraint> </security-constraint> <!-- Default login configuration uses form-based authentication --> <login-config> <auth-method>BASIC</auth-method> </login-config> <!-- Security roles referenced by this web application --> <security-role> <role-name>admin</role-name> <role-name>regular</role-name> </security-role> I cannot access my LDAP setup at the moment, but I believe it is alright as the login is accepted by the BASIC auth method, it's just tomcat that is rejecting it. The roles should be as defined in web.xml - admin and regular. If there is any other information you require me to provide, please just ask! My thanks in advance to anyone who can help, and my apologies for any major mistakes I have made - yesterday was pretty much the first time I'd ever heard of LDAP =D. EDIT: Fixed the second xml segment. Apologies for the formating-fail.

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• synchronizing XML nodes between class and file using C#

  - by Sarah Vessels

  I'm trying to write an IXmlSerializable class that stays synced with an XML file. The XML file has the following format: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <logging> <logLevel>Error</logLevel> </logging> ...potentially other sections... </configuration> I have a DllConfig class for the whole XML file and a LoggingSection class for representing <logging> and its contents, i.e., <logLevel>. DllConfig has this property: [XmlElement(ElementName = LOGGING_TAG_NAME, DataType = "LoggingSection")] public LoggingSection Logging { get; protected set; } What I want is for the backing XML file to be updated (i.e., rewritten) when a property is set. I already have DllConfig do this when Logging is set. However, how should I go about doing this when Logging.LogLevel is set? Here's an example of what I mean: var config = new DllConfig("path_to_backing_file.xml"); config.Logging.LogLevel = LogLevel.Information; // not using Logging setter, but a // setter on LoggingSection, so how // does path_to_backing_file.xml // have its contents updated? My current solution is to have a SyncedLoggingSection class that inherits from LoggingSection and also takes a DllConfig instance in the constructor. It declares a new LogLevel that, when set, updates the LogLevel in the base class and also uses the given DllConfig to write the entire DllConfig out to the backing XML file. Is this a good technique? I don't think I can just serialize SyncedLoggingSection by itself to the backing XML file, because not all of the contents will be written, just the <logging> node. Then I'd end up with an XML file containing only the <logging> section with its updated <logLevel>, instead of the entire config file with <logLevel> updated. Hence, I need to pass an instance of DllConfig to SyncedLoggingSection. It seems almost like I want an event handler, one in DllConfig that would notice when particular properties (i.e., LogLevel) in its properties (i.e., Logging) were set. Is such a thing possible?

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• How to get hibernate3-maven-plugin hbm2ddl to find JDBC driver?

  - by HDave

  I have a Java project I am building with Maven. I am now trying to get the hibernate3-maven-plugin to run the hbm2ddl tool to generate a schema.sql file I can use to create the database schema from my annotated domain classes. This is a JPA application that uses Hibernate as the provider. In my persistence.xml file I call out the mysql driver: <property name="hibernate.dialect" value="org.hibernate.dialect.MySQLDialect"/> <property name="hibernate.connection.driver_class" value="com.mysql.jdbc.Driver"/> When I run Maven, I see it processing all my classes, but when it goes to output the schema, I get the following error: ERROR org.hibernate.connection.DriverManagerConnectionProvider - JDBC Driver class not found: com.mysql.jdbc.Driver java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: com.mysql.jdbc.Driver I have the MySQL driver as a dependency of this module. However it seems like the hbm2ddl tool cannot find it. I would have guessed that the Maven plugin would have known to search the local Maven file repository for this driver. What gives? The relevant part of my pom.xml is this: <plugin> <groupId>org.codehaus.mojo</groupId> <artifactId>hibernate3-maven-plugin</artifactId> <executions> <execution> <phase>process-classes</phase> <goals> <goal>hbm2ddl</goal> </goals> </execution> </executions> <configuration> <components> <component> <name>hbm2ddl</name> <implementation>jpaconfiguration</implementation> </component> </components> <componentProperties> <persistenceunit>my-unit</persistenceunit> </componentProperties> </configuration> </plugin>

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• Using respond_to ... format.json and jQuery Form Plugin by malsup

  - by Topher Fangio

  Hello all, I'm having a tad bit of trouble getting the jQuery Form Plugin to work properly with a file-upload field. When I use the plugin to submit the form without a file-upload field, the format.json portion of the respond_to do |format| block is called properly. However, by adding the file-upload field, it only executes the format.html portion which makes my javascript code think that an error has occurred. Has anyone run into this before or know a way to force the plugin to always use json? Alternatively, can I modify the url that the plugin uses to force Rails to render the json? Thanks very much for any help! Code below: # app/controllers/details_controller.rb def create @detail = Detail.new(params[:detail]) style = params[:detail_style].to_sym || :thumb data = { :id => '5', :url => 'test.rails' } respond_to do |format| if @detail.save flash[:notice] = 'Your image has been saved.' data = { :id => @detail.id, :url => @detail.data.url(style) } format.html { redirect_to :action => 'index' } format.json { render :json => "<textarea>#{data.to_json}</textarea>", :status => :created } else format.html { render :action => 'new' } format.json { render :json => @detail.errors, :status => :unprocessable_entity } end end end /* app/views/sidebar/_details.html.erb (excerpt) */ <% form_for(Detail.new, :html => { :multipart => true } ) do |f| %> <%= hidden_field_tag 'detail_style', 'thumb' %> <%= f.label :image, "Recent Images" %> <%= f.file_field :image%> <p> <%= f.submit "Upload" %> </p> <% end %> <script> $(document).ready(function() { var options = { dataType: 'json', success: function(json, statusText) { console.log("success: " + json); }, error: function(xhr, statusText, errorThrown) { console.log("error: " + xhr.responseText); } }; $('#new_detail').ajaxForm(options); });

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• What is the relationship between WebProxy & IWebProxy with respect to WebClient?

  - by Streamline

  I am creating an app (.NET 2.0) that uses WebClient to connect (downloaddata, etc) to/from a http web service. I am adding a form now to handle allowing proxy information to either be stored or set to use the defaults. I am a little confused about some things. First, some of the methods & properties available in either WebProxy or IWebProxy are not in both. What is the difference here with respect to setting up how WebClient will be have when it is called? Secondly, do I have to tell WebClient to use the proxy information if I set it using either WebProxy or IWebProxy class elsewhere? Or is it automatically inherited? Thirdly, when giving the option for the user to use the default proxy (whatever is set in IE) and using the default credentials (I assume also whatever is set in IE) are these two mutually exclusive? Or you only use default credentials when you have also used default proxy? This gets me to the whole difference between WebProxy and IWebProxy. WebRequest.DefaultProxy is a IWebPRoxy class but UseDefaultCredentials is not a method on the IWebProxy class, rather it is only on WebProxy and in turn, How to set the proxy to the WebRequest.DefautlProxy if they are two different classes? Here is my current method to read the stored form settings by the user - but I am not sure if this is correct, not enough, overkill, or just wrong because of the mix of WebProxy and IWebProxy: private WebProxy _proxyInfo = new WebProxy(); private WebProxy SetProxyInfo() { if (UseProxy) { if (UseIEProxy) { // is doing this enough to set this as default for WebClient? IWebProxy iProxy = WebRequest.DefaultWebProxy; if (UseIEProxyCredentials) { _proxyInfo.UseDefaultCredentials = true; } else { // is doing this enough to set this as default credentials for WebClient? WebRequest.DefaultWebProxy.Credentials = new NetworkCredential(ProxyUsername, ProxyPassword); } } else { // is doing this enough to set this as default for WebClient? WebRequest.DefaultWebProxy = new WebProxy(ProxyAddress, ParseLib.StringToInt(ProxyPort)); if (UseIEProxyCredentials) { _proxyInfo.UseDefaultCredentials = true; } else { WebRequest.DefaultWebProxy.Credentials = new NetworkCredential(ProxyUsername, ProxyPassword); } } } // Do I need to WebClient to absorb this returned proxy info if I didn't set or use defaults? return _proxyInfo; } Is there any reason to not just scrap storing app specific proxy information and only allow the app the ability to use the default proxy information & credentials for the logged in user? Will this ever not be enough if using HTTP? Part 2 Question: How can I test that the WebClient instance is using the proxy information or not?

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• How Can I create different selectors for accepting new connection in java NIO

  - by Deepak

  I want to write java tcp socket programming using java NIO. Its working fine. But I am using the same selector for accepting reading from and writing to the clients. How Can I create different selectors for accepting new connection in java NIO, reading and writing. Is there any online help. Actually when I am busy in reading or writing my selector uses more iterator. So If more number of clients are connected then performance of accepting new coneection became slow. But I donot want the accepting clients to be slow // Create a selector and register two socket channels Selector selector = null; try { // Create the selector selector = Selector.open(); // Create two non-blocking sockets. This method is implemented in // e173 Creating a Non-Blocking Socket. SocketChannel sChannel1 = createSocketChannel("hostname.com", 80); SocketChannel sChannel2 = createSocketChannel("hostname.com", 80); // Register the channel with selector, listening for all events sChannel1.register(selector, sChannel1.validOps()); sChannel2.register(selector, sChannel1.validOps()); } catch (IOException e) { } // Wait for events while (true) { try { // Wait for an event selector.select(); } catch (IOException e) { // Handle error with selector break; } // Get list of selection keys with pending events Iterator it = selector.selectedKeys().iterator(); // Process each key at a time while (it.hasNext()) { // Get the selection key SelectionKey selKey = (SelectionKey)it.next(); // Remove it from the list to indicate that it is being processed it.remove(); try { processSelectionKey(selKey); } catch (IOException e) { // Handle error with channel and unregister selKey.cancel(); } } } public void processSelectionKey(SelectionKey selKey) throws IOException { // Since the ready operations are cumulative, // need to check readiness for each operation if (selKey.isValid() && selKey.isConnectable()) { // Get channel with connection request SocketChannel sChannel = (SocketChannel)selKey.channel(); boolean success = sChannel.finishConnect(); if (!success) { // An error occurred; handle it // Unregister the channel with this selector selKey.cancel(); } } if (selKey.isValid() && selKey.isReadable()) { // Get channel with bytes to read SocketChannel sChannel = (SocketChannel)selKey.channel(); // See e174 Reading from a SocketChannel } if (selKey.isValid() && selKey.isWritable()) { // Get channel that's ready for more bytes SocketChannel sChannel = (SocketChannel)selKey.channel(); } } Thanks Deepak

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• jquery anchor to html extract

  - by Benjamin Ortuzar

  I would like to implement something similar to the Google quick scroll extension with jquery for the extracts of a search result, so when the full document is opened (within the same website) it gives the user the opportunity to go straight to the extract location. Here is a sample of what I get returned from the search engine when I search for 'food'. <doc> <docid>129305</docid> <title><span class='highlighted'>Food</span></title> <summary> <summarytext>Papers subject to Negative Resolution: 4 <span class='highlighted'>Food</span> <span class='highlighted'>Food</span> Irradiation (England) Regulations 2009 (S.I., 2009, No. 1584), dated 24 June 2009 (by Act), </summarytext> </summary> <paras> <paraitemcount>2</paraitemcount> <para> <paraitem>1</paraitem> <paraid>42</paraid> <pararelevance>100</pararelevance> <paraweights>50</paraweights> <paratext>4 <span class='highlighted'>Food</span></paratext> </para> <para> <paraitem>2</paraitem> <paraid>54</paraid> <pararelevance>100</pararelevance> <paraweights>50</paraweights> <paratext><span class='highlighted'>Food</span> Irradiation (England) Regulations 2009 (S.I., 2009, No. 1584), dated 24 June 2009 (by Act), with an Explanatory Memorandum and an Impact Assessment (</paratext> </para> </paras> </doc> As you see the search engine has returned a document that contains one summary and two extracts. So let's say the user clicks on the second extract in the search resutls page, the browser would open the detailed document in the same website, and would offer the user the possibility to go to the extract as the Google quick scroll extension does. Is there an existing jquery script for this? If not, can you suggest any jquery/javascript code that would simplify my task to implement this. Notes: I can access the extracts from the document details page. I'm aware that the HTML in some cases could be slightly different in the extract than in the details page, finding no match. The search engine does not return where the extract was located. At the moment I'm trying to understand the JS code that the extension uses.

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• Debugging site written mainly in JScript with AJAX code injection

  - by blumidoo

  Hello, I have a legacy code to maintain and while trying to understand the logic behind the code, I have run into lots of annoying issues. The application is written mainly in Java Script, with extensive usage of jQuery + different plugins, especially Accordion. It creates a wizard-like flow, where client code for the next step is downloaded in the background by injecting a result of a remote AJAX request. It also uses callbacks a lot and pretty complicated "by convention" programming style (lots of events handlers are created on the fly based on certain object names - e.g. current page name, current step name). Adding to that, the code is very messy and there is no obvious inner structure - the functions are scattered in the code, file names do not reflect the business role of the code, lots of functions and code snippets are most likely not used at all etc. PROBLEM: How to approach this code base, so that the inner flow of the code can be sort-of "reverse engineered" using a suite of smart debugging tools. Ideally, I would like to be able to attach to the running application and step through the code, breaking on each new function call. Also, it would be nice to be able to create a "diagram of calls" in the application (i.e. in order to run a particular page logic, this particular flow of function calls was executed in a particular order). Not to mention to be able to run a coverage analysis, identifying potentially orphaned code fragments. I would like to stress out once more, that it is impossible to understand the inner logic of the application just by looking at the code itself, unless you have LOTS of spare time and beer crates, which I unfortunately do not have :/ (shame...) An IDE of some sort that would aid in extending that code would be also great, but I am currently looking into possibility to use Visual Studio 2010 to do the job, as the site itself is a mix of Classic ASP and ASP.NET (I'd say - 70% Java Script with jQuery, 30% ASP). I have obviously tried FireBug, but I was unable to find a way to define a breakpoint or step into the code, which is "injected" into the client JS using AJAX calls (i.e. the application retrieves the code by invoking an URL and injects it to the client local code). Venkman debugger had similar issues. Any hints would be welcome. Feel free to ask additional questions.

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• Jquery Ajax Call In For Loop Only Runs Once - Possible Issue with Timing & Exit Condition?

  - by Grumps

  Background I'm building a form that uses autocomplete against the EchoNest API. First the users picks an artist, using the Artist Suggest call. Next they select a song but the Song and/Or Artist song search doesn't provide a "wild card" search. It only returns exact matches. So based on the forums they suggest building an array of the songs and using auto complete on the array. I can only get a maximum of 100 responses at a time. I do know based on the initial response the number of songs. My Plan: Wrap the ajax call in a for loop ('runonceloop'). Amend the loop exit condition after the first response with the total number of songs. Challenge I'm having: The 'runonceloop' only completes a singe loop because or at least that's what I believe: The exit condition is satisfied before the first response [1] is received. I've tried to adjust the 'exit condition' and 'counter' such that they are set and and increased at the end of the success block. This seems to lock up my browser. Can someone provide some guidance on this situation?[2] I'd really appreciate it. I also don't think turning async off is a good idea because it locks the browser. Response[1]: { "response": { "status": { "code": "0", "message": "Success", "version": "4.2" }, "start": 0, "total": 121, //Used for "songs": [ { "id": "SOXZYYG127F3E1B7A2", "title": "Karma police" }, { "id": "SOXZABD127F3E1B7A2", "title" : "Creep" } ] } } } Code[2] var songsList = []; function getSongs() { var numsongs = 2; //at least 2 runs. var startindex = 0; runonceloop: //<~~~~Referenced in question for (var j = 0;j >= numsongs;) { console.log('numsongs' + numsongs); $.ajax({ url: "http://developer.echonest.com/api/v4/artist/songs", dataType: "jsonp", data: { results: 100, api_key: "XXXXXXXXXXX", format: "jsonp", name: $("#artist").val(), start: startindex }, success: function (data) { var songs = data.response.songs; numsongs = data.response.total; //modify exit condition for (var i = 0; i < songs.length; i++) { songsList.push(songs[i].title); } j +=100;// increase by 100 to match number of responses. } }); }};

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• SharePoint 2010 Custom WCF Service - Windows and FBA Authentication

  - by e-rock

  I have SharePoint 2010 configured for Claims Based Authentication with both Windows and Forms Based Authentication (FBA) for external users. I also need to develop custom WCF Services. The issue is that I want Windows credentials passed into the WCF Service(s); however, I cannot seem to get the Windows credentials passed into the services. My custom WCF service appears to be using Anonymous authentication (which has to be enabled in IIS in order to display the FBA login screen). The example I have tried to follow is found at http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ff521581.aspx. The WCF service gets deployed to _vti_bin (ISAPI folder). Here is the code for the .svc file <%@ ServiceHost Language="C#" Debug="true" Service="MyCompany.CustomerPortal.SharePoint.UI.ISAPI.MyCompany.Services.LibraryManagers.LibraryUploader, $SharePoint.Project.AssemblyFullName$" Factory="Microsoft.SharePoint.Client.Services.MultipleBaseAddressBasicHttpBindingServiceHostFactory, Microsoft.SharePoint.Client.ServerRuntime, Version=14.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=71e9bce111e9429c" CodeBehind="LibraryUploader.svc.cs" %> Here is the code behind for the .svc file [ServiceContract] public interface ILibraryUploader { [OperationContract] string SiteName(); } [BasicHttpBindingServiceMetadataExchangeEndpoint] [AspNetCompatibilityRequirements(RequirementsMode = AspNetCompatibilityRequirementsMode.Required)] public class LibraryUploader : ILibraryUploader { //just try to return site title right now… public string SiteName() { WindowsIdentity identity = ServiceSecurityContext.Current.WindowsIdentity; ClaimsIdentity claimsIdentity = new ClaimsIdentity(identity); return SPContext.Current.Web.Title; } } The WCF test client I have just to test it out (WPF app) uses the following code to call the WCF service... private void Button1Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { BasicHttpBinding binding = new BasicHttpBinding(); binding.Security.Mode = BasicHttpSecurityMode.TransportCredentialOnly; binding.Security.Transport.ClientCredentialType = HttpClientCredentialType.Ntlm; EndpointAddress endpoint = new EndpointAddress( "http://dev.portal.data-image.local/_vti_bin/MyCompany.Services/LibraryManagers/LibraryUploader.svc"); LibraryUploaderClient libraryUploader = new LibraryUploaderClient(binding, endpoint); libraryUploader.ClientCredentials.Windows.AllowedImpersonationLevel = System.Security.Principal.TokenImpersonationLevel.Impersonation; MessageBox.Show(libraryUploader.SiteName()); } I am somewhat inexperienced with IIS security settings/configurations when it comes to Claims and trying to use both Windows and FBA. I am also inexperienced when it comes to WCF configurations for security. I usually develop internal biz apps and let Visual Studio decide what to use because security is rarely a concern.

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• How to pass ctor args in Activator.CreateInstance?

  - by thames

  I need a performance enhanced Activator.CreateInstance() and came across this article by Miron Abramson that uses a factory to create the instance in IL and then cache it. (I've included code below from Miron Abramson's site in case it somehow disappears). I'm new to IL Emit code and anything beyond Activator.CreateInstance() for instantiating a class and any help would be much appreciative. My problem is that I need to create an instance of an object that takes a ctor with a parameter. I see there is a way to pass in the Type of the parameter, but is there a way to pass in the value of the ctor parameter as well? If possible, I would like to use a method similar to CreateObjectFactory<T>(params object[] constructorParams) as some objects I want to instantiate may have more than 1 ctor param. // Source: http://mironabramson.com/blog/post/2008/08/Fast-version-of-the-ActivatorCreateInstance-method-using-IL.aspx public static class FastObjectFactory { private static readonly Hashtable creatorCache = Hashtable.Synchronized(new Hashtable()); private readonly static Type coType = typeof(CreateObject); public delegate object CreateObject(); /// /// Create an object that will used as a 'factory' to the specified type T /// public static CreateObject CreateObjectFactory() where T : class { Type t = typeof(T); FastObjectFactory.CreateObject c = creatorCache[t] as FastObjectFactory.CreateObject; if (c == null) { lock (creatorCache.SyncRoot) { c = creatorCache[t] as FastObjectFactory.CreateObject; if (c != null) { return c; } DynamicMethod dynMethod = new DynamicMethod("DM$OBJ_FACTORY_" + t.Name, typeof(object), null, t); ILGenerator ilGen = dynMethod.GetILGenerator(); ilGen.Emit(OpCodes.Newobj, t.GetConstructor(Type.EmptyTypes)); ilGen.Emit(OpCodes.Ret); c = (CreateObject)dynMethod.CreateDelegate(coType); creatorCache.Add(t, c); } } return c; } } Update to Miron's code from commentor on his post 2010-01-11 public static class FastObjectFactory2<T> where T : class, new() { public static Func<T> CreateObject { get; private set; } static FastObjectFactory2() { Type objType = typeof(T); var dynMethod = new DynamicMethod("DM$OBJ_FACTORY_" + objType.Name, objType, null, objType); ILGenerator ilGen = dynMethod.GetILGenerator(); ilGen.Emit(OpCodes.Newobj, objType.GetConstructor(Type.EmptyTypes)); ilGen.Emit(OpCodes.Ret); CreateObject = (Func<T>) dynMethod.CreateDelegate(typeof(Func<T>)); } }

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• Using VCL for the web (intraweb) as a trick for adding web interface to a legacy non-tiered (2 tiers

  - by user193655

  My team is maintaining a huge Client Server win32 Delphi application. It is a client/server application (Thick client) that uses DevArt (SDAC) components to connect to SQL Server. The business logic is often "trapped" in Component's event handlers, anyway with some degree of refactoring it is doable to move the business logic in common units (a big part of this work has already been done during refactoring... Maintaing legacy applications someone else wrote is very frustrating, but this is a very common job). Now there is the request of a web interface, I have several options of course, in this question i want to focus on the VCL for the web (intraweb) option. The idea is to use the common code (the same pas files) for both the client/server application and the web application. I heard of many people that moved legacy apps from delphi to intraweb, but here I am trying to keep the Thick client too. The idea is to use common code, may be with some compiler directives to write specific code: {$IFDEF CLIENTSERVER} {here goes the thick client specific code} {$ELSE} {here goes the Intraweb specific code} {$ENDIF} Then another problem is the "migration plan", let's say I have 300 features and on the first release I will have only 50 of them available in the web application. How to keep track of it? I was thinking of (ab)using Delphi interfaces to handle this. For example for the User Authentication I could move all the related code in a procedure and declare an interface like: type IUserAuthentication= interface['{0D57624C-CDDE-458B-A36C-436AE465B477}'] procedure UserAuthentication; end; In this way as I implement the IUserAuthentication interface in both the applications (Thick Client and Intraweb) I know that That feature has been "ported" to the web. Anyway I don't know if this approach makes sense. I made a prototype to simulate the whole process. It works for a "Hello world" application, but I wonder if it makes sense on a large application or this Interface idea is only counter-productive and can backfire. My question is: does this approach make sense? (the Interface idea is just an extra idea, it is not so important as the common code part described above) Is it a viable option? I understand it depends a lot of the kind of application, anyway to be generic my one is in the CRM/Accounting domain, and the number of concurrent users on a single installation is typically less than 20 with peaks of 50. EXTRA COMMENT (UPDATE): I ask this question because since I don't have a n-tier application I see Intraweb as the unique option for having a web application that has common code with the thick client. Developing webservices from the Delphi code makes no sense in my specific case, so the alternative I have is to write the web interface using ASP.NET (duplicating the business logic), but in this case I cannot take advantage of the common code in an easy way. Yes I could use dlls maybe, but my code is not suitable for that.

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• How to salvage SQL server 2008 query from KILLED/ROLLBACK state?

  - by littlegreen

  I have a stored procedure that inserts batches of millions of rows, emerging from a certain query, into an SQL database. It has one parameter selecting the batch; when this parameter is omitted, it will gather a list of batches and recursively call itself, in order to iterate over batches. In (pseudo-)code, it looks something like this: CREATE PROCEDURE spProcedure AS BEGIN IF @code = 0 BEGIN ... WHILE @@Fetch_Status=0 BEGIN EXEC spProcedure @code FETCH NEXT ... INTO @code END END ELSE BEGIN -- Disable indexes ... INSERT INTO table SELECT (...) -- Enable indexes ... Now it can happen that this procedure is slow, for whatever reason: it can't get a lock, one of the indexes it uses is misdefined or disabled. In that case, I want to be able kill the procedure, truncate and recreate the resulting table, and try again. However, when I try and kill the procedure, the process frequently oozes into a KILLED/ROLLBACK state from which there seems to be no return. From Google I have learned to do an sp_lock, find the spid, and then kill it with KILL <spid>. But when I try to kill it, it tells me SPID 75: transaction rollback in progress. Estimated rollback completion: 0%. Estimated time remaining: 554 seconds. I did find a forum message hinting that another spid should be killed before the other one can start a rollback. But that didn't work for me either, plus I do not understand, why that would be the case... could it be because I am recursively calling my own stored procedure? (But it should be having the same spid, right?) In any case, my process is just sitting there, being dead, not responding to kills, and locking the table. This is very frustrating, as I want to go on developing my queries, not waiting hours on my server sitting dead while pretending to be finishing a supposed rollback. Is there some way in which I can tell the server not to store any rollback information for my query? Or not to allow any other queries to interfere with the rollback, so that it will not take so long? Or how to rewrite my query in a better way, or how kill the process successfully without restarting the server?

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• Binding using ElementName for a control within the Grid\ListView

  - by i2nfo

  Hi I am currently busy with a WPF application that uses a "GridView". There are several template columns one of which is a ComboBox in column 3 named cmbInputControlType. What I would like to do using my Converter class, which I have already created, is binding the visibility of the TextBox(txtFrom) in column 4 to the selected value of the ComboBox(Column 3). Basically if you select a value from the the ComboBox(cmbInputControlType - column 3), it must update teh visibility of the TextBox(txtFrom - column 4) <ListView Height="150" ScrollViewer.HorizontalScrollBarVisibility="Auto" ScrollViewer.VerticalScrollBarVisibility="Auto" Width="435" HorizontalAlignment="Center" Margin="5,0,5,5" Name="lstInput" VerticalAlignment="Top" SelectionMode="Single" HorizontalContentAlignment="Left"> <ListView.Resources> <local:InputControlTypeConverter x:Key="InputConType" /> </ListView.Resources> <ListView.View> <GridView> <!--Column 1--> <GridViewColumn Header="ParameterName" x:Name="lblParameterName" DisplayMemberBinding="{Binding ParameterName}" Width="100" /> <!--Column 2--> <GridViewColumn Header="DisplayName"> <GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBox x:Name="txtDisplayName" Width="150" /> </DataTemplate> </GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> </GridViewColumn> <!--Column 3--> <GridViewColumn Header="ControlType"> <GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <ComboBox x:Name="cmbInputControlType" Width="100" SelectionChanged="cmbInputControlType_SelectionChanged" > <ComboBoxItem Content="TextBox" /> <ComboBoxItem Content="Copy" /> </ComboBox> </DataTemplate> </GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> </GridViewColumn> <!--Column 4--> <GridViewColumn Header="From"> <GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBox x:Name="txtCopyFrom" Width="150" Visibility="{Binding ElementName=cmbInputControlType,Path=SelectedItem, Converter={StaticResource InputConType}}" /> </DataTemplate> </GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> </GridViewColumn> <!--Column 5--> <GridViewColumn Header="To"> <GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBox x:Name="txtCopyTo" Width="150" /> </DataTemplate> </GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> </GridViewColumn> </GridView> </ListView.View> </ListView>

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• UINavigationBar unresponsive after canceling a UITableView search in nav controller in tab bar in a popover

  - by Mark

  Ok, this is an odd one and I can reproduce it with a new project easily. Here is the setup: I have a UISplitViewController. In the left side I have a UITabBarController. In this tab bar controller I have two UINavigationControllers. In the navigation controllers I have UITableViewControllers. These table views have search bars on them. Ok, what happens with this setup is that if I'm in portrait mode and bring up this view in the popover and I start a search in one of the table views and cancel it, the navigation bar becomes unresponsive. That is, the "back" button as well as the right side button cannot be clicked. If I do the exact same thing in landscape mode so we are not in a popover, this doesn't happen. The navigation bar stays responsive. So, the problem only seems to happen inside a popover. I've also noticed that if I do the search but click on an item in the search results which ends up loading something into the "detail view" of the split view and dismissing the popover, and then come back to the popover and then click the Cancel button for the search, the navigation bar is responsive. My application is a universal app and uses the same tab bar controller in the iPhone interface and it works there without this issue. As I mentioned above, I can easily reproduce this with a new project. Here are the steps if you want to try it out yourself: start new project - split view create new UITableViewController class (i named TableViewController) uncomment out the viewDidLoad method as well as the rightBarButtonItem line in viewDidLoad (so we will have an Edit button in the navigation bar) enter any values you want to return from numberOfSectioinsInTableView and numberOfRowsInSection methods open MainWindow.xib and do the following: please note that you will need to be viewing the xib in the middle "view mode" so you can expand the contents of the items drag a Tab Bar Controller into the xib to replace the Navigation Controller item drag a Navigation Controller into the xib as another item under the Tab Bar Controller delete the other two view controllers that are under the Tab Bar Controller (so, now our tab bar has just the one navigation controller on it) inside the navigation controller, drag in a Table View Controller and use it to replace the View Controller (Root View Controller) change the class of the new Table View Controller to the class created above (TableViewController for me) double-click on the Table View under the new Table View Controller to open it up (will be displayed in the tab bar inside the split view controller) drag a "Search Bar and Search Display" onto the table view save the xib run the project in simulator while in portrait mode, click on the Root List button to bring up popover notice the Edit button is clickable click in the Search box - we go into search mode click the Cancel button to exit search mode notice the Edit button no longer works So, can anyone help me figure out why this is happening? Thanks, Mark

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• PL/SQL pre-compile and Code Quality checks in an automatted build environment?

  - by Lars Corneliussen

  We build software using Hudson and Maven. We have C#, java and last, but not least PL/SQL sources (sprocs, packages, DDL, crud) For C# and Java we do unit tests and code analysis, but we don't really know the health of our PL/SQL sources before we actually publish them to the target database. Requirements There are a couple of things we wan't to test in the following priority: Are the sources valid, hence "compilable"? For packages, with respect to a certain database, would they compile? Code Quality: Do we have code flaws like duplicates, too complex methods or other violations to a defined set of rules? Also, the tool must run head-less (commandline, ant, ...) we wan't to do analysis on a partial code base (changed sources only) Tools We did a little research and found the following tools that could potencially help: Cast Application Intelligence Platform (AIP): Seems to be a server that grasps information about "anything". Couldn't find a console version that would export in readable format. Toad for Oracle: The Professional version is said to include something called Xpert validates a set of rules against a code base. Sonar + PL/SQL-Plugin: Uses Toad for Oracle to display code-health the sonar-way. This is for browsing the current state of the code base. Semantic Designs DMSToolkit: Quite general analysis of source code base. Commandline available? Semantic Designs Clones Detector: Detects clones. But also via command line? Fortify Source Code Analyzer: Seems to be focussed on security issues. But maybe it is extensible? more... So far, Toad for Oracle together with Sonar seems to be an elegant solution. But may be we are missing something here? Any ideas? Other products? Experiences? Related Questions on SO: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/531430/any-static-code-analysis-tools-for-stored-procedures http://stackoverflow.com/questions/839707/any-code-quality-tool-for-pl-sql http://stackoverflow.com/questions/956104/is-there-a-static-analysis-tool-for-python-ruby-sql-cobol-perl-and-pl-sql

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• Log4net duplicate logging entires

  - by user210713

  I recently switched out log4net logging from using config files to being set up programmatically. This has resulted in the nhiberate entries getting repeated 2 or sometimes 3 times. Here's the code. It uses a string which looks something like this "logger1|debug,logger2|info" private void SetupLog4netLoggers() { IAppender appender = GetAppender(); SetupRootLogger(appender); foreach (string logger in Loggers) { CommaStringList parts = new CommaStringList(logger, '|'); if (parts.Count != 2) continue; AddLogger(parts[0], parts[1], appender); } log.Debug("Log4net has been setup"); } private IAppender GetAppender() { RollingFileAppender appender = new RollingFileAppender(); appender.File = LogFile; appender.AppendToFile = true; appender.MaximumFileSize = MaximumFileSize; appender.MaxSizeRollBackups = MaximumBackups; PatternLayout layout = new PatternLayout(PATTERN); layout.ActivateOptions(); appender.Layout = layout; appender.ActivateOptions(); return appender; } private void SetupRootLogger(IAppender appender) { Hierarchy hierarchy = (Hierarchy)LogManager.GetRepository(); hierarchy.Root.RemoveAllAppenders(); hierarchy.Root.AddAppender(appender); hierarchy.Root.Level = GetLevel(RootLevel); hierarchy.Configured = true; log.Debug("Root logger setup, level[" + RootLevel + "]"); } private void AddLogger(string name, string level, IAppender appender) { Logger logger = LogManager.GetRepository().GetLogger(name)as Logger; if (logger == null) return; logger.Level = GetLevel(level); logger.Additivity = false; logger.RemoveAllAppenders(); logger.AddAppender(appender); log.Debug("logger[" + name + "] added, level[" + level + "]"); } And here's an example of what we see in our logs... 2010-05-06 15:50:39,781 [1] DEBUG NHibernate.Impl.SessionImpl - running ISession.Dispose() 2010-05-06 15:50:39,781 [1] DEBUG NHibernate.Impl.SessionImpl - closing session 2010-05-06 15:50:39,781 [1] DEBUG NHibernate.AdoNet.AbstractBatcher - running BatcherImpl.Dispose(true) 2010-05-06 15:50:39,796 [1] DEBUG NHibernate.Impl.SessionImpl - running ISession.Dispose() 2010-05-06 15:50:39,796 [1] DEBUG NHibernate.Impl.SessionImpl - closing session 2010-05-06 15:50:39,796 [1] DEBUG NHibernate.AdoNet.AbstractBatcher - running BatcherImpl.Dispose(true) 2010-05-06 15:50:39,796 [1] DEBUG NHibernate.Impl.SessionImpl - running ISession.Dispose() 2010-05-06 15:50:39,796 [1] DEBUG NHibernate.Impl.SessionImpl - closing session 2010-05-06 15:50:39,796 [1] DEBUG NHibernate.AdoNet.AbstractBatcher - running BatcherImpl.Dispose(true) Any hints welcome.

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• Count number of queries executed by NHibernate in a unit test

  - by Bittercoder

  In some unit/integration tests of the code we wish to check that correct usage of the second level cache is being employed by our code. Based on the code presented by Ayende here: http://ayende.com/Blog/archive/2006/09/07/MeasuringNHibernatesQueriesPerPage.aspx I wrote a simple class for doing just that: public class QueryCounter : IDisposable { CountToContextItemsAppender _appender; public int QueryCount { get { return _appender.Count; } } public void Dispose() { var logger = (Logger) LogManager.GetLogger("NHibernate.SQL").Logger; logger.RemoveAppender(_appender); } public static QueryCounter Start() { var logger = (Logger) LogManager.GetLogger("NHibernate.SQL").Logger; lock (logger) { foreach (IAppender existingAppender in logger.Appenders) { if (existingAppender is CountToContextItemsAppender) { var countAppender = (CountToContextItemsAppender) existingAppender; countAppender.Reset(); return new QueryCounter {_appender = (CountToContextItemsAppender) existingAppender}; } } var newAppender = new CountToContextItemsAppender(); logger.AddAppender(newAppender); logger.Level = Level.Debug; logger.Additivity = false; return new QueryCounter {_appender = newAppender}; } } public class CountToContextItemsAppender : IAppender { int _count; public int Count { get { return _count; } } public void Close() { } public void DoAppend(LoggingEvent loggingEvent) { if (string.Empty.Equals(loggingEvent.MessageObject)) return; _count++; } public string Name { get; set; } public void Reset() { _count = 0; } } } With intended usage: using (var counter = QueryCounter.Start()) { // ... do something Assert.Equal(1, counter.QueryCount); // check the query count matches our expectations } But it always returns 0 for Query count. No sql statements are being logged. However if I make use of Nhibernate Profiler and invoke this in my test case: NHibernateProfiler.Intialize() Where NHProf uses a similar approach to capture logging output from NHibernate for analysis via log4net etc. then my QueryCounter starts working. It looks like I'm missing something in my code to get log4net configured correctly for logging nhibernate sql ... does anyone have any pointers on what else I need to do to get sql logging output from Nhibernate?

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