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• WebView and HTML5 <video>

  - by brian moore

  I'm piecing together a cheapo app that amongst other things "frames" some of our websites... Pretty simple with the WebViewClient... until I hit the video. The video is done as HTML5 elements, and these work fine and dandy on Chrome, iPhones, and now that we fixed the encoding issues it works great on Android... in the native browser. Now the rub: WebView doesn't like it. At all. I can click on the poster image, and nothing happens. Googling, I found http://www.codelark.com/2010/05/12/android-viewing-video-from-embedded-webview/ which is close, but seems to be based on a 'link' (as in a href...) instead of a video element. (onDownloadListener does not appear to get invoked on video elements...) I also see references to overriding onShowCustomView, but that seems to not get called on video elements... nor does shouldOverrideUrlLoading.. I would rather not get into "pull xml from the server, reformat it in the app".. by keeping the story layout on the server, I can control the content a bit better without forcing people to keep updating an app. So if I can convince WebView to handle tags like the native browser, that would be best. I'm clearly missing something obvious.. but I have no clue what.

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• Hibernate collection multiple types

  - by CaptainAwesomePants

  I have a class Player that contains a list of Accessory objects. There are two kinds of Accessories. SocketedAccessories have a list of SocketJewels, and MagicAccessories have a list of MagicEnchantments. At the database level, there is a players table that represents the player, and an accessories table that contains a list of accessories. Accessories have a type field that indicates whether they are socketed or magical, and the columns that are only used by one type are just left blank by entries of the other type. There are socket_jewels and magic_enchantments tables, representing the socket jewels or the magic enchantments on each accessory. I am trying to figure out the correct way to map this with Hibernate. One way would be for the player to have two lists of accessories, one for SocketedAccessories and one for MagicAccessories. That seems undesirable, though. What I want is a way to specify that player should have a field List<Accessory> accessories that contains both types of thing. Is there a way to tell Hibernate, in either hbm.xml or annotations, to do this?

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• Populating an array into a TableView - Thanks in advance.

  - by tssav

  Hello Developers, View not being populated with the array. I would really appreciate if I could get some help. Thanks!! In a tableView I have the following: NSDictionary *cat = [category objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; cell.textLabel.text = [cat valueForKey:@"reference"]; This populates the tableView with the content of the array from an XML file. There is another array “data” that prints out the content to the debug console and I want to populate another view with this content. But I am having lot of trouble populating the next view with the data array. NSLog(@"cellForRowAtIndexPath-- Reference:%@: Verse:%@", [cat valueForKey:@"reference"], [cat valueForKey:@"data"]); The didSelectRowAtIndexPath method looks like this: Verse *vvc = [[Verse alloc] initWithNibName:@"VerseView" bundle:nil]; vvc.verses = [[category objectAtIndex:indexPath.row] valueForKey:@"verse"]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:vvc animated:YES]; [vvc release]; [tableView deselectRowAtIndexPath:indexPath animated:YES]; In the cellForRowAtIndexPath of the next view I have the following: NSDictionary *cat = [verses objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; cell.textLabel.text = [cat valueForKey:@"data"]; What I would like is to have the “data” in a textView. I don’t know what’s wrong. Any help would be appreciated!

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• Ajax request (from .NET) give me unexpected results

  - by ironnailpiercethesky

  I wanted to learn a little more about web and .NET so i decided to write a program to download binaries, webpages and does a little ajax. The first download site i tried was too easy. So i went against uploading.com. It seemed good, no captcha, some ajax use required, you cant guess all the data, it was perfect. After 2hours of messing around i got frustrated. For the life of me i could not get the ajax response to give me what i was expecting. I decided to use tamper data clear my cookies, click on the entry for the ajax request. Copy the Referer, cookies and postdata and came up with this code. It does not work! I am shocked that copying those fields did not work. I even tried setting the user agent (not in code linked) and it still did not work. Why isnt this POST on the ajax request not giving me the correct file? I notice the JsHttpRequest=12719132559480-xml changes based on time so if you want to run the code you should grab a new snapshot with tamperdata (or at least update that url). I dont see any extra headers in tamper data so does anyone know why i might not be getting the response expected? I know disabling cookies or javascript will make the link 'expired' automatically. I dont think javascript will matter because i got the data from tamperdata at the moment of request so what gives? What am i forgetting or what data am i not submitting properly?

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• What are the arguments against the inclusion of server side scripting in JavaScript code blocks?

  - by James Wiseman

  I've been arguing for some time against embedding server-side tags in JavaScript code, but was put on the spot today by a developer who seemed unconvinced The code in question was a legacy ASP application, although this is largely unimportant as it could equally apply to ASP.NET or PHP (for example). The example in question revolved around the use of a constant that they had defined in ServerSide code. 'VB Const MY_CONST: MY_CONST = 1 If sMyVbVar = MY_CONST Then 'Do Something End If //JavaScript if (sMyJsVar === "<%= MY_CONST%>"){ //DoSomething } My standard arguments against this are: Script injection: The server-side tag could include code that can break the JavaScript code Unit testing. Harder to isolate units of code for testing Code Separation : We should keep web page technologies apart as much as possible. The reason for doing this was so that the developer did not have to define the constant in two places. They reasoned that as it was a value that they controlled, that it wasn't subject to script injection. This reduced my justification for (1) to "We're trying to keep the standards simple, and defining exception cases would confuse people" The unit testing and code separation arguments did not hold water either, as the page itself was a horrible amalgam of HTML, JavaScript, ASP.NET, CSS, XML....you name it, it was there. No code that was every going to be included in this page could possibly be unit tested. So I found myself feeling like a bit of a pedant insisting that the code was changed, given the circumstances. Are there any further arguments that might support my reasoning, or am I, in fact being a bit pedantic in this insistence?

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• Projects integration question

  - by qkrsppopcmpt

  Other team has one legacy system, which is data aggregators. It is implemented as web service using JAVA, SOAP,MTOM,Tomcat and Axis2. They have wsdl files defining functionalities such as search, retrieve data, upload, download. Our team has a new developed website which is developed using RoR with mySQL. It is sort of social networking. Users can register, add friends, upload images, videos. Also, they can search data. We are required to connect the two systems. One possible solution I think is - Adding components into our website. The component invoke services on the aggregators. - Synchronize website database to the aggregators. My doubts are: 1. How to add components in our websites? The components should use Java or Ruby or adapter from java to ruby. It is possible using ruby invoke web service. I think it should work since it is the point of web service. If so, can ruby call those services in wsdl directly? But how to deal with those different data structure? How to synchroinze our database to the aggregators. I think the best way is also through web service invocation such as upload. That means, we have to export the db records into xml files and then write some tools to upload. The web service project support MTOM. So, it is fine to upload huge data. Am I on the right record? Can anybody give me some hint. Thanks.

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• NSNotification vs. Delegate Protocols?

  - by jr

  I have an iPhone application which basically is getting information from an API (in XML, but maybe JSON eventually). The result objects are typically displayed in view controllers (tables mainly). Here is the architecture right now. I have NSOperation classes which fetch the different objects from the remote server. Each of these NSOperation classes, will take a custom delegate method which will fire back the resulting objects as they are parsed, and then finally a method when no more results are available. So, the protocol for the delegates will be something like: (void) ObjectTypeResult:(ObjectType *)result; (void) ObjectTypeNoMoreResults; I think the solution works well, but I do end up with a bunch of delegate protocols around and then my view controllers have to implement all these delegate methods. I don't think its that bad, but I'm always on the lookout for a better design. So, I'm thinking about using NSNotifications to remove the use of the delegates. I could include the object in the userInfo part of the notification and just post objects as received, and then a final event when no more are available. Then I could just have one method in each view controller to receive all the data, even when using multiple objects in one controller.† So, can someone share with me some pros/cons of each approach. Should I consider refactoring my code to use Events rather then the delegates? Is one better then the other in certain situations? In my scenario I'm really not looking to receive notifications in multiple places, so maybe the protocol based delegates are the way to go. Thanks!

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• Servlet Security question about j_security_check, j_username and j_password

  - by Nitesh Panchal

  Hello, I used jdbcRealm in my web application and it's working fine. I defined all constraints also in my web.xml. Like all pages of url pattern /Admin/* should be accessed by only admin. I have a login form with uses standard j_security_check, j_username and j_password. Now, when i type Admin/home.jsf it rightly redirects me login.jsf and there when i type the password i am redirected to home.jsf. This works alright but problem comes i directly go to login.jsf and then type password and username. This time it again redirects me to login.jsf. Is there any way through which i can specify which page to go when successful login is there? I need to specify different different pages for different roles. For Admin, it is /Admin/home.jsf for general users it is /General/home.jsf because login form is shared between different type of users. Where do i specify all these things? Secondly, i want to have a remember me checkbox at the end of login form. How do i do this? By default, it is submitted to j_security_check servlet and i have no control over its execution. Please help. This doesn't seem so hard but looks like i am missing something.

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• How to inherit the current path when invoking Maven's exec-maven-plugin?

  - by wishihadabettername

  I have an <exec-maven-plugin> which calls an external command (in this case, svnversion). The command is in the path for the current user. However, when a separate shell is spawned by the plugin, the path is not initialized. I don't want to hardcode or define a variable for each external command (there would be too much to maintain, especially that there are both Windows and *nix users). My pom.xml contains the following: <plugin> <groupId>org.codehaus.mojo</groupId> <artifactId>exec-maven-plugin</artifactId> <version>1.1</version> <executions> <execution> <id>svnversion-exec</id> <phase>process-resources</phase> <goals> <goal>exec</goal> </goals> <configuration> <executable>svnversion</executable> <arguments> <argument><![CDATA[ >version.txt ]]></argument> </arguments> </configuration> </execution> </executions> </plugin> Currently I get the following output: [INFO] [exec:exec {execution: svnversion-exec}] 'svnversion' is not recognized as an internal or external command, operable program or batch file. [ERROR] BUILD ERROR: Result of cmd.exe /X /C "svnversion >version.txt" execution is: '1'. Thank you!

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• How to accept an incoming call by clicking a button?

  - by upright

  HI, all! I'm trying to implement my own phone call handling UI. What I want to do is, if a call comes in, the incoming telephone number and a picture are displayed, and, if I press a button, the incoming call will be accepted/answered. The related codes are: @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); answerButton = (Button) findViewById(R.id.pickup); answerButton.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { public void onClick(final View v) { Intent intent = new Intent("android.intent.action.ANSWER"); intent.setFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); startActivity(intent); } }); Sadly, the code does not work. At first, an exception is thrown if I press my answer button: ActivityNotFoundException: No Activity found to handle Intent { act=android.intent.action.ANSWER Then I added an entry in the AndroidManifest.xml: I run the app again, there is no exception anymore. However, I doubt the incoming call is not really accepted. Because if the press the Android's screen answer button (green button), the incoming call is accepted and a green button is also displayed on the upper left corner of the emulator screen, while my app doesn't. I also read the Phone app's source code in android source. There is method such as acceptCall() in the Phone class. But these codes seem difficult for me to use, because there are many imports declaration in the code, such as : import com.android.internal.telephony.Call; import com.android.internal.telephony.CallStateException; import com.android.internal.telephony.CallerInfo; import com.android.internal.telephony.CallerInfoAsyncQuery; import com.android.internal.telephony.Connection; import com.android.internal.telephony.MmiCode; import com.android.internal.telephony.Phone; And, if I add these imports in my code, there will be too many errors, such as : "The import com.android.internal.telephony cannot be resolved" What is the right and simple way for my problem? Thanks in advance!

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• What is the performance impact of CSS's universal selector?

  - by Bungle

  I'm trying to find some simple client-side performance tweaks in a page that receives millions of monthly pageviews. One concern that I have is the use of the CSS universal selector (*). As an example, consider a very simple HTML document like the following: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en" lang="en"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"/> <title>Example</title> <style type="text/css"> * { margin: 0; padding: 0; } </head> <body> <h1>This is a heading</h1> <p>This is a paragraph of text.</p> </body> </html> The universal selector will apply the above declaration to the body, h1 and p elements, since those are the only ones in the document. In general, would I see better performance from a rule such as: body, h1, p { margin: 0; padding: 0; } Or would this have exactly the same net effect? Essentially, what I'm asking is if these rules are effectively equivalent in this case, or if the universal selector has to perform more unnecessary work that I may not be aware of. I realize that the performance impact in this example may be very small, but I'm hoping to learn something that may lead to more significant performance improvements in real-world situations. Thanks for any help!

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• Which technology should I use to transform my latex documents into html documents

  - by Matthias Günther

  Hey, I want to write a little program that transforms my TeX files into HTML. I want to parse the documents and turn the macros (the build-in and of course my own) into HTML pieces. Here are my requirements: predefined rules (e.g. begin{itemize} \item text \end{itemize} = <br> <p>text </p> <br/>) defining own CSS style ability to convert formulars (extract the formulars, load them in an imagecreator and then save the jpg/png) easy to maintain and concise I know there are several technologies out there, but I don't exactly know which is the best for me. Here are the technologies which flow into my mind Ruby (I/O is easy, formular loading via webrat), XML XSLT (I don't think that I need just overhead) perl (there are many libs out there but I'm not quite familiar with it) bash (I worked with sed and was surprised how easy it was to work with regular expressions) latex2html ... (these converters won't work for me and they don't give me freedom in parsing) Any suggestions, hints and comments are welcome. Thanks for your time, folks.

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• problem configure JBoss to work with JNDI(2)

  - by Spiderman

  in continuation to the question from last week: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2828237/problem-configure-jboss-to-work-with-jndi I'm trying to bind datasource in JBoss and use it in my application. In my struggling, I already managed to avoid the javax.naming.NameNotFoundException by: 1. using in java new InitialContext().lookup(connection); instead of new JndiObjectFactoryBean().setJndiName(connection); 2. changing the connection name from: 'jndi-name' to 'java:jndi-name' Now the problem is that the datasouce that I get from the lookup is null. I created the datsource file: <datasources> <local-tx-datasource> <jndi-name>bilby</jndi-name> <connection-url>jdbc:oracle:myURL</connection-url> <driver-class>oracle.jdbc.OracleDriver </driver-class> <user-name>myUsername</user-name> <password>myPassword</password> <exception-sorter-class- name>org.jboss.resource.adapter.jdbc.vendor.OracleExceptionSorter</exception-sorter-class-name> <metadata> <type-mapping>Oracle9i</type-mapping> </metadata> </local-tx-datasource> </datasources> and put it under \server\default\deploy\oracle-ds.xml I get during runtime the line: 18:37:56,560 INFO [ConnectionFactoryBindingService] Bound ConnectionManager 'jb oss.jca:service=DataSourceBinding,name=bilby' to JNDI name 'java:bilby' So my question is - why do I get null as my datasource???

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• Using the Loader display object to load X jpegs, then resize each of the images differently while th

  - by Supernovah

  Hey there, I was wondering if this is possible to do I am able to load the image in and have it displayed easily enough by using addChild(myLoader); where myLoader is in the classWide private scope. The problem is, whenever I call my function inside that class which adds the loader to the stage, it clears the old one and puts this new one in even if I add a bit where I change myLoader.name to something related to how many images it has completed. This is a serious hinderance as I can't do anything besides KNOW how many images I will need to load and write the code X times. The problem being is that the urls are read from an XML file. My main desire was to have a classWide private Array which contained my loaders and I would assign them using myArray.push(myLoader) each time the load had completed. There is a problem which is that it compiles but they never get displayed it would work as this is written public class Images extends Sprite { private var imagesLoaded = 0; private var myLoader:Loader; ... public function Images():Void { myLoader = new Loader; //loop calling a myLoader.load(imageURL) for a bunch of urls myLoader.contentLoaderInfo.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, imageLoaded); } public function imageLoaded { myArray[imagesLoaded] = myLoader; trace("does\'nt get to here!!"); addChild(myArray[imagesLoaded]); imagesLoaded++; } }

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• Alternative to using c:out to prevent XSS

  - by lynxforest

  I'm working on preventing cross site scripting (XSS) in a Java, Spring based, Web application. I have already implemented a servlet filter similar to this example http://greatwebguy.com/programming/java/simple-cross-site-scripting-xss-servlet-filter/ which sanitizes all the input into the application. As an extra security measure I would like to also sanitize all output of the application in all JSPs. I have done some research to see how this could be done and found two complementary options. One of them is the use of Spring's defaultHtmlEscape attribute. This was very easy to implement (a few lines in web.xml), and it works great when your output is going through one of spring's tags (ie: message, or form tags). The other option I have found is to not directly use EL expressions such as ${...} and instead use <c:out value="${...}" /> That second approach works perfectly, however due to the size of the application I am working on (200+ JSP files). It is a very cumbersome task to have to replace all inappropriate uses of EL expressions with the c:out tag. Also it would become a cumbersome task in the future to make sure all developers stick to this convention of using the c:out tag (not to mention, how much more unreadable the code would be). Is there alternative way to escape the output of EL expressions that would require fewer code modifications? Thank you in advance.

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• OpenSocial create activity from submit click

  - by russp

  Hi I'm "playing with OpsnSocial" and think I get a lot of it (well thanks to Googles' bits) but one question if I may. Creating an activity Lets say I have a form like this (simple) <form> <input type="text" name="" id="testinput" value=""/> <input type="submit" name="" id="" value=""/> </form> And I want to post the value of the text field (and or a message i.e "just posted" to the "users" activity. Do I use a function like this? function createActivity() { if (viewer) { var activity = opensocial.newActivity({ title: viewer.getDisplayName() + ' VALUE FROM FORM '}); opensocial.requestCreateActivity(activity, "HIGH", function() { setTimeout(initAllData,1000); }); } }; If so, how do I pass the text field value to it - is it something like this? var testinput = document.getElementById("testinput"); so the function may look like function createActivity() { if (viewer) { var activity = opensocial.newActivity({ title: viewer.getDisplayName() + testinput }); opensocial.requestCreateActivity(activity, "HIGH", function() { setTimeout(initAllData,1000); }); } }; And how do I trigger the function by using the submit button. In my basic JQuery I would use $('#submitID').submit(function(){ 'bits in here '}); Is at "simple as that i.e. use the createActivity function and it will use the OS framework to "post" to the activity.xml

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• I can learn either C or Java, which one should I choose first? Should I take them concurrently?

  - by GR1000

  I realize this is a subject of hot debate, but I'm interested in opinions that relate to my specific situation. I want to learn the basics and fundamentals of programming, so I'm already taking a college course in general programming concepts. It isn't covering a specific language, but it's giving me a solid foundation that I can build upon when I move on to a class that teaches a specific language. My two options for a specific language are Java and C because those are the two languages taught at the college I want to take classes from. What I want to do is learn a complex language so that I can apply that knowledge to languages that I use, or will eventually use, in my current job building web pages: XHTML, CSS, JavaScript, PHP, XML, ActionScript. I'm not necessariy interested in becoming a Java developer or a C developer in the immediate future, but I do have aspirations of developing web applications and iPod/iPhone applications. So, basically, I'm looking for answers to these questions and the reasoning behind them: Do I take the introductory course in Java first, and then take the intro course in C, or Do I take C first and then take Java? Is there any reason not to take them concurrently? Should I skip C altogether as Java covers everything I need to know? EDIT: Thanks everyone for your thoughtful and insightful responses.

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• How do I secure a .NET Web Service for use by an iPhone application?

  - by David A Gibson

  Hello, The title says it all, I have a Web Service written in .NET that provides data for an iPhone application. It will also allow the application make a "reservation." Currently it's all internal to the corporate network but obviously when the iPhone application is published I will need ensure the Web Service is available externally. How would I go about securing the Web Service? There are two aspects I'm looking into: Authentication for accessing the web service Protection for the data being transferred I'm no so bothered about the data being passed back and forth as it will be viewable in the application anyway (which will be free). The key issue for me is preventing users from accessing the Web Service and making reservations themselves. At the moment I am considering encrypting any strings in the XML data passed back and forth so only the client can effectively use the web service sidestepping the need for authentication and providing protection for the data. This is the only model I have seen but I think the overheads on the iPhone and even for the web service make for a poor user experience. Any solutions at all would be most welcome? Thanks

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• iphone file download not working

  - by Anonymous

  Hi, In my app I 'm first connecting to a web service, which in return sends a url for a file. I use the url to download the file and then display it on the new view. I get the correct URL but not able to download file from that location. I have another test app which will download file from the same location and it works like a charm. following is my code for webservice-file download. This is a snippet of the code where i 'm parsing the web service xml and then pass the result to NSData for file download. Any suggestions where am i going wrong -- I 'm referring to the following tutorials. Web Service PDF Viewer if ([elementName isEqualToString:@"PRHPdfResultsResult"]) { NSLog(soapResults); UIAlertView *alert = [[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"Report downloaded from:" message:soapResults delegate:self cancelButtonTitle:@"OK" otherButtonTitles:nil]; NSData *pdfData = [[NSData alloc] initWithContentsOfURL:[NSURL URLWithString:soapResults]]; //Store the Data locally as PDF File NSString *resourceDocPath = [[NSString alloc] initWithString:[[[[NSBundle mainBundle] resourcePath] stringByDeletingLastPathComponent] stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"Documents"]]; NSString *filePath = [resourceDocPath stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"myPDF.pdf"]; [pdfData writeToFile:filePath atomically:YES]; [alert show]; [alert release]; [soapResults setString:@""]; elementFound = FALSE; }

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• Hibernate not saving foreign key, but with junit it's ok

  - by Leonardo

  Hi All, I have this strange problem. In a J2ee webapp with spring, smartgwt and hibernate, it happens that I have a class A wich has a set of class B, both of them mapped to table A and table B. I wrote a simple test case for testing the service manager which is supposed to do insert, update, delete and everything work as expected especially during insert. In the end I have one record in A and records in B with foreign key to A. But when I try to call the service from the web app, the entity in B are saved without a foreign key reference. I am sure that the service is the same. One thing I noticed is that enabling hibernate logging, seems that when the service is called from the application, one more update is made: insert A insert B update A update B update B (foreign key only) update A <--- ??? update B <--- ??? Instead, when junit test case is run, the update is as follows: insert A insert B update A update B update B (foreign key only) I suppose the latest update is what is causing the erroe, maybe it is overwriting values. Considering that the app is using spring, with the well known mechanism of DAO + Manager, where can I investigate to solve this issue ? Someone told me that the session is not closed, so hibernate would do one more update before release the objects by itself. I am pretty sure that all the configuration hbm, xml, and the rest are fine...but I maybe wrong. thanks

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• Spring 3 MVC validation BindingResult doesn't contain any errors

  - by Travelsized

  I'm attempting to get a Spring 3.0.2 WebMVC project running with the new annotated validation support. I have a Hibernate entity annotated like this: @Entity @Table(name = "client") public class Client implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; @Id @Basic(optional = false) @Column(name = "clientId", nullable = false) @NotEmpty private Integer clientId; @Basic(optional = false) @Column(name = "firstname", nullable = false, length = 45) @NotEmpty @Size(min=2, max=45) private String firstname; ... more fields, getters and setters } I've turned on mvc annotation support in my applicationContext.xml file: <mvc:annotation-driven /> And I have a method in my controller that responds to a form submission: @RequestMapping(value="/addClient.htm") public String addClient(@ModelAttribute("client") @Valid Client client, BindingResult result) { if(result.hasErrors()) { return "addClient"; } service.storeClient(client); return "clientResult"; } When my app loads in the server, I can see in the server log file that it loads a validator: 15 [http-8084-2] INFO org.hibernate.validator.util.Version - Hibernate Validator 4.0.2.GA The problem I'm having is that the validator doesn't seem to kick in. I turned on the debugger, and when I get into the controller method, the BindingResult contains 0 errors after I submit an empty form. (The BindingResult does show that it contains the Client object as a target.) It then proceeds to insert a record without an Id and throws an exception. If I fill out an Id but leave the name blank, it creates a record with the Id and empty fields. What steps am I missing to get the validation working?

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• Hibernate mapping Problem

  - by Geln Yang

  Hi, There is a table Item like, code,name 01,parent1 02,parent2 0101,child11 0102,child12 0201,child21 0202,child22 Create a java object and hbm xml to map the table.The Item.parent is a Item whose code is equal to the first two characters of its code : class Item{ String code; String name; Item parent; List<Item> children; .... setter/getter.... } <hibernate-mapping> <class name="Item" table="Item"> <id name="code" length="4" type="string"> <generator class="assigned" /> </id> <property name="name" column="name" length="50" not-null="true" /> <many-to-one name="parent" class="Item" not-found="ignore"> <formula> <![CDATA[ (select i.code,r.name from Item i where (case length(code) when 4 then i.code=SUBSTRING(code,1,2) else false end)) ]]> </formula> </many-to-one> <bag name="children"></bag> </class> </hibernate-mapping> I try to use formula to define the many-to-one relationship,but it doesn't work!Is there something wrong?Or is there other method? Thanks! ps,I use mysql database.

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• jquery script that used to work is not working with jquery 1.4.2

  - by Zayatzz

  ... and i cant figure out why. The script is following: <script type="text/javascript" src="http://path/to/js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function openMediaPlayer() { $('#flashMovie').animate({'height':'333px'}); } function closeMediaPlayer() { $('#flashMovie').animate({'height':'80px'}); } jQuery(function($){ $('#videoholder').bind('mouseenter', function(){ openMediaPlayer(); }); $('#videoholder').bind('mouseleave', function(){ closeMediaPlayer(); }); }); </script> <div id="videoholder" style="height:80px;width:412px;"> <object width="412" height="80" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" id="flashMovie" name="flashMovie" style="height: 80px;" data="http://path/to/Player.swf"><param name="menu" value="false"><param name="bgcolor" value="#666666"><param name="allowFullscreen" value="true"><param name="flashvars" value="playlistURL=http://path/to/Player/data/playlist.xml"></object> </div> pure and simple resizing flash object. It worked with older(1.3.2) jquery verision. The animate just does not work. Can anyone tell me what i should change to get it working again? Alan.

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• How to do drag-n-drop and resize on an image using jQuery?

  - by Scott

  How do I resize and image using jQuery but keep its aspect ratio the same? <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.1//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml11/DTD/xhtml11.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en"> <head> <title>CrossSlide - A jQuery plugin to create pan and cross-fade animations</title> <link href="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1.8/themes/base/jquery-ui.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css"/> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4/jquery.min.js"></script> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1.8/jquery-ui.min.js"></script> </head> <body> <style type="text/css"> #resizebleImage { background: silver; } </style> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#resizebleImage").resizable().parent().draggable(); }); </script> <img id="resizebleImage" src="http://images.askmen.com/galleries/singer/gloria-estefan/pictures/gloria-estefan-picture-4.jpg"> </body> </html>

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• Adding an Array inside an array in a PHP function

  - by bateman_ap

  I have created a function in PHP that calls a webservice and parses through the result, assinging values to variables and returning them all as an Array. This all works perfectly, however I have come across a need to have an "array within my array" I am assigning values as below: $productName = $product->Name; $productID = $product->ID; $productArray = array( 'productName' => "$productName", 'productID' => "$productID" ); return $productArray; However I now have a piece of data that comes back with multiple results so I need to have a additional array to store these, I am getting the values from the returned XML using a foreach loop, however I want to be able to add them to the array with a name so I can reference them in the returned data, this is where I have a problem... $bestForLists = $product->BestFors; foreach( $bestForLists as $bestForList ) { $productBestFors = $bestForList->BestFor; foreach( $productBestFors as $productBestFor ) { $productBestForName = $productBestFor->Name; $productBestForID = $productBestFor->ID; } } I tried creating an array for these using the below code: $bestForArray[] = (array( "productBestForID" => "$productBestForID", "productBestForName" => "$productBestForName" )); And then at the end merging these together: $productArray= array_merge($productArray,$bestForArray); If I print out the returned value I get: Array ( [productName] => Test Product [productID] => 14128 [0] => Array ( [productBestForID] => 56647 [productBestForName] => Lighting ) [1] => Array ( [productBestForID] => 56648 [productBestForName] => Sound ) ) I would like to give the internal Array a name so I can reference it in my code, or is there a better way of doing this, at the moment I am using the following in my PHP page to get values: $productName = $functionReturnedValues['productName']; I would like to use the following to access the array I could then loop through: $bestForArray = $functionReturnedValues['bestForArray']; Hope someone can help

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