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  • Ignoring build number when referencing dll

    - by brickner
    I have one solution with a .NET 4.0 project (C#) that produces a delayed signed dll, that I dotfuscate and sign. EDIT: This is how I version the dll: [assembly: AssemblyVersion("0.7.0.*")] [assembly: AssemblyFileVersion("0.7.0.0")] I have another solution with a .NET 4.0 project (C++/CLI) that references the signed dll and produces a signed dll (actually, delayed signed and signed in a post build because of a flaw in the C++ build system). The problem is that the reference to the dll contains a specific version number, which includes even the build number (I want to have a build number). Every time I build the referenced dll, I have to change the project settings file (.vcxproj) so it reference the new version dll. Since I work with source control, this is very inconvenient (different computers might have different build numbers since each computer build its own referenced dll - the referenced dll is not in the source control). If I don't change the reference, I get a warning: warning MSB3245: Could not resolve this reference. Could not locate the assembly... And many errors like this: error C3083: 'Foo': the symbol to the left of a '::' must be a type These are resolved once I change the reference. How do I make the reference ignore the build number or even the entire version number?

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  • Heroku: bash: bundle: command not found

    - by Space Monkey
    My heroku deployment is crashing with following errors. 2012-12-12T17:16:18+00:00 app[web.1]: bash: bundle: command not found 2012-12-12T17:16:19+00:00 heroku[web.1]: Process exited with status 127 2012-12-12T17:16:19+00:00 heroku[web.1]: State changed from starting to crashed The Heroku documentation for this error is to set PATH and GEM variables as described in https://devcenter.heroku.com/articles/changing-ruby-version-breaks-path I tried that, however that too is not helping. ? heroku config:add PATH=bin:vendor/bundle/ruby/1.9.1/bin:/usr/local/bin:/usr/bin:/bin ? heroku config:add GEM_PATH=vendor/bundle/ruby/1.9.1 ? heroku run rake db:migrate Running rake db:migrate attached to terminal... up, run.7130 bash: bundle: command not found Next, I tried setting Ruby version in my Heroku app. This increased the slugsize. But app was still not up. Gemfile ruby "1.9.2" Pushed to Heroku -----> Using Ruby version: ruby-1.9.2 -----> Installing dependencies using Bundler version 1.2.2 heroku run "ruby -v" Running `ruby -v` attached to terminal... up, run.4483 ruby 1.9.2p320 (2012-04-20 revision 35421) [x86_64-linux] Can someone please advice

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  • How to get the actual address of a pointer in C?

    - by Airjoe
    BACKGROUND: I'm writing a single level cache simulator in C for a homework assignment, and I've been given code that I must work from. In our discussions of the cache, we were told that the way a small cache can hold large addresses is by splitting the large address into the position in the cache and an identifying tag. That is, if you had an 8 slot cache but wanted to store something with address larger than 8, you take the 3 (because 2^3=8) rightmost bits and put the data in that position; so if you had address 22 for example, binary 10110, you would take those 3 rightmost bits 110, which is decimal 5, and put it in slot 5 of the cache. You would also store in this position the tag, which is the remaining bits 10. One function, cache_load, takes a single argument, and integer pointer. So effectively, I'm being given this int* addr which is an actual address and points to some value. In order to store this value in the cache, I need to split the addr. However, the compiler doesn't like when I try to work with the pointer directly. So, for example, I try to get the position by doing: npos=addr%num_slots The compiler gets angry and gives me errors. I tried casting to an int, but this actually got me the value that the pointer was pointing to, not the numerical address itself. Any help is appreciated, thanks!

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  • Error when compiling a WinForms project that uses SubSonic library

    - by Mike Devenney
    The code generation is working but I get the following errors when I try to build the project: Error 4 Source file '...Project Path...\Structs.cs' could not be opened ('Unspecified error ') PPSGenerator Error 5 Source file '...Project Path...\Context.cs' could not be opened ('Unspecified error ') PPSGenerator Error 6 Source file '...Project Path...\ActiveRecord.cs' could not be opened ('Unspecified error ') PPSGenerator Error 7 Source file '...Project Path...\StoredProcedures.cs' could not be opened ('Unspecified error ') PPSGenerator I'm using VS2010 on a Windows 7 64 bit machine. Project is targeting Framework 3.5... any ideas? Also noticed the following warnings, but not sure that these are as important: Warning 1 The C# 2.0 and C# 3.5 compilers are no longer supported. Templates will always be compiled with the version 4 compiler instead of 'v3.5' as specified. ...ProjectPath...\Structs.tt 1 4 Warning 2 Multiple template directives were found in the template. All but the first one will be ignored. Multiple parameters to the template directive should be specified within one template directive. ...ProjectPath...\Settings.ttinclude 1 4 Warning 3 Compiling transformation: The variable 'parameters' is assigned but its value is never used ...ProjectPath...\SQLServer.ttinclude 92 15 Thanks! Mike D

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  • why won't Eclipse use the compiler I specify for my project?

    - by codeman73
    I'm using Eclipse 3.3. In my project, I've set the compiler compliance level to 5.0 In the build path for the project. I've added the Java 1.5 JDK in the Installed JREs section and am referencing that System Library in my project build path. However, I'm getting compile errors for a class that implements PreparedStatement for not implementing abstract methods that only exist in Java 1.6 PreparedStatement. Specifically, the methods setAsciiStream(int, InputStream, long) and setAsciiStream(int, InputStream) Strangely enough, it worked when we were compiling it against Java 1.4, which it was originally written for. We added the JREs for Java 1.4 and referenced that system library in the project, and set the project's compiler level to 1.4, and it works fine. But when I do the same changes to try to point to Java 5.0, it instead uses Java 6. Any ideas why? I wrote a similar question earlier, here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2540548/how-do-i-get-eclipse-to-use-a-different-compiler-version-for-java I know how you're supposed to choose a different compiler but it seems Eclipse isn't taking it. It seems to be defaulting to Java 6, even though I have deleted all Java 6 JDKs and JREs that I could find. I've also updated the -vm option in my eclipse.ini to point to the Java5 JDK.

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  • Upload two files at once

    - by Keyo
    I am trying to upload two files at once (two file fields) with codeigniters upload class. Despite having provided the field name codeigniter produces errors on the second field. I this a limitation of codeigniter, php or html or am I simply using the class incorectly? $this->upload->do_upload('video_file') $this->upload->do_upload('image_file') Produces this on the image field: The filetype you are attempting to upload is not allowed. Here are my two functions function upload_image() { $thumb_size = 94; $config['upload_path'] = './assets/uploads/images/'; $config['allowed_types'] = 'jpg|png|gif'; $config['max_size'] = '2048'; $config['file_name'] = 'video_' . rand(999999, 999999999); $this->load->library('upload', $config); if (!$this->upload->do_upload('image_file')) { $error = array('error' => $this->upload->display_errors()); return $error; } else { function upload_video() { $config['upload_path'] = './assets/uploads/videos/'; $config['allowed_types'] = 'flv'; $config['max_size'] = '0'; $config['file_name'] = 'video_' . rand(999999, 999999999); $this->load->library('upload', $config); if (!$this->upload->do_upload('video_file')) { $error = array('error' => $this->upload->display_errors()); return $error; } else {

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  • Array Undefined index error (notice) in PHP

    - by Alex
    I have this function: function coin_matrix($test, $revs) { $coin = array(); for ($i = 0; $i < count($test); $i++) { foreach ($revs as $j => $rev) { foreach ($revs as $k => $rev) { if ($j != $k && $test[$i][$j] != null && $test[$i][$k] != null) { $coin[$test[$i][$j]][$test[$i][$k]] += 1 / ($some_var - 1); } } } } return $coin; } where $test = array( array('3'=>'1','5'=>'1'), array('3'=>'2','5'=>'2'), array('3'=>'1','5'=>'2'), array('3'=>'1','5'=>'1')); and $revs = array('3'=>'A','5'=>'B'); the problem is that when I run it, it returns these errors (notices): Notice: Undefined index: 1 at line 10 Notice: Undefined index: 1 at line 10 Notice: Undefined index: 2 at line 10 Notice: Undefined index: 2 at line 10 Notice: Undefined index: 2 at line 10 Notice: Undefined index: 1 at line 10 which is this line: $coin[$test[$i][$j]][$test[$i][$k]] += 1 / ($some_var - 1); Any suggestion is greatly appreciated! Thanks!

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  • accumulator don't compile

    - by Abruzzo Forte e Gentile
    HI All I am using boost accumulators. These 2 lines use to work fine with current version of boost in LInux. accumulator_set< double, stats< tag::covariance<double, tag::covariate1> > > acc_cov; accumulator_set< double, stats< tag::variance > > acc_var; When I moved to a Sun machine where it is installed boost v1.40 I have this building error "/opt/boost/boost/accumulators/framework/depends_on.hpp", line 276: Error:<no tag> cannot be initialized in a constructor. "/opt/boost/boost/fusion/container/list/cons.hpp", line 85: Where: While instantiating "boost::accumulators::detail::accumulator_wrapper<int, int>::accumulator_wrapper(const boost::accumulators::detail::accumulator_wrapper<int, int>&)". "/opt/boost/boost/fusion/container/list/cons.hpp", line 85: Where: Instantiated from non-template code. 1 Error(s) Do you know how can I fix those errors and why I have this issue? Thanks AFG

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  • Why does this data YYYY-MM-DD regex fail in Java?

    - by ProfessionalAmateur
    Hello StackOverFlow, My first question and Im excited... I've lurked since go-live and love the site, however I apologize for any newbie errors, formatting, etc... I'm attempting to validate the format of a string field that contains a date in Java. We will receive the date in a string, I will validate its format before parsing it into a real Date object. The format being passed in is in the YYYY-MM-DD format. However I'm stuck on one of my tests, if I pass in "1999-12-33" the test will fail (as it should with a day number 33) with this incomplete pattern: ((19|20)\\d{2})-([1-9]|0[1-9]|1[0-2])-([12][0-9]|3[01]) However as soon as I add the characters in bold below it passes the test (but should not) ((19|20)\\d{2})-([1-9]|0[1-9]|1[0-2])-(0[1-9]|[1-9]|[12][0-9]|3[01]) *additional note, I know I can change the 0[1-9]|[1-9] into 0?[1-9] but I wanted to break everything down to its most simple format to try and find why this isn't working. Here is the scrap test I've put together to run through all the different date scenarios: import java.util.regex.Matcher; import java.util.regex.Pattern; public class scrapTest { public scrapTest() { } public static void main(String[] args) { scrapTest a = new scrapTest(); boolean flag = a.verfiyDateFormat("1999-12-33"); } private boolean verfiyDateFormat(String dateStr){ Pattern datePattern = Pattern.compile("((19|20)\\d{2})-([1-9]|0[1-9]|1[0-2])-(0[1-9]|[1-9]|[12][0-9]|3[01])"); Matcher dateMatcher = datePattern.matcher(dateStr); if(!dateMatcher.find()){ System.out.println("Invalid date format!!! -> " + dateStr); return false; } System.out.println("Valid date format."); return true; } } Ive been programming for ~10 years but extremely new to Java, so please feel free to explain anything as elementary as you see fit.

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  • Recommended approach to port to ASP.NET MVC

    - by tshao
    I think many of us used to face the same question, what's the best practices to port existing web forms App to MVC. The situation for me is that we'll support both web forms and MVC at the same time. It means, we create new features in MVC, while maintaining legacy pages in web forms, and they're all in a same project. The point is: we want to keep the DRY (do not repeat yourself) principle and reduce duplicate code as much as possible. The ASPX page is not a problem as we only create new features in MVC, but there're still some shared components we want to re-use the both new / legacy pages: Master page UserControl The question here is: Is that possible to create a common master page / usercontrol that could be used in both web forms and MVC? I know that ViewMasterPage inherits from MasterPage and ViewUserControl inherits from UserControl, so it's maybe OK to let both web forms and MVC ASPX page refer to the MVC version. I did some testing and found sometimes it generates errors during the rendering of usercontrols. Any idea / experience you can share with me? Very appreciate to it.

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  • PDCurses TUI with C++ Win32 console application

    - by Bach
    I have downloaded pdcurses source and was able to successfully include curses.h in my project, linked the pre-compiled library and all good. After few hours of trying out the library, I saw the tuidemo.c in the demos folder, compiled it into an executable and brilliant! exactly what I needed for my project. Now the problem is that it's a C code, and I am working on a C++ project in VS c++ 2008. The files I need are tui.c and tui.h How can I include that C file in my C++ code? I saw few suggestions here but the compiler was not too happy with 100's of warnings and errors. How can I go on including/using that TUI pdcurses includes!? Thanks EDIT: I added extern "C" statement, so my test looks like this now, but I'm getting some other type of error #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> using namespace std; extern "C" { #include <tui.h> } void sub0(void) { //do nothing } void sub1(void) { //do nothing } int main (int argc, char * const argv[]) { menu MainMenu[] = { { "Asub", sub0, "Go inside first submenu" }, { "Bsub", sub1, "Go inside second submenu" }, { "", (FUNC)0, "" } /* always add this as the last item! */ }; startmenu(MainMenu, "TUI - 'textual user interface' demonstration program"); return 0; } Although it is compiling successfully, it is throwing an Error at runtime: 0xC0000005: Access violation reading location 0x021c52f9 at line startmenu(MainMenu, "TUI - 'textual user interface' demonstration program"); Not sure where to go from here. thanks again.

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  • How do I create a python module from a fortran program with f2py?

    - by Lars Hellemo
    I am trying to read some smps files with python, and found a fortran implementation, so I thought I would give f2py a shot. The problem is that I have no experience with fortran. I have successfully installed gfortran and f2py on my Linux box and ran the example on thew f2py page, but I have some trouble compiling and running the large program. There are two files, one with a file reader wrapper and one with all the logic. They seem to call each other, but when I compile and link or try f2py, I get errors that they somehow can't find each other: f95 -c FILEWR~1.F f95 -c SMPSREAD.F90 f95 -o smpsread SMPSREAD.o FILEWR~1.o FILEWR~1.o In function `file_wrapper_' FILEWR~1.F(.text+0x3d) undefined reference to `chopen_' usrlibgcci486-linux-gnu4.4.1libgfortranbegin.a(fmain.o) In function `main' (.text+0x27) undefined reference to `MAIN__' collect2 ld returned 1 exit status I also tried changing the name to FILE_WRAPPER.F but that did not help. With f2py I found out I had to include a comment to get it to accept free format, and saved this as a new file and tried: f2py -c -m smpsread smpsread.f90 I get a lot of output and warnings, but the error seems to be this one: getctype: No C-type found in "{'typespec': 'type', 'attrspec': ['allocatable'], 'typename': 'node', 'dimension': [':']}", assuming void. The fortran 90 spms reader can be found here. Any help or suggestions appreciated.

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  • P values in wilcox.test gone mad :(

    - by Error404
    I have a code that isn't doing what it should do. I am testing P value for a wilcox.test for a huge set of data. the code i am using is the following library(MASS) data1 <- read.csv("file1path.csv",header=T,sep=",") data2 <- read.csv("file2path.csv",header=T,sep=",") data3 <- read.csv("file3path.csv",header=T,sep=",") data4 <- read.csv("file4path.csv",header=T,sep=",") data1$K <- with(data1,{"N"}) data2$K <- with(data2,{"E"}) data3$K <- with(data3,{"M"}) data4$K <- with(data4,{"U"}) new=rbind(data1,data2,data3,data4) i=3 for (o in 1:4800){ x1 <- data1[,i] x2 <- data2[,i] x3 <- data3[,i] x4 <- data4[,i] wt12 <- wilcox.test(x1,x2, na.omit=TRUE) wt13 <- wilcox.test(x1,x3, na.omit=TRUE) wt14 <- wilcox.test(x1,x4, na.omit=TRUE) if (wt12$p.value=="NaN"){ print("This is wrong") } else if (wt12$p.value < 0.05){ print(wt12$p.value) mypath=file.path("C:", "all1-less-05", (paste("graph-data1-data2",names(data1[i]), ".pdf", sep="-"))) pdf(file=mypath) mytitle = paste("graph",names(data1[i])) boxplot(new[,i] ~ new$K, main = mytitle, names.arg=c("data1","data2","data3","data4")) dev.off() } if (wt13$p.value=="NaN"){ print("This is wrong") } else if (wt13$p.value < 0.05){ print(wt13$p.value) mypath=file.path("C:", "all2-less-05", (paste("graph-data1-data3",names(data1[i]), ".pdf", sep="-"))) pdf(file=mypath) mytitle = paste("graph",names(data1[i])) boxplot(new[,i] ~ new$K, main = mytitle, names.arg=c("data1","data2","data3","data4")) dev.off() } if (wt14$p.value=="NaN"){ print("This is wrong") } else if (wt14$p.value < 0.05){ print(wt14$p.value) mypath=file.path("C:", "all3-less-05", (paste("graph-data1-data4",names(data1[i]), ".pdf", sep="-"))) pdf(file=mypath) mytitle = paste("graph",names(data1[i])) boxplot(new[,i] ~ new$K, main = mytitle, names.arg=c("data1","data2","data3","data4")) dev.off() } i=i+1 } I am having 2 problems with this long command: 1- Without specifying a certain P value, the code gives me arouind 14,000 graphs, when specifying a p value less than 0.05 the number of graphs generated goes down to 9,0000. THE FIRST PROBLEM IS: Some P value are more than 0.05 and are still showing up! 2- I designed the program to give me a result of "This is wrong" when the Value of P is "NaN", I am getting results of "NaN" Here's a screenshot from the results do you know what the mistake i made with the command to get these errors? Thanks in advance

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  • fortran complications passing arrays in function

    - by user1514188
    I'm trying to write a program to calculate a cross product of two vectors (input is of "real" type, so for example [1.3 3.4 1,5]). But I keep getting numerous errors: program Q3CW implicit none REAL :: matA(3), matB(3) REAL :: A11, A12, A13 REAL :: B11, B12, B13 real :: productc(3), answer(3) read*,A11, A12, A13 read*,B11, B12, B13 matA = (/A11, A12, A13/) matB = (/B11, B12, B13/) answer = productc(matA, matB) print*,'Answer = ', answer(1), answer(2), answer(3) end program real function productc(matIn1, matIn2) real, dimension(3) :: matIn1, matIn2 productc(1)=(/matIn1(2)*matIn2(3)-matIn1(3)*matIn2(2)/) productc(2)=(/matIn1(3)*matIn2(1)-matIn1(1)*matIn2(3)/) productc(3)=(/matIn1(1)*matIn2(2)-matIn1(2)*matIn2(1)/) end function This is the error I get: Error: Q33333.f95(20) : Statement function definition for pre-existing procedure PRODUCTC; detected at )@= Error: Q33333.f95(21) : Statement function definition for pre-existing procedure PRODUCTC; detected at )@= Error: Q33333.f95(22) : Statement function definition for pre-existing procedure PRODUCTC; detected at )@= Warning: Q33333.f95(23) : Function PRODUCTC has not been assigned a value; detected at FUNCTION@<end-of-statement> Build Result Error(3) Warning(1) Extension(0) Any idea what the problem could be ?

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  • getting maps to accept a dynamically generated KML file?

    - by arc
    Hi. I have a button that launches the google maps app on my device via an intent. I want to be able to pass it a php page that generates a KML file. I have done this on a website before using the googlemaps api in JS - but it doesn't seem to work on Android. My php file is as follows; <?php echo '<kml xmlns="http://www.google.com/earth/kml/2">'; echo '<Placemark>'; echo '<name>Google Inc.</name>'; echo '<description>1600 Amphitheatre Parkway, Mountain View, CA 94043</description>'; echo '<Point>'; echo '<coordinates>-122.0841430, 37.4219720, 0</coordinates>'; echo '</Point>'; echo '</Placemark>'; echo '</kml>'; ?> Launching with: final Intent myIntent = new Intent(android.content.Intent.ACTION_VIEW, Uri.parse("geo:0,0?q=http://website.com/kml_gen.php")); startActivity(myIntent); It launches maps, finds the file - but won't display it 'because it contains errors'. Is this just not possible, or are there other ways to construct the intent that might work?

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  • Can I version dotfiles within a project without merging their history into the main line?

    - by istrasci
    I'm sure this title is fairly obscure. I'm wondering if there is some way in git to tell it that you want a certain file to use different versions of a file when moving between branches, but to overall be .gitignored from the repository. Here's my scenario: I've got a Flash Builder project (for a Flex app) that I control with git. Flex apps in Flash Builder projects create three files: .actionScriptProperties, .flexProperties, and .project. These files contain lots of local file system references (source folders, output folders, etc.), so naturally we .gitignore them from our repo. Today, I wanted to use a new library in my project, so I made a separate git branch called lib, removed the old version of the library and put in the new one. Unfortunately, this Flex library information gets stored in one of those three dot files (not sure which offhand). So when I had to switch back to the first branch (master) earlier, I was getting compile errors because master was now linked to the new library (which basically negated why I made lib in the first place). So I'm wondering if there's any way for me to continue to .gitignore these files (so my other developers don't get them), but tell git that I want it to use some kind of local "branch version" so I can locally use different versions of the files for different branches.

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  • Powershell 2.0 Hang When Run From MsDeploy pre- post- ops using c/

    - by SonOfNun
    I am trying to invoke powershell during the preSync call in a MSDeploy command, but powershell does not exit the process after it has been called. The command (from command line): "tools/MSDeploy/msdeploy.exe" -verb:sync -preSync:runCommand="powershell.exe -NoLogo -NoProfile -NonInteractive -ExecutionPolicy Unrestricted -Command C:/MyInstallPath/deploy.ps1 Set-WebAppOffline Uninstall-Service ",waitInterval=60000 -usechecksum -source:dirPath="build/for-deployment" -dest:wmsvc=BLUEPRINT-X86,username=deployer,password=deployer,dirPath=C:/MyInstallPath I used a hack here (http://therightstuff.de/2010/02/06/How-We-Practice-Continuous-Integration-And-Deployment-With-MSDeploy.aspx) that gets the powershell process and kills it but that didn't work. I also tried taskkill and the sysinternals equivalent, but nothing will kill the process so that MSDeploy errors out. The command is executed, but then just sits there. Any ideas what might be causing powershell to hang like this? I have found a few other similar issues around the web but no answers. Environment is Win 2K3, using Powershell 2.0. UPDATE: Here is a .vbs script I use to invoke my powershell command now. Invoke using 'cscript.exe path/to/script.vbs': Option Explicit Dim oShell, appCmd,oShellExec Set oShell = CreateObject("WScript.Shell") appCmd = "powershell.exe -NoLogo -NoProfile -NonInteractive -ExecutionPolicy Unrestricted -Command ""&{ . c:/development/materialstesting/deploy/web/deploy.ps1; Set-WebAppOffline }"" " Set oShellExec = oShell.Exec(appCmd) oShellExec.StdIn.Close()

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  • Accessing jQuery objects in the module pattern

    - by Stewart
    Hello, Really getting in to javascript and looking around at some patterns. One I have come accross is the module pattern. Its seems like a nice way to think of chucks of functionality so I went ahead and tried to implement it with jQuery. I ran in to a snag though. Consider the following code <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"> <title>index</title> <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8" src="https://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.4/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> $(document).ready(function(){ var TestClass2 = (function(){ var someDiv; return { thisTest: function () { someDiv = document.createElement("div"); $(someDiv).append("#index"); $(someDiv).html("hello"); $(someDiv).addClass("test_class"); } } })(); TestClass2.thisTest(); }); </script> </head> <body id="index" onload=""> <div id="name"> this is content </div> </body> </html> The above code alerts the html content of the div and then adds a class. These both use jQuery methods. The problem is that the .html() method works fine however i can not add the class. No errors result and the class does not get added. What is happening here? Why is the class not getting added to the div?

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  • Is Form validation and Business validation too much?

    - by Robert Cabri
    I've got this question about form validation and business validation. I see a lot of frameworks that use some sort of form validation library. You submit some values and the library validates the values from the form. If not ok it will show some errors on you screen. If all goes to plan the values will be set into domain objects. Here the values will be or, better said, should validated (again). Most likely the same validation in the validation library. I know 2 PHP frameworks having this kind of construction Zend/Kohana. When I look at programming and some principles like Don't Repeat Yourself (DRY) and single responsibility principle (SRP) this isn't a good way. As you can see it validates twice. Why not create domain objects that do the actual validation. Example: Form with username and email form is submitted. Values of the username field and the email field will be populated in 2 different Domain objects: Username and Email class Username {} class Email {} These objects validate their data and if not valid throw an exception. Do you agree? What do you think about this aproach? Is there a better way to implement validations? I'm confused about a lot of frameworks/developers handling this stuff. Are they all wrong or am I missing a point? Edit: I know there should also be client side kind of validation. This is a different ballgame in my Opinion. If You have some comments on this and a way to deal with this kind of stuff, please provide.

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  • Session cookie not being created in Rails, very rarely and frustratingly.

    - by James
    Hi everyone, This is an issue sporadically for very few users, however we haven't been able to replicate it. However I have now got a Chrome instance (Mac) which is reproducing the error (for some unknown reason), and I hope to not restart it until I have this nailed! Rails application, using memcached for session store. While the bug manifests in the _app_session_id cookie not being created, our javascript-generated cookie test and app-generated language cookies are being created successfully. This means that 422 / InvalidAuthToken errors are thrown for every form that is submitted by those afflicted - people can't log into the app. The error occurs across all browsers - had reports for IE7 and Firefox (which most users use). Switching to another browser often fixes the issue (though not always), and standard cache-cookie-clear tactics do not. So now that I have got Chrome open which is having the same issue - in development, staging and live environments (meaning http and https). All other browsers are fine. I've restarted the servers and restarted memcached. I don't really want to restart Chrome - in the risk that the issue does go away with that (having said that, it hasn't worked for users). I've been tcpdumping the requests - and although I'll keep digging, I'd love it if anyone had any suggestions, places to start looking, anything. This is really painful ;) Thanks!

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  • How should backbone.js handle a GET request that returns no results?

    - by Nyxynyx
    I have a number of text input elements that when its values are changed, will trigger a fetch on listingListView's collection listingCollection, which then updates listingListView with the new data via the function listingListView.refreshList as shown below. I am using PHP/Codeigniter to expose a RESTful API. Problem: Everything works fine if there are results retrieved from the fetch(). However, when the filters results in no result being returned, how should the server side and the client side handle it? Currently Chrome's javascript console displays a 404 error and in the Network tab, the XHR request is highlighted in red. All I want to do in the event of zero results returned, is to blank the listingListView and show a message like (No results returned) and not throw any errors in the javascript console. Thanks! PHP Code function listings_get() { // Get filters $price_min = $this->get('price_min'); $this->load->model('app_model'); $results = $this->app_model->get_listings($price_min); if($results) $this->response($results); else $this->response(NULL); } JS Code window.ListingListView = Backbone.View.extend({ tagName: 'table', initialize: function() { this.model.bind('reset', this.refreshList, this); this.model.bind('add', function(listing) { $(this.el).append(new ListingListItemView({ model: listing }).render().el); }, this); }, render: function() { _.each(this.model.models, function(listing) { $(this.el).append(new ListingListItemView({ model: listing }).render().el); }, this); return this; }, close: function() { $(this.el).unbind(); $(this.el).empty(); }, refreshList: function() { $(this.el).empty(); this.render(); } });

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  • Cyclic Reference - protocols and subclasses

    - by blindJesse
    I'm getting some cyclic reference (I think) problems between a few classes that require imported headers due to either subclassing or protocol definitions. I can explain why things are set up this way but I'm not sure it's essential. Basically these classes are managing reciprocal to-many data relationships. The layout is this: Class A imports Class B because it's a delegate of Class B and needs its protocol definition. Class B imports Class C because it's a subclass of Class C. Class C imports Class A because it's a delegate of Class A and needs its protocol definition. Here's some sample code that illustrates the problem. The errors I'm getting are as follows: In Class A - "Can't find protocol definition for Class_B_Delegate". In Class B - "Can't find interface declaration for Class C - superclass of Class B." In Class C - "Can't find protocol definition for Class_A_Delegate". Class A header: #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import "Class_B.h" @protocol Class_A_Delegate @end @interface Class_A : NSObject <Class_B_Delegate> { } @end Class B header: #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import "Class_C.h" @protocol Class_B_Delegate <NSObject> @end @interface Class_B : Class_C { } @end Class C Header: #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import "Class_A.h" @interface Class_C : NSObject <Class_A_Delegate> { } @end

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  • Django formset doesn't validate

    - by tsoporan
    Hello, I am trying to save a formset but it seems to be bypassing is_valid() even though there are required fields. To test this I have a simple form: class AlbumForm(forms.Form): name = forms.CharField(required=True) The view: @login_required def add_album(request, artist): artist = Artist.objects.get(slug__iexact=artist) AlbumFormSet = formset_factory(AlbumForm) if request.method == 'POST': formset = AlbumFormSet(request.POST, request.FILES) if formset.is_valid(): return HttpResponse('worked') else: formset = AlbumFormSet() return render_to_response('submissions/addalbum.html', { 'artist': artist, 'formset': formset, }, context_instance=RequestContext(request)) And the template: <form action="" method="post" enctype="multipart/form-data">{% csrf_token %} {{ formset.management_form }} {% for form in formset.forms %} <ul class="addalbumlist"> {% for field in form %} <li> {{ field.label_tag }} {{ field }} {{ field.errors }} </li> {% endfor %} </ul> {% endfor %} <div class="inpwrap"> <input type="button" value="add another"> <input type="submit" value="add"> </div> </form> What ends up happening is I hit "add" without entering a name then HttpResponse('worked') get's called seemingly assuming it's a valid form. I might be missing something here, but I can't see what's wrong. What I want to happen is, just like any other form if the field is required to spit out an error if its not filled in. Any ideas?

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  • java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.springframework.ui.ModelMap

    - by aelshereay
    I create a simple webapp using tomcat 6, spring 2.5.6 and maven. The problem is when I boot up tomcat, I am getting the following errors: SEVERE: StandardWrapper.Throwable java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: org/springframework/ui/ModelMap ... Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.springframework.ui.ModelMap The ModelMap class does exist in spring-2.5.6.jar and spring-context-2.5.6.jar, I also have some other spring jars. All of them are being deployed to tomcat correctly, when I check the application WEB-INF (deployed to tomcat) I found all those jars there! I have only one @Controller that has a @RequestMapping("/home.htm") showForm(ModelMap model) method. My applicationContext is quite simple: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:aop="http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop" xmlns:context="http://www.springframework.org/schema/context" xmlns:dwr="http://www.directwebremoting.org/schema/spring-dwr" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-2.5.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop/spring-aop-2.5.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/context http://www.springframework.org/schema/context/spring-context-2.5.xsd http://www.directwebremoting.org/schema/spring-dwr http://www.directwebremoting.org/schema/spring-dwr-3.0.xsd" default-autowire="byName"> <context:component-scan base-package="org.myapp"/> <bean class="org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping"/> <bean class="org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.AnnotationMethodHandlerAdapter"/> <bean id="viewResolver" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.InternalResourceViewResolver"> <property name="viewClass" value="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.JstlView"></property> <property name="prefix" value="/WEB-INF/view/"></property> <property name="suffix" value=".jsp"></property> </bean> </beans>

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  • Refreshing Facebook session from an iframe application

    - by zombat
    I've got a Facebook iframe application that is completely external. By this I mean that once a user accesses the canvas URL to load the application, all the links in the iframe app go to my servers, and the canvas page never gets refreshed unless the user navigates to somewhere else on Facebook and comes back (or does a browser refresh). On the initial load of the app where Facebook creates the iframe, I get passed all the usual parameters like fb_sig_user which allows me to create an internal app session based on the facebook user. This app session (which is not the Facebook session, it's my own app session) is all I need to allow the user to work with the app. The problem comes an hour later. If the user leaves the computer, or uses the app for more than an hour, the Facebook session expires. There are some app pages which require fetching friend information, and once the FB session has expired, these pages break, throwing out errors such as "Error: Session key invalid or no longer valid". My question is whether there is a way to refresh the user's Facebook session from within an iframe application to keep it from expiring an hour later. Do any of the API calls do this? Is there a Facebook Connect trick to ping something? Is there any definitive method to keep it alive? I haven't been able to find any examples that specifically address this.

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