Search Results

Search found 15129 results on 606 pages for 'orientation changes'.

Page 564/606 | < Previous Page | 560 561 562 563 564 565 566 567 568 569 570 571  | Next Page >

  • should I ever put a major version number into a C#/Java namespace?

    - by Andrew Patterson
    I am designing a set of 'service' layer objects (data objects and interface definitions) for a WCF web service (that will be consumed by third party clients i.e. not in-house, so outside my direct control). I know that I am not going to get the interface definition exactly right - and am wanting to prepare for the time when I know that I will have to introduce a breaking set of new data objects. However, the reality of the world I am in is that I will also need to run my first version simultaneously for quite a while. The first version of my service will have URL of http://host/app/v1service.svc and when the times comes by new version will live at http://host/app/v2service.svc However, when it comes to the data objects and interfaces, I am toying with putting the 'major' version of the interface number into the actual namespace of the classes. namespace Company.Product.V1 { [DataContract(Namespace = "company-product-v1")] public class Widget { [DataMember] string widgetName; } public interface IFunction { Widget GetWidgetData(int code); } } When the time comes for a fundamental change to the service, I will introduce some classes like namespace Company.Product.V2 { [DataContract(Namespace = "company-product-v2")] public class Widget { [DataMember] int widgetCode; [DataMember] int widgetExpiry; } public interface IFunction { Widget GetWidgetData(int code); } } The advantages as I see it are that I will be able to have a single set of code serving both interface versions, sharing functionality where possible. This is because I will be able to reference both interface versions as a distinct set of C# objects. Similarly, clients may use both interface versions simultaneously, perhaps using V1.Widget in some legacy code whilst new bits move on to V2.Widget. Can anyone tell why this is a stupid idea? I have a nagging feeling that this is a bit smelly.. notes: I am obviously not proposing every single new version of the service would be in a new namespace. Presumably I will do as many non-breaking interface changes as possible, but I know that I will hit a point where all the data modelling will probably need a significant rewrite. I understand assembly versioning etc but I think this question is tangential to that type of versioning. But I could be wrong.

    Read the article

  • How to keep multiple connectionString passwords safe, separate, and easy to deploy?

    - by Funka
    I know there are plenty of questions here already about this topic (I've read through as many as I could find), but I haven't yet been able to figure out how best to satisfy my particular criteria. Here are the goals: The ASP.NET application will run on a few different web servers, including localhost workstations for development. This means encrypting web.config using a machine key is out. The application will decide which connection string to use based on the server name (using a switch statement). For example, "localhost" and "dev.example.com" will use the DevDatabaseConnectionString, "test.example.com" will use the TestDatabaseConnectionString, and "www.example.com" will use the ProdDatabaseConnectionString, for example. Ideally, the exact same executables and web.config should be able to run on any of these environments, without needing to tailor or configure each environment separately every time that we deploy (something that seems like it would be easy to forget/mess up one day during a deployment, which is why we moved away from having just one connectionstring that has to be changed on each target). Deployment is currently accomplished via FTP. We will not have command-line access to the production web server. This means using aspnet_regiis.exe is out. (I could run on localhost, however, if this would still work.) We would prefer to not have to recompile the application whenever a password changes, so using web.config (or db.config or whatever) seems to make the most sense. A developer should not be able to decrypt the production database password. If a developer checks the source code out onto their localhost laptop (which would determine that it should be using the DevDatabaseConnectionString, remember?) and the laptop gets lost or stolen, it should not be possible to get at the other connection strings. Thus, having a single RSA private key to un-encrypt all three passwords cannot be considered. (Contrary to #3 above, it does seem like we'd need to have three separate key files if we went this route; these could be installed once per machine, and should the wrong key file get deployed to the wrong server, the worst that should happen is that the app can't decrypt anything---and not allow the wrong host to access the wrong database!) I know this is probably a subjective question (asking for a "best" way to do something), but given the criteria I've mentioned, I'm hoping that a single best answer will indeed arise. Thank you!

    Read the article

  • Android listview array adapter selected

    - by João Melo
    i'm trying to add a contextual action mode to a listview, but i'm having some problems with the selection, if i make aList1.setSelection(position) it doesn't select anything, and if i make List1.setItemChecked(position, true) it works but it only changes the font color a little and i want it to change the background or something more notable, is there any way to detect the selection and manually and change the background, or i'm missing something? the list: <RelativeLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" > <ListView android:id="@+id/list1" android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:choiceMode="singleChoice" android:drawSelectorOnTop="false"> </ListView> </RelativeLayout> the adapter: public class ServicesRowAdapter extends ArrayAdapter<String[]> { private final Activity context; private final ArrayList<String[]> names; static class ViewHolder { public TextView Id; public TextView Date; public RelativeLayout statusbar,bglayout; } public ServicesRowAdapter(Activity context, ArrayList<String[]> names) { super(context, R.layout.servicesrowlayout, names); this.context = context; this.names = names; } @Override public View getView(int position, View convertView, ViewGroup parent) { View rowView = convertView; if (rowView == null) { LayoutInflater inflater = context.getLayoutInflater(); rowView = inflater.inflate(R.layout.servicesrowlayout, null); ViewHolder viewHolder = new ViewHolder(); viewHolder.Id = (TextView) rowView.findViewById(R.id.idlabel); viewHolder.Date = (TextView) rowView.findViewById(R.id.datelabel); rowView.setTag(viewHolder); } ViewHolder holder = (ViewHolder) rowView.getTag(); holder.Date.setText(names.get(position)[2]); holder.Id.setText(names.get(position)[1]); return rowView; } } with the use of a layout: <RelativeLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" > <TextView android:id="@+id/idlabel" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_centerVertical="true" android:gravity="right" android:text="@+id/idlabel" android:textSize="20dp" android:width="70dp" > </TextView> <TextView android:id="@+id/datelabel" android:layout_centerVertical="true" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="@+id/datelabel" android:textSize="20dp" android:layout_marginLeft="90dp" > </TextView> </RelativeLayout

    Read the article

  • What benefits are there to storing Javascript in external files vs in the <head>?

    - by RenderIn
    I have an Ajax-enabled CRUD application. If I display a record from my database it shows that record's values for each column, including its primary key. For the Ajax actions tied to buttons on the page I am able to set up their calls by printing the ID directly into their onclick functions when rendering the HTML server-side. For example, to save changes to the record I may have a button as follows, with '123' being the primary key of the record. <button type="button" onclick="saveRecord('123')">Save</button> Sometimes I have pages with Javascript generating HTML and Javascript. In some of these cases the primary key is not naturally available at that place in the code. In these cases I took a shortcut and generate buttons like so, taking the primary key from a place it happens to be displayed on screen for visual consumption: ... <td>Primary Key: </td> <td><span id="PRIM_KEY">123</span></td> ... <button type="button" onclick="saveRecord(jQuery('#PRIM_KEY').text())">DoSomething</button> This definitely works, but it seems wrong to drive database queries based on the value of text whose purpose was user consumption rather than method consumption. I could solve this by adding a series of additional parameters to various methods to usher the primary key along until it is eventually needed, but that also seems clunky. The most natural way for me to solve this problem would be to simply situate all the Javascript which currently lives in external files, in the <head> of the page. In that way I could generate custom Javascript methods without having to pass around as many parameters. Other than readability, I'm struggling to see what benefit there is to storing Javascript externally. It seems like it makes the already weak marriage between HTML/DOM and Javascript all the more distant. I've seen some people suggest that I leave the Javascript external, but do set various "custom" variables on the page itself, for example, in PHP: <script type="text/javascript"> var primaryKey = <?php print $primaryKey; ?>; </script> <script type="text/javascript" src="my-external-js-file-depending-on-primaryKey-being-set.js"></script> How is this any better than just putting all the Javascript on the page in the first place? There HTML and Javascript are still strongly dependent on each other.

    Read the article

  • using php and java script in a form

    - by Gal Miller
    I am a little bit lost. What I want to achieve is: my own custom button change onMouseOver etc' keep it's size post the information to a php server side code What I'm missing is: The post - I couldn't figure out how to combine js & php The Button size - my code sets a size for the original button but after the rollover it changes The code: <html> <head> </head> <body> <script> function form_on_click(frm) { document.buttonMore.src='bottom_more_click.JPG'; frm.submit(); } </script> <div style="position: absolute; left: 120px; top: 90px; background-image: url(myBackgroundPicture.jpg); background-repeat:no-repeat; width: 800px; height: 280px; padding: 15px;"> <form method="post" action="<?php echo $_SERVER['PHP_SELF']; ?>"> <input type="text" name="whatever" size= "55" height="100" lang="en" dir="ltr" style="margin-top: 188px; margin-left: 95px; height: 20px; background-color: transparent; border:none; color: #FFFFFF; font-family: Verdana; font-weight: none; font-size: 18px;"> <a onmouseover="document.buttonMore.src='bottom_more_hover.JPG'" onmouseout="document.buttonMore.src='bottom_more_reg.JPG'" onmousedown= "form_on_click(this.form) this.form.submit()" onmouseup="document.buttonMore.src='bottom_more_hover.JPG'"> <img src="bottom_more_reg.jpg" name="buttonMore" height="30" width="173" border="0" alt="MORE!" style="margin-bottom:-10px; margin-left: 15px; height: 30px; width: 100px;"> </a> </form> </div> </body>

    Read the article

  • HTTP caching confusion

    - by Keith
    I'm not sure whether this is a server issue, or whether I'm failing to understand how HTTP caching really works. I have an ASP MVC application running on IIS7. There's a lot of static content as part of the site including lots of CSS, Javascript and image files. For these files I want the browser to cache them for at least a day - our .css, .js, .gif and .png files rarely change. My web.config goes like this: <system.webServer> <staticContent> <clientCache cacheControlMode="UseMaxAge" cacheControlMaxAge="1.00:00:00" /> </staticContent> </system.webServer> The problem I'm getting is that the browser (tested Chrome, IE8 and FX) doesn't seem to be caching the files as I'd expect. I've got the default settings (check for newer pages automatically in IE). On first visit the content downloads as expected HTTP/1.1 200 OK Cache-Control: max-age=86400 Content-Type: image/gif Last-Modified: Fri, 07 Aug 2009 09:55:15 GMT Accept-Ranges: bytes ETag: "3efeb2294517ca1:0" Server: Microsoft-IIS/7.0 X-Powered-By: ASP.NET Date: Mon, 07 Jun 2010 14:29:16 GMT Content-Length: 918 <content> I think that the Cache-Control: max-age=86400 should tell the browser not to request the page again for a day. Ok, so now the page is reloaded and the browser requests the image again. This time it gets an empty response with these headers: HTTP/1.1 304 Not Modified Cache-Control: max-age=86400 Last-Modified: Fri, 07 Aug 2009 09:55:15 GMT Accept-Ranges: bytes ETag: "3efeb2294517ca1:0" Server: Microsoft-IIS/7.0 X-Powered-By: ASP.NET Date: Mon, 07 Jun 2010 14:30:32 GMT So it looks like the browser has sent the ETag back (as a unique id for the resource), and the server's come back with a 304 Not Modified - telling the browser that it can use the previously downloaded file. It seems to me that would be correct for many caching situations, but here I don't want the extra round trip. I don't care if the image gets out of date when the file on the server changes. There are a lot of these files (even with sprite-maps and the like) and many of our clients have very slow networks. Each round trip to ping for that 304 status is taking about a 10th to a 5th of a second. Many also have IE6 which only has 2 HTTP connections at a time. The net result is that our application appears to be very slow for these clients with every page taking an extra couple of seconds to check that the static content hasn't changed. What response header am I missing that would cause the browser to aggressively cache the files? How would I set this in a .Net web.config for IIS7? Am I misunderstanding how HTTP caching works in the first place?

    Read the article

  • How do I refactor these two C# functions to abstract their logic from the specific class properties

    - by ObligatoryMoniker
    I have two functions whose underlying logic is the same but in one case it sets one property value on a class and in another case it sets a different one. How can I rewrite the following two functions to abstract away as much of the algorithm as possible so that I can make changes in logic in a single place? SetBillingAddress private void SetBillingAddress(OrderAddress newBillingAddress) { BasketHelper basketHelper = new BasketHelper(SiteConstants.BasketName); OrderAddress oldBillingAddress = basketHelper.Basket.Addresses[basketHelper.BillingAddressID]; bool NewBillingAddressIsNotOldBillingAddress = ((oldBillingAddress == null) || (newBillingAddress.OrderAddressId != oldBillingAddress.OrderAddressId)); bool BillingAddressHasBeenPreviouslySet = (oldBillingAddress != null); bool BillingAddressIsNotSameAsShippingAddress = (basketHelper.ShippingAddressID != basketHelper.BillingAddressID); bool NewBillingAddressIsNotShippingAddress = (newBillingAddress.OrderAddressId != basketHelper.ShippingAddressID); if (NewBillingAddressIsNotOldBillingAddress && BillingAddressHasBeenPreviouslySet && BillingAddressIsNotSameAsShippingAddress) { basketHelper.Basket.Addresses.Remove(oldBillingAddress); } if (NewBillingAddressIsNotOldBillingAddress && NewBillingAddressIsNotShippingAddress) { basketHelper.Basket.Addresses.Add(newBillingAddress); } basketHelper.BillingAddressID = newBillingAddress.OrderAddressId; basketHelper.Basket.Save(); } And here is the second one: SetShippingAddress private void SetBillingAddress(OrderAddress newShippingAddress) { BasketHelper basketHelper = new BasketHelper(SiteConstants.BasketName); OrderAddress oldShippingAddress = basketHelper.Basket.Addresses[basketHelper.ShippingAddressID]; bool NewShippingAddressIsNotOldShippingAddress = ((oldShippingAddress == null) || (newShippingAddress.OrderAddressId != oldShippingAddress.OrderAddressId)); bool ShippingAddressHasBeenPreviouslySet = (oldShippingAddress != null); bool ShippingAddressIsNotSameAsBillingAddress = (basketHelper.ShippingAddressID != basketHelper.BillingAddressID); bool NewShippingAddressIsNotBillingAddress = (newShippingAddress.OrderAddressId != basketHelper.BillingAddressID); if (NewShippingAddressIsNotOldShippingAddress && ShippingAddressHasBeenPreviouslySet && ShippingAddressIsNotSameAsBillingAddress) { basketHelper.Basket.Addresses.Remove(oldShippingAddress); } if (NewShippingAddressIsNotOldShippingAddress && NewShippingAddressIsNotBillingAddress) { basketHelper.Basket.Addresses.Add(newShippingAddress); } basketHelper.ShippingAddressID = newShippingAddress.OrderAddressId; basketHelper.Basket.Save(); } My initial thought was that if I could pass a class's property by refernce then I could rewrite the previous functions into something like private void SetPurchaseOrderAddress(OrderAddress newAddress, ref String CurrentChangingAddressIDProperty) and then call this function and pass in either basketHelper.BillingAddressID or basketHelper.ShippingAddressID as CurrentChangingAddressIDProperty but since I can't pass C# properties by reference I am not sure what to do with this code to be able to reuse the logic in both places. Thanks for any insight you can give me.

    Read the article

  • ProgressDialog does not disappear after executing dismiss, hide or cancel?

    - by Martin
    Hello, I have an Overlay extension which has 2 dialogs as private attributes - one Dialog and one ProgressDialog. After clicking on the Overlay in the MapView, the Dialog object appears. When the user clicks a button in the Dialog it disappears and the ProgressDialog is shown. Simultaneously a background task is started by notifying a running Service. When the task is done, a method (buildingLoaded) in the Overlay object is called to switch the View and to dismiss the ProgressDialog. The View is being switched, the code is being run (I checked with the debugger) but the ProgressDialog is not dismissed. I also tried hide() and cancel() methods, but nothing works. Can somebody help me? Android version is 2.2 Here is the code: public class LODOverlay extends Overlay implements OnClickListener { private Dialog overlayDialog; private ProgressDialog progressDialog; .............. @Override public void onClick(View view) { ....... final Context ctx = view.getContext(); this.progressDialog = new ProgressDialog(ctx); ListView lv = new ListView(ctx); ArrayAdapter<String> adapter = new ArrayAdapter<String>(ctx, R.layout.layerlist, names); lv.setAdapter(adapter); final LODOverlay obj = this; lv.setOnItemClickListener(new OnItemClickListener() { public void onItemClick(AdapterView<?> parent, View view, int position, long id) { String name = ((TextView) view).getText().toString(); Intent getFloorIntent = new Intent(Map.RENDERER); getFloorIntent.putExtra("type", "onGetBuildingLayer"); getFloorIntent.putExtra("id", name); view.getContext().sendBroadcast(getFloorIntent); overlayDialog.dismiss(); obj.waitingForLayer = name; progressDialog.show(ctx, "Loading...", "Wait!!!"); } }); ....... } public void buildingLoaded(String id) { if (null != this.progressDialog) { if (id.equals(this.waitingForLayer)) { this.progressDialog.hide(); this.progressDialog.dismiss(); ............ Map.flipper.showNext(); // changes the view } } } }

    Read the article

  • Why is the W3C box model considered better?

    - by Mel
    Why do most developers consider the W3C box-model to be better than the box-model used by Internet Explorer? I know it's very frustrating developing pages that look the way you want them on Internet Explorer, but I find the W3C box-model to be counter-intuitive. For example, if margins, padding, and border were factored into the width, I could assign fixed width values for all my columns without having to worry about how many columns I have and what changes I make to my padding and margins. Under W3C box model I have to worry about how many columns I have, and develop something akin to a mathematical formula to calculate my values. Changing them would nightmarish, especially for complex layouts. My novice opinion is that it's more restrictive. Consider this small frame-work I wrote: #content { margin:0 auto 30px auto; padding:0 30px 30px 30px; width:900px; } #content .column { float:left; margin:0 20px 20px 20px; } #content .first { margin-left:0; } #content .last { margin-right:0; } .width_1-4 { width:195px; } .width_1-3 { width:273px; } .width_1-2 { width:430px; } .width_3-4 { width:645px; } .width_1-1 { width:900px; } These values I have assigned here will falter unless there are three columns, and thus the margins at 0(first)+20+20+20+20+0(last). It would be a disaster if I wanted to add padding to my columns too, as my entire setup would have to be re calibrated. Now imagine if column width incorporated all the other elements, all I would need to do is change one associated value, and I have my layout. I'm less criticizing it and more hoping to understand why it's better, or why I'm finding it more difficult. Am I doing this whole thing wrong? I don't know very much about this topic, but it seems counter intuitive to use W3C's box-model. Some advice would be really appreciated. Thanks

    Read the article

  • EF4: ObjectContext inconsistent when inserting into a view with triggers

    - by user613567
    I get an Invalid Operation Exception when inserting records in a View that uses “Instead of” triggers in SQL Server with ADO.NET Entity Framework 4. The error message says: {"The changes to the database were committed successfully, but an error occurred while updating the object context. The ObjectContext might be in an inconsistent state. Inner exception message: The key-value pairs that define an EntityKey cannot be null or empty. Parameter name: record"} @ at System.Data.Objects.ObjectContext.SaveChanges(SaveOptions options) at System.Data.Objects.ObjectContext.SaveChanges() In this simplified example I created two tables, Contacts and Employers, and one view Contacts_x_Employers which allows me to insert or retrieve rows into/from these two tables at once. The Tables only have a Name and an ID attributes and the view is based on a join of both: CREATE VIEW [dbo].[Contacts_x_Employers] AS SELECT dbo.Contacts.ContactName, dbo.Employers.EmployerName FROM dbo.Contacts INNER JOIN dbo.Employers ON dbo.Contacts.EmployerID = dbo.Employers.EmployerID And has this trigger: Create TRIGGER C_x_E_Inserts ON Contacts_x_Employers INSTEAD of INSERT AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; insert into Employers (EmployerName) select i.EmployerName from inserted i where not i.EmployerName in (select EmployerName from Employers) insert into Contacts (ContactName, EmployerID) select i.ContactName, e.EmployerID from inserted i inner join employers e on i.EmployerName = e.EmployerName; END GO The .NET Code follows: using (var Context = new TriggersTestEntities()) { Contacts_x_Employers CE1 = new Contacts_x_Employers(); CE1.ContactName = "J"; CE1.EmployerName = "T"; Contacts_x_Employers CE2 = new Contacts_x_Employers(); CE1.ContactName = "W"; CE1.EmployerName = "C"; Context.Contacts_x_Employers.AddObject(CE1); Context.Contacts_x_Employers.AddObject(CE2); Context.SaveChanges(); //? line with error } SSDL and CSDL (the view nodes): <EntityType Name="Contacts_x_Employers"> <Key> <PropertyRef Name="ContactName" /> <PropertyRef Name="EmployerName" /> </Key> <Property Name="ContactName" Type="varchar" Nullable="false" MaxLength="50" /> <Property Name="EmployerName" Type="varchar" Nullable="false" MaxLength="50" /> </EntityType> <EntityType Name="Contacts_x_Employers"> <Key> <PropertyRef Name="ContactName" /> <PropertyRef Name="EmployerName" /> </Key> <Property Name="ContactName" Type="String" Nullable="false" MaxLength="50" Unicode="false" FixedLength="false" /> <Property Name="EmployerName" Type="String" Nullable="false" MaxLength="50" Unicode="false" FixedLength="false" /> </EntityType> The Visual Studio solution and the SQL Scripts to re-create the whole application can be found in the TestViewTrggers.zip at ftp://JulioSantos.com/files/TriggerBug/. I appreciate any assistance that can be provided. I already spent days working on this problem.

    Read the article

  • Programming a callback function within a jQuery plugin

    - by ILMV
    I'm writing a jQuery plug-in so I can reuse this code in many places as it is a very well used piece of code, the code itself adds a new line to a table which has been cloned from a hidden row, it continues to perform a load of manipulations on the new row. I'm currently referencing it like this: $(".abc .grid").grid(); But I want to include a callback so each area the plug-in is called from can do something a bit more unique when the row has been added. I've used the jQuery AJAX plug-in before, so have used the success callback function, but cannot understand how the code works in the background. Here's what I want to achieve: $(".abc .grid").grid({ row_added: function() { // do something a bit more specific here } }); Here's my plug-in code (function($){ $.fn.extend({ //pass the options variable to the function grid: function() { return this.each(function() { grid_table=$(this).find('.grid-table > tbody'); grid_hidden_row=$(this).find('.grid-hidden-row'); //console.debug(grid_hidden_row); $(this).find('.grid-add-row').click(function(event) { /* * clone row takes a hidden dummy row, clones it and appends a unique row * identifier to the id. Clone maintains our jQuery binds */ // get the last id last_row=$(grid_table).find('tr:last').attr('id'); if(last_row===undefined) { new_row=1; } else { new_row=parseInt(last_row.replace('row',''),10)+1; } // append element to target, changes it's id and shows it $(grid_table).append($(grid_hidden_row).clone(true).attr('id','row'+new_row).removeClass('grid-hidden-row').show()); // append unique row identifier on id and name attribute of seledct, input and a $('#row'+new_row).find('select, input, a').each(function(id) { $(this).appendAttr('id','_row'+new_row); $(this).replaceAttr('name','_REPLACE_',new_row); }); // disable all the readonly_if_lines options if this is the first row if(new_row==1) { $('.readonly_if_lines :not(:selected)').attr('disabled','disabled'); } }); $(this).find('.grid-remove-row').click(function(event) { /* * Remove row does what it says on the tin, as well as a few other house * keeping bits and pieces */ // remove the parent tr $(this).parents('tr').remove(); // recalculate the order value5 //calcTotal('.net_value ','#gridform','#gridform_total'); // if we've removed the last row remove readonly locks row_count=grid_table.find('tr').size(); console.info(row_count); if(row_count===0) { $('.readonly_if_lines :disabled').removeAttr('disabled'); } }); }); } }); })(jQuery); I've done the usually searching on elgooG... but I seem to be getting a lot of noise with little result, any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • measure rendered html in javascript without affecting the measurement

    - by drawnonward
    I am doing pagination in javascript. This is typographic pagination, not chopping up database results. For the most part it works, but I have run into a heisenberg issue where I cannot quite measure text without affecting it. I am not trying to measure text before it is rendered. I want the actual position it shows up at on screen, so I can paginate to where it is naturally wrapped. I am measuring the vertical position of characters, not the horizontal width of strings. The way I do this is similar to this answer in that I am applying a style to a block of text, then measuring the position of the newly created span. If the span does not reach the end of the page, I clear it and make a new span in a linear search. The problem is that the anti-aliased sub-pixel text layout is different when the span is applied. In rare cases, this causes the text to wrap differently when I measure it. I have only seen this when wrapping at a hyphen, and I assume it would not happen when wrapping at white space. As a concrete example, "prepared-he" is the string I am having trouble with. When I measure up to "prepare" it appears, as expected, to be within the current page. When I measure "prepared" the whole phrase wraps down to the next line, moving it to the next page, so it looks like the "d" is the character to break at. I break the text between "prepare" and "d-he" and that is wrong. Trying to evaluate individual characters opens a whole can of worms I would rather avoid. The wrapping changes because, with the new span, the line is 1 pixel wider. A solution to my problem could either be a better way to measure text using javascript, or a way to wrap text in a new element without affecting layout. I have tried setting margin-right:-1px for the class of the span being created to wrap the text. This had no noticeable effect. I am doing this in a UIWebView on the iPhone. There are some measurement related calls that are available in normal WebKit that are not available here. For example, Range does not have getBoundingClientRect or support setting an offset other than 0 in setStart or setEnd. Thank you

    Read the article

  • NSLinguisticTagger on the contents of an NSTextStorage- crashing bug

    - by Remy Porter
    I'm trying to use an NSLinguisticTagger to monitor the contents of an NSTextStorage and provide some contextual information based on what the user types. To that end, I have an OverlayManager object, which wires up this relationship: -(void) setView:(NSTextView*) view { _view = view; _layout = view.layoutManager; _storage = view.layoutManager.textStorage; //get the TextStorage from the view [_tagger setString:_storage.string]; //pull the string out, this grabs the mutable version [self registerForNotificationsOn:self->_storage]; //subscribe to the willProcessEditing notification } When an edit occurs, I make sure to trap it and notify the tagger (and yes, I know I'm being annoyingly inconsistent with member access, I'm rusty on Obj-C, I'll fix it later): - (void) textStorageWillProcessEditing:(NSNotification*) notification{ if ([self->_storage editedMask] & NSTextStorageEditedCharacters) { NSRange editedRange = [self->_storage editedRange]; NSUInteger delta = [self->_storage changeInLength]; [_tagger stringEditedInRange:editedRange changeInLength:delta]; //should notify the tagger of the changes [self highlightEdits:self]; } } The highlightEdits message delegates the job out to a pool of "Overlay" objects. Each contains a block of code similar to this: [tagger enumerateTagsInRange:range scheme:NSLinguisticTagSchemeLexicalClass options:0 usingBlock:^(NSString *tag, NSRange tokenRange, NSRange sentenceRange, BOOL *stop) { if (tag == PartOfSpeech) { [self applyHighlightToRange:tokenRange onStorage:storage]; } }]; And that's where the problem is- the enumerateTagsInRange method crashes out with a message: 2014-06-04 10:07:19.692 WritersEditor[40191:303] NSMutableRLEArray replaceObjectsInRange:withObject:length:: Out of bounds This problem doesn't occur if I don't link to the mutable copy of the underlying string and instead do a [[_storage string] copy], but obviously I don't want to copy the entire backing store every time I want to do tagging. This all should be happening in the main run loop, so I don't think this is a threading issue. The NSRange I'm enumerating tags on exists both in the NSTextStorage and in the NSLinguisticTagger's view of the string. It's not even the fact that the applyHighlightToRange call adds attributes to the string, because it crashes before even reaching that line. I attempted to build a test case around the problem, but can't replicate it in those situations: - (void) testEdit { NSAttributedString* str = [[NSMutableAttributedString alloc] initWithString:@"Quickly, this is a test."]; text = [[NSTextStorage alloc] initWithAttributedString:str]; NSArray* schemes = [NSLinguisticTagger availableTagSchemesForLanguage:@"en"]; tagger = [[NSLinguisticTagger alloc] initWithTagSchemes:schemes options:0]; [tagger setString:[text string]]; [text beginEditing]; [[text mutableString] appendString:@"T"]; NSRange edited = [text editedRange]; NSUInteger length = [text changeInLength]; [text endEditing]; [tagger stringEditedInRange:edited changeInLength:length]; [tagger enumerateTagsInRange:edited scheme:NSLinguisticTagSchemeLexicalClass options:0 usingBlock:^(NSString *tag, NSRange tokenRange, NSRange sentenceRange, BOOL *stop) { //doesn't matter, this should crash }]; } That code doesn't crash.

    Read the article

  • JSF inner datatable not respecting rendered condition of outer table.

    - by Marc
    <h:dataTable cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" styleClass="list_table" id="OuterItems" value="#{valueList.values}" var="item" border="0"> <h:column rendered="#{item.typeA"> <h:dataTable cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" styleClass="list_table" id="InnerItems" value="#{item.options}" var="option" border="0"> <h:column > <h:outputText value="Option: #{option.displayValue}"/> </h:column> </h:dataTable> </h:column> <h:column rendered="#{item.typeB"> <h:dataTable cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" styleClass="list_table" id="InnerItems" value="#{item.demands}" var="demand" border="0"> <h:column > <h:outputText value="Demand: #{demand.displayValue}"/> </h:column> </h:dataTable> </h:column> </h:dataTable> public class Item{ ... public boolean isTypeA(){ return this instanceof TypeA; } public boolean isTypeB(){ return this instanceof TypeB; } ... } public class typeA extends Item(){ ... public List getOptions(){ .... } ... } public class typeB extends Item(){ ... public List getDemands(){ ... } .... } I'm having an issue with JSF. I've abstracted the problem out here, and I'm hoping someone can help me understand how what I'm doing fails. I'm looping over a list of Items. These Items are actually instances of the subclasses TypeA and TypeB. For Type A, I want to display the options, for Type B I want to display the demands. When rendering the page for the first time, this works fine. However, when I post back to the page for some action, I get an error: [3/26/10 12:52:32:781 EST] 0000008c SystemErr R javax.faces.FacesException: Error getting property 'options' from bean of type TypeB at com.sun.faces.lifecycle.ApplyRequestValuesPhase.execute(ApplyRequestValuesPhase.java:89) at com.sun.faces.lifecycle.LifecycleImpl.phase(LifecycleImpl.java(Compiled Code)) at com.sun.faces.lifecycle.LifecycleImpl.execute(LifecycleImpl.java:91) at com.ibm.faces.portlet.FacesPortlet.processAction(FacesPortlet.java:193) My grasp on the JSF lifecyle is very rough. At this point, i understand there is an error in the ApplyRequestValues Phases which is very early and so the previous state is restored and nothing changes. What I don't understand is that in order to fufill the condition for rendering "item.typeA" that object has to be an instance of TypeA. But here, it looks like that object passed the condition even though it was an instance of TypeB. It is like it is evaluating the inner dataTable (InnerItems) before evaluating the outer (outerItems). My working assumption is that I just don't understand how/when the rendered attribute is actually evaluated.

    Read the article

  • Changing text depending on rounded total from database

    - by NeonBlue Bliss
    On a website I have a number of small PHP scripts to automate changes to the text of the site, depending on a figure that's calculated from a MySQL database. The site is for a fundraising group, and the text in question on the home page gives the total amount raised. The amount raised is pulled from the database and rounded to the nearest thousand. This is the PHP I use to round the figure and find the last three digits of the total: $query4 = mysql_query("SELECT SUM(amountraised) AS full_total FROM fundraisingtotal;"); $result4 = mysql_fetch_array($query4); $fulltotal = $result4["full_total"]; $num = $fulltotal + 30000; $ftotalr = round($num,-3); $roundnum = round($num); $string = $roundnum; $length = strlen($string); $characters = 3; $start = $length - $characters; $string = substr($string , $start ,$characters); $figure = $string; (£30,000 is the amount that had been raised by the previous fundraising team from when the project first started, which is why I've added 30000 to $fulltotal for the $num variable) Currently the text reads: the bookstall and other fundraising events have raised more than &pound;<? echo number_format($ftotalr); ?> I've just realised though that because the PHP is rounding to the nearest thousand, if the total's for example £39,200 and it's rounded to £40,000, to say it's more than £40,000 is incorrect, and in that case I'd need it to say 'almost £40,000' or something similar. I obviously need to replace the 'more than' with a variable. Obviously I need to test whether the last three digits of the total are nearer to 0 or 1000, so that if the total was for example £39,2000, the text would read 'just over', if it was between £39,250 and £39,400 something like 'over', between £39,400 and £39,700 something like 'well over', and between £39,700 and £39,999, 'almost.' I've managed to get the last three digits of the total as a variable, and I think I need some sort of an if/else/elseif code block (not sure if that would be the right approach, or whether to use case/break), and obviously I'm going to have to check whether the figure meets each of the criteria, but I can't figure out how to do that. Could anyone suggest what would be the best way to do this please?

    Read the article

  • Sanity Check: change event not firing first time using keyboard

    - by macca1
    I've done a good amount of research on this and found a bunch of reported problems and solutions but the general consensus seems that all change problems in IE6 were fixed in jQuery 1.4.2. I'm having an issue where a change event is not firing in jQuery 1.4.2, but it did fire successfully in jQuery 1.3.2. This is in IE6. I'm about to submit a bug for this, but for my sanity I wanted to post it here first to see if there's something dumb I'm missing. I don't understand why this is working this way... <HTML> <HEAD> <TITLE>jQuery 1.4.2 Problem </TITLE> <script src="jquery-1.4.2.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script> $(document).ready( function() { $("#firstBox").change(function() { alert("CHANGE"); }); // ONLOAD of document autofocus into the first element... $("form").find(":input:visible:first").focus() }); </script> </HEAD> <BODY> <form> <select id="firstBox"> <option value="" selected="selected">--</option> <option value="1">One</option> <option value="2">Two</option> </select> <br><br> <input size="10" id="secondBox"> </form> </BODY> </HTML> Simple enough, right? Onload of the page, give the first element focus. Onchange of the first element, alert. If you use the mouse, it works as expected. The page loads, the focus is in the drop down, you change the option, you get the alert. The problem is if you use the keyboard. The page loads, the focus is in the drop down, you press the down arrow. The option changes. Tab off the field, no alert. Weird. To make it even weirder, if you tab back into the field and change it again (all using the keyboard), the change event DOES fire after tab out this time. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • JavaFX - question regarding binding button's disabled state

    - by jamiebarrow
    I'm trying to create a dummy application that maintains a list of tasks. For now, all I'm trying to do is add to the list. I enter a task name in a text box, click on the add task button, and expect the list to be updated with the new item and the task name input to be cleared. I only want to be able to add tasks if the task name is not empty. The below code is my implementation, but I have a question regarding the binding. I'm binding the textbox's text variable to a string in my view model, and the button's disable variable to a boolean in my view model. I have a trigger to update the disabled state when the task name changes. When the binding of the task name happens the boolean is updated accordingly, but the button still appears disabled. But then when I mouse over the button, it becomes enabled. I believe this is due to JavaFX 1.3's binding being lazy - only updates the bound variable when it is read. Also, when I've added the task, I clear the task name in the model, but the textbox's text doesn't change - even though I'm using bind with inverse. Is there a way to make the textbox's text and the button's disabled state update automatically via the binding as I was expecting? Thanks, James AddTaskViewModel.fx: package jamiebarrow; import java.lang.System; public class AddTaskViewModel { function logChange(prop:String,oldValue,newValue):Void { println("{System.currentTimeMillis()} : {prop} [{oldValue}] to [{newValue}] "); } public var newTaskName: String on replace old { logChange("newTaskName",old,newTaskName); isAddTaskDisabled = (newTaskName == null or newTaskName.trim().length() == 0); }; public var isAddTaskDisabled: Boolean on replace old { logChange("isAddTaskDisabled",old,isAddTaskDisabled); }; public var taskItems = [] on replace old { logChange("taskItems",old,taskItems); }; public function addTask() { insert newTaskName into taskItems; newTaskName = ""; } } Main.fx: package jamiebarrow; import javafx.scene.control.Button; import javafx.scene.control.TextBox; import javafx.scene.control.ListView; import javafx.scene.Scene; import javafx.scene.layout.VBox; import javafx.stage.Stage; import javafx.scene.layout.HBox; def viewModel = AddTaskViewModel{}; var txtName: TextBox = TextBox { text: bind viewModel.newTaskName with inverse onKeyTyped: onKeyTyped }; function onKeyTyped(event): Void { txtName.commit(); // ensures model is updated cmdAddTask.disable = viewModel.isAddTaskDisabled;// the binding only occurs lazily, so this is needed } var cmdAddTask = Button { text: "Add" disable: bind viewModel.isAddTaskDisabled with inverse action: onAddTask }; function onAddTask(): Void { viewModel.addTask(); } var lstTasks = ListView { items: bind viewModel.taskItems with inverse }; Stage { scene: Scene { content: [ VBox { content: [ HBox { content: [ txtName, cmdAddTask ] }, lstTasks ] } ] } }

    Read the article

  • Flatten date range memberships retaining only the highest priority membership (TRANSACT-SQL)

    - by shadowranger
    Problem statement: A table contains an item_id, a category_id and a date range (begin_date and end_date). No item may be in more than one category on any given date (in general; during daily rebuilding it can be in an invalid state temporarily). By default, all items are added (and re-added if removed) to a category (derived from outside data) automatically on a daily basis, and their membership in that category matches the lifespan of the item (items have their own begin and end date, and usually spend their entire lives in the same category, which is why this matches). For items in category X, it is occasionally desirable to override the default category by adding them to category Y. Membership in category Y could entirely replace membership in category X (that is, the begin and end dates for membership in category Y would match the begin and end dates of the item itself), or it could override it for an arbitrary period of time (at the beginning, middle or end the item's lifespan, possibly overriding for short periods at multiple times). Membership in category Y is not renewed automatically and additions to that category is done by manual data entry. Every day, when category X is rebuilt, we get an overlap, where any item in category Y will now be in category X as well (which is forbidden, as noted previously). Goal: After each repopulation of category X (which is done in a rather complicated and fragile manner, and ideally would be left alone), I'm trying to find an efficient means of writing a stored procedure that: Identifies the overlaps Changes existing entries, adds new ones where necessary (such as in the case where an item starts in category X, switches to category Y, then eventually switches back to category X before ending), or removes entries (when an item is in category Y for its entire life) such that every item remains in category Y (and only Y) where specified, while category X membership is maintained when not overridden by category Y. Does not affect memberships of categories A, B, C, Z, etc., which do not have override categories and are built separately, by completely different rules. Note: It can be assumed that X membership covers the entire lifespan of the item before this procedure is called, so it is unnecessary to query any data outside this table. Bonus credit: If for some reason there are two adjacent or overlapping memberships in for the same item in category Y, stitching them together into a single entry is appreciated, but not necessary. Example: item_id category_id begin_date end_date 1 X 20080101 20090628 1 Y 20090101 20090131 1 Y 20090601 20090628 2 X 20080201 20080731 2 Y 20080201 20080731 Should become: item_id category_id begin_date end_date 1 X 20080101 20081231 1 Y 20090101 20090131 1 X 20090201 20090531 1 Y 20090601 20090628 2 Y 20080201 20080731 If it matters, this needs to work on SQL Server 2005 and SQL Server 2008

    Read the article

  • What am I missing in this ASP.NET XSS Security Helper class?

    - by smartcaveman
    I need a generic method for preventing XSS attacks in ASP.NET. The approach I came up with is a ValidateRequest method that evaluates the HttpRequest for any potential issues, and if issues are found, redirect the user to the same page, but in a away that is not threatening to the application. (Source code below) While I know this method will prevent most XSS attacks, I am not certain that I am adequately preventing all possible attacks while also minimizing false positives. So, what is the most effective way to adequately prevent all possible attacks, while minimizing false positives? Are there changes I should make to the helper class below, or is there an alternative approach or third party library that offers something more convincing? public static class XssSecurity { public const string PotentialXssAttackExpression = "(http(s)*(%3a|:))|(ftp(s)*(%3a|:))|(javascript)|(alert)|(((\\%3C) <)[^\n]+((\\%3E) >))"; private static readonly Regex PotentialXssAttackRegex = new Regex(PotentialXssAttackExpression, RegexOptions.IgnoreCase); public static bool IsPotentialXssAttack(this HttpRequest request) { if(request != null) { string query = request.QueryString.ToString(); if(!string.IsNullOrEmpty(query) && PotentialXssAttackRegex.IsMatch(query)) return true; if(request.HttpMethod.Equals("post", StringComparison.InvariantCultureIgnoreCase)) { string form = request.Form.ToString(); if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(form) && PotentialXssAttackRegex.IsMatch(form)) return true; } if(request.Cookies.Count > 0) { foreach(HttpCookie cookie in request.Cookies) { if(PotentialXssAttackRegex.IsMatch(cookie.Value)) { return true; } } } } return false; } public static void ValidateRequest(this HttpContext context, string redirectToPath = null) { if(context == null || !context.Request.IsPotentialXssAttack()) return; // expire all cookies foreach(HttpCookie cookie in context.Request.Cookies) { cookie.Expires = DateTime.Now.Subtract(TimeSpan.FromDays(1)); context.Response.Cookies.Set(cookie); } // redirect to safe path bool redirected = false; if(redirectToPath != null) { try { context.Response.Redirect(redirectToPath,true); redirected = true; } catch { redirected = false; } } if (redirected) return; string safeUrl = context.Request.Url.AbsolutePath.Replace(context.Request.Url.Query, string.Empty); context.Response.Redirect(safeUrl,true); } }

    Read the article

  • git filter-branch chmod

    - by Evan Purkhiser
    I accidental had my umask set incorrectly for the past few months and somehow didn't notice. One of my git repositories has many files marked as executable that should be just 644. This repo has one main master branch, and about 4 private feature branches (that I keep rebased on top of the master). I've corrected the files in my master branch by running find -type f -exec chmod 644 {} \; and committing the changes. I then rebased my feature branches onto master. The problem is there are newly created files in the feature branches that are only in that branch, so they weren't corrected by my massive chmod commit. I didn't want to create a new commit for each feature branch that does the same thing as the commit I made on master. So I decided it would be best to go back through to each commit where a file was made and set the permissions. This is what I tried: git filter-branch -f --tree-filter 'chmod 644 `git show --diff-filter=ACR --pretty="format:" --name-only $GIT_COMMIT`; git add .' master.. It looked like this worked, but upon further inspection I noticed that the every commit after a commit containing a new file with the proper permissions of 644 would actually revert the change with something like: diff --git a b old mode 100644 new mode 100755 I can't for the life of me figure out why this is happening. I think I must be mis-understanding how git filter-branch works. My Solution I've managed to fix my problem using this command: git filter-branch -f --tree-filter 'FILES="$FILES "`git show --diff-filter=ACMR --pretty="format:" --name-only $GIT_COMMIT`; chmod 644 $FILES; true' development.. I keep adding onto the FILES variable to ensure that in each commit any file created at some point has the proper mode. However, I'm still not sure I really understand why git tracks the file mode for each commit. I had though that since I had fixed the mode of the file when it was first created that it would stay that mode unless one of my other commits explicit changed it to something else. That did not appear to the be the case. The reason I thought that this would work is from my understanding of rebase. If I go back to HEAD~5 and change a line of code, that change is propagated through, it doesn't just get changed back in HEAD~4.

    Read the article

  • Jquery $.post and PHP - Prevent the ability to use script outside of main website.

    - by Tim
    I have a PHP script setup using Jquery $.post which would return a response or do an action within the targeted .php file within $.post. Eg. My page has a form where you type in your Name. Once you hit the submit form button, $.post is called and sends the entered Name field value into "mywebsite.xyz/folder/ajaxscript.php" If a user was to visit "mywebsite.xyz/folder/ajaxscript.php" directly and somehow POST the data to the script, the script would return a response / do an action, based on the submitted POST data. The problem is, I don't want others to be able to periodically "call" an action or request a response from my website without using the website directly. Theoretically, right now you could determine what Name values my website allows without even visiting it, or you could call an action without going through the website, by simply visiting "mywebsite.xyz/folder/ajaxscript.php" So, what measures can I take to prevent this from happening? So far my idea is to ensure that it is a $_POST and not a $_GET - so they cannot manually enter it into the browser, but they could still post data to the script... Another measure is to apply a session key that expires, and is only valid for X amount of visits until they revisit the website. ~ Or, just have a daily "code" that changes and they'd need to grab this code from the website each day to keep their direct access to the script working (eg. I pass the daily "code" into each post request. I then check that code matches in the ajax php script.) However, even with these meaures, they will STILL have access to the scripts so long as they know how to POST the data, and also get the new code each day. Also, having a daily code requirement will cause issues when visiting the site at midnight (12:00am) as the code will change and the script will break for someone who is on the website trying to call the script, with the invalid code being passed still. I have attempted using .htaccess however using: order allow,deny deny from all Prevents legitimate access, and I'd have to add an exception so the website's IP is allowed to access it.. which is a hassle to update I think. Although, if it's the only legitimate solution I guess I'll have to. If I need to be more clear please let me know.

    Read the article

  • Measure width() with jQuery after DOM refresh

    - by o_O Tync
    My script dynamically creates a <ul> width left-floating <li>s inside: it's a paginator. Afterwards, the script measures width of all <li>s and summs them up. The problem is that after the nodes are injected into the document — the browser refreshed DOM and applies CSS styles which takes a while. It has a negative effect on my script: when these operations are not complete before I measure the width — my script gets a wrong value. If I perform the measure in a second — everything is ok. The thing I'm looking for is a way to detect the moment when the <ul> is fully drawn, styles applied and the width has stabilizes. Or at least a way to detect every dimensions changes. Of course I can use setTimeout(..., 100) but it's ugly and I guess — not a solution at all. If there's a way to detect width stabilization — I would do the measuring right after it to get the correct values. HTML code generated by the DOM <div> <ul> <li><a href="...">1</a></li> <li><a href="...">2</a></li> .... </ul> </div> P.S. Why I need this. My paginator's left-floating <li> items tend to move to the next line when the <ul> tries to become wider than the page itself. Even though most of <li>s are invisible because of parent <div>'s width restriction: div { width: 500px; overflow: hidden; } div ul { width: 100%; white-space: nowrap; } div ul li { display: block; float: left; } they still go down unless I specify the actual summed width of the <ul> with the script.

    Read the article

  • How to keep a local value from being set when a binding fails (so inherited values will propagate)

    - by redoced
    Consider the following scenario: I want to bind the TextElement.FontWeight property to an xml attribute. The xml looks somewhat like this and has arbitrary depth. <text font-weight="bold"> bold text here <inlinetext>more bold text</inlinetext> even more bold text </text> I use hierarchical templating to display the text, no problem there, but having a Setter in the template style like: <Setter Property="TextElement.FontWeight" Value="{Binding XPath=@font-weight}"/> sets the fontweight correctly on the first level, but overwrites the second level with null (as the binding can't find the xpath) which reverts to Fontweight normal. I tried all sorts of things here but nothing quite seems to work. e.g. i used a converter to return UnsetValue, which didn't work. I'm currently trying with: <Setter Property="custom:AttributeInserter.Wrapper" Value="{custom:AttributeInserter Property=TextElement.FontWeight, Binding={Binding XPath=@font-weight}}"/> Codebehind: public static class AttributeInserter { public static AttributeInserterExtension GetWrapper(DependencyObject obj) { return (AttributeInserterExtension)obj.GetValue(WrapperProperty); } public static void SetWrapper(DependencyObject obj, AttributeInserterExtension value) { obj.SetValue(WrapperProperty, value); } // Using a DependencyProperty as the backing store for Wrapper. This enables animation, styling, binding, etc... public static readonly DependencyProperty WrapperProperty = DependencyProperty.RegisterAttached("Wrapper", typeof(AttributeInserterExtension), typeof(AttributeInserter), new UIPropertyMetadata(pcc)); static void pcc(DependencyObject o,DependencyPropertyChangedEventArgs e) { var n=e.NewValue as AttributeInserterExtension; var c = o as FrameworkElement; if (n == null || c==null || n.Property==null || n.Binding==null) return; var bex = c.SetBinding(n.Property, n.Binding); bex.UpdateTarget(); if (bex.Status == BindingStatus.UpdateTargetError) c.ClearValue(n.Property); } } public class AttributeInserterExtension : MarkupExtension { public override object ProvideValue(IServiceProvider serviceProvider) { return this; } public DependencyProperty Property { get; set; } public Binding Binding { get; set; } } which kinda works, but can't track changes of the property Any ideas? Any links? thx for the help

    Read the article

  • Unable to serialize correctly- c#

    - by ltech
    I had asked this Yesterday If my xsd schema changes to <xs:element name="Document" minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="unbounded"> <xs:complexType> <xs:sequence> <xs:element name="MetaDoc" minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="unbounded"> <xs:complexType> <xs:sequence> <xs:element name="ATTRIBUTES" minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="unbounded"> <xs:complexType> <xs:sequence> <xs:element name="author" type="xs:string" minOccurs="0" /> <xs:element name="max_versions" type="xs:string" minOccurs="0" /> <xs:element name="summary" type="xs:string" minOccurs="0" /> </xs:sequence> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> </xs:sequence> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> </xs:sequence> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> My xsd - class generation becomes /// <remarks/> [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlArrayAttribute(Form=System.Xml.Schema.XmlSchemaForm.Unqualified)] [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlArrayItemAttribute("MetaDoc", typeof(DocumentMetaDocATTRIBUTES[]), Form=System.Xml.Schema.XmlSchemaForm.Unqualified, IsNullable=false)] [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlArrayItemAttribute("ATTRIBUTES", typeof(DocumentMetaDocATTRIBUTES), Form=System.Xml.Schema.XmlSchemaForm.Unqualified, IsNullable=false, NestingLevel=1)] public DocumentMetaDocATTRIBUTES[][][] Document { get { return this.documentField; } set { this.documentField = value; } } If I am deriving to CollectionBase, as shown in my previous post, how would I manage the XmlArrayItemAttribute ? so that I can read this part of my input xml into my strongly types object <Document> <MetaDoc> <ATTRIBUTES> <author>asas</author> <max_versions>1</max_versions> <summary>aasasqqqq</summary> </ATTRIBUTES> </MetaDoc> </Document>

    Read the article

  • Optimising speeds in HDF5 using Pytables

    - by Sree Aurovindh
    The problem is with respect to the writing speed of the computer (10 * 32 bit machine) and the postgresql query performance.I will explain the scenario in detail. I have data about 80 Gb (along with approprite database indexes in place). I am trying to read it from Postgresql database and writing it into HDF5 using Pytables.I have 1 table and 5 variable arrays in one hdf5 file.The implementation of Hdf5 is not multithreaded or enabled for symmetric multi processing.I have rented about 10 computers for a day and trying to write them inorder to speed up my data handling. As for as the postgresql table is concerned the overall record size is 140 million and I have 5 primary- foreign key referring tables.I am not using joins as it is not scalable So for a single lookup i do 6 lookup without joins and write them into hdf5 format. For each lookup i do 6 inserts into each of the table and its corresponding arrays. The queries are really simple select * from x.train where tr_id=1 (primary key & indexed) select q_t from x.qt where q_id=2 (non-primary key but indexed) (similarly five queries) Each computer writes two hdf5 files and hence the total count comes around 20 files. Some Calculations and statistics: Total number of records : 14,37,00,000 Total number of records per file : 143700000/20 =71,85,000 The total number of records in each file : 71,85,000 * 5 = 3,59,25,000 Current Postgresql database config : My current Machine : 8GB RAM with i7 2nd generation Processor. I made changes to the following to postgresql configuration file : shared_buffers : 2 GB effective_cache_size : 4 GB Note on current performance: I have run it for about ten hours and the performance is as follows: The total number of records written for each file is about 6,21,000 * 5 = 31,05,000 The bottle neck is that i can only rent it for 10 hours per day (overnight) and if it processes in this speed it will take about 11 days which is too high for my experiments. Please suggest me on how to improve. Questions: 1. Should i use Symmetric multi processing on those desktops(it has 2 cores with about 2 GB of RAM).In that case what is suggested or prefereable? 2. If i change my postgresql configuration file and increase the RAM will it enhance my process. 3. Should i use multi threading.. In that case any links or pointers would be of great help Thanks Sree aurovindh V

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 560 561 562 563 564 565 566 567 568 569 570 571  | Next Page >