Search Results

Search found 32538 results on 1302 pages for 'restore database'.

Page 564/1302 | < Previous Page | 560 561 562 563 564 565 566 567 568 569 570 571  | Next Page >

  • How can I use "Dependency Injection" in simple php functions, and should I bother?

    - by Tchalvak
    I hear people talking about dependency injection and the benefit of it all the time, but I don't really understand it. I'm wondering if it's a solution to the "I pass database connections as arguments all the time" problem. I tried reading wikipedia's entry on it, but the example is written in Java so I don't solidly understand the difference it is trying to make clear. ( http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dependency_injection ). I read this dependency-injection-in-php article ( http://www.potstuck.com/2009/01/08/php-dependency-injection/ ), and it seems like the objective is to not pass dependencies to an object directly, but to cordon off the creation of an object along with the creation of it's dependencies. I'm not sure how to apply that in a using php functions context, though. Additionally, is the following Dependency Injection, and should I bother trying to do dependency injection in a functional context? Version 1: (the kind of code that I create, but don't like, every day) function get_data_from_database($database_connection){ $data = $database_connection->query('blah'); return $data; } Version 2: (don't have to pass a database connection, but perhaps not dependency injection?) function get_database_connection(){ static $db_connection; if($db_connection){ return $db_connection; } else { // create db_connection ... } } function get_data_from_database(){ $conn = get_database_connection(); $data = $conn->query('blah'); return $data; } $data = get_data_from_database(); Version 3: (the creation of the "object"/data is separate, and the database code is still, so perhaps this would count as dependency injection?) function factory_of_data_set(){ static $db_connection; $data_set = null; $db_connection = get_database_connection(); $data_set = $db_connection->query('blah'); return $data_set; } $data = factory_of_data_set(); Anyone have a good resource or just insight that makes the method and benefit -crystal- clear?

    Read the article

  • PDF Form Field Manipulation

    - by 108039818756939362532
    I'm making a web interface to autofill pdf forms with user data from a database. The admin needs to be able to upload a pdf (right now targeted at IRS pdf forms) and then associate the fields in the pdf with data fields in the database. I need a way to help the admin associate the field names (stuff like "topmostSubform[0].Page2[0].p2-t66[0]") with the the data fields in the database. I'm looking for a way to modify the PDF programatically to in some way provide this information. Basically I'm open to suggestions on how I might make the field names appear in an obvious manner on a modified version of the original pdf. The closest I've gotten is being able to insert Tooltips into the fields in the pdf by just editting the raw pdf line by line. However when editting the pdf in this manner the field names are gibberish, and so I can't just use them. An optimal solution would be anything that could automatically parse a pdf and set each field's tooltip to be the fields name. Anything that can be run from the command line, or any python tool, or just a basic how to correctly parse a field's name from a raw pdf file would be amazing.

    Read the article

  • How do I simulate "Is In" using Linq2Sql

    - by flipdoubt
    I often find myself with a list of disconnected Linq2Sql objects or keys that I need to re-select from a Linq2Sql data-context to update or delete in the database. If this were SQL, I would use IS IN in the SQL WHERE clause, but I am stuck with what to do in Linq2Sql. Here is a sample of what I would like to write: public void MarkValidated(IList<int> idsToValidate) { using(_Db.NewSession()) // Instatiates new DataContext { // ThatAreIn <- this is where I am stuck var items = _Db.Items.ThatAreIn(idsToValidate).ToList(); foreach(var item in items) item.Validated = DateTime.Now; _Db.SubmitChanges(); } // Disposes of DataContext } Or: public void DeleteItems(IList<int> idsToDelete) { using(_Db.NewSession()) // Instatiates new DataContext { // ThatAreIn <- this is where I am stuck var items = _Db.Items.ThatAreIn(idsToValidate); _Db.Items.DeleteAllOnSubmit(items); _Db.SubmitChanges(); } // Disposes of DataContext } Can I get this done in one trip to the database? If so, how? Is it possible to send all those ints to the database as a list of parameters and is that more efficient than doing a foreach over the list to select each item one at a time?

    Read the article

  • Interfaces with structs, by reference using Generics

    - by Fraga
    I can't pass by reference an interface with a struct in it, what am I doing wrong? Here is the example code: class Processor<T> where T : new() { public Processor() { Data = new T(); } public T Data; } class PeriodsProcessor : Processor<Periods> { public PeriodsProcessor() { DataBase DB = new DataBase(); Console.WriteLine(Data.Value); DB.ModifyData<Period>(Data); Console.WriteLine(Data.Value); Console.ReadLine(); } } public class Period { public string Name; } public interface IDataTable<T> { string Value { get; set; } T Filter { get; set; } } [Serializable] public struct Periods : IDataTable<Period> { public string Value { get; set; } public Period Filter { get; set; } } public class DataBase { public void ModifyData<T>(IDataTable<T> data) where T : new() { data.Value = "CHANGE"; } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { PeriodsProcessor PeriodsProcessor = new PeriodsProcessor(); } }

    Read the article

  • PHP syntax for referencing self with late static binding

    - by Chris
    When I learned PHP it was pretty much in procedural form, more recently I've been trying to adapt to the OOP way of doing things. Hoever the tutorials I've been following were produced before PHP 5.3 when late static binding was introduced. What I want to know is how do I reference self when calling a function from a parent class. For example these two methods were written for a User class which is a child of DatabaseObject. Right now they're sitting inside the User class, but, as they're used in other child classes of DatabaseObject I'd like to promote them to be included inside DatabaseObject. public static function find_all() { global $database; $result_set = self::find_by_sql("select * from ".self::$table_name); return $result_set; } and: protected function cleaned_attributes() { global $database; $clean_attributes = array(); foreach($this->attributes() as $key => $value) { $clean_attributes[$key] = $database->escape_value($value); } return $clean_attributes; } So I have three questions: 1) How do I change the self:: reference when I move it to the parent. Is it static:: or something similar? 2) When calling the function from my code do I call it in the same way, as a function of the child class eg User::find_all() or is there a change there also? 3) Is there anything else I need to know before I start chopping bits up?

    Read the article

  • Verizon SongID - How is it programmed?

    - by CheeseConQueso
    For anyone not familiar with Verizon's SongID program, it is a free application downloadable through Verizon's VCast network. It listens to a song for 10 seconds at any point during the song and then sends this data to some all-knowing algorithmic beast that chews it up and sends you back all the ID3 tags (artist, album, song, etc...) The first two parts and last part are straightforward, but what goes on during the processing after the recorded sound is sent? I figure it must take the sound file (what format?), parse it (how? with what?) for some key identifiers (what are these? regular attributes of wave functions? phase/shift/amplitude/etc), and check it against a database. Everything I find online about how this works is something generic like what I typed above. From audiotag.info This service is based on a sophisticated audio recognition algorithm combining advanced audio fingerprinting technology and a large songs' database. When you upload an audio file, it is being analyzed by an audio engine. During the analysis its audio “fingerprint” is extracted and identified by comparing it to the music database. At the completion of this recognition process, information about songs with their matching probabilities are displayed on screen.

    Read the article

  • Free tools/libraries to compare tables with filtering in different databases and visualize/sync diff

    - by MicMit
    I am building certain GUI in C# for a content manager and looking for the tools or code snippets or open libraries ( code ideally in C# ) which allow me the following : 1. For table A in database X (test ) and table A in database Y (production) and for a simple filter ( e.g. listname = "XYZ" ) I need to show additions/deletions/updates in some way. which might be side-by-side or just html report 2 record added html table with some fields 2 record deleted html table with some fields Considering that this task is very common, I guess, certain components should exist ? Components either return some collections from parameters given for further visualizing or just produce reports mentioned above. 2. I need to push changes for the filter I mentioned in 1 and update table in production database for this filter only ( ie for the particular list approved by content person). Again probably there are certain SQL code generators - components in addition to diffs or standalone. 3. The key thing tools/libraries - should be suitable for integration with the existing application in C#.

    Read the article

  • Dependency Injection and decoupling of software layers

    - by cs31415
    I am trying to implement Dependency Injection to make my app tester friendly. I have a rather basic doubt. Data layer uses SqlConnection object to connect to a SQL server database. SqlConnection object is a dependency for data access layer. In accordance with the laws of dependency injection, we must not new() dependent objects, but rather accept them through constructor arguments. Not wanting to upset the DI gods, I dutifully create a constructor in my DAL that takes in SqlConnection. Business layer calls DAL. Business layer must therefore, pass in SqlConnection. Presentation layer calls Business layer. Hence it too, must pass in SqlConnection to business layer. This is great for class isolation and testability. But didn't we just couple the UI and Business layers to a specific implementation of the data layer which happens to use a relational database? Why do the Presentation and Business layers need to know that the underlying data store is SQL? What if the app needs to support multiple data sources other than SQL server (such as XML files, Comma delimited files etc.) Furthermore, what if I add another object upon which my data layer is dependent on (say, a second database). Now, I have to modify the upper layers to pass in this new object. How can I avoid this merry-go-round and reap all the benefits of DI without the pain?

    Read the article

  • Rolling Back a Transaction with MySQL Connector in VB.net

    - by Jonathan
    Hey all- I have one multi-row INSERT statement (300 or so sets of values) that I would like to commit to the MySQL database in an all-or-nothing fashion. insert into table VALUES (1, 2, 3), (4, 5, 6), (7, 8, 9); In some cases, a set of values in the command will not meet the criteria of the table (duplicate key, for example). When that happens I do not want any of the previous sets added to the database. I've implemented this with the following code, however, my rollback command doesn't appear to be making a difference. I've used this documentation: http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.0/es/connector-net-examples-mysqltransaction.html Dim transaction As MySqlTransaction = sqlConnection.BeginTransaction() sqlCommand = New MySqlCommand(insertStr, sqlConnection, transaction) Try sqlCommand.ExecuteNonQuery() Catch ex As Exception writeToLog("EXCEPTION: " & ex.Message & vbNewLine) writeToLog("Could not execute " & sqlCmd & vbNewLine) Try transaction.Rollback() writeToLog("All statements were rolled back." & vbNewLine) Return False Catch rollbackEx As Exception writeToLog("EXCEPTION: " & rollbackEx.Message & vbNewLine) writeToLog("All statements were not rolled back." & vbNewLine) Return False End Try End Try transaction.commit() I get the DUPLICATE KEY exception thrown, no Rollback Exception thrown, and every set of values up to duplicate key committed to the database. What am I doing wrong? Thanks- Jonathan

    Read the article

  • Zend Sessions problem with IE8

    - by Emil
    I'm running a Zend Framework powered website and it seems to have serious problems with sessions. I have a 5 step process where I save the form data in the session between the steps and then save it into the database on the last step. When we built the site sometimes the session just went away and forced us to restart. Now it seems to work again but recently we discovered an issue with Internet Explorer 8. It fails between step 2 - 3 and forgets the session. It works fine in IE6, IE7, FF, Chrome, Safari and even in my mobile web browser (SE P1). We're storing our sessions in the database and if I deactivate the session db handler it works. What's the difference between using the database and not using it for sessions? Do I loose something if I switch back? Bootstrap: /* Start session */ $saveHandler = new Zend_Session_SaveHandler_DbTable(array( 'name' => 'sessions', 'primary' => 'id', 'modifiedColumn' => 'modified', 'dataColumn' => 'data', 'lifetimeColumn' => 'lifetime' )); Zend_Session::rememberMe((int) $config->session->lifetime); $saveHandler->setLifetime((int) $config->session->lifetime) ->setOverrideLifetime(true); Zend_Session::setSaveHandler($saveHandler); Zend_Session::start(); and in my step controller $session = new Zend_Session_Namespace('wizard'); Then I'm just working with $session saving data in a stdClass in $session.

    Read the article

  • DDD and MVC: Difference between 'Model' and 'Entity'

    - by Nathan Loding
    I'm seriously confused about the concept of the 'Model' in MVC. Most frameworks that exist today put the Model between the Controller and the database, and the Model almost acts like a database abstraction layer. The concept of 'Fat Model Skinny Controller' is lost as the Controller starts doing more and more logic. In DDD, there is also the concept of a Domain Entity, which has a unique identity to it. As I understand it, a user is a good example of an Entity (unique userid, for instance). The Entity has a life-cycle -- it's values can change throughout the course of the action -- and then it's saved or discarded. The Entity I describe above is what I thought Model was supposed to be in MVC? How off-base am I? To clutter things more, you throw in other patterns, such as the Repository pattern (maybe putting a Service in there). It's pretty clear how the Repository would interact with an Entity -- how does it with a Model? Controllers can have multiple Models, which makes it seem like a Model is less a "database table" than it is a unique Entity. So, in very rough terms, which is better? No "Model" really ... class MyController { public function index() { $repo = new PostRepository(); $posts = $repo->findAllByDateRange('within 30 days'); foreach($posts as $post) { echo $post->Author; } } } Or this, which has a Model as the DAO? class MyController { public function index() { $model = new PostModel(); // maybe this returns a PostRepository? $posts = $model->findAllByDateRange('within 30 days'); while($posts->getNext()) { echo $posts->Post->Author; } } } Both those examples didn't even do what I was describing above. I'm clearly lost. Any input?

    Read the article

  • Converting FoxPro Date type to SQL Server 2005 DateTime using SSIS

    - by Avrom
    Hi, When using SSIS in SQL Server 2005 to convert a FoxPro database to a SQL Server database, if the given FoxPro database has a date type, SSIS assumes it is an integer type. The only way to convert it to a dateTime type is to manually select this type. However, that is not practical to do for over 100 tables. Thus, I have been using a workaround in which I use DTS on SQL Server 2000 which converts it to a smallDateTime, then make a backup, then a restore into SQL Server 2005. This workaround is starting to be a little annoying. So, my question is: Is there anyway to setup SSIS so that whenever it encounters a date type to automatically assume it should be converted to a dateTime in SQL Server and apply that rule across the board? Update To be specific, if I use the import/export wizard in SSIS, I get the following error: Column information for the source and the destination data could not be retrieved, or the data types of source columns were not mapped correctly to those available on the destination provider. Followed by a list of a given table's date columns. If I manually set each one to a dateTime, it imports fine. But I do not wish to do this for a hundred tables.

    Read the article

  • Using Linq2Sql to insert data into multiple tables using an auto incremented primary key

    - by Thomas
    I have a Customer table with a Primary key (int auto increment) and an Address table with a foreign key to the Customer table. I am trying to insert both rows into the database in one nice transaction. using (DatabaseDataContext db = new DatabaseDataContext()) { Customer newCustomer = new Customer() { Email = customer.Email }; Address b = new Address() { CustomerID = newCustomer.CustomerID, Address1 = billingAddress.Address1 }; db.Customers.InsertOnSubmit(newCustomer); db.Addresses.InsertOnSubmit(b); db.SubmitChanges(); } When I run this I was hoping that the Customer and Address table automatically had the correct keys in the database since the context knows this is an auto incremented key and will do two inserts with the right key in both tables. The only way I can get this to work would be to do SubmitChanges() on the Customer object first then create the address and do SubmitChanges() on that as well. This would create two roundtrips to the database and I would like to see if I can do this in one transaction. Is it possible? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Web Hosting URL Length Limit?

    - by Isaac Waller
    Hello, I am designing a web application which is a tie in to my iPhone application. It sends massively large URLs to the web server (15000 about.) I was using NearlyFreeSpeech.net, but they only support URLS up to 2000 characters. I was wondering if anybody knows of web hosting that will support really large URLs? Thanks, Isaac Edit: My program needs to open a picture in Safari. I could do this 2 ways: send it base64 encoded in the URL and just echo the query parameters. first POST it to the server in my application, then the server would send back a unique ID after storing the photo in a database, which I would append to a URL which I would open in Safari which retrieved the photo from the database and delete it from the database. You see, I am lazy, and I know Mobile Safari can support URI's up to 80 000 characters, so I think this is a OK way to do it. If there is something really wrong with this, please tell me. Edit: I ended up doing it the proper POST way. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Getting the first result from a LINQ query - why does ElementAt<T>(0) fails when First<T>() succeeds

    - by Mr Roys
    I have a method AddStudent() which looks for a student with the same name and returns an existing student from the database if there is a student with the same name, otherwise it creates a new student and adds it to the database. I'm curious why se = students.First<StudentEntity>(); succeeds when se = students.ElementAt<StudentEntity>(0); fails when I try to get the first result from the LINQ query. Aren't the two methods the same? The full code for the method is shown below. public Student AddStudent(string name) { using (SchoolEntities db = new SchoolEntities()) { // find student with same name via LINQ var students = from s in db.StudentEntitySet where s.name == name select s; StudentEntity se = default(StudentEntity); // if student with the same name is already present, return // that student if (students.Count<StudentEntity>() > 0) { // if i use ElementAt, if fails with a "LINQ to Entities does not // recognize the method 'StudentEntity ElementAt[StudentEntity] // (System.Linq.IQueryable`1[StudentEntity], Int32)' method, // and this method cannot be translated into a store expression.", // but not when I use First. Why? // se = students.ElementAt<StudentEntity>(0); se = students.First<StudentEntity>(); } else { // passing 0 for first parameter (id) since it's represented by // a BigInt IDENTITY field in the database so any value // doesn't matter. se = StudentEntity.CreateStudentEntity(0, name); db.AddToStudentEntitySet(se); db.SaveChanges(); } // create a Student object from the Entity object return new Student(se); } } Thanks!

    Read the article

  • django powering multiple shops from one code base on a single domain

    - by imanc
    Hey, I am new to django and python and am trying to figure out how to modify an existing app to run multiple shops through a single domain. Django's sites middleware seems inappropriate in this particular case because it manages different domains, not sites run through the same domain, e.g. : domain.com/uk domain.com/us domain.com/es etc. Each site will need translated content - and minor template changes. The solution needs to be flexible enough to allow for easy modification of templates. The forms will also need to vary a bit, e.g minor variances in fields and validation for each country specific shop. I am thinking along the lines of the following as a solution and would love some feedback from experienced django-ers: In short: same codebase, but separate country specific urls files, separate templates and separate database Create a middleware class that does IP localisation, determines the country based on the URL and creates a database connection, e.g. /au/ will point to the au specific database and so on. in root urls.py have routes that point to a separate country specific routing file, e..g (r'^au/',include('urls_au')), (r'^es/',include('urls_es')), use a single template directory but in that directory have a localised directory structure, e.g. /base.html and /uk/base.html and write a custom template loader that looks for local templates first. (or have a separate directory for each shop and set the template directory path in middleware) use the django internationalisation to manage translation strings throughout slight variances in forms and models (e.g. ZA has an ID field, France has 'door code' and 'floor' etc.) I am unsure how to handle these variations but I suspect the tables will contain all fields but allowing nulls and the model will have all fields but allowing nulls. The forms will to be modified slightly for each shop. Anyway, I am keen to get feedback on the best way to go about achieving this multi site solution. It seems like it would work, but feels a bit "hackish" and I wonder if there's a more elegant way of getting this solution to work. Thanks, imanc

    Read the article

  • SQL Server Blocking Issue

    - by Robin Weston
    We currently have an issue that occurs roughly once a day on SQL 2005 database server, although the time it happens is not consistent. Basically, the database grinds to a halt, and starts refusing connections with the following error message. This includes logging into SSMS: A connection was successfully established with the server, but then an error occurred during the login process. (provider: TCP Provider, error: 0 - The specified network name is no longer available.) Our CPU usage for SQL is usually around 15%, but when the DB is in it's broken state it's around 70%, so it's clearly doing something, even if no-one can connect. Even if I disable the web app that uses the database the CPU still doesn't go down. I am unable to restart the SQLSERVER process as it is unresponsive, so I have to end up killing the process manually, which then puts the DB into Suspect/Recovery mode (which I can fix but it's a pain). Below are some PerfMon stats I gathered when the DB was in it's broken state which might help. I have a bunch more if people want to request them: Active Transactions: 2 (Never Changes) Logical Connections: 34 (NC) Process Blocked: 16 (NC) User Connections: 30 (NC) Batch Request: 0 (NC) Active Jobs: 2 (NC) Log Truncations: 596 (NC) Log Shrinks: 24 (NC) Longest Running Transaction Time: 99 (NC) I guess they key is finding out what the DB is using it's CPU on, but as I can't even log into SSMS this isn't possible with the standard methods. Disturbingly, I can't even use the dedicated admin connection to get into SSMS. I get the same timout as with all other requests. Any advice, reccomendations, or even sympathy, is much appreciated!

    Read the article

  • how can I speed up insertion of many rows to a table via ADO.NET?

    - by jcollum
    I have a table that has 5 columns: AcctId (int), Address1 (varchar), Address2 (varchar), Person1 (varchar), Person2 (varchar) . I'm generating random data to insert into this table via a C# console application. I've tried doing this random data insert via SQL-Server and decided it was not a good solution -- SQL is not good at random on an each-row basis. Generating the random data -- 975k rows of it -- takes a minimal amount of time. It's in a List of custom objects. I need to take this random data and update many rows in the database with the new random data. I tried updating the rows one at a time, very slow because of the repeated searching of the List object in code. So I think the best approach is to put all the randomized data into a table in the database, then update all the other tables that use this data. I.e. UPDATE t SET t.Address1=d.Address1 FROM Table1 t INNER JOIN RandomizedData d ON d.AcctId = t.Acct_ID. The database is very un-normalized so this Acct data is sprinkled all over the place. I've got no control of the normalization. So, having decided to insert all of the randomized data into a single table, I set out to create insert scripts: USE TheDatabase Insert tmp_RandomizedData SELECT 1,'4392 EIGHTH AVE','','JENNIFER CARTER','BARBARA CARTER' UNION ALL SELECT 2,'2168 MAIN ST','HNGR F','DANIEL HERNANDEZ','SUSAN MARTIN' // etc another 98 times... // FYI, this is not real data! I'm building this INSERT script in batches of 100. It's taking on average 175 ms to run each insert. Does this seem like a long time? It's going to take about 35 mins to run the whole insert. The table doesn't have a primary key or any indexes. I was planning on adding those after all the data in inserted (thinking that that would be faster). Is there a better way to do this?

    Read the article

  • Which Code Should Go Where in MVC Structure

    - by Oguz
    My problem is in somewhere between model and controller.Everything works perfect for me when I use MVC just for crud (create, read, update, delete).I have separate models for each database table .I access these models from controller , to crud them . For example , in contacts application,I have actions (create, read, update, delete) in controller(contact) to use model's (contact) methods (create, read, update, delete). The problem starts when I try to do something more complicated. There are some complex processes which I do not know where should I put them. For example , in registering user process. I can not just finish this process in user model because , I have to use other models too (sending mails , creating other records for user via other models) and do lots of complex validations via other models. For example , in some complex searching processes , I have to access lots of models (articles, videos, images etc.) Or, sometimes , I have to use apis to decide what I will do next or which database model I will use to record data So where is the place to do this complicated processes. I do not want to do them in controllers , Because sometimes I should use these processes in other controllers too. And I do not want to put these process in models because , I use models as database access layers .May be I am wrong,I want to know . Thank you for your answer .

    Read the article

  • Avoid the problem with BigDecimal when migrating to Java 1.4 to Java 1.5+

    - by romaintaz
    Hello, I've recently migrated a Java 1.4 application to a Java 6 environment. Unfortunately, I encountered a problem with the BigDecimal storage in a Oracle database. To summarize, when I try to store a "7.65E+7" BigDecimal value (76,500,000.00) in the database, Oracle stores in reality the value of 7,650,000.00. This defect is due to the rewritting of the BigDecimal class in Java 1.5 (see here). In my code, the BigDecimal was created from a double using this kind of code: BigDecimal myBD = new BigDecimal("" + someDoubleValue); someObject.setAmount(myBD); // Now let Hibernate persists my object in DB... In more than 99% of the cases, everything works fine. Except that in really few case, the bug mentioned above occurs. And that's quite annoying. If I change the previous code to avoid the use of the String constructor of BigDecimal, then I do not encounter the bug in my uses cases: BigDecimal myBD = new BigDecimal(someDoubleValue); someObject.setAmount(myBD); // Now let Hibernate persists my object in DB... However, how can I be sure that this solution is the correct way to handle the use of BigDecimal? So my question is to know how I have to manage my BigDecimal values to avoid this issue: Do not use the new BigDecimal(String) constructor and use directly the new BigDecimal(double)? Force Oracle to use toPlainString() instead of toString() method when dealing with BigDecimal (and in this case how to do that)? Any other solution? Environment information: Java 1.6.0_14 Hibernate 2.1.8 (yes, it is a quite old version) Oracle JDBC 9.0.2.0 and also tested with 10.2.0.3.0 Oracle database 10.2.0.3.0

    Read the article

  • random data using php & mysql

    - by Prakash
    I have mysql database structure like below: CREATE TABLE test ( id int(11) NOT NULL auto_increment, title text NULL, tags text NULL, PRIMARY KEY (id) ); data on field tags is stored as a comma separated text like html,php,mysql,website,html etc... now I need create an array that contains around 50 randomly selected tags from random records. currently I am using rand() to select 15 random mysql data from database and then holding all the tags from 15 records in an array. Then I am using array_rand() for randomizing the array and selecting only 50 random records. $query=mysql_query("select * from test order by id asc, RAND() limit 15"); $tags=""; while ($eachData=mysql_fetch_array($query)) { $additionalTags=$eachData['tags']; if ($tags=="") { $tags.=$additionalTags; } else { $tags.=$tags.",".$additionalTags; } } $tags=explode(",", $tags); $newTags=array(); foreach ($tags as $tag) { $tag=trim($tag); if ($tag!="") { if (!in_array($tag, $newTags)) { $newTags[]=$tag; } } } $random_newTags=array_rand($newTags, 50); Now I have huge records on the database, and because of that; rand() is performing very slow and sometimes it doesn't work. So can anyone let me know how to handle this situation correctly so that my page will work normally.

    Read the article

  • Oracle syntax - should we have to choose between the old and the new?

    - by Martin Milan
    Hi, I work on a code base in the region of about 1'000'000 lines of source, in a team of around eight developers. Our code is basically an application using an Oracle database, but the code has evolved over time (we have plenty of source code from the mid nineties in there!). A dispute has arisen amongst the team over the syntax that we are using for querying the Oracle database. At the moment, the overwhelming majority of our queries use the "old" Oracle Syntax for joins, meaning we have code that looks like this... Example of Inner Join select customers.*, orders.date, orders.value from customers, orders where customers.custid = orders.custid Example of Outer Join select customers.custid, contacts.ContactName, contacts.ContactTelNo from customers, contacts where customers.custid = contacts.custid(+) As new developers have joined the team, we have noticed that some of them seem to prefer using SQL-92 queries, like this: Example of Inner Join select customers.*, orders.date, orders.value from customers inner join orders on (customers.custid = orders.custid) Example of Outer Join select customers.custid, contacts.ContactName, contacts.ContactTelNo from customers left join contacts on (customers.custid = contacts.custid) Group A say that everyone should be using the the "old" syntax - we have lots of code in this format, and we ought to value consistency. We don't have time to go all the way through the code now rewriting database queries, and it wouldn't pay us if we had. They also point out that "this is the way we've always done it, and we're comfortable with it..." Group B however say that they agree that we don't have the time to go back and change existing queries, we really ought to be adopting the "new" syntax on code that we write from here on in. They say that developers only really look at a single query at a time, and that so long as developers know both syntax there is nothing to be gained from rigidly sticking to the old syntax, which might be deprecated at some point in the future. Without declaring with which group my loyalties lie, I am interested in hearing the opinions of impartial observers - so let the games commence! Martin. Ps. I've made this a community wiki so as not to be seen as just blatantly chasing after question points...

    Read the article

  • Merging datasets with 2 different time variables in SAS

    - by John
    Hye Guys, for those regularly browsing this site sorry for already another question (however I did solve my last question myself!) I have another problem with merging datasets, it seems that accounting for time in datasets is a real pain in the ass. I succesfully managed to merge on months in my previous datasets, however it seems I have a final dataset which only has quarter as a time count variable. So where all my normal databases have month 1- xxx as an indicator of time, this database had quarter as an indicator of time. I still want to add the variables of this last database, let's call it TVOL, into my WORK database. Quick summary QUARTER: Quarter 0 = JAN1996-MAR1996 Month: Month 0 = JAN1996 Example: TVOL TVOL _ Ticker ____ Quarter 1500 _ AA ________ -1 52546 _ BB ________ 15 Example: WORK BETA _ Ticker ____ Month 1.52 _ AA ________ 2 1.54__ BB _______ 3 Example: Merged: BETA ______ TVOL __ Ticker ____ Month 1.52 _______ 500 ___ AA _______ 2 I now want to merge this 2 tables using following relationship if the month is in quarter 1, the data of quarter 0 has to be used, so if i have an observation i nWORK with date 2FEB1996 the TVOL of quarter -1 has to be put behind this observation. Something like IF month = quarter i use data quarter i-1. Also, as TVOL is measured quarterly and I have to put in monthly I have to take the average, so (TVOL/3) should be added as a variable. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How do I exclude data from local table schema_migrations from being pushed to Heroku DB?

    - by Thierry Lam
    I was able to push my Ruby on Rails app with MySQL(local dev) to the Heroku server along with migrating my model with the command heroku rake db:migrate. I have also read the documentation on Database Import/Export. Is that doc referring to pushing actual data from my local dev DB to whichever Heroku's DB? Do I need to modify anything in the file database.yml to make it happen? I ran the following command: heroku db:push and I am getting the error: Sending data 2 tables, 3 records !!! Caught Server Exception | ETA: --:--:-- Taps Server Error: PGError ERROR: duplicate key value violates unique constraint "unique_schema_migrations" I have 2 tables, one I create for my app and the other schema_migrations. The total number of entries among the 2 tables is 3. I'm also printing the number of entries I have in the table I have created and it's showing 0. Any ideas what I might be missing or what I am doing wrong? EDIT: I figured out the above, Heroku's DB already have schema_migrations the moment I ran migrate. New question: Does anyone know how I can exclude data from a specific table from being pushed to Heroku DB. The table to exclude in this case will be schema_migrations. Not so good solution: I googled around and someone else was having the same issue. He suggested naming the schema_migrations table to zschema_migrations. In this way data from the other tables will be pushed properly until it fails on the last table. It's a pretty bad solution but will do for the time being. A better solution will be to use an existing Rails command which can reset a specific table from a database. I don't think Rake can do that.

    Read the article

  • LINQ to XML contents of child records.

    - by Fossaw
    I have this LINQ to XML enquiry... var Records = from Item in XDoc.Root.Elements("Item") where (string)Item.Element("ItemNumber") == item.ID.ToString select Item; ... where ItemNumber is a reference number used in the XML, (originally written by this program but manually edited by "others"), and item.ID is the database version of the same thing. The query executes, and I can test for the number of entries in the result fine... if (Records.Count() < 1) ... you get the idea. I have established that there is only one record. Each Item has several child fields. I want to test the values of the child fields are reasonable before passing them on to the database update sub-system. The XML is produced by the program, but edited by users, so I need to really check what is coming back. So I tried... if (DB_English.ToString() != Records.Elements("English").ToString()) ... DB_English is from the database, but the XML in Records, does not contain the contents of that field, it contains... System.Xml.Linq.Extensions+<GetElements>d__29`1[System.Xml.Linq.XElement] ... so, how do I get the value of this element in the XML file? I need to check the field in the XML has not been altered, (the manual editors of this data file are not potentially 100% reliable).

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 560 561 562 563 564 565 566 567 568 569 570 571  | Next Page >