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  • Inheritence and usage of dynamic_cast

    - by Mewzer
    Hello, Suppose I have 3 classes as follows (as this is an example, it will not compile!): class Base { public: Base(){} virtual ~Base(){} virtual void DoSomething() = 0; virtual void DoSomethingElse() = 0; }; class Derived1 { public: Derived1(){} virtual ~Derived1(){} virtual void DoSomething(){ ... } virtual void DoSomethingElse(){ ... } virtual void SpecialD1DoSomething{ ... } }; class Derived2 { public: Derived2(){} virtual ~Derived2(){} virtual void DoSomething(){ ... } virtual void DoSomethingElse(){ ... } virtual void SpecialD2DoSomething{ ... } }; I want to create an instance of Derived1 or Derived2 depending on some setting that is not available until run-time. As I cannot determine the derived type until run-time, then do you think the following is bad practice?... class X { public: .... void GetConfigurationValue() { .... // Get configuration setting, I need a "Derived1" b = new Derived1(); // Now I want to call the special DoSomething for Derived1 (dynamic_cast<Derived1*>(b))->SpecialD1DoSomething(); } private: Base* b; }; I have generally read that usage of dynamic_cast is bad, but as I said, I don't know which type to create until run-time. Please help!

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  • Why do I get null objects in a many-to-many bag?

    - by Jim Geurts
    I have a bag defined for a many-to-many list: <class name="Author" table="Authors"> <id name="Id" column="AuthorId"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="Name" /> <bag name="Books" table="Author_Book_Map" where="IsDeleted=0" fetch="join"> <key column="AuthorId" /> <many-to-many class="Book" column="BookId" where="IsDeleted=0" /> </bag> </class> If I return all author objects using something like the following, I will get what initially appeared to be duplicate Author records: Session.Query<Author>().List<Author>() The extra author objects are created when an author is mapped to Book objects that have IsDeleted = 1 and IsDeleted = 0. Rather than creating one Author object with an enumerable that contains only the books with IsDeleted = 0, it will create two author objects. The first author object has a Books enumerable that contains books with IsDeleted = 0. The second author object will contain an enumerable of null book objects. Similarly, if an object only has one book map, and that map points to a book with IsDeleted = 1, then an author object is returned with a Books collection having one null object. I'm thinking part of the problem stems from the map table objects linking to rows that satisfy the where condition on the bag object but do not meet the many-to-many where condition. This is happening with NHibernate version 3.0.0.4980. Is this a configuration issue or something else?

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  • GWT with JPA - no persistence provider...

    - by meliniak
    GWT with JPA There are two projects in my eclipse workspace, let's name them: -JPAProject -GWTProject JPAProject contains JPA configuration stuff (persistence.xml, entity classes and so on). GWTProject is an examplary GWT project (taken from official GWT tutorial). Both projects work fine alone. That is, I can create EMF (EntityManagerFactory) in JPAProject and get entities from the database. GWTProject works fine too, I can run it, fill the field text in the browser and get the response. My goal is to call JPAProject from GWTProject to get entities. But the problem is that when calling DAO, I get the following exception: [WARN] Server class 'com.emergit.service.dao.profile.ProfileDaoService' could not be found in the web app, but was found on the system classpath [WARN] Adding classpath entry 'file:/home/maliniak/workspace/emergit/build/classes/' to the web app classpath for this session [WARN] /gwttest/greet javax.persistence.PersistenceException: No Persistence provider for EntityManager named emergitPU at javax.persistence.Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory(Unknown Source) at javax.persistence.Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory(Unknown Source) at com.emergit.service.dao.profile.JpaProfileDaoService.<init>(JpaProfileDaoService.java:19) at pl.maliniak.server.GreetingServiceImpl.<init>(GreetingServiceImpl.java:21) . . . at org.mortbay.jetty.HttpConnection.handle(HttpConnection.java:380) at org.mortbay.io.nio.SelectChannelEndPoint.run(SelectChannelEndPoint.java:395) at org.mortbay.thread.QueuedThreadPool$PoolThread.run(QueuedThreadPool.java:488) [ERROR] 500 - POST /gwttest/greet (127.0.0.1) 3812 bytes I guess that the warnings at the beginning can be omitted for now. Do you have any ideas? I guess I am missing some basic point. All hints are highly apprecieable.

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  • How to get the set of beans that are to be created in Spring?

    - by cyborg
    So here's the scenario: I have a Spring XML configuration with some lazy-beans, some not lazy-beans and some beans that depend on other beans. Eventually Spring will resolve all this so that only the beans that are meant to be created are created. The question: how can I programmatically tell what this set is? When I use context.getBean(name) that initializes the bean. BeanDefinition.isLazyInit() will only tell me how I defined the bean. Any other ideas? ETA: In DefaultListableBeanFactory: public void preInstantiateSingletons() throws BeansException { if (this.logger.isInfoEnabled()) { this.logger.info("Pre-instantiating singletons in " + this); } synchronized (this.beanDefinitionMap) { for (Iterator it = this.beanDefinitionNames.iterator(); it.hasNext();) { String beanName = (String) it.next(); RootBeanDefinition bd = getMergedLocalBeanDefinition(beanName); if (!bd.isAbstract() && bd.isSingleton() && !bd.isLazyInit()) { if (isFactoryBean(beanName)) { FactoryBean factory = (FactoryBean) getBean(FACTORY_BEAN_PREFIX + beanName); if (factory instanceof SmartFactoryBean && ((SmartFactoryBean) factory).isEagerInit()) { getBean(beanName); } } else { getBean(beanName); } } } } } The set of instantiable beans is initialized. When initializing this set any beans not in this set referenced by this set will also be created. From looking through the source it does not look like there's going to be any easy way to answer my question.

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  • NHibernate + Fluent long startup time

    - by PaRa
    Hi all, am new to NHibernate. When performing below test took 11.2 seconds (debug mode) i am seeing this large startup time in all my tests (basically creating the first session takes a tone of time) setup = Windows 2003 SP2 / Oracle10gR2 latest CPU / ODP.net 2.111.7.20 / FNH 1.0.0.636 / NHibernate 2.1.2.4000 / NUnit 2.5.2.9222 / VS2008 SP1 using System; using System.Collections; using System.Data; using System.Globalization; using System.IO; using System.Text; using System.Data; using NUnit.Framework; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Data.Common; using NHibernate; using log4net.Config; using System.Configuration; using FluentNHibernate; [Test()] public void GetEmailById() { Email result; using (EmailRepository repository = new EmailRepository()) { results = repository.GetById(1111); } Assert.IsTrue(results != null); } public class EmailRepository : RepositoryBase { public EmailRepository():base() { } } In my RepositoryBase public T GetById(object id) { using (var session = sessionFactory.OpenSession()) using (var transaction = session.BeginTransaction()) { try { T returnVal = session.Get(id); transaction.Commit(); return returnVal; } catch (HibernateException ex) { // Logging here transaction.Rollback(); return null; } } } The query time is very small. The resulting entity is really small. Subsequent queries are fine. Its seems to be getting the first session started. Has anyone else seen something similar?

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  • Launch app with specific locale

    - by hermo
    Changing the locale for a device is done in the settings, and can't be done by an app AFAIK. I know how to force my own app to a specific locale, described e.g. here: http://www.tutorialforandroid.com/2009/01/force-localize-application-on-android.html So now to my question. Can I force, programatically, the local of an activity that isn't mine? I can imagine 2 ways this could be possible: Specifying the locale in an Intent used to start the activity. Access and manipulate the configuration of running activities (in the same way as I can modify my own activities' configurations). Any thoughts? Is it possible? Is it reasonable? I guess 2. would be more direct, but require some kind of permission (e.g. the modified atcitiy must allow it in the manifest file). But I'd settle for 1. or similar. What I want is to be able to see certain apps in a different language, but rather not change the system locale. E.g. the Android Market, that only displays comments in one language. Can't think of other things right now. Can't find much written on Locale in the documentation, what is and isn't possible. But hoping some undocumented feature might enable this :)

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  • Silverlight - WCF Enable Binary Encoding

    - by Villager
    Hello, I have a WCF service that is returning a lot of data. I want to compress that information so I thought that using BinaryEncoding would be appropriate. Currently, I have a binding setup in my web.config as follows: <binding name="myCustomBinding" closeTimeout="00:05:00" openTimeout="00:05:00" receiveTimeout="00:05:00" sendTimeout="00:05:00"> <binaryMessageEncoding /> <httpTransport maxReceivedMessageSize="8388608" maxBufferSize="8388608"> <extendedProtectionPolicy policyEnforcement="Never" /> </httpTransport> </binding> In my ServiceReferences.clientconfig file, I have the following binding settings: <binding name="CustomBinding_MyService"> <httpTransport maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647" maxBufferSize="2147483647"> <extendedProtectionPolicy policyEnforcement="Never" /> </httpTransport> </binding> Oddly, this configuration will not work. As soon as I remove the <binaryMessageEncoding /> line from the web.config, everything works fine. My question is, how do I use binary message encoding? Is there something I need to configure in my ServiceReferences.clientconfig? Thank you

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  • Where can I find my iPhone app's Core Data persistent store?

    - by Dr Dork
    I'm diving into iPhone development, so I apologize in advance if this is a ridiculous question, but in a new iPad app project using the Core Data framework, here's the generated code for creating the persistentStoreCoordinator... - (NSPersistentStoreCoordinator *)persistentStoreCoordinator { if (persistentStoreCoordinator != nil) { return persistentStoreCoordinator; } NSURL *storeUrl = [NSURL fileURLWithPath: [[self applicationDocumentsDirectory] stringByAppendingPathComponent: @"ApplicationName.sqlite"]]; NSError *error = nil; persistentStoreCoordinator = [[NSPersistentStoreCoordinator alloc] initWithManagedObjectModel:[self managedObjectModel]]; if (![persistentStoreCoordinator addPersistentStoreWithType:NSSQLiteStoreType configuration:nil URL:storeUrl options:nil error:&error]) { /* Replace this implementation with code to handle the error appropriately. abort() causes the application to generate a crash log and terminate. You should not use this function in a shipping application, although it may be useful during development. If it is not possible to recover from the error, display an alert panel that instructs the user to quit the application by pressing the Home button. Typical reasons for an error here include: * The persistent store is not accessible * The schema for the persistent store is incompatible with current managed object model Check the error message to determine what the actual problem was. */ NSLog(@"Unresolved error %@, %@", error, [error userInfo]); abort(); } return persistentStoreCoordinator; } My questions are... The first time I run the app, is the ApplicationName.sqllite database created automatically if it doesn't exist? If not, when is it created? When data is added to it programmatically? Once the DB does exist, where can I locate the file? I'd like to open it with a different program so I can manually manipulate the data. Thanks so much in advance for your help! I'm going to continue researching these questions right now.

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  • Client-Side Dynamic Removal of <script> Tags in <head>

    - by merv
    Is it possible to remove script tags in the <head> of an HTML document client-side and prior to execution of those tags? On the server-side I am able to insert a <script> above all other <script> tags in the <head>, except one, and I would like to be able to remove all subsequent scripts. I do not have the ability to remove <script> tags from the server side. What I've tried: (function (c,h) { var i, s = h.getElementsByTagName('script'); c.log("Num scripts: " + s.length); i = s.length - 1; while(i > 1) { h.removeChild(s[i]); i -= 1; } })(console, document.head); However, the logged number of scripts comes out to only 1, since (as @ryan pointed out) the code is being executed prior to the DOM being ready. Although wrapping the code above in a document.ready event callback does enable proper calculation of the number of <script> tags in the <head>, waiting until the DOM is ready fails to prevent the scripts from loading. Is there a reliable means of manipulating the HTML prior to the DOM being ready? Background If you want more context, this is part of an attempt to consolidate scripts where no option for server-side aggregation is available. Many of the JS libraries being loaded are from a CMS with limited configuration options. The content is mostly static, so there is very little concern about manually aggregating the JavaScript and serving it from a different location. Any suggestions for alternative applicable aggregation techniques would also be welcome.

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  • asp.net stored procedure problem

    - by kenom
    Why this code don't work,when i want run this code vwd 2008 express show me this error message:Invalid object name 'answers'. this is my ascx.cs code: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Data; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using System.Web.Security; using System.Data.SqlClient; using System.Configuration; public partial class odgl : System.Web.UI.UserControl { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { string connectionString = @"SANATIZEDSTRING!!!!"; using (SqlConnection cn = new SqlConnection(connectionString)) { using (SqlCommand dohvati = new SqlCommand("dbo.get_answers",cn)) { dohvati.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; SqlParameter izracun = new SqlParameter("@count", SqlDbType.Int); izracun.Direction = ParameterDirection.Output; dohvati.Parameters.Add(izracun); cn.Open(); dohvati.ExecuteNonQuery(); int count = Int32.Parse(dohvati.Parameters["@count"].Value.ToString()); Response.Write(count.ToString()); cn.Close(); } } } } and this is my stored procedure : set ANSI_NULLS ON set QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER procedure [dbo].[get_answers] @ukupno int output as select @count= (SELECT COUNT(*) FROM answers) go

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  • Removing the port number from URL

    - by DrewSSP
    I'm new to anything related to servers and am trying to deploy a django application. Today I bought a domain name for the app and am having trouble configuring it so that the base URL does not need the port number at the end of it. I have to type www.trackthecharts.com:8001 to see the website when I only want to use www.trackethecharts.com. I think the problem is somewhere in my nginx, gunicorn or supervisor configuration. gunicorn_config.py command = '/opt/myenv/bin/gunicorn' pythonpath = '/opt/myenv/top-chart-app/' bind = '162.243.76.202:8001' workers = 3 root@django-app:~# nginx config server { server_name 162.243.76.202; access_log off; location /static/ { alias /opt/myenv/static/; } location / { proxy_pass http://127.0.0.1:8001; proxy_set_header X-Forwarded-Host $server_name; proxy_set_header X-Real-IP $remote_addr; add_header P3P 'CP="ALL DSP COR PSAa PSDa OUR NOR ONL UNI COM NAV"'; } } supervisor config [program:top_chart_gunicorn] command=/opt/myenv/bin/gunicorn -c /opt/myenv/gunicorn_config.py djangoTopChartApp.wsgi autostart=true autorestart=true stderr_logfile=/var/log/supervisor_gunicorn.err.log stdout_logfile=/var/log/supervisor_gunicorn.out.log Thanks for taking a look.

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  • Where to store: User connection information?

    - by TomTom
    ;) I am writing a .NET application wher ethe user connects to a given server. ALl information within the application is stored in the server. But I want / need to store the following information for the user: The server he connected to last The username he used to connect last (and no, no password, never ever). Any idea where to store this best? the application config file is not sensible (user != admin, application.config is write protected for him). So, my options are: In the registry. 2 keys under my own subkey. In a sort of ini file, stored in the user's data directory (AppData). This would possibly also allow later expansion (into like saving more information, some of which may not fit into the registry). Anyone a tip? Other alternatives? I tend so far to go for the AppData directory with my own subfolder - simply because it is a nice preparation for later to keep like a local copy of configuration etc.

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  • Creating Settings form using TreeView in C#

    - by Kiran Chandrashekhar
    I am developing the settings form for the software developed in C#. I was looking at how different software have implemented their settings form. In most of the cases that I came across, they seem to be using Treeview on the left pane of the form and configuration settings on the right pane. Ref URL : http://2.bp.blogspot.com/-nMfQoLurxwM/UDXfiZKd4DI/AAAAAAAAAME/IRf6kmxay4w/s1600/bild1.jpg I was wondering, how the different controls are designed/displayed on the right pane. Do they hide all the controls depending which node is selected in the TreeView something like this : if (treeView1.SelectedNode == treeView1.Nodes[0]) { this.groupBox1.Visible = true; this.button1.Visible = true; this.textBox1.Visible = true; this.textBox2.Visible = true; this.label1.Visible = true; this.label2.Visible = true; this.label3.Visible = true; } else { this.groupBox1.Visible = false; this.button1.Visible = false; this.textBox1.Visible = false; this.textBox2.Visible = false; this.label1.Visible = false; this.label2.Visible = false; this.label3.Visible = false; this.groupBox2.Visible = true; this.button2.Visible = true; this.textBox3.Visible = true; this.textBox3.Visible = true; this.labe4.Visible = true; this.label5.Visible = true; this.label6.Visible = true; // bool success = selectColor(); } Is my understanding correct ? Or do we have a better design approach for creating a settings form. Thanks

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  • How to configure Server Topology for exposing an internal application for external access?

    - by ronaldwidha
    Hi All, I guess this question is bordering to a Server Fault question. I'd like to know the best configuration for exposing an internal application (in this case a load balanced Asp.Net MVC application) for external access. More details about the situation: The Asp.Net MVC Application is currently running on 2 servers The 2 servers are behind a Windows Network Load Balancer All the servers are on premise/internal network I'm thinking of introducing an F5 Load balancer on off premise DMZ to replace the Windows Network Load Balancer. F5 will act as the public traffic gateway and load balancers to the 2 servers. However, I'd like the internal users to not have go through the Internet to access the app. The idea that I have so far is to keep both Windows Network Load Balancer and the F5. Each appliance will have its own IP and will have its own domain name. External users can use the public domain name which will hit F5, whereas internal users can use the internal domain name which will hit the Windows Network Load Balancer. Is this a good idea? Or is there a better way of doing this?

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  • When I try to pass large amounts of information using jquery $.ajax(post) method. it throws potenti

    - by dotnetrocks
    I am trying to create a preview window for my texteditor in my blog page. I need to send the content to the server to clean up the text entered before I can preview it on the preview window. I was trying to use $.ajax({ type: method, url: url, data: values, success: LoadPageCallback(targetID), error: function(msg) { $('#' + targetID).attr('innerHTML', 'An error has occurred. Please try again.'); } }); Whenever I tried to click on the preview button it returns an XMLHTTPRequest error. The error description - Description: Request Validation has detected a potentially dangerous client input value, and processing of the request has been aborted. This value may indicate an attempt to compromise the security of your application, such as a cross-site scripting attack. You can disable request validation by setting validateRequest=false in the Page directive or in the configuration section. However, it is strongly recommended that your application explicitly check all inputs in this case. The ValidateRequest for the page is set to false. Is there a way I can set validaterequest to false for the ajax call.Please advise Thank you for reading my post.

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  • Imlpementations of an Interface with Different Types?

    - by b3njamin
    Searched as best I could but unfortunately I've learned nothing relevant; basically I'm trying to work around the following problem in C#... For example, I have three possible references (refA, refB, refC) and I need to load the correct one depending on a configuration option. So far however I can't see a way of doing it that doesn't require me to use the name of said referenced object all through the code (the referenced objects are provided, I can't change them). Hope the following code makes more sense: public ??? LoadedClass; public Init() { /* load the object, according to which version we need... */ if (Config.Version == "refA") { Namespace.refA LoadedClass = new refA(); } else if (Config.Version == "refB") { Namespace.refB LoadedClass = new refB(); } else if (Config.Version == "refC") { Namespace.refC LoadedClass = new refC(); } Run(); } private void Run(){ { LoadedClass.SomeProperty... LoadedClass.SomeMethod(){ etc... } } As you can see, I need the Loaded class to be public, so in my limited way I'm trying to change the type 'dynamically' as I load in which real class I want. Each of refA, refB and refC will implement the same properties and methods but with different names. Again, this is what I'm working with, not by my design. All that said, I tried to get my head around Interfaces (which sound like they're what I'm after) but I'm looking at them and seeing strict types - which makes sense to me, even if it's not useful to me. Any and all ideas and opinions are welcome and I'll clarify anything if necessary. Excuse any silly mistakes I've made in the terminology, I'm learning all this for the first time. I'm really enjoying working with an OOP language so far though - coming from PHP this stuff is blowing my mind :-)

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  • How to solve this problem with Python

    - by morpheous
    I am "porting" an application I wrote in C++ into Python. This is the current workflow: Application is started from the console Application parses CLI args Application reads an ini configuration file which specifies which plugins to load etc Application starts a timer Application iterates through each loaded plugin and orders them to start work. This spawns a new worker thread for the plugin The plugins carry out their work and when completed, they die When time interval (read from config file) is up, steps 5-7 is repeated iteratively Since I am new to Python (2 days and counting), the distinction between script, modules and packages are still a bit hazy to me, and I would like to seek advice from Pythonista as to how to implement the workflow described above, using Python as the programing language. In order to keep things simple, I have decided to leave out the time interval stuff out, and instead run the python script/scripts as a cron job instead. This is how I am thinking of approaching it: Encapsulate the whole application in a package which is executable (i.e. can be run from the command line with arguments. Write the plugins as modules (I think maybe its better to implement each module in a separate file?) I havent seen any examples of using threading in Python yet. Could someone provide a snippet of how I could spawn a thread to run a module. Also, I am not sure how to implement the concept of plugins in Python - any advice would be helpful - especially with a code snippet.

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  • EF in a UserControl can't see the app.config?

    - by Sven
    I just created a user control. This control also makes use of my static Entity Framework class to load two comboboxes. All is well and runs without a problem. Design and runtime are working. Then when I stop the application all the forms that contain my UserControl don't work any more in design time. I just see two errors: Error1: The specified named connection is either not found in the configuration, not intended to be used with the EntityClient provider, or not valid. Error 2: The variable ccArtikelVelden is either undeclared or was never assigned. (ccArtikelVelde is my UserControl) Runtime everything is still working My static EF Repositoy class: public class BSManagerData { private static BSManagerEntities _entities; public static BSManagerEntities Entities { get { if (_entities == null) _entities = new BSManagerEntities(); return _entities; } set { _entities = value; } } } Some logic happening in my UserControl to load the data in the comboboxes: private void LaadCbx() { cbxCategorie.DataSource = (from c in BSManagerData.Entities.Categories select c).ToList(); cbxCategorie.DisplayMember = "Naam"; cbxCategorie.ValueMember = "Id"; } private void cbxCategorie_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { cbxFabrikant.DataSource = from f in BSManagerData.Entities.Fabrikants where f.Categorie.Id == ((Categorie)cbxCategorie.SelectedItem).Id select f; cbxFabrikant.DisplayMember = "Naam"; cbxFabrikant.ValueMember = "Id"; } The only way to make my forms work again, design time, is to comment out the EF part in the UserControl (see above) and rebuild. It's very strange, everything is in the same assembly, same namespace (for the sake of simplicity). Anyone an idea?

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  • Why Is Apache Giving 403?

    - by ThinkCL
    I am getting 403 Errors from Apache when I send too many, 12, synchronous HTTP Posts via a desktop app I am building in XCode / Objective-C. The 12 POST requests are just a few kb each and go out instantly one after the other and the Apache Error Log shows... client denied by server configuration: /the-path/the-file.php Apache 2.0 PHP 5 and I have this same setup working fine on my local machine. The error is coming from a VPS with my host, which runs very fast and smooth and has plenty of resources. To debug I threw a sleep(1); function (stalls script execution by 1 second) into the php file and that fixed it. This makes me think that I am breaking some limit for too many requests for a single IP in a certain amount of time. I have googled and combed PHP ini and Apache configs, but I cannot find what that directive/setting might be. I should mention that the although it varies the first 4 or 5 POSTS usually work then it starts returning the 403 error intermittently after that. Just really acting like its bogging down. Any ideas?

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  • WCF service not working after program update

    - by Boesj
    I have recently added a WCF service reference to my program. When I perform a clean install of this program, everything seems to work as expected. But, when I install the program on a client which already has a previous version (without the new service reference) installed, I get a exception telling me the default endpoint for this particular service could not be found. It seems that the appname.exe.config is not being updated with the new endpoint settings. Is there any reason for this and how can I force the installer to overwrite the config file? I'm using the default Visual Studio 2008 installer project with RemovePreviousVersions set to True. Update: My program encrypts the settings section after the first run with the following code Configuration config = ConfigurationManager.OpenExeConfiguration(ConfigurationUserLevel.None); ConfigurationSection section = config.GetSection(sectionKey); if (section != null) { if (!section.SectionInformation.IsProtected) { if (!section.ElementInformation.IsLocked) { section.SectionInformation.ProtectSection("DataProtectionConfigurationProvider"); section.SectionInformation.ForceSave = true; config.Save(ConfigurationSaveMode.Full); } } } When I do not run the program before installing the new version the app.config gets updated.

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  • How to order search results by multiple fields?

    - by JustinRoR
    I am using Sunspot and Will_paginate for search in my application and don't how to have my search results start out with certain ordering conditions. The model I am searching is the UserPrice model and want my :price and :purchase_date in descending order or lowest price to highest and present date to past: class UserPrice < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :price, :product_name, :purchase_date belongs_to :product # Sunspot configuration searchable do text :product_name do product.name end end end class SearchController < ApplicationController def index @search = UserPrice.search do fulltext params[:search] paginate(:per_page => 5, :page => params[:page]) end @user_prices = @search.results end end Even though I don't know how, I'm not sure if I would use Sunspot or Will_paginate to sort by order of price and purchase date. How would I achieve this though? Thank you. UPDATE I try to use the order_by method but not sure how the model would look now. class SearchController < ApplicationController def index @search = UserPrice.search do fulltext params[:search] paginate(:per_page => 5, :page => params[:page]) facet(:business_retail_store_id) facet(:business_online_store_id) order_by :price, :desc order_by :purchase_date, :desc end @user_prices = @search.results end end Not sure why having the following in my controller: order_by :price, :desc order_by :purchase_date, :desc I get the error: Sunspot::UnrecognizedFieldError in SearchController#index No field configured for UserPrice with name 'price' This doesn't make sense to me since I do have these fields inside of my UserPrice model and in my database. How do I fix this?

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  • In C/C++ mode in Emacs, change face of code in #if 0...#endif block to comment face

    - by pogopop77
    I'm trying to add functionality found in some other code editors to my Emacs configuration, whereby C/C++ code within #if 0...#endif blocks is automatically set to the comment face/font. Based on my testing, cpp-highlight-mode does something like what I want, but requires user action. It seems like tying into the font-lock functionality is the correct option to make the behavior automatic. I have successfully followed examples in the GNU documentation to change the face of single-line regular expressions. For example: (add-hook 'c-mode-common-hook (lambda () (font-lock-add-keywords nil '(("\\<\\(FIXME\\|TODO\\|HACK\\|fixme\\|todo\\|hack\\)" 1 font-lock-warning-face t))))) works fine to highlight debug related keywords anywhere in a file. However, I am having problems matching #if 0...#endif as a multiline regular expression. I found some useful information in this post (How to compose region like ""), that suggested that Emacs must be told specifically to allow for multiline matches. But this code: (add-hook 'c-mode-common-hook (lambda () '(progn (setq font-lock-multiline t) (font-lock-add-keywords nil '(("#if 0\\(.\\|\n\\)*?#endif" 1 font-lock-comment-face t)))))) still does not work for me. Perhaps my regular expression is wrong (though it appears to work using M-x re-builder), I've messed up my syntax, or I'm following the wrong approach entirely. I'm using Aquamacs 2.1 (which is based on GNU Emacs 23.2.50.1) on OS X 10.6.5, if that makes a difference. Any assistance would be appreciated!

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  • Rails Heroku Gemfile.lock error - push rejected (open source)

    - by KJ50
    I am trying to push my open source RoR application to Heroku but I'm having an issue making the initial push. I have read many similar questions, but none of those answers has helped to solve my problem. I have tried bundle update and bundle install various times. I also have tried removing and then re-committing my Gemfile.lock file, however I get this same error still... $ git push heroku master Counting objects: 5199, done. Compressing objects: 100% (3086/3086), done. Writing objects: 100% (5199/5199), 4.57 MiB | 131 KiB/s, done. Total 5199 (delta 3418), reused 3152 (delta 1962) -----> Removing .DS_Store files -----> Ruby app detected -----> Compiling Ruby/NoLockfile ! ! Gemfile.lock required. Please check it in. ! ! Push rejected, failed to compile Ruby app To [email protected]:frozen-springs-4725.git ! [remote rejected] master -> master (pre-receive hook declined) error: failed to push some refs to '[email protected]:frozen-springs-4725.git' Since my application uses MongoDB with MongoMapper, I suspect that I have some configuration incorrect. My code can be found here on Github (I'm currently working on the heroku branch). Feel free to clone our repository and try it yourself. If anyone has any insight which could help me resolve this issue I would be very thankful!

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  • CXF code first service, WSDL generation; soap:address changes?

    - by jcalvert
    I have a simple Java interface/implementation I am exposing via CXF. I have a jaxws element in my Spring configuration file like this: <jaxws:endpoint id="managementServiceJaxws" implementor="#managementService" address="/jaxws/ManagementService" > </jaxws:endpoint> It generates the WSDL from my annotated interface and exposes the service. Then when I hit http://myhostname/cxf/jaxws/ManagementService?wsdl I get a lovely WSDL. At the bottom in the wsdl:service element, I'll see <soap:address location="http://myhostname/cxf/jaxws/ManagementService"/> However, some time a day or so later, with no application restart, hitting that same url produces: This causes a number of problems, but what I really want is to fix it. Right now, there's a particular client to the webservice that sets the endpoint to localhost; because it runs on the same machine. Is it possible the wsdl is getting regenerated and cached and then exposing the 'localhost' version? In part I don't know the exact mechanism by which one goes from a ?wsdl request in CXF to the response. It seems almost certain that it's retrieving some cached version, given that it's supposed to be determining the address by asking the servletcontainer (Jetty). For reference I know a stopgap solution is using the hostname on the client and making sure an alias in place so that it goes over the loopback. EDIT: For reference, I confirmed that if I bring my application up and first hit it over localhost, then querying for the wsdl via the hostname shows the address as localhost. Conversely, first hitting it over the hostname causes localhost requests to show the hostname. So obviously something is getting cached here.

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  • Logback: Logging with two loggers

    - by gammay
    I would like to use slf4j+logback for two purposes in my application - log and audit. For logging, I log the normal way: static final Logger logger = LoggerFactory.getLogger(Main.class); logger.debug("-> main()"); For Audit, I create a special named logger and log to it: static final Logger logger = LoggerFactory.getLogger("AUDIT_LOGGER"); Object[] params = { new Integer(1) /* TenantID */, new Integer(10) /* UserID */, msg}; logger.info("{}|{}|{}", params); logback configuration: <logger name="AUDIT_LOGGER" level="info"> <appender name="STDOUT" class="ch.qos.logback.core.ConsoleAppender"> <encoder> <pattern>%d{HH:mm:ss.SSS}|%msg%n </pattern> </encoder> </appender> </logger> <root level="all"> <appender name="STDOUT" class="ch.qos.logback.core.ConsoleAppender"> <encoder> <pattern>%d{HH:mm:ss.SSS} [%thread] %-5level %logger{36} - %msg%n </pattern> </encoder> </appender> </root> Problem: Messages logged through audit logger appear twice - once under the AUDIT_LOGGER and once under the root logger. 14:41:57.975 [main] DEBUG com.gammay.example.Main - - main() 14:41:57.978|1|10|welcome to main 14:41:57.978 [main] INFO AUDIT_LOGGER - 1|10|welcome to main How can I make sure audit messages appear only once under the audit logger?

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