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  • How to create an instance of object with RTTI in Delphi 2010?

    - by Paul
    As we all known, when we call a constructor of a class like this: instance := TSomeClass.Create; The Delphi compiler actually do the following things: Call the static NewInstance method to allocate memory and initialize the memory layout. Call the constructor method to perform the initialization of the class Call the AfterConstruction method It's simple and easy to understand. but I'm not very sure how the compiler handle exceptions in the second and the third step. It seems there are no explicit way to create an instance using a RTTI constructor method in D2010. so I wrote a simple function in the Spring Framework for Delphi to reproduce the process of the creation. class function TActivator.CreateInstance(instanceType: TRttiInstanceType; constructorMethod: TRttiMethod; const arguments: array of TValue): TObject; var classType: TClass; begin TArgument.CheckNotNull(instanceType, 'instanceType'); TArgument.CheckNotNull(constructorMethod, 'constructorMethod'); classType := instanceType.MetaclassType; Result := classType.NewInstance; try constructorMethod.Invoke(Result, arguments); except on Exception do begin if Result is TInterfacedObject then begin Dec(TInterfacedObjectHack(Result).FRefCount); end; Result.Free; raise; end; end; try Result.AfterConstruction; except on Exception do begin Result.Free; raise; end; end; end; I feel it maybe not 100% right. so please show me the way. Thanks!

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  • Linq causes collection to disappear when trying to use OrderByDescending

    - by Jeremy B.
    For background, I am using MongoDB and Rob Conery's linq driver. The code I am attempting is thus: using (var session = new Session<ContentItem>()) { var contentCollection = session.QueryCollection.Where(x => x.CreatedOn < DateTime.Now).OrderByDescending(y => y.CreatedOn).ToList(); ViewData.Model = contentCollection; } this will work on one machine, but on another machine I get back no results. To get results i have to do using (var session = new Session<ContentItem>()) { var contentCollection = session.QueryCollection.Where(x => x.CreatedOn < DateTime.Now).ToList(); ViewData.Model = contentCollection.OrderByDescending(y => y.CreatedOn).ToList(); } I have to do ToList() on both lines, or no results. If I try to chain anything it breaks. This is the same project, all dll's are locally loaded. Both machines have the same framework, versions of Visual studio and addons. the only difference is one has VisualSVN the other AnkhSVN. I can't see those causing the problem. Also, while debugging, on the machine that does not work you can see the items in the collection, and if you remove ordering all together it will work. This has got me completely stumped.

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  • confused about how to use JSON in C#

    - by Josh
    The answer to just about every single question about using C# with json seems to be "use JSON.NET" but that's not the answer I'm looking for. the reason I say that is, from everything I've been able to read in the documentation, JSON.NET is basically just a better performing version of the DataContractSerializer built into the .net framework... Which means if I want to deserialize a JSON string, I have to define the full, strongly-typed class for EVERY request I might have. so if I have a need to get categories, posts, authors, tags, etc, I have to define a new class for every one of these things. This is fine if I built the client and know exactly what the fields are, but I'm using someone else's api, so I have no idea what the contract is unless I download a sample response string and create the class manually from the JSON string. Is that the only way it's done? Is there not a way to have it create a kind of hashtable that can be read with json["propertyname"]? Finally, if I do have to build the classes myself, what happens when the API changes and they don't tell me (as twitter seems to be notorious for doing)? I'm guessing my entire project will break until I go in and update the object properties... So what exactly is the general workflow when working with JSON? And by general I mean library-agnostic. I want to know how it's done in general, not specifically to a target library... I hope that made sense, this has been a very confusing area to get into... thanks!

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  • Python and the self parameter

    - by Svend
    I'm having some issues with the self parameter, and some seemingly inconsistent behavior in Python is annoying me, so I figure I better ask some people in the know. I have a class, Foo. This class will have a bunch of methods, m1, through mN. For some of these, I will use a standard definition, like in the case of m1 below. But for others, it's more convinient to just assign the method name directly, like I've done with m2 and m3. import os def myfun(x, y): return x + y class Foo(): def m1(self, y, z): return y + z + 42 m2 = os.access m3 = myfun f = Foo() print f.m1(1, 2) print f.m2("/", os.R_OK) print f.m3(3, 4) Now, I know that os.access does not take a self parameter (seemingly). And it still has no issues with this type of assignment. However, I cannot do the same for my own modules (imagine myfun defined off in mymodule.myfun). Running the above code yields the following output: 3 True Traceback (most recent call last): File "foo.py", line 16, in <module> print f.m3(3, 4) TypeError: myfun() takes exactly 2 arguments (3 given) The problem is that, due to the framework I work in, I cannot avoid having a class Foo at least. But I'd like to avoid having my mymodule stuff in a dummy class. In order to do this, I need to do something ala def m3(self,a1, a2): return mymodule.myfun(a1,a2) Which is hugely redundant when you have like 20 of them. So, the question is, either how do I do this in a totally different and obviously much smarter way, or how can I make my own modules behave like the built-in ones, so it does not complain about receiving 1 argument too many.

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  • Retrieve only the superclass from a class hierarchy

    - by user1792724
    I have an scenario as the following: @Entity @Table(name = "ANIMAL") @Inheritance(strategy = InheritanceType.JOINED) public class Animal implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.SEQUENCE, generator = "S_ANIMAL") @SequenceGenerator(name = "S_ANIMAL", sequenceName = "S_ANIMAL", allocationSize = 1) public int getNumero() { return numero; } public void setNumero(int numero) { this.numero = numero; } . . . } and as the subclass: @Entity @Table(name = "DOG") public class Dog extends Animal { private static final long serialVersionUID = -7341592543130659641L; . . . } I have a JPA Select statement like this: SELECT a FROM Animal a; I'm using Hibernate 3.3.1 As I can see the framework retrieves instances of Animal and also of Dog using a left outer join. Is there a way to Select only the "part" Animal? I mean, the previous Select will get all the Animals, those that are only Animals but not Dogs and those that are Dogs. I want them all, but in the case of Dogs I want to only retrieve the "Animal part" of them. I found the @org.hibernate.annotations.Entity(polymorphism = PolymorphismType.EXPLICIT) but as I could see this only works if Animal isn't an @Entity. Thanks a lot.

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  • What is the best way to return result from business layer to presentation layer when using linq - I

    - by samsur
    I have a business layer that has DTOs that are used in the presentation layer. This application uses entity framework. Here is an example of a class called RoleDTO public class RoleDTO { public Guid RoleId { get; set; } public string RoleName { get; set; } public string RoleDescription { get; set; } public int? OrganizationId { get; set; } } In the BLL I want to have a method that returns a list of DTO.. I would like to know which is the better approach: returning IQueryable or list of DTOs. Although i feel that returning Iqueryable is not a good idea because the connection needs to be open. Here are the 2 different methods using the different approaches public class RoleBLL { private servicedeskEntities sde; public RoleBLL() { sde = new servicedeskEntities(); } public IQueryable<RoleDTO> GetAllRoles() { IQueryable<RoleDTO> role = from r in sde.Roles select new RoleDTO() { RoleId = r.RoleID, RoleName = r.RoleName, RoleDescription = r.RoleDescription, OrganizationId = r.OrganizationId }; return role; } Note: in the above method the datacontext is a private attribute and set in the constructor, so that the connection stays opened. Second approach public static List GetAllRoles() { List roleDTO = new List(); using (servicedeskEntities sde = new servicedeskEntities()) { var roles = from pri in sde.Roles select new { pri.RoleID, pri.RoleName, pri.RoleDescription }; //Add the role entites to the DTO list and return. This is necessary as anonymous types can be returned acrosss methods foreach (var item in roles) { RoleDTO roleItem = new RoleDTO(); roleItem.RoleId = item.RoleID; roleItem.RoleDescription = item.RoleDescription; roleItem.RoleName = item.RoleName; roleDTO.Add(roleItem); } return roleDTO; } Please let me know, if there is a better approach - Thanks,

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  • P/Invoke declarations should not be safe-critical

    - by Bobrovsky
    My code imports following native methods: DeleteObject, GetFontData and SelectObject from gdi32.dll GetDC and ReleaseDC from user32.dll I want to run the code in full trust and medium trust environments (I am fine with exceptions being thrown when these imported methods are indirectly used in medium trust environments). When I run Code Analysis on the code I get warnings like: CA5122 P/Invoke declarations should not be safe-critical. P/Invoke method 'GdiFont.DeleteObject(IntPtr)' is marked safe-critical. Since P/Invokes may only be called by critical code, this declaration should either be marked as security critical, or have its annotation removed entirely to avoid being misleading. Could someone explain me (in layman terms) what does this warning really mean? I tried putting these imports in static SafeNativeMethods class as internal static methods but this doesn't make the warnings go away. I didn't try to put them in NativeMethods because after reading this article I am unsure that it's the right way to go because I don't want my code to be completely unusable in medium trust environments (I think this will be the consequence of moving imports to NativeMethods). Honestly, I am pretty much confused about the real meaning of the warning and consequences of different options to suppressing it. Could someone shed some light on all this? EDIT: My code target .NET 2.0 framework. Assembly is marked with [assembly: AllowPartiallyTrustedCallers] Methods are declared like this: [DllImport("gdi32")] internal static extern int DeleteObject(HANDLE hObject);

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  • Why would ASP.NET MVC use session state?

    - by ray247
    Recommended by the ASP.NET team to use cache instead of session, we stopped using session from working with the WebForm model the last few years. So we normally have the session turned off in the web.config <sessionState mode="Off" /> But, now when I'm testing out a ASP.NET MVC application with this setting it throw an error in class SessionStateTempDataProvider inside the mvc framework, it asked me to turn on session state, I did and it worked. Looking at the source it uses session Dictionary<string, object> tempDataDictionary = httpContext.Session[TempDataSessionStateKey] as Dictionary<string, object>; // line 20 in SessionStateTempDataProvider.cs So, why would they use session here? What am I missing? Thanks, Ray. ======================================================== Edit Sorry didn't mean for this post to debate on session vs. cache, but rather in the context of the ASP.NET MVC, I was just wondering why session is used here. In this Scott Watermasysk blog post he mentioned on turning off session too as a good practice, so I'm just wondering do I have to turn it on to use MVC from here on?

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  • WCF code generation for large/complex schema (HR-XML/OAGIS) - is there an alternative?

    - by Sasha Borodin
    Hello, and thank you for reading. I am implementing a WCF Service based on a predefined specification (HR-XML 3.0). As such, I am starting with the schema, and working my way back to code. There are a number of large Schema documents (which import yet more Schema documents) related to my implementation, provided by this specification. I am able to generate code using xsd.exe, by supplying the "main" and "supporting" xsd files as arguments. But there are several issues, and I am wondering if this is the right approach. there are litterally hundreds of classes - the code file is half a meg in size duplicate classes (ex. Type, Type1 - which both represent the same type) there are classes declared as inheriting from a base class, but that base class is not generated/defined I understand that there are limitations to the types of Schema supported by svcutil.exe/xsd.exe when targeting the DataContractSerializer and even XmlSerializer. My question is two-fold: Are code generation "issues" fairly common when dealing with larger, modular xsd files? Has anyone had success with generating data contracts from OAGIS or HR-XML schema? Given the above issues, are there better approaches to this task, avoiding generating code and working with concrete objects? Does it make better sence to read and compose a SOAP message directly, while still taking advantage of the rest of the WCF framework? I understand that I am loosing the convenience of working with .NET objects, and the framekwork-provided (de)serialization; given these losses, would it still be advantageous to base my Service on WCF? Is there some "middle ground" between working with .NET types and pure XML? Thank you very much! -Sasha Borodin DFWHC.org

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  • C++ operator lookup rules / Koenig lookup

    - by John Bartholomew
    While writing a test suite, I needed to provide an implementation of operator<<(std::ostream&... for Boost unit test to use. This worked: namespace theseus { namespace core { std::ostream& operator<<(std::ostream& ss, const PixelRGB& p) { return (ss << "PixelRGB(" << (int)p.r << "," << (int)p.g << "," << (int)p.b << ")"); } }} This didn't: std::ostream& operator<<(std::ostream& ss, const theseus::core::PixelRGB& p) { return (ss << "PixelRGB(" << (int)p.r << "," << (int)p.g << "," << (int)p.b << ")"); } Apparently, the second wasn't included in the candidate matches when g++ tried to resolve the use of the operator. Why (what rule causes this)? The code calling operator<< is deep within the Boost unit test framework, but here's the test code: BOOST_AUTO_TEST_SUITE(core_image) BOOST_AUTO_TEST_CASE(test_output) { using namespace theseus::core; BOOST_TEST_MESSAGE(PixelRGB(5,5,5)); // only compiles with operator<< definition inside theseus::core std::cout << PixelRGB(5,5,5) << "\n"; // works with either definition BOOST_CHECK(true); // prevent no-assertion error } BOOST_AUTO_TEST_SUITE_END() For reference, I'm using g++ 4.4 (though for the moment I'm assuming this behaviour is standards-conformant).

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  • Static code analysis for new language. Where to start?

    - by tinny
    I just been given a new assignment which looks like its going to be an interesting challenge. The customer is wanting a code style checking tool to be developed for their internal (soon to be open sourced) programming language which runs on the JVM. The language syntax is very Java like. The customer basically wants me to produce something like checkstyle. So my question is this, how would you approach this problem? Given a clean slate what recommendations would you make to the customer? I think I have 3 options Write something from scratch. Id prefer not to do this as it seems like this sort of code analysis tool problem has been solved so many times that there must be a more "framework" or "platform" orientated approach. Fork an existing code style checking tool and modify the parsing to fit with this new language etc etc Extend or plug into an existing static code analysis tool. (maybe write a plugin for Yasca?) Maybe you would like to share your experiences in this area? Thanks for reading

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  • VS2010 development web server does not use integrated-mode HTTP handlers/modules

    - by Domenic
    I am developing an ASP.NET MVC 2 web site, targeted for .NET Framework 4.0, using Visual Studio 2010. My web.config contains the following code: <system.webServer> <modules runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests="true"> <add name="XhtmlModule" type="DomenicDenicola.Website.XhtmlModule" /> </modules> <handlers> <add name="DotLess" type="dotless.Core.LessCssHttpHandler,dotless.Core" path="*.less" verb="*" /> </handlers> </system.webServer> When I use Build > Publish to put the web site on my local IIS7 instance, it works great. However, when I use Debug > Start Debugging, neither the HTTP handler nor module are executed on any requests. Strangely enough, when I put the handler and module <add /> tags back into <system.web /> under <httpHandlers /> and <httpModules />, they work. This seems to imply that the development web server is running in classic mode. How do I fix this?

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  • Usage of Assert.Inconclusive

    - by Johannes Rudolph
    Hi, Im wondering how someone should use Assert.Inconclusive(). I'm using it if my Unit test would be about to fail for a reason other than what it is for. E.g. i have a method on a class that calculates the sum of an array of ints. On the same class there is also a method to calculate the average of the element. It is implemented by calling sum and dividing it by the length of the array. Writing a Unit test for Sum() is simple. However, when i write a test for Average() and Sum() fails, Average() is likely to fail also. The failure of Average is not explicit about the reason it failed, it failed for a reason other than what it should test for. That's why i would check if Sum() returns the correct result, otherwise i Assert.Inconclusive(). Is this to be considered good practice? What is Assert.Inconclusive intended for? Or should i rather solve the previous example by means of an Isolation Framework?

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  • Setting up Inversion of Control (IoC) in ASP.NET MVC with Castle Windsor

    - by Lirik
    I'm going over Sanderson's Pro ASP.NET MVC Framework and in Chapter 4 he discusses Creating a Custom Controller Factory and it seems that the original method, AddComponentLifeStyle or AddComponentWithLifeStyle, used to register controllers is deprecated now: public class WindsorControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { IWindsorContainer container; public WindsorControllerFactory() { container = new WindsorContainer(new XmlInterpreter(new ConfigResource("castle"))); // register all the controller types as transient var controllerTypes = from t in Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().GetTypes() where typeof(IController).IsAssignableFrom(t) select t; //[Obsolete("Use Register(Component.For<I>().ImplementedBy<T>().Named(key).Lifestyle.Is(lifestyle)) instead.")] //IWindsorContainer AddComponentLifeStyle<I, T>(string key, LifestyleType lifestyle) where T : class; foreach (Type t in controllerTypes) { container.Register(Component.For<IController>().ImplementedBy<???>().Named(t.FullName).LifeStyle.Is(LifestyleType.Transient)); } } // Constructs the controller instance needed to service each request protected override IController GetControllerInstance(Type controllerType) { return (IController)container.Resolve(controllerType); } } The new suggestion is to use Register(Component.For<I>().ImplementedBy<T>().Named(key).Lifestyle.Is(lifestyle)), but I can't figure out how to present the implementing controller type in the ImplementedBy<???>() method. I tried ImplementedBy<t>() and ImplementedBy<typeof(t)>(), but I can't find the appropriate way to pass int he implementing type. Any ideas?

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  • Qt4Dotnet on Mac OS X

    - by Tony
    Hello everyone. I'm using Qt4Dotnet project in order to port application originally written in C# on Linux and Mac. Port to Linux hasn't taken much efforts and works fine. But Mac (10.4 Tiger) is a bit more stubborn. The problem is: when I try to start my application it throws an exception. Exception states that com.trolltech.qt.QtJambi_LibraryInitializer is unable to find all necessary ibraries. QtJambi library initializer uses java.library.path VM environment variable. This variable includes current working directory. I put all necessary libraries in a working directory. When I try to run the application from MonoDevelop IDE, initializer is able to load one library, but the other libraries are 'missing': An exception was thrown by the type initializer for com.trolltech.qt.QtJambi_LibraryInitializer --- java.lang.RuntimeException: Loading library failed, progress so far: No 'qtjambi-deployment.xml' found in classpath, loading libraries via 'java.library.path' Loading library: 'libQtCore.4.dylib'... - using 'java.library.path' - ok, path was: /Users/chin/test/bin/Debug/libQtCore.4.dylib Loading library: 'libqtjambi.jnilib'... - using 'java.library.path' Both libQtCore.4.dylib and libqtjambi.jnilib are in the same directory. When I try to run it from the command prompt, the initializer is unable to load even libQtCore.4.dylib. I'm using Qt4Dotnet v4.5.0 (currently the latest) with QtJambi v4.5.2 libraries. This might be the source of the problem, but I'm neither able to compile Qt4Dotnet v4.5.2 by myself nor to find QtJambi v4.5.0 libraries. Project's page states that some sort of patch should be applied to QtJambi's source code in order to be compatible with Mono framework, but this patch hasn't been released yet. Without this patch application crashes in a strange manner (other than library seek fault). I must note that original QtJambi loads all necessary libraries perfectly, so it might be issues of IKVM compiler used to translate QtJambi into .Net library. Any suggestions how can I overcome this problem?

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  • PHP's openssl_sign generates different signature than SSCrypto's sign

    - by pascalj
    I'm writing an OS X client for a software that is written in PHP. This software uses a simple RPC interface to receive and execute commands. The RPC client has to sign the commands he sends to ensure that no MITM can modify any of them. However, as the server was not accepting the signatures I sent from my OS X client, I started investigating and found out that PHP's openssl_sign function generates a different signature for a given private key/data combination than the Objective-C SSCrypto framework (which is only a wrapper for the openssl lib): SSCrypto *crypto = [[SSCrypto alloc] initWithPrivateKey:self.localPrivKey]; NSData *shaed = [self sha1:@"hello"]; [crypto setClearTextWithData:shaed]; NSData *data = [crypto sign]; generates a signature like CtbkSxvqNZ+mAN... The PHP code openssl_sign("hello", $signature, $privateKey); generates a signature like 6u0d2qjFiMbZ+... (For my certain key, of course. base64 encoded) I'm not quite shure why this is happening and I unsuccessfully experimented with different hash-algorithms. As the PHP documentation states SHA1 is used by default. So why do these two functions generate different signatures and how can I get my Objective-C part to generate a signature that PHPs openssl_verify will accept? Note: I double checked that the keys and the data is correct!

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  • Unit testing code which uses Umbraco v4 API

    - by Jason Evans
    I'm trying to write a suite of integration tests, where I have custom code which uses the Umbraco API. The Umbraco database lives in a SQL Server CE 4.0 database (*.sdf file) and I've managed to get that association working fine. My problem looks to be dependancies in the Umbraco code. For example, I would like to create a new user for my tests, so I try: var user = User.MakeNew("developer", "developer", "mypassword", "[email protected]", adminUserType); Now as you can see, I have pass a user type which is an object. I've tried two separate ways to create the user type, both of which fail due to a null object exception: var adminUserType = UserType.GetUserType(1); var adminUserType2 = new UserType(1); The problem is that in each case the UserType code calls it's Cache method which uses the HttpRuntime class, which naturally is null. My question is this: Can someone suggest a way of writing integration tests against Umbraco code? Will I have to end up using a mocking framework such as TypeMock or JustMock?

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  • Recommended Meta Elements?

    - by joyce
    Hi everyone! Setting up a "basic framework" for my website projects, I'm wondering which meta elements are really necessary/recommended? In particular, I'd like to know how to deal with the language attribute(s)!? In the following example, I think sth. is repeated unnecessarily... <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en" lang="en" dir="ltr"> <head> <meta http-equiv="content-type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <meta http-equiv="content-style-type" content="text/css" /> <meta http-equiv="content-script-type" content="text/javascript" /> <meta http-equiv="content-language" content="en" /> <meta http-equiv="language" content="en" /> <title> Title </title> <base href="http://www.mydomain.com" /> <meta name="charset" content="utf-8" /> <meta name="content-language" content="en" /> <meta name="language" content="en" /> <meta name="description" content="description" /> <meta name="keywords" content="keywords" /> </head>

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  • Is there a way to control how pytest-xdist runs tests in parallel?

    - by superselector
    I have the following directory layout: runner.py lib/ tests/ testsuite1/ testsuite1.py testsuite2/ testsuite2.py testsuite3/ testsuite3.py testsuite4/ testsuite4.py The format of testsuite*.py modules is as follows: import pytest class testsomething: def setup_class(self): ''' do some setup ''' # Do some setup stuff here def teardown_class(self): '''' do some teardown''' # Do some teardown stuff here def test1(self): # Do some test1 related stuff def test2(self): # Do some test2 related stuff .... .... .... def test40(self): # Do some test40 related stuff if __name__=='__main()__' pytest.main(args=[os.path.abspath(__file__)]) The problem I have is that I would like to execute the 'testsuites' in parallel i.e. I want testsuite1, testsuite2, testsuite3 and testsuite4 to start execution in parallel but individual tests within the testsuites need to be executed serially. When I use the 'xdist' plugin from py.test and kick off the tests using 'py.test -n 4', py.test is gathering all the tests and randomly load balancing the tests among 4 workers. This leads to the 'setup_class' method to be executed every time of each test within a 'testsuitex.py' module (which defeats my purpose. I want setup_class to be executed only once per class and tests executed serially there after). Essentially what I want the execution to look like is: worker1: executes all tests in testsuite1.py serially worker2: executes all tests in testsuite2.py serially worker3: executes all tests in testsuite3.py serially worker4: executes all tests in testsuite4.py serially while worker1, worker2, worker3 and worker4 are all executed in parallel. Is there a way to achieve this in 'pytest-xidst' framework? The only option that I can think of is to kick off different processes to execute each test suite individually within runner.py: def test_execute_func(testsuite_path): subprocess.process('py.test %s' % testsuite_path) if __name__=='__main__': #Gather all the testsuite names for each testsuite: multiprocessing.Process(test_execute_func,(testsuite_path,))

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  • Error in pom file in Maven project,after importing into eclipse

    - by dipti
    I am actually new to the Maven framework.I already have a Maven project.I installed the Maven plugin etc into my EclipseIDE from http://m2eclipse.sonatype.org/sites/m2e.Then I imported my project and enabled dependencies.But the project is showing too many errors.The pom.xml itself is showing errors.The errors are"Project Build Error:unknown packaging:apk",Project Build Error:unresolvable build extension:plugin" etc. My error area is: project xmlns="http://maven.apache.org/POM/4.0.0" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://maven.apache.org/POM/4.0.0 http://maven.apache.org/xsd/maven-4.0.0.xsd" 4.0.0 <groupId>com.nbc.cnbc.android</groupId> <artifactId>android.domain.tests</artifactId> <version>1.0.0</version> <packaging>apk</packaging> <parent> <groupId>com.nbc.cnbc.android</groupId> <artifactId>android.domain.parent</artifactId> <version>1.0.0</version> <relativePath>../android.domain.parent/pom.xml</relativePath> </parent> <name>android.domain.tests</name> <url>http://maven.apache.org</url> Could it be because the url specified in the last line could be different??? Any ideas why this could be happening?? Any reply is highly appreciated.Thanks a looot in advance!! Regards, Dipti

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  • DotNetOpenAuth / WebSecurity Basic Info Exchange

    - by Jammer
    I've gotten a good number of OAuth logins working on my site now. My implementation is based on the WebSecurity classes with amends to the code to suit my needs (I pulled the WebSecurity source into mine). However I'm now facing a new set of problems. In my application I have opted to make the user email address the login identifier of choice. It's naturally unique and suits this use case. However, the OAuth "standards" strikes again. Some providers will return your email address as "username" (Google) some will return the display name (Facebook). As it stands I see to options given my particular scenario: Option 1 Pull even more framework source code into my solution until I can chase down where the OpenIdRelyingParty class is actually interacted with (via the DotNetOpenAuth.AspNet facade) and make addition information requests from the OpenID Providers. Option 2 When a user first logs in using an OpenID provider I can display a kind of "complete registration" form that requests missing info based on the provider selected.* Option 2 is the most immediate and probably the quickest to implement but also includes some code smells through having to do something different based on the provider selected. Option 1 will take longer but will ultimately make things more future proof. I will need to perform richer interactions down the line so this also has an edge in that regard. The more I get into the code it does seem that the WebSecurity class itself is actually very limiting as it hides lots of useful DotNetOpenAuth functionality in the name of making integration easier. Andrew (the author of DNOA) has said that the Attribute Exchange stuff happens in the OpenIdRelyingParty class but I cannot see from the DotNetOpenAuth.AspNet source code where this class is used so I'm unsure of what source would need to be pulled into my code in order to enable the functionality I need. Has anyone completely something similar?

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  • Membership.Updateuser not really updating the database.

    - by Shimrod
    Hi everybody, I'm currently working on a membership system for my web application, which is based on forms authentication from the framework. I created some users with the integrated tool, and the login is perfectly working. But now what I want to do is to give administrator the capability to create, modify, delete users. So here is what I've got right now: Protected Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Load Dim muc As MembershipUserCollection = Membership.GetAllUsers() ComboBox1.DataSource = muc ComboBox1.DataValueField = "UserName" ComboBox1.DataTextField = "UserName" ComboBox1.DataBind() End Sub Protected Sub ComboBox1_SelectedIndexChanged(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) Handles ComboBox1.SelectedIndexChanged Dim userName As String = ComboBox1.SelectedValue Dim mu As MembershipUser = Membership.GetUser(userName) Dim userRoles As String() = Roles.GetRolesForUser(userName) tbComments.Text = mu.Comment tbEmail.Text = mu.Email lblUserName.Text = mu.UserName End Sub Protected Sub Button1_Click(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim userName As String = ComboBox1.SelectedValue Dim mu As MembershipUser = Membership.GetUser(userName) If Not mu Is Nothing Then Try mu.Comment = tbComments.Text Membership.UpdateUser(mu) mu.Email = tbEmail.Text Membership.UpdateUser(mu) mu.IsApproved = True Membership.UpdateUser(mu) mu = Nothing Catch ex As Exception Console.WriteLine(ex.ToString()) End Try End If DetailPanel.Visible = False End Sub The problem is that the record doesn't seem to be updated in the database. I made the multiple calls to Membership.UpdateUser after reading this blog entry, but it didn't change anything. A strange think I noticed while debugging, is that when I enter the Button1_Click method, Membership.GetUser(userName) returns me values from my precedent attempt ! I don't really understand what I'm missing. Does someone have a clue ? Thanks in advance !

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  • Parameterized SPARQL query with JENA

    - by sandra
    I'm trying to build a small semantic web application using Jena framework, JSP and JAVA. I have a remote SPARQL endpoint and I've already written a simple query which works fine but now I need to use some parameters. Here is my code so far: final static String serviceEndpoint = "http://fishdelish.cs.man.ac.uk/sparql/"; String comNameQuery = "PREFIX fd: <http://fishdelish.cs.man.ac.uk/rdf/vocab/resource/> " + "SELECT ?name ?language ?type" + "WHERE { ?nameID fd:comnames_ComName ?name ;" + "fd:comnames_Language ?language ;" + "fd:comnames_NameType ?type ." + "}"; Query query = QueryFactory.create(comNameQuery); QueryExecution qe = QueryExecutionFactory.sparqlService(serviceEndpoint,query); try { ResultSet rs = qe.execSelect(); if ( rs.hasNext() ) { System.out.println(ResultSetFormatter.asText(rs)); } } catch(Exception e) { System.out.println(e.getMessage()); } finally { qe.close(); } What I want to do is to parameterized ?name. I'm new to Jena and I'm not really sure how to use parameters in a SPARQL query. I would appreciate it if someone could help me with this.

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  • PHP Overloading, singleton instance

    - by jamalali81
    I've sort of created my own MVC framework and am curious as to how other frameworks can send properties from the "controller" to the "view". Zend does something along the lines of $this->view->name = 'value'; My code is: file: services_hosting.php class services_hosting extends controller { function __construct($sMvcName) { parent::__construct($sMvcName); $this->setViewSettings(); } public function setViewSettings() { $p = new property; $p->banner = '/path/to/banners/home.jpg'; } } file: controller.php class controller { public $sMvcName = "home"; function __construct($sMvcName) { if ($sMvcName) { $this->sMvcName = $sMvcName; } include('path/to/views/view.phtml'); } public function renderContent() { include('path/to/views/'.$this->sMvcName.'.phtml'); } } file: property.php class property { private $data = array(); protected static $_instance = null; public static function getInstance() { if (null === self::$_instance) { self::$_instance = new self(); } return self::$_instance; } public function __set($name, $value) { $this->data[$name] = $value; } public function __get($name) { if (array_key_exists($name, $this->data)) { return $this->data[$name]; } } public function __isset($name) { return isset($this->data[$name]); } public function __unset($name) { unset($this->data[$name]); } } In my services_hosting.phtml "view" file I have: <img src="<?php echo $this->p->banner ?>" /> This just does not work. Am I doing something fundamentally wrong or is my logic incorrect? I seem to be going round in circles at the moment. Any help would be very much appreciated.

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  • Consolidate multiple site files into single location

    - by seengee
    We have a custom PHP/MySQL CMS running on Linux/Apache thats rolled out to multiple sites (20+) on the same server. Each site uses exactly the same CMS files with a few files for each site being customised. The customised files for each site are: /library/mysql_connect.php /public_html/css/* /public_html/ftparea/* /public_html/images/* There's also a couple of other random files inside /public_html/includes/ that are unique to each site. Other than this each site on the server uses the exact same files. Each site sitting within /home/username/. There is obviously a massive amount of replication here as each time we want to deploy a system update we need to update to each user account. Given the common site files are all stored in SVN it would make far more sense if we were able to simply commit to SVN and deploy to a single location direct from there. Unfortunately, making a major architecture change at this stage could be problematic. In my mind the ideal scenario would mean creating an account like /home/commonfiles/ and each site using these common files unless an account specific file exists, for example a request is made to /home/user/public_html/index.php but as this file doesnt exist the request is then redirected to /home/commonfiles/public_html/index.php. I know that generally this approach is possible, similar to how Zend Framework (and probably others) redirect all requests that dont match a specific file to index.php. I'm just not sure about how exactly to go about implementing it and whether its actually advisable. Would really welcome any input/ideas people have got. Thanks.

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