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  • C# Fun with Generics - Mutual Dependencies

    - by Kenneth Cochran
    As an experiment I'm trying to write a generic MVP framework. I started with: public interface IPresenter<TView> where TView: IView<IPresenter<... { TView View { get; set;} } public interface IView<TPresenter> where TPresenter:IPresenter<IView<... { TPresenter Presenter { get; set; } } Obviously this can't work because the types of TView and TPresenter can't be resolved. You'd be writing Type<Type<... forever. So my next attempt looked like this: public interface IView<T> where T:IPresenter { ... } public interface IView:IView<IPresenter> { } public interface IPresenter<TView> where TView: IView { ... } public interface IPresenter: IPresenter<IView> { ... } This actually compiles and you can even inherit from these interfaces like so: public class MyView : IView, IView<MyPresenter> { ... } public class MyPresenter : IPresenter, IPresenter<MyView> { ... } The problem is in the class definition you have to define any members declared in the generic type twice. Not ideal but it still compiles. The problem's start creeping up when you actually try to access the members of a Presenter from a View or vice versa. You get an Ambiguous reference when you try to compile. Is there any way to avoid this double implementation of a member when you inherit from both interfaces? Is it even possible to resolve two mutually dependent generic types at compile time?

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  • Qt4Dotnet on Mac OS X

    - by Tony
    Hello everyone. I'm using Qt4Dotnet project in order to port application originally written in C# on Linux and Mac. Port to Linux hasn't taken much efforts and works fine. But Mac (10.4 Tiger) is a bit more stubborn. The problem is: when I try to start my application it throws an exception. Exception states that com.trolltech.qt.QtJambi_LibraryInitializer is unable to find all necessary ibraries. QtJambi library initializer uses java.library.path VM environment variable. This variable includes current working directory. I put all necessary libraries in a working directory. When I try to run the application from MonoDevelop IDE, initializer is able to load one library, but the other libraries are 'missing': An exception was thrown by the type initializer for com.trolltech.qt.QtJambi_LibraryInitializer --- java.lang.RuntimeException: Loading library failed, progress so far: No 'qtjambi-deployment.xml' found in classpath, loading libraries via 'java.library.path' Loading library: 'libQtCore.4.dylib'... - using 'java.library.path' - ok, path was: /Users/chin/test/bin/Debug/libQtCore.4.dylib Loading library: 'libqtjambi.jnilib'... - using 'java.library.path' Both libQtCore.4.dylib and libqtjambi.jnilib are in the same directory. When I try to run it from the command prompt, the initializer is unable to load even libQtCore.4.dylib. I'm using Qt4Dotnet v4.5.0 (currently the latest) with QtJambi v4.5.2 libraries. This might be the source of the problem, but I'm neither able to compile Qt4Dotnet v4.5.2 by myself nor to find QtJambi v4.5.0 libraries. Project's page states that some sort of patch should be applied to QtJambi's source code in order to be compatible with Mono framework, but this patch hasn't been released yet. Without this patch application crashes in a strange manner (other than library seek fault). I must note that original QtJambi loads all necessary libraries perfectly, so it might be issues of IKVM compiler used to translate QtJambi into .Net library. Any suggestions how can I overcome this problem?

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  • Setting up Inversion of Control (IoC) in ASP.NET MVC with Castle Windsor

    - by Lirik
    I'm going over Sanderson's Pro ASP.NET MVC Framework and in Chapter 4 he discusses Creating a Custom Controller Factory and it seems that the original method, AddComponentLifeStyle or AddComponentWithLifeStyle, used to register controllers is deprecated now: public class WindsorControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { IWindsorContainer container; public WindsorControllerFactory() { container = new WindsorContainer(new XmlInterpreter(new ConfigResource("castle"))); // register all the controller types as transient var controllerTypes = from t in Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().GetTypes() where typeof(IController).IsAssignableFrom(t) select t; //[Obsolete("Use Register(Component.For<I>().ImplementedBy<T>().Named(key).Lifestyle.Is(lifestyle)) instead.")] //IWindsorContainer AddComponentLifeStyle<I, T>(string key, LifestyleType lifestyle) where T : class; foreach (Type t in controllerTypes) { container.Register(Component.For<IController>().ImplementedBy<???>().Named(t.FullName).LifeStyle.Is(LifestyleType.Transient)); } } // Constructs the controller instance needed to service each request protected override IController GetControllerInstance(Type controllerType) { return (IController)container.Resolve(controllerType); } } The new suggestion is to use Register(Component.For<I>().ImplementedBy<T>().Named(key).Lifestyle.Is(lifestyle)), but I can't figure out how to present the implementing controller type in the ImplementedBy<???>() method. I tried ImplementedBy<t>() and ImplementedBy<typeof(t)>(), but I can't find the appropriate way to pass int he implementing type. Any ideas?

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  • confused about how to use JSON in C#

    - by Josh
    The answer to just about every single question about using C# with json seems to be "use JSON.NET" but that's not the answer I'm looking for. the reason I say that is, from everything I've been able to read in the documentation, JSON.NET is basically just a better performing version of the DataContractSerializer built into the .net framework... Which means if I want to deserialize a JSON string, I have to define the full, strongly-typed class for EVERY request I might have. so if I have a need to get categories, posts, authors, tags, etc, I have to define a new class for every one of these things. This is fine if I built the client and know exactly what the fields are, but I'm using someone else's api, so I have no idea what the contract is unless I download a sample response string and create the class manually from the JSON string. Is that the only way it's done? Is there not a way to have it create a kind of hashtable that can be read with json["propertyname"]? Finally, if I do have to build the classes myself, what happens when the API changes and they don't tell me (as twitter seems to be notorious for doing)? I'm guessing my entire project will break until I go in and update the object properties... So what exactly is the general workflow when working with JSON? And by general I mean library-agnostic. I want to know how it's done in general, not specifically to a target library... I hope that made sense, this has been a very confusing area to get into... thanks!

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  • How should I secure my webapp written using Wicket, Spring, and JPA?

    - by Martin
    So, I have an web-based application that is using the Wicket 1.4 framework, and it uses Spring beans, the Java Persistence API (JPA), and the OpenSessionInView pattern. I'm hoping to find a security model that is declarative, but doesn't require gobs of XML configuration -- I'd prefer annotations. Here are the options so far: Spring Security (guide) - looks complete, but every guide I find that combines it with Wicket still calls it Acegi Security, which makes me think it must be old. Wicket-Auth-Roles (guide 1 and guide 2) - Most guides recommend mixing this with Spring Security, and I love the declarative style of @Authorize("ROLE1","ROLE2",etc). I'm concerned about having to extend AuthenticatedWebApplication, since I'm already extending org.apache.wicket.protocol.http.WebApplication, and Spring is already proxying that behind org.apache.wicket.spring.SpringWebApplicationFactory. SWARM / WASP (guide) - This looks the newest (though the main contributor passed away years ago), but I hate all of the JAAS-styled text files that declare permissions for principals. I also don't like the idea of making an Action class for every single thing a user might want to do. Secure models also aren't immediately obvious to me. Plus, there isn't an Authn example. Additionally, it looks like lots of folks recommend mixing the first and second options. I can't tell what the best practice is at all, though.

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  • CakePHP hasMany relationship with multiple columns

    - by Muhammad Yasir
    Hi, I am using CakePHP framework to build a web application. The simplest form of my problem is this: I have a users table and a messages table with corresponding models. Messages are sent from a user to another user. So messages table has columns from_id and to_id in it, both referencing to id of users. I am able to link Message model to User model by using $belongsTo but I am unable to link User model with Message model (in reverse direction) by using $hasMany in the same manner. var $hasMany = array( 'From' => array( 'className' => 'Message', 'foreignKey' => 'from_id', 'dependent' => false, 'conditions' => '', 'fields' => '', 'order' => '', 'limit' => '', 'offset' => '', 'exclusive' => '', 'finderQuery' => '', 'counterQuery' => '' ), 'To' => array( 'className' => 'Message', 'foreignKey' => 'to_id', 'dependent' => false, 'conditions' => '', 'fields' => '', 'order' => '', 'limit' => '', 'offset' => '', 'exclusive' => '', 'finderQuery' => '', 'counterQuery' => '' ) ); What can do here? Any ideas? Thanks for any help.

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  • Python and the self parameter

    - by Svend
    I'm having some issues with the self parameter, and some seemingly inconsistent behavior in Python is annoying me, so I figure I better ask some people in the know. I have a class, Foo. This class will have a bunch of methods, m1, through mN. For some of these, I will use a standard definition, like in the case of m1 below. But for others, it's more convinient to just assign the method name directly, like I've done with m2 and m3. import os def myfun(x, y): return x + y class Foo(): def m1(self, y, z): return y + z + 42 m2 = os.access m3 = myfun f = Foo() print f.m1(1, 2) print f.m2("/", os.R_OK) print f.m3(3, 4) Now, I know that os.access does not take a self parameter (seemingly). And it still has no issues with this type of assignment. However, I cannot do the same for my own modules (imagine myfun defined off in mymodule.myfun). Running the above code yields the following output: 3 True Traceback (most recent call last): File "foo.py", line 16, in <module> print f.m3(3, 4) TypeError: myfun() takes exactly 2 arguments (3 given) The problem is that, due to the framework I work in, I cannot avoid having a class Foo at least. But I'd like to avoid having my mymodule stuff in a dummy class. In order to do this, I need to do something ala def m3(self,a1, a2): return mymodule.myfun(a1,a2) Which is hugely redundant when you have like 20 of them. So, the question is, either how do I do this in a totally different and obviously much smarter way, or how can I make my own modules behave like the built-in ones, so it does not complain about receiving 1 argument too many.

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  • C++ operator lookup rules / Koenig lookup

    - by John Bartholomew
    While writing a test suite, I needed to provide an implementation of operator<<(std::ostream&... for Boost unit test to use. This worked: namespace theseus { namespace core { std::ostream& operator<<(std::ostream& ss, const PixelRGB& p) { return (ss << "PixelRGB(" << (int)p.r << "," << (int)p.g << "," << (int)p.b << ")"); } }} This didn't: std::ostream& operator<<(std::ostream& ss, const theseus::core::PixelRGB& p) { return (ss << "PixelRGB(" << (int)p.r << "," << (int)p.g << "," << (int)p.b << ")"); } Apparently, the second wasn't included in the candidate matches when g++ tried to resolve the use of the operator. Why (what rule causes this)? The code calling operator<< is deep within the Boost unit test framework, but here's the test code: BOOST_AUTO_TEST_SUITE(core_image) BOOST_AUTO_TEST_CASE(test_output) { using namespace theseus::core; BOOST_TEST_MESSAGE(PixelRGB(5,5,5)); // only compiles with operator<< definition inside theseus::core std::cout << PixelRGB(5,5,5) << "\n"; // works with either definition BOOST_CHECK(true); // prevent no-assertion error } BOOST_AUTO_TEST_SUITE_END() For reference, I'm using g++ 4.4 (though for the moment I'm assuming this behaviour is standards-conformant).

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  • PHP Overloading, singleton instance

    - by jamalali81
    I've sort of created my own MVC framework and am curious as to how other frameworks can send properties from the "controller" to the "view". Zend does something along the lines of $this->view->name = 'value'; My code is: file: services_hosting.php class services_hosting extends controller { function __construct($sMvcName) { parent::__construct($sMvcName); $this->setViewSettings(); } public function setViewSettings() { $p = new property; $p->banner = '/path/to/banners/home.jpg'; } } file: controller.php class controller { public $sMvcName = "home"; function __construct($sMvcName) { if ($sMvcName) { $this->sMvcName = $sMvcName; } include('path/to/views/view.phtml'); } public function renderContent() { include('path/to/views/'.$this->sMvcName.'.phtml'); } } file: property.php class property { private $data = array(); protected static $_instance = null; public static function getInstance() { if (null === self::$_instance) { self::$_instance = new self(); } return self::$_instance; } public function __set($name, $value) { $this->data[$name] = $value; } public function __get($name) { if (array_key_exists($name, $this->data)) { return $this->data[$name]; } } public function __isset($name) { return isset($this->data[$name]); } public function __unset($name) { unset($this->data[$name]); } } In my services_hosting.phtml "view" file I have: <img src="<?php echo $this->p->banner ?>" /> This just does not work. Am I doing something fundamentally wrong or is my logic incorrect? I seem to be going round in circles at the moment. Any help would be very much appreciated.

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  • Error in pom file in Maven project,after importing into eclipse

    - by dipti
    I am actually new to the Maven framework.I already have a Maven project.I installed the Maven plugin etc into my EclipseIDE from http://m2eclipse.sonatype.org/sites/m2e.Then I imported my project and enabled dependencies.But the project is showing too many errors.The pom.xml itself is showing errors.The errors are"Project Build Error:unknown packaging:apk",Project Build Error:unresolvable build extension:plugin" etc. My error area is: project xmlns="http://maven.apache.org/POM/4.0.0" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://maven.apache.org/POM/4.0.0 http://maven.apache.org/xsd/maven-4.0.0.xsd" 4.0.0 <groupId>com.nbc.cnbc.android</groupId> <artifactId>android.domain.tests</artifactId> <version>1.0.0</version> <packaging>apk</packaging> <parent> <groupId>com.nbc.cnbc.android</groupId> <artifactId>android.domain.parent</artifactId> <version>1.0.0</version> <relativePath>../android.domain.parent/pom.xml</relativePath> </parent> <name>android.domain.tests</name> <url>http://maven.apache.org</url> Could it be because the url specified in the last line could be different??? Any ideas why this could be happening?? Any reply is highly appreciated.Thanks a looot in advance!! Regards, Dipti

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  • Static code analysis for new language. Where to start?

    - by tinny
    I just been given a new assignment which looks like its going to be an interesting challenge. The customer is wanting a code style checking tool to be developed for their internal (soon to be open sourced) programming language which runs on the JVM. The language syntax is very Java like. The customer basically wants me to produce something like checkstyle. So my question is this, how would you approach this problem? Given a clean slate what recommendations would you make to the customer? I think I have 3 options Write something from scratch. Id prefer not to do this as it seems like this sort of code analysis tool problem has been solved so many times that there must be a more "framework" or "platform" orientated approach. Fork an existing code style checking tool and modify the parsing to fit with this new language etc etc Extend or plug into an existing static code analysis tool. (maybe write a plugin for Yasca?) Maybe you would like to share your experiences in this area? Thanks for reading

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  • Recommended Meta Elements?

    - by joyce
    Hi everyone! Setting up a "basic framework" for my website projects, I'm wondering which meta elements are really necessary/recommended? In particular, I'd like to know how to deal with the language attribute(s)!? In the following example, I think sth. is repeated unnecessarily... <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en" lang="en" dir="ltr"> <head> <meta http-equiv="content-type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <meta http-equiv="content-style-type" content="text/css" /> <meta http-equiv="content-script-type" content="text/javascript" /> <meta http-equiv="content-language" content="en" /> <meta http-equiv="language" content="en" /> <title> Title </title> <base href="http://www.mydomain.com" /> <meta name="charset" content="utf-8" /> <meta name="content-language" content="en" /> <meta name="language" content="en" /> <meta name="description" content="description" /> <meta name="keywords" content="keywords" /> </head>

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  • how to use javascript to change div backgroundColor

    - by lanqy
    The html below: <div id="catestory"> <div class="content"> <h2>some title here</h2> <p>some content here</p> </div> <div class="content"> <h2>some title here</h2> <p>some content here</p> </div> <div class="content"> <h2>some title here</h2> <p>some content here</p> </div> </div> when mouseover the content of div then it's backgroundColor and the h2(inside this div) backgroundColor change(just like the css :hover) I know this can use css (:hover) to do this in modern browser but IE6 does't work how to use javascript(not jquery or other js framework) to do this? Edit:how to change the h2 backgroundColor too

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  • handling pointer to member functions within hierachy in C++

    - by anatoli
    Hi, I'm trying to code the following situation: I have a base class providing a framework for handling events. I'm trying to use an array of pointer-to-member-functions for that. It goes as following: class EH { // EventHandler virtual void something(); // just to make sure we get RTTI public: typedef void (EH::*func_t)(); protected: func_t funcs_d[10]; protected: void register_handler(int event_num, func_t f) { funcs_d[event_num] = f; } public: void handle_event(int event_num) { (this->*(funcs_d[event_num]))(); } }; Then the users are supposed to derive other classes from this one and provide handlers: class DEH : public EH { public: typedef void (DEH::*func_t)(); void handle_event_5(); DEH() { func_t f5 = &DEH::handle_event_5; register_handler(5, f5); // doesn't compile ........ } }; This code wouldn't compile, since DEH::func_t cannot be converted to EH::func_t. It makes perfect sense to me. In my case the conversion is safe since the object under this is really DEH. So I'd like to have something like that: void EH::DEH_handle_event_5_wrapper() { DEH *p = dynamic_cast<DEH *>(this); assert(p != NULL); p->handle_event_5(); } and then instead of func_t f5 = &DEH::handle_event_5; register_handler(5, f5); // doesn't compile in DEH::DEH() put register_handler(5, &EH::DEH_handle_event_5_wrapper); So, finally the question (took me long enough...): Is there a way to create those wrappers (like EH::DEH_handle_event_5_wrapper) automatically? Or to do something similar? What other solutions to this situation are out there? Thanks.

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  • python tkinter gui

    - by Lewis Townsend
    I'm wanting to make a small python program for yearly temperatures. I can get nearly everything working in the standard console but I'm wanting to implement it into a GUI. The program opens a csv file reads it into lists, works out the average, and min & max temps. Then on closing the application will save a summary to a new text file. I am wanting the default start up screen to show All Years. When a button is clicked it just shows that year's data. Here is a what I want it to look like. Pretty simple layout with just the 5 buttons and the out puts for each. I can make up the buttons for the top fine with: Code: class App: def __init__(self, master): frame = Frame(master) frame.pack() self.hi_there = Button(frame, text="All Years", command=self.All) self.hi_there.pack(side=LEFT) self.hi_there = Button(frame, text="2011", command=self.Y1) self.hi_there.pack(side=LEFT) self.hi_there = Button(frame, text="2012", command=self.Y2) self.hi_there.pack(side=LEFT) self.hi_there = Button(frame, text="2013", command=self.Y3) self.hi_there.pack(side=LEFT) self.hi_there = Button(frame, text="Save & Exit", command=self.Exit) self.hi_there.pack(side=LEFT) I'm not sure as to how to make the other elements, such as the title & table. I was going to post the code of the small program but decided not to. Once I have the structure/framework I think I can populate the fields & I might learn better this way. Using Python 2.7.3

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  • At which line in the following code should I commit my unit of work?

    - by Pure.Krome
    I have the following code which is in a transaction. I'm not sure where/when I should be commiting my unit of work. On purpose, I've not mentioned what type of Respoistory i'm using - eg. Linq-To-Sql, Entity Framework 4, NHibernate, etc. If someone knows where, can they please explain WHY they have said, where? (i'm trying to understand the pattern through example(s), as opposed to just getting my code to work). Here's what i've got :- using ( TransactionScope transactionScope = new TransactionScope ( TransactionScopeOption.RequiresNew, new TransactionOptions { IsolationLevel = IsolationLevel.ReadUncommitted } ) ) { _logEntryRepository.InsertOrUpdate(logEntry); //_unitOfWork.Commit(); // Here, commit #1 ? // Now, if this log entry was a NewConnection or an LostConnection, // then we need to make sure we update the ConnectedClients. if (logEntry.EventType == EventType.NewConnection) { _connectedClientRepository.Insert( new ConnectedClient { LogEntryId = logEntry.LogEntryId }); //_unitOfWork.Commit(); // Here, commit #2 ? } // A (PB) BanKick does _NOT_ register a lost connection, // so we need to make sure we handle those scenario's as a LostConnection. if (logEntry.EventType == EventType.LostConnection || logEntry.EventType == EventType.BanKick) { _connectedClientRepository.Delete( logEntry.ClientName, logEntry.ClientIpAndPort); //_unitOfWork.Commit(); // Here, commit #3 ? } _unitOfWork.Commit(); // Here, commit #4 ? transactionScope.Complete(); }

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  • DotNetOpenAuth / WebSecurity Basic Info Exchange

    - by Jammer
    I've gotten a good number of OAuth logins working on my site now. My implementation is based on the WebSecurity classes with amends to the code to suit my needs (I pulled the WebSecurity source into mine). However I'm now facing a new set of problems. In my application I have opted to make the user email address the login identifier of choice. It's naturally unique and suits this use case. However, the OAuth "standards" strikes again. Some providers will return your email address as "username" (Google) some will return the display name (Facebook). As it stands I see to options given my particular scenario: Option 1 Pull even more framework source code into my solution until I can chase down where the OpenIdRelyingParty class is actually interacted with (via the DotNetOpenAuth.AspNet facade) and make addition information requests from the OpenID Providers. Option 2 When a user first logs in using an OpenID provider I can display a kind of "complete registration" form that requests missing info based on the provider selected.* Option 2 is the most immediate and probably the quickest to implement but also includes some code smells through having to do something different based on the provider selected. Option 1 will take longer but will ultimately make things more future proof. I will need to perform richer interactions down the line so this also has an edge in that regard. The more I get into the code it does seem that the WebSecurity class itself is actually very limiting as it hides lots of useful DotNetOpenAuth functionality in the name of making integration easier. Andrew (the author of DNOA) has said that the Attribute Exchange stuff happens in the OpenIdRelyingParty class but I cannot see from the DotNetOpenAuth.AspNet source code where this class is used so I'm unsure of what source would need to be pulled into my code in order to enable the functionality I need. Has anyone completely something similar?

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  • What makes deployment successful for some users and unsuccessful for others?

    - by Julien
    I am trying to deploy a Visual C++ application (developed with Microsoft Visual Studio 2008) using a Setup and Deployment Project. After installation, users on some target computers get the following error message after launching the application executable: “This application has failed to start because the application configuration is incorrect. Reinstalling the application may fix the problem.” Another user after installation could run the application properly. I cannot find the root cause of this problem, despite spending several hours on the Visual Studio help files and online forums (most postings date back to 2006). Does anyone at Stack Overflow have a suggestion? Thanks in advance. Additional details appear below. The application uses FLTK 1.1.9 for a GUI library, as well as some Boost 1.39 libraries (regex, lexical_cast, date_time, math). I made sure I am trying to deploy the release version (not the debug version) of the application. The Runtime library in the Code Generation settings is Multi-threaded DLL (/MD). The dependency walker of myapp.exe lists the following DLLs: wsock32.dll, comctl32.dll, kernel32.dll, user32.dll, gdi32.dll, shell32.dll, ole32.dll, mvcp90.dll, msvcr90.dll. In the Setup and Deployment Project, I add the following DLLs to the File System on Target Machine: fltkdlld.dll, and a folder named Microsoft.VC90.CRT with msvcm90.dll, msvcp90.dll, mcvcr90.dll and Microsoft.VC90.CRT.manifest. The installation process on the target computers getting the error message requires having the .Net Framework 3.5 installed first. Any suggestion? Thanks in advance!

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  • Consolidate multiple site files into single location

    - by seengee
    We have a custom PHP/MySQL CMS running on Linux/Apache thats rolled out to multiple sites (20+) on the same server. Each site uses exactly the same CMS files with a few files for each site being customised. The customised files for each site are: /library/mysql_connect.php /public_html/css/* /public_html/ftparea/* /public_html/images/* There's also a couple of other random files inside /public_html/includes/ that are unique to each site. Other than this each site on the server uses the exact same files. Each site sitting within /home/username/. There is obviously a massive amount of replication here as each time we want to deploy a system update we need to update to each user account. Given the common site files are all stored in SVN it would make far more sense if we were able to simply commit to SVN and deploy to a single location direct from there. Unfortunately, making a major architecture change at this stage could be problematic. In my mind the ideal scenario would mean creating an account like /home/commonfiles/ and each site using these common files unless an account specific file exists, for example a request is made to /home/user/public_html/index.php but as this file doesnt exist the request is then redirected to /home/commonfiles/public_html/index.php. I know that generally this approach is possible, similar to how Zend Framework (and probably others) redirect all requests that dont match a specific file to index.php. I'm just not sure about how exactly to go about implementing it and whether its actually advisable. Would really welcome any input/ideas people have got. Thanks.

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  • Rails: creating a custom data type, to use with generator classes and a bunch of questions related t

    - by Shyam
    Hi, After being productive with Rails for some weeks, I learned some tricks and got some experience with the framework. About 10 days ago, I figured out it is possible to build a custom data type for migrations by adding some code in the Table definition. Also, after learning a bit about floating points (and how evil they are) vs integers, the money gem and other possible solutions, I decided I didn't WANT to use the money gem, but instead try to learn more about programming and finding a solution myself. Some suggestions said that I should be using integers, one for the whole numbers and one for the cents. When playing in script/console, I discovered how easy it is to work with calculations and arrays. But, I am talking to much (and the reason I am, is to give some sufficient background). Right now, while playing with the scaffold generator (yes, I use it, because I like they way I can quickly set up a prototype while I am still researching my objectives), I like to use a DRY method. In my opinion, I should build a custom "object", that can hold two variables (Fixnum), one for the whole, one for the cents. In my big dream, I would be able to do the following: script/generate scaffold Cake name:string description:text cost:mycustom Where mycustom should create two integer columns (one for wholes, one for cents). Right now I could do this by doing: script/generate scaffold Cake name:string description:text cost_w:integer cost_c:integer I had also had an idea that would be creating a "cost model", which would hold two columns of integers and create a cost_id column to my scaffold. But wouldn't that be an extra table that would cause some kind of performance penalty? And wouldn't that be defy the purpose of the Cake model in the first place, because the costs are an attribute of individual Cake entries? The reason why I would want to have such a functionality because I am thinking of having multiple "costs" inside my rails application. Thank you for your feedback, comments and answers! I hope my message got through as understandable, my apologies for incorrect grammar or weird sentences as English is not my native language.

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  • passing data from a servlet to javascript code in an Ajax application ?

    - by A.S al-shammari
    I have a simple jsp/servlet application and I want to add AJAX feature to this app. I use JQuery , but it doesn't matter what javascript framework I use. This is my code: <script type="text/javascript"> function callbackFunction(data){ $('#content').html(data); } $('document').ready(function(){ $('#x').click(function() { $.post('/ajax_2/servlet',callbackFunction) }); }); </script> <body> <a href="#" id="x">Increase it</a> <div id="content"></div> </body> </html> Servlet HttpSession session = request.getSession(); Integer myInteger = (Integer)session.getAttribute("myInteger"); if(myInteger == null) myInteger = new Integer(0); else myInteger = new Integer(myInteger+1); session.setAttribute("myInteger", myInteger); response.getWriter().println(myInteger); The Question: I use out.print to transfer data from a servlet to javascript code (ajax code) , but If I have a complex structure such as Vector of Object or something like this , what is the best way to transfer the data? what about an XML file , JSON ? Is there any special jsp/servlets library to transfer data from a servlet to ajax application ? How can I parse this data in callbackFunction ?

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  • VS2010 development web server does not use integrated-mode HTTP handlers/modules

    - by Domenic
    I am developing an ASP.NET MVC 2 web site, targeted for .NET Framework 4.0, using Visual Studio 2010. My web.config contains the following code: <system.webServer> <modules runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests="true"> <add name="XhtmlModule" type="DomenicDenicola.Website.XhtmlModule" /> </modules> <handlers> <add name="DotLess" type="dotless.Core.LessCssHttpHandler,dotless.Core" path="*.less" verb="*" /> </handlers> </system.webServer> When I use Build > Publish to put the web site on my local IIS7 instance, it works great. However, when I use Debug > Start Debugging, neither the HTTP handler nor module are executed on any requests. Strangely enough, when I put the handler and module <add /> tags back into <system.web /> under <httpHandlers /> and <httpModules />, they work. This seems to imply that the development web server is running in classic mode. How do I fix this?

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  • Flex : providing data with a PHP Class

    - by Tristan
    Hello, i'm a very new user to flex (never use flex, nor flashbuilder, nor action script before), but i want to learn this langage because of the beautiful RIA and chart it can do. I watched the video on adobe : 1 hour to build your first program but i'm stuck : On the video it says that we have to provide a PHP class for accessing data and i used the example that flash builder gave (with zend framework and mysqli). I never used those ones and it makes a lot to learn if i count zen + mysqli. My question is : can i use a PHP class like this one ? What does flash builder except in return ? i hear that was automatic. example it may be wrong, i'm not very familiar with classes when acessing to database : <?php class DBConnection { protected $server = "localhost"; protected $username = "root"; protected $password = "root"; protected $dbname = "something"; protected $connection; function __construct() { $this->connection = mysql_connect($this->server, $this->username, $this->password); mysql_select_db($this->dbname,$this->connection); mysql_query("SET NAMES 'utf8'", $this->connection); } function query($query) { $result = mysql_query($query, $this->connection); if (!$result) { echo 'request error ' . mysql_error($this->connection); exit; } return $result; } function getAll() { $req = "select * from servers"; $result = query($req) return $result } function num_rows() { return mysql_num_rows($result); } function end() { mysql_close($this->connection); } } ?> Thank you,

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  • How do I initialize the controls in an InsertItemTemplate?

    - by Slauma
    I have - for instance - an asp:FormView which supports Read, Insert, Update, Delete and is bound to a DataSource: <asp:FormView ID="FormView1" runat="server" DataSourceID="ObjectDataSource1" > <ItemTemplate> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("MyText") %>' /> </ItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("MyText") %>' /> </EditItemTemplate> <InsertItemTemplate> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("MyText") %>' /> </InsertItemTemplate> </asp:FormView> If I am in Read-Mode or Edit-Mode the control is initialized with the property MyText of the current object which is bound to the FormView. But when I go to Insert-Mode I do not have a "current object" (FormView1.DataItem is indeed null) and the controls are empty. If I want to have my TextBox control initialized with a specific value how can I do that? In which event can I hook in to set default values to the controls in the InsertItemTemplate? Especially I have in mind using an ObjectDataSource. I was expecting that the InsertItemTemplate is initialized with a business object which underlies my ObjectDataSource and which is created by the ASP.NET framework simply by using its default constructor when the InsertItemTemplate gets activated. In the default constructor I would init the class members to the default values I'd like to have in my controls of the InsertItemTemplate. But unfortunately that's not the case: No "default" object is created and bound to the FormView. So it seems I have to initialize all controls separately or to create the default object manually and bind it to the InsertItemTemplate of the FormView. But how and where can I do that? Thanks in advance!

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  • P/Invoke declarations should not be safe-critical

    - by Bobrovsky
    My code imports following native methods: DeleteObject, GetFontData and SelectObject from gdi32.dll GetDC and ReleaseDC from user32.dll I want to run the code in full trust and medium trust environments (I am fine with exceptions being thrown when these imported methods are indirectly used in medium trust environments). When I run Code Analysis on the code I get warnings like: CA5122 P/Invoke declarations should not be safe-critical. P/Invoke method 'GdiFont.DeleteObject(IntPtr)' is marked safe-critical. Since P/Invokes may only be called by critical code, this declaration should either be marked as security critical, or have its annotation removed entirely to avoid being misleading. Could someone explain me (in layman terms) what does this warning really mean? I tried putting these imports in static SafeNativeMethods class as internal static methods but this doesn't make the warnings go away. I didn't try to put them in NativeMethods because after reading this article I am unsure that it's the right way to go because I don't want my code to be completely unusable in medium trust environments (I think this will be the consequence of moving imports to NativeMethods). Honestly, I am pretty much confused about the real meaning of the warning and consequences of different options to suppressing it. Could someone shed some light on all this? EDIT: My code target .NET 2.0 framework. Assembly is marked with [assembly: AllowPartiallyTrustedCallers] Methods are declared like this: [DllImport("gdi32")] internal static extern int DeleteObject(HANDLE hObject);

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