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  • Wait on multiple condition variables on Linux without unnecessary sleeps?

    - by Joseph Garvin
    I'm writing a latency sensitive app that in effect wants to wait on multiple condition variables at once. I've read before of several ways to get this functionality on Linux (apparently this is builtin on Windows), but none of them seem suitable for my app. The methods I know of are: Have one thread wait on each of the condition variables you want to wait on, which when woken will signal a single condition variable which you wait on instead. Cycling through multiple condition variables with a timed wait. Writing dummy bytes to files or pipes instead, and polling on those. #1 & #2 are unsuitable because they cause unnecessary sleeping. With #1, you have to wait for the dummy thread to wake up, then signal the real thread, then for the real thread to wake up, instead of the real thread just waking up to begin with -- the extra scheduler quantum spent on this actually matters for my app, and I'd prefer not to have to use a full fledged RTOS. #2 is even worse, you potentially spend N * timeout time asleep, or your timeout will be 0 in which case you never sleep (endlessly burning CPU and starving other threads is also bad). For #3, pipes are problematic because if the thread being 'signaled' is busy or even crashes (I'm in fact dealing with separate process rather than threads -- the mutexes and conditions would be stored in shared memory), then the writing thread will be stuck because the pipe's buffer will be full, as will any other clients. Files are problematic because you'd be growing it endlessly the longer the app ran. Is there a better way to do this? Curious for answers appropriate for Solaris as well.

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  • Reading a Wordpress function description

    - by Casebash
    I want to be able to understand the standard function description that is provided for Wordpress functions. In particular, could someone explain the following example from here: Usage <?php wp_list_categories( $args ); ?> Default Usage <?php $args = array( 'show_option_all' => , 'orderby' => 'name', 'order' => 'ASC', 'show_last_update' => 0, 'style' => 'list', 'show_count' => 0, 'hide_empty' => 1, 'use_desc_for_title' => 1, 'child_of' => 0, 'feed' => , 'feed_type' => , 'feed_image' => , 'exclude' => , 'exclude_tree' => , 'include' => , 'current_category' => 0, 'hierarchical' => true, 'title_li' => __( 'Categories' ), 'number' => NULL, 'echo' => 1, 'depth' => 0 ); ?> I can guess most of it, but in particular I can't guess: What does blank after the comma mean? Empty string? What is the __? How do I call the function? Keyword like python, positional arguments or do I have to pass an array? Is there anything else about Wordpress function descriptions which isn't covered in this example? Thanks, Chris

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  • ASP.Net MVC 2 - How to set up a Cancel button with client side navigation

    - by arame3333
    Thanks to a previous question I found a useful link on multiple buttons. http://weblogs.asp.net/dfindley/archive/2009/05/31/asp-net-mvc-multiple-buttons-in-the-same-form.aspx What I want to do is have a cancel button on my page, similar to this; <button name="button" type="button" onclick="document.location.href=$('#cancelUrl').attr('href')">Cancel</button> <a id="cancelUrl" href="<%: Url.Action("Index", "Home") %>" style="display:none;"></a> However although this code works, I really want to go back to the previous page. For Web Forms I could use the javascript Back() or Go(-1) functions, but they relied on postbacks. I could of course hard code the previous page and controller as I have done above. However I am struggling to find links that explain to me how Url.Action works. Because if I do this, I also need to include an index parameter, and I am not clear how the syntax works for that. It seems odd the amount of coding to do this. Out of curiosity, I am also wondering how you TDD client side code like this.

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  • Access report not showing data

    - by Brian Smith
    I have two queries that I am using to generate a report from, the problem is when I run the report, three fields do not show any data at all for some reason. Query 1: SELECT ClientSummary.Field3 AS PM, ClientSummary.[Client Nickname 2] AS [Project #], ClientSummary.[Client Nickname 1] AS Customer, ClientSummary.[In Reference To] AS [Job Name], ClientSummary.Field10 AS Contract, (select sum([Billable Slip Value]) from Util_bydate as U1 where U1.[Client Nickname 2] = ClientSummary.[Client Nickname 2]) AS [This Week], (select sum([Billable Slip Value]) from Util as U2 where U2.[Client Nickname 2] = ClientSummary.[Client Nickname 2] ) AS [To Date], [To Date]/[Contract] AS [% Spent], 0 AS Backlog, ClientSummary.[Total Slip Fees & Costs] AS Billed, ClientSummary.Payments AS Paid, ClientSummary.[Total A/R] AS Receivable, [Forms]![ReportMenu]![StartDate] AS [Start Date], [Forms]![ReportMenu]![EndDate] AS [End Date] FROM ClientSummary; Query 2: SELECT JobManagement_Summary.pm, JobManagement_Summary.[project #], JobManagement_Summary.Customer, JobManagement_Summary.[Job Name], JobManagement_Summary.Contract, IIf(IsNull([This Week]),0,[This Week]) AS [N_This Week], IIf(IsNull([To Date]),0,[To Date]) AS [N_To Date], [% Spent], JobManagement_Summary.Backlog, JobManagement_Summary.Billed, JobManagement_Summary.Paid, JobManagement_Summary.Receivable, JobManagement_Summary.[Start Date], JobManagement_Summary.[End Date] FROM JobManagement_Summary; When I run the report from query 2 these 3 fields don't appear. N_This Week, N_To Date and % Spent. All have no data. It isn't the IIF functions, as it doesn't matter if I have those in there or remove them. Any thoughts? If I connect directly to the first recordset it works fine, but then SQL throws the error message: Multi-level GROUP BY cause not allowed in subquery. Is there any way to get around that message to link to it directly or does anyone have ANY clue why these fields are coming back blank? I am at wits end here!

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  • Execute function without sending 'self' to it

    - by Sergey
    Is that possible to define a function without referencing to self this way? def myfunc(var_a,var_b) But so that it could also get sender data, like if I defined it like this: def myfunc(self, var_a,var_b) That self is always the same so it looks a little redundant here always to run a function this way: myfunc(self,'data_a','data_b'). Then I would like to get its data in the function like this sender.fields. UPDATE: Here is some code to understand better what I mean. The class below is used to show a page based on Jinja2 templates engine for users to sign up. class SignupHandler(webapp.RequestHandler): def get(self, *args, **kwargs): utils.render_template(self, 'signup.html') And this code below is a render_template that I created as wrapper to Jinja2 functions to use it more conveniently in my project: def render_template(response, template_name, vars=dict(), is_string=False): template_dirs = [os.path.join(root(), 'templates')] logging.info(template_dirs[0]) env = Environment(loader=FileSystemLoader(template_dirs)) try: template = env.get_template(template_name) except TemplateNotFound: raise TemplateNotFound(template_name) content = template.render(vars) if is_string: return content else: response.response.out.write(content) As I use this function render_template very often in my project and usually the same way, just with different template files, I wondered if there was a way to get rid of having to call it like I do it now, with self as the first argument but still having access to that object.

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  • Deterministic and non uniform long string generation from seed

    - by Limonup
    I had this weird idea for an encryption that I wanted to try out, it may be bad, and it may have done before, but I'm just doing it for fun. The short version of the question is: Is it possible to generate a long, deterministic and non-uniformly distributed string/sequence of numbers from a small seed? Long(er) version: I was thinking to encrypt a text by changing encoding. The new encoding would be generated via Huffman algorithm. To work well, the Huffman algorithm would need a fairly long text with non uniform distribution. Then characters can have different bit-lengths which would be the primary strength of this encryption. The problem is that its impractical to enter in/remember a long text each time you want to decrypt the text. So I was wondering if it was possible to generate a text from password seed? It doesn't matter what the text is, as long as it has non uniform distribution of characters and that the exact same sequence can be recreated each time you give it the same seed. Preferably, are there any functions/extensions in Python that can do this? EDIT: To expand on the "strength" of varying bit length: if I have a string "test", ASCII values 116, 101, 115, 116, which gives bit values of 1110100 1100101 1110011 1110100 Then, say my Huffman algorithm generates encoding like t = 101 e = 1100111 s = 10001 The final string is 101 1100111 10001 101, if we encode this back to ASCII, we get 1011100 1111000 1101000, which is 3 entirely different characters. Obviously its impossible to perform any kind of frequency analysis or something like that on this.

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  • How to debug PHP?

    - by NutMotion
    Anyone's been trying himself at object oriented programming ? Most probably every developer I guess:D I for one have never studied OO design patterns thoroughly, and trying to put it all together now does prove at times thrilling, and many times frustrating also. Even more so when trying to do it in : PHP! All-in-all, my boss asked me to add some Database persistence functions to her server, but most of all, she asked me to translate her already working procedural code into a working Object Oriented code. Here I am, still standing on my PHP OO project. I'm (already) fed up with this "file logging only" PHP capability. I believe there must be some (free or not too much expansive) PHP debugging utility ? I've heard about Zend Studio and PHPEd so far, which didn't quite do the trick for whatever reasons. WIRCW("Which I don't Remember Correctly Why" lol) What say yé? on debugging PHP ? Is there a tool that provides a good debug mode? what's more, don't forget I'm not speaking about the classical web Request/response model. Talking about a debugging facility which can enable you to trigger a web service (aka client request) and go into debug mode on the SOAP web service side. Thks for any input.

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  • ASP.NET MVC WAP, SharePoint Designer and SVN

    - by David Lively
    All, I'm starting a new ASP.NET MVC project which requires some content management capabilities. The people who will be managing the content prefer to use SharePoint Designer (successor to FrontPage) to modify content. I'd like to allow them to keep doing that. The issues are: Since I'd like this to be a WAP, not a website project, how can I allow them to see their changes in action without requiring them to have Visual Studio on their local machines? Can I specify a "default" action for a controller so that given a url like /products/new_view_here Can I let them save pages (views) and see them in the browser without having to go through the check-in/build/deploy process? I'd like their changes to be stored in SVN; SharePoint designer seems to only support Visual SourceSafe (ugh) directly. The ideas I've come up with so far are Write an HTTP handler that implements the FrontPage Server Extensions protocol. This sounds time consuming, but I haven't yet looked at the protocol spec. However, it would allow me to perform whatever operations I want on the server side, including checking files into SVN. Ditch the WAP in favor of a website project. I do not like having the source present on the server, however. Also, will MVC work in a website project? Surely someone has tackled this problem before?

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  • Ideas on frameworks in .NET that can be used for job processing and notifications

    - by Rajat Mehta
    Scenario: We have one instance of WCF windows service which exposes contracts like: AddNewJob(Job job), GetJobs(JobQuery query) etc. This service is consumed by 70-100 instances of client which is Windows Form based .NET app. Typically the service has 50-100 inward calls/minute to add or query jobs that are stored in a table on Sql Server. The same service is also responsible for processing these jobs in real time. It queries database every 5 seconds picks up the queued jobs and starts processing them. A job has 6 states. Queued, Pre-processing, Processing, Post-processing, Completed, Failed, Locked. Another responsibility on this service is to update all clients on every state change of every job. This means almost 200+ callbacks to clients per second. Question: This whole implementation is done using WCF Duplex bindings and works perfectly fine on small number of parallel jobs. Problem arises when we scale it up to 1000 jobs at a time. The notifications don't work as expected, it leads to memory overflow etc. Is there any standard framework that can provide a clean infrastructure for handling this scenario?? Apologies for the long explanation!

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  • Moving .NET assemblies away from the application base directory?

    - by RasmusKL
    I have a WinForms application with a bunch of third party references. This makes the output folder quite messy. I'd like to place the compiled / referenced dlls into a common subdirectory in the output folder, bin / lib - whatever - and just have the executables (+ needed configs etc) reside in the output folder. After some searching I ran into assembly probing (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/4191fzwb.aspx) - and verified that if I set this up and manually move the assemblies my application will still work if they are stored in the designated subdirectory like so: <configuration> <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <probing privatePath="bin" /> </assemblyBinding> </runtime> </configuration> However, this doesn't solve the build part - is there any way to specify where referenced assemblies and compiled library assemblies go? Only solutions I can think of off the top of my head is either post-build actions or dropping the idea and using ILMerge or something. There has got to be a better way of defining the structure :-)

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  • Need some help with a MySQL subquery count

    - by Ferdy
    I'm running into my own limits of MySQL query skills, so I hope some SQL guru can help out on this one. The situation is as follow: I have images that can be tagged. As you might expect this is stored in three tables: Image Tag Tag_map (maps images to tags) I have a SQL query that calculates the related tags based on a tag id. The query basically checks what other tags were used for images for images using that tag. Example: Image1 tagged as "Bear" Image2 tagged as "Bear" and "Canada" If I throw "Bear" (or its tag id) at the query, it will return "Canada". This works fine. Here's the query: SELECT tag.name, tag.id, COUNT(tag_map.id) as cnt FROM tag_map,tag WHERE tag_map.tag_id = tag.id AND tag.id != '185' AND tag_map.image_id IN (SELECT tag_map.image_id FROM tag_map INNER JOIN tag ON tag_map.tag_id = tag.id WHERE tag.id = '185') GROUP BY tag_map.id LIMIT 0,100 The part I'm stuck with is the count. For each related tag returned, I want to know how many images are in that tag. Currently it always returns 1, even if there are for example 3. I've tried counting different columns all resulting in the same output, so I guess there is a flaw in my thinking.

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  • Ajax Javascript method cannot be called

    - by blackmage
    I made this method to load javascript functions dynamically. It does include the .js file but when I call a method, the method says that it is undefinited. The following to .js files are ajax_object.js and user_manager.js . The alert outside the function is read and works but the alert inside does not. enter code here //ajax_object.js //Load a javascript library function loadJavascript( src, url ){ XMLHttpRequestObject=getXmlHttpRequestObject(); if( XMLHttpRequestObject){ XMLHttpRequestObject.onreadystatechange = function() { if (XMLHttpRequestObject.readyState == 4 ){ if (XMLHttpRequestObject.status == 200 || XMLHttpRequestObject.status == 304) { includeJavaScript( src, url, XMLHttpRequestObject.responseText ); } } } } XMLHttpRequestObject.open('GET', url, true); XMLHttpRequestObject.send(null); }//end LoadJavaScript //Add Library to header function includeJavaScript(src, fileUrl, xmlObject) { if ( ( xmlObject != null ) && ( !document.getElementById( src ) ) ){ var documentHead = document.getElementsByTagName('HEAD').item(0); var includeScript = document.createElement( "script" ); includeScript.language = "javascript"; includeScript.type = "text/javascript"; //includeScript.id = src; includeScript.src=fileUrl.concat(src); includeScript.defer = true; includeScript.text = xmlObject; documentHead.appendChild( includeScript ); } } //user_manager.js //First alert is read alert("Outside User Manager"); function selectUserManagerModuleType(){ XMLHttpRequestObject=getXmlHttpRequestObject(); //This doesn't work //throws selectUserManagerModuleType undefined alert("Inside The User Manager"); }

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  • How can I SETF an element in a tree by an accessor?

    - by Willi Ballenthin
    We've been using Lisp in my AI course. The assignments I've received have involved searching and generating tree-like structures. For each assignment, I've ended up writing something like: (defun initial-state () (list 0 ; score nil ; children 0 ; value 0)) ; something else and building my functions around these "states", which are really just nested lists with some loosely defined structure. To make the structure more rigid, I've tried to write accessors, such as: (defun state-score ( state ) (nth 2 state)) This works for reading the value (which should be all I need to do in a nicely functional world. However, as time crunches, and I start to madly hack, sometimes I want a mutable structure). I don't seem to be able to SETF the returned ...thing (place? value? pointer?). I get an error with something like: (setf (state-score *state*) 10) Sometimes I seem to have a little more luck writing the accessor/mutator as a macro: (defmacro state-score ( state ) `(nth 2 ,state)) However I don't know why this should be a macro, so I certainly shouldn't write it as a macro (except that sometimes it works. Programming by coincidence is bad). What is an appropriate strategy to build up such structures? More importantly, where can I learn about whats going on here (what operations affect the memory in what way)?

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  • Synchronizing Access to a member of the ASP.NET session

    - by Sam
    I'm building a Javascript application and eash user has an individual UserSession. The application makes a bunch of Ajax calls. Each Ajax call needs access to a single UserSession object for the user. Each Ajax call needs a UserSession object. Data in the UserSession object is unique to each user. Originally, during each Ajax call I would create a new UserSession object and it's data members were stored in the ASP.NET Session. However, I found that the UserSession object was being instantiated a lot. To minimize the construction of the UserSession object, I wrapped it in a Singleton pattern and sychronized access to it. I believe that the synchronization is happening application wide, however I only need it to happen per user. I saw a post here that says the ASP.NET cache is synchronized, however the time between creating the object and inserting it into the cache another Thread could start construction it's another object and insert it into the cache. Here is the way I'm currently synchronizing access to the object. Is there a better way than using "lock"... should be be locking on the HttpContext.Session object? private static object SessionLock = new object(); public static WebSession GetSession { get { lock (SessionLock) { try { var context = HttpContext.Current; WebSession result = null; if (context.Session["MySession"] == null) { result = new WebSession(context); context.Session["MySession"] = result; } else { result = (WebSession)context.Session["MySession"]; } return result; } catch (Exception ex) { ex.Handle(); return null; } } } }

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  • Zend_Date and Zend Locale; can't get it to work ><

    - by Rick de Graaf
    Loving Zend Framework, hating Zend_Date... I'm buidling an app where one of the functions is to track the time one spends on a certain task. This works great. My previous question was my incapability to get the sum of all the timestamps (time spent on each task). Well that works as a charm, but when I echo this value, it adds one hour. Using gmdate() (just for checking) and the value turns out exactly as it's supposed to. I thought to solve this problem easeliy with Zend_Local, but I can't get the damn thing to work! This is my bootstrap code: protected function _initLocale() { $locale = new Zend_Locale('nl_NL'); $locale->setLocale($locale); Zend_Registry::set('Zend_Locale', $locale); } This is the code in my view file: $date = new Zend_Date($this->timequery, null, $locale); echo $date->toString(Zend_Date::HOUR.':'.Zend_Date::MINUTE.':'.Zend_Date::SECOND); The timestamp I'm processing is: 2632 which equals 00:43:52. The output I get is: 01:43:52 I know the extra hour comes from the time difference, but I can seem to solve this with Zend_Local and Zend_Date.

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  • C: 8x8 -> 16 bit multiply precision guaranteed by integer promotions?

    - by craig-blome
    I'm trying to figure out if the C Standard (C90, though I'm working off Derek Jones' annotated C99 book) guarantees that I will not lose precision multiplying two unsigned 8-bit values and storing to a 16-bit result. An example statement is as follows: unsigned char foo; unsigned int foo_u16 = foo * 10; Our Keil 8051 compiler (v7.50 at present) will generate a MUL AB instruction which stores the MSB in the B register and the LSB in the accumulator. If I cast foo to a unsigned int first: unsigned int foo_u16 = (unsigned int)foo * 10; then the compiler correctly decides I want a unsigned int there and generates an expensive call to a 16x16 bit integer multiply routine. I would like to argue beyond reasonable doubt that this defensive measure is not necessary. As I read the integer promotions described in 6.3.1.1, the effect of the first line shall be as if foo and 10 were promoted to unsigned int, the multiplication performed, and the result stored as unsigned int in foo_u16. If the compiler knows an instruction that does 8x8-16 bit multiplications without loss of precision, so much the better; but the precision is guaranteed. Am I reading this correctly? Best regards, Craig Blome

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  • using volatile keyword

    - by sap
    As i understand, if we declare a variable as volatile, then it will not be stored in the local cache. Whenever thread are updating the values, it is updated to the main memory. So, other threads can access the updated value. But in the following program both volatile and non-volatile variables are displaying same value. The volatile variable is not updated for the second thread. Can anybody plz explain this why testValue is not changed. class ExampleThread extends Thread { private int testValue1; private volatile int testValue; public ExampleThread(String str){ super(str); } public void run() { if (getName().equals("Thread 1 ")) { testValue = 10; testValue1= 10; System.out.println( "Thread 1 testValue1 : " + testValue1); System.out.println( "Thread 1 testValue : " + testValue); } if (getName().equals("Thread 2 ")) { System.out.println( "Thread 2 testValue1 : " + testValue1); System.out.println( "Thread 2 testValue : " + testValue); } } } public class VolatileExample { public static void main(String args[]) { new ExampleThread("Thread 1 ").start(); new ExampleThread("Thread 2 ").start(); } } output: Thread 1 testValue1 : 10 Thread 1 testValue : 10 Thread 2 testValue1 : 0 Thread 2 testValue : 0

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  • TSQL - make a literal float value

    - by David B
    I understand the host of issues in comparing floats, and lament their use in this case - but I'm not the table author and have only a small hurdle to climb... Someone has decided to use floats as you'd expect GUIDs to be used. I need to retrieve all the records with a specific float value. sp_help MyTable -- Column_name Type Computed Length Prec -- RandomGrouping float no 8 53 Here's my naive attempt: --yields no results SELECT RandomGrouping FROM MyTable WHERE RandomGrouping = 0.867153569942739 And here's an approximately working attempt: --yields 2 records SELECT RandomGrouping FROM MyTable WHERE RandomGrouping BETWEEN 0.867153569942739 - 0.00000001 AND 0.867153569942739 + 0.00000001 -- 0.867153569942739 -- 0.867153569942739 In my naive attempt, is that literal a floating point literal? Or is it really a decimal literal that gets converted later? If my literal is not a floating point literal, what is the syntax for making a floating point literal? EDIT: Another possibility has occurred to me... it may be that a more precise number than is displayed is stored in this column. It may be impossible to create a literal that represents this number. I will accept answers that demonstrate that this is the case. EDIT: response to DVK. TSQL is MSSQLServer's dialect of SQL. This script works, and so equality can be performed deterministically between float types: DECLARE @X float SELECT top 1 @X = RandomGrouping FROM MyTable WHERE RandomGrouping BETWEEN 0.839110948199148 - 0.000000000001 AND 0.839110948199148 + 0.000000000001 --yields two records SELECT * FROM MyTable WHERE RandomGrouping = @X I said "approximately" because that method tests for a range. With that method I could get values that are not equal to my intended value. The linked article doesn't apply because I'm not (intentionally) trying to straddle the world boundaries between decimal and float. I'm trying to work with only floats. This isn't about the non-convertibility of decimals to floats.

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  • jscript1.js error in webforms when applying routing

    - by Sean N
    Hello I have a project using webforms. I applied routing on one of the page. My route is structure like this : http://localhost:3576/Request/Admin/Rejected/ = http://localhost:3576/Request/{role}/{action}/{id} Everything works great but i have a javascript error: Webpage error details User Agent: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 8.0; Windows NT 5.1; Trident/4.0; .NET CLR 1.1.4322; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 3.0.04506.30; .NET CLR 3.0.04506.648; .NET CLR 3.5.21022; InfoPath.2; .NET CLR 3.0.4506.2152; .NET CLR 3.5.30729) Timestamp: Fri, 7 May 2010 13:35:54 UTC Message: Syntax error Line: 3 Char: 1 Code: 0 URI: http://localhost:3576/Request/Admin/Rejected/JScript1.js I think it's trying to route to the file where i stored my javascript functions. Any suggestion?

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  • Dual usage of asp.net mvc and php under same domain

    - by jim
    Hello all, I've got a scenario where we have a customer who has a linux hosted php app (joomla) that they wish to integrate with some back-end asp.net mvc functionality that was created for a 'sister' site. Basically, the mvc site has prices and stock availability methods which (in the sister site) populates dropdown lists and other 'order' style info on the pages. I've been tasked with looking at the integration options to allow the php site to use this info as a 'service'. (as ever, these guys are looking at cost of ownership, maintenence etc, so this is their preferred route) Has anyone done anything similar with success?? I'd imagine (much like the sister site) liberal doses of ajax will be employed in order to populate portions of the page on demand. So this may have a bearing on any suggestions that you may have. Also, the methods that are being called ultimately end up populating the same database, so there are no issues with correlating the ID's across the different platforms. I don't really want to go down any 'iframe' type route if at all possible, tho' reality may dictate this as being an option. I'm possibly (naively) imagining that i could simply invoke the mvc functions directly from the php app with some sort of 'session' variable being passed for authentication. pretty tall order or pretty straightfwd?? cheers jim

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  • How do I design a Wizard-based system with SoC in mind?

    - by Erik Forbes
    I'm building a Windows Forms system (in C# if it matters to anyone) that provides an application automation service. As this application is targeted at users who are not computer savvy, I've decided to break up the functions of the application into various tasks, and provide these tasks via a wizard UI. I'd like to avoid coupling the views and view engine (from which the Wizard will be built) to the automation engine. The problem I'm having is that the automation engine, which runs on a separate thread while it does its thing, needs to report status information back to the user, as well as listen for cancel or pause events from the user. Since I don't want the view engine or the automation engine to rely on each other, I'm having a hard time figuring out how to provide for this information conduit. Any insights into this issue I'm having would be greatly appreciated. I've been wracking my brain for a couple weeks now on this point, and I really don't want to give up and just couple everything together. If anyone needs additional details to help come up with some sort of idea please let me know and I'll be happy to provide them.

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  • How can I alter an external variable from inside my AJAX?

    - by tmedge
    I keep on having these same two problems. I have been trying to use Remy Sharp's wonderful tagSuggest plugin, and it works great. Until I try to use an AJAX call to get tags from my database. My setGlobalTags() works great, with my defined myTagList at the top of the function. What I want to do is set myTagList equal to the result from my AJAX. My problem is that I can neither call setGlobalTags() from inside my success or error functions, nor actually alter the original myTagList. Also, I keep on having this other issue as well. I keep this code in my Master page, and my AJAX returns 'success' on almost every page. I only (and always) get the error alert when I navigate to a page that actually contains something of id="ParentTags". I don't see why this is happening, because my $('#ParentTags').tagSuggest(); is definitely after my AJAX call. I realize that this is probably just some dumb conventions error, but I am new to this and I'm here to learn from you guys. Thanks in advance! $(function() { var myTagList = ['test', 'testMore', 'testALot']; $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: 'Admin/GetTagList', dataType: 'json', success: function(resultTags) { myTagList = resultTags; alert(myTagList[0]); setGlobalTags(myTagList); }, error: function() { alert('Error'); setGlobalTags(myTagList); } }); setGlobalTags(myTagList); $('#ParentTags').tagSuggest(); });

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  • Returning true or error message in Ruby

    - by seaneshbaugh
    I'm wondering if writing functions like this is considered good or bad form. def test(x) if x == 1 return true else return "Error: x is not equal to one." end end And then to use it we do something like this: result = test(1) if result != true puts result end result = test(2) if result != true puts result end Which just displays the error message for the second call to test. I'm considering doing this because in a rails project I'm working on inside my controller code I make calls to a model's instance methods and if something goes wrong I want the model to return the error message to the controller and the controller takes that error message and puts it in the flash and redirects. Kinda like this def create @item = Item.new(params[:item]) if [email protected]? result = @item.save_image(params[:attachment][:file]) if result != true flash[:notice] = result redirect_to(new_item_url) and return end #and so on... That way I'm not constructing the error messages in the controller, merely passing them along, because I really don't want the controller to be concerned with what the save_image method itself does just whether or not it worked. It makes sense to me, but I'm curious as to whether or not this is considered a good or bad way of writing methods. Keep in mind I'm asking this in the most general sense pertaining mostly to ruby, it just happens that I'm doing this in a rails project, the actual logic of the controller really isn't my concern.

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  • In app purchase on iphone.: How to receive your available products *before* someone may be able to b

    - by Thorsten S.
    Currently I am loading my supported products from a plist and after that I send a SKProductsRequest to guarantee that my SKProducts are still valid. So I set up the request, start it and get the response in: (void)productsRequest:(SKProductsRequest *)request didReceiveResponse:(SKProductsResponse *)response Now, so far all functions correctly. Problem: From calling the request until receiving the response it may last several seconds. Until that my app is already loaded and the user may be able to choose and buy a product. But because no products have been received, the available products are not in sync with the validated products - unlikely, but possible error. So my idea is to wait until the data is loaded and only continue when the list is validated. (Just a few seconds waiting...). I have a singleton instance managing all products. + (MyClass *) sharedInstance { if (!sharedInstance) sharedInstance = [MyClass new]; // Now wait until we have our data [condition lock]; while (noEntriesYet) // is yes at begin [condition wait]; [condition unlock]; return sharedInstance; } - productsRequest: didReceiveResponse: { [condition lock]; // I have my data noEntriesYet = false; [condition signal]; [condition unlock]; } Problem: The app freezes. Everything works fine if didReceiveResponse is completed before the sharedInstance is queried. There are different threads, the lock is working if wait is reached during didReceiveResponse, everything fine. But if not, didReceiveResponse is never called even if the request was sent. The lock is released, everything looks ok. I have tried to send the product request in a separate NSThread, with NSOperationQueue...without avail. Why ? What is happening ? How to solve the problem ?

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  • SQL Distinct keyword in assignment statement

    - by Brandi
    I have a query that works: DECLARE @ProductID int SET @ProductID = '1234' SELECT DISTINCT TOP 12 a.ProductID FROM A a WHERE a.CategoryID IN (SELECT b.CategoryID FROM B b WHERE b.ProductID = @ProductID) AND a.ProductID != @ProductID It returns a list of 12 product numbers, all unique. I need to store these results in a variable, comma separated, because that's what 3rd party stored procedure needs. So I have this: DECLARE @ProductID int DECLARE @relatedprods varchar(8000) SET @ProductID = '1234' SET @relatedprods = '' SELECT TOP 12 @relatedprods = @relatedprods + CONVERT(VARCHAR(20), a.ProductID) + ', ' FROM A a WHERE a.CategoryID IN (SELECT b.CategoryID FROM B b WHERE B.ProductID = @ProductID) AND a.ProductID != @ProductID SELECT @relatedprods Now, none of these are distinct, but it is returning 12 rows. Now I add the 'distinct' back in, like in the first query: DECLARE @ProductID int DECLARE @relatedprods varchar(8000) SET @ProductID = '1234' SET @relatedprods = '' SELECT DISTINCT TOP 12 @relatedprods = @relatedprods + CONVERT(VARCHAR(20), a.ProductID) + ', ' FROM A a WHERE a.CategoryID IN (SELECT b.CategoryID FROM B b WHERE B.ProductID = @ProductID) AND a.ProductID != @ProductID SELECT @relatedprods Only one product is returned in the comma separated list! Does 'distinct' not work in assignment statements? What did I do wrong? Or is there a way to get around this? Thanks in advance!

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