Search Results

Search found 17501 results on 701 pages for 'stored functions'.

Page 567/701 | < Previous Page | 563 564 565 566 567 568 569 570 571 572 573 574  | Next Page >

• Is there a way to toggle bluetooth and/or wifi on and off programatically in iOS?

  - by Andy W

  I am looking for an easy way to toggle both bluetooth and wifi between on and off states on iOS 4.x devices (iPhone and iPad). I am constantly toggling these functions as I move between different locations and usage scenarios, and right now it takes multiple taps and visits to the Settings App. I am looking to create a simple App, that lives on Springboard, that I can just tap and it will turn off the wifi if it's on, and vice versa, then immediately quit. Similarly with an App for toggling bluetooth’s state. I have the developer SDK, and am comfortable in Xcode and with iOS development, so am happy to write the required Xcode to create the App. I am just at a loss as to which API, private or not, has the required functionality to simply toggle the state of these facilities. Because this is scratching a very personal itch, I have no intent to try and sell the App or get it up on the App store, so conforming with App guidelines on API usage is a non-issue. What I don’t want to do is jailbreak the devices, as I want to keep the core software as shipped. Can anyone point me at some sample code or more info on achieving this goal, as my Google-fu is letting me down, and if the information is out there for 4.x devices I just can’t find it.

  Read the article

• Wait on multiple condition variables on Linux without unnecessary sleeps?

  - by Joseph Garvin

  I'm writing a latency sensitive app that in effect wants to wait on multiple condition variables at once. I've read before of several ways to get this functionality on Linux (apparently this is builtin on Windows), but none of them seem suitable for my app. The methods I know of are: Have one thread wait on each of the condition variables you want to wait on, which when woken will signal a single condition variable which you wait on instead. Cycling through multiple condition variables with a timed wait. Writing dummy bytes to files or pipes instead, and polling on those. #1 & #2 are unsuitable because they cause unnecessary sleeping. With #1, you have to wait for the dummy thread to wake up, then signal the real thread, then for the real thread to wake up, instead of the real thread just waking up to begin with -- the extra scheduler quantum spent on this actually matters for my app, and I'd prefer not to have to use a full fledged RTOS. #2 is even worse, you potentially spend N * timeout time asleep, or your timeout will be 0 in which case you never sleep (endlessly burning CPU and starving other threads is also bad). For #3, pipes are problematic because if the thread being 'signaled' is busy or even crashes (I'm in fact dealing with separate process rather than threads -- the mutexes and conditions would be stored in shared memory), then the writing thread will be stuck because the pipe's buffer will be full, as will any other clients. Files are problematic because you'd be growing it endlessly the longer the app ran. Is there a better way to do this? Curious for answers appropriate for Solaris as well.

  Read the article

• ASP.NET MVC WAP, SharePoint Designer and SVN

  - by David Lively

  All, I'm starting a new ASP.NET MVC project which requires some content management capabilities. The people who will be managing the content prefer to use SharePoint Designer (successor to FrontPage) to modify content. I'd like to allow them to keep doing that. The issues are: Since I'd like this to be a WAP, not a website project, how can I allow them to see their changes in action without requiring them to have Visual Studio on their local machines? Can I specify a "default" action for a controller so that given a url like /products/new_view_here Can I let them save pages (views) and see them in the browser without having to go through the check-in/build/deploy process? I'd like their changes to be stored in SVN; SharePoint designer seems to only support Visual SourceSafe (ugh) directly. The ideas I've come up with so far are Write an HTTP handler that implements the FrontPage Server Extensions protocol. This sounds time consuming, but I haven't yet looked at the protocol spec. However, it would allow me to perform whatever operations I want on the server side, including checking files into SVN. Ditch the WAP in favor of a website project. I do not like having the source present on the server, however. Also, will MVC work in a website project? Surely someone has tackled this problem before?

  Read the article

• C: 8x8 -> 16 bit multiply precision guaranteed by integer promotions?

  - by craig-blome

  I'm trying to figure out if the C Standard (C90, though I'm working off Derek Jones' annotated C99 book) guarantees that I will not lose precision multiplying two unsigned 8-bit values and storing to a 16-bit result. An example statement is as follows: unsigned char foo; unsigned int foo_u16 = foo * 10; Our Keil 8051 compiler (v7.50 at present) will generate a MUL AB instruction which stores the MSB in the B register and the LSB in the accumulator. If I cast foo to a unsigned int first: unsigned int foo_u16 = (unsigned int)foo * 10; then the compiler correctly decides I want a unsigned int there and generates an expensive call to a 16x16 bit integer multiply routine. I would like to argue beyond reasonable doubt that this defensive measure is not necessary. As I read the integer promotions described in 6.3.1.1, the effect of the first line shall be as if foo and 10 were promoted to unsigned int, the multiplication performed, and the result stored as unsigned int in foo_u16. If the compiler knows an instruction that does 8x8-16 bit multiplications without loss of precision, so much the better; but the precision is guaranteed. Am I reading this correctly? Best regards, Craig Blome

  Read the article

• Stubbing an ActsAs Rails Plugin

  - by Rabbott

  I need to create a plugin much like Authlogic (or even just add on to Authlogic), but due to requirements beyond my control I need my plugin to authenticate using SOAP. Basically the plugin would require that anyone accessing the controller (before_filter would be fine) would have to authenticate first. I have ZERO control over the login page, or the SOAP server, I am simply a client attempting to authenticate to the providers SOAP Web Service. Here is what happens.. before_filter realizes that no session[:credential] is set, and forwards the user to the url on the providers servers. The user enters their credentials, and once authenticated, the web service forwards the user to a URL that has been entered by their sysadmins, attaching a token to the url on its way back. I need to take that token, append it to some parameters stored in a local YAML file, and make the SOAP call to the providers server. If all goes as planned, I need to set session[:credential] to the result of the SOAP call, and forward the user to the root page. Subsequent calls to the before_filter will not make the SOAP call, because session[:credential] is set. Ideally I think this would be awesome to slap on top of Authlogic, but I'm not sure how to do this, So I started to create my own acts_as_soap_authentic plugin, which isn't causing errors, but doesn't do anything.. Anyone have any pointers, or tips as to how I can get the ball rolling here? It seems simple, but is proving not to be..

  Read the article

• How to open the download window when a dynamically created link is clicked in asp.net

  - by Ranjana

  i have stored the txtfile in the database.i need to show the txtfile when i clik the link. and this link has to be created dynamically. my code below: aspx code: aspx.cs protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if(!Page.IsPostBack) { DataTable dtassignment = new DataTable(); dtassignment = serviceobj.DisplayAssignment(Session["staffname"].ToString()); if (dtassignment != null) { Byte[] bytes = (Byte[])dtassignment.Rows[0]["Data"]; //download(dtassignment); } divlink.InnerHtml = ""; divlink.Visible = true; foreach (DataRow r in dtassignment.Rows) { divlink.InnerHtml += "<a href='" + "'onclick='download(dtassignment)'>" + r["Filename"].ToString() + "</a>" + "<br/>"; } } } - public void download(DataTable dtassignment) { System.Diagnostics.Debugger.Break(); Byte[] bytes = (Byte[])dtassignment.Rows[0]["Data"]; Response.Buffer = true; Response.Charset = ""; Response.Cache.SetCacheability(HttpCacheability.NoCache); Response.ContentType = dtassignment.Rows[0]["ContentType"].ToString(); Response.AddHeader("content-disposition", "attachment;filename=" + dtassignment.Rows[0]["FileName"].ToString()); Response.BinaryWrite(bytes); Response.Flush(); Response.End(); } i have got the link dynamically, but i did not able to download the txtfile when i clik the link. how to carry out this. pls help me out...

  Read the article

• What is jasper report's algorithm for using a data source?

  - by spderosso

  Hi, I have created my custom data source by implementing the interface JRDataSource. This interface looks like this: public interface JRDataSource { /** * Tries to position the cursor on the next element in the data source. * @return true if there is a next record, false otherwise * @throws JRException if any error occurs while trying to move to the next element */ public boolean next() throws JRException; /** * Gets the field value for the current position. * @return an object containing the field value. The object type must be the field object type. */ public Object getFieldValue(JRField jrField) throws JRException; } My question is the following: In what way does jasper report call this functions for obtaining the fields in the .jrxml. E.g: if( next() )){ call getFieldValue for every field present in the page header while( next() ){ call getFieldValue for every field present in detail part } call getFieldValue for every field present the footer } The previous is just an example, experimentally in fact I found out that it is actually not like that. So my question arised. Thanks!

  Read the article

• Different EF Property DataType than Storage Layer Possible?

  - by dj_kyron

  Hi, I am putting together a WCF Data Service for PatientEntities using Entity Framework. My solution needs to address these requirements: Property DateOfBirth of entity Patient is stored in SQL Server as string. It would be ideal if the entity class did not also use the "string" type but rather a DateTime type. (I would expect this to be possible since we're abstracting away from the storage layer). Where could a conversion mechanism be put in place that would convert to and from DateTime/string so that the entity and SQL Server are in sync?. I cannot change the storage layer's structure, so I have to work around it. WCF Data Services (Read-only, so no need for saving changes) need to be used since clients will be able to use LINQ expressions to consume the service. They can generate results based on any given query scenario they need and not be constrained by a single method such as GetPatient(int ID). I've tried to use DTOs, but run into problem of mapping the ObjectContext to a DTO, I don't think that is theoretically possible...or too complicated if it is. I've tried to use Self Tracking Entities but they require the metadata from the .edmx file if I'm correct, and this isn't allowing a different property data type. I also want to add customizations to my Entity getter methods so that a property "MRN" of type "string" needs to have .Replace("MR~", string.Empty) performed before it is returned. I can add this to the getter methods but the problem with that is Entity Framework will overwrite that next time it refreshes the entity classes. Is there a permanent place I can put these? Should I use POCO instead? How would that work with WCF Data Services? Where would the service grab the metadata?

  Read the article

• Use Javascript RegEx to extract column names from SQLite Create Table SQL

  - by NimbusSoftware

  I'm trying to extract column names from a SQLite result set from sqlite_master's sql column. I get hosed up in the regular expressions in the match() and split() functions. t1.executeSql('SELECT name, sql FROM sqlite_master WHERE type="table" and name!="__WebKitDatabaseInfoTable__";', [], function(t1, result) { for(i = 0;i < result.rows.length; i++){ var tbl = result.rows.item(i).name; var dbSchema = result.rows.item(i).sql; // errors out on next line var columns = dbSchema.match(/.*CREATE\s+TABLE\s+(\S+)\s+\((.*)\).*/)[2].split(/\s+[^,]+,?\s*/); } }, function(){console.log('err1');} ); I want to parse SQL statements like these... CREATE TABLE sqlite_sequence(name,seq); CREATE TABLE tblConfig (Key TEXT NOT NULL,Value TEXT NOT NULL); CREATE TABLE tblIcon (IconID INTEGER NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY,png TEXT NOT NULL,img32 TEXT NOT NULL,img64 TEXT NOT NULL,Version TEXT NOT NULL) into a strings like theses... name,seq Key,Value IconID,png,img32,img64,Version Any help with a RegEx would be greatly appreciated.

  Read the article

• Compile time float packing/punning

  - by detly

  I'm writing C for the PIC32MX, compiled with Microchip's PIC32 C compiler (based on GCC 3.4). My problem is this: I have some reprogrammable numeric data that is stored either on EEPROM or in the program flash of the chip. This means that when I want to store a float, I have to do some type punning: typedef union { int intval; float floatval; } IntFloat; unsigned int float_as_int(float fval) { IntFloat intf; intf.floatval = fval; return intf.intval; } // Stores an int of data in whatever storage we're using void StoreInt(unsigned int data, unsigned int address); void StoreFPVal(float data, unsigned int address) { StoreInt(float_as_int(data), address); } I also include default values as an array of compile time constants. For (unsigned) integer values this is trivial, I just use the integer literal. For floats, though, I have to use this Python snippet to convert them to their word representation to include them in the array: import struct hex(struct.unpack("I", struct.pack("f", float_value))[0]) ...and so my array of defaults has these indecipherable values like: const unsigned int DEFAULTS[] = { 0x00000001, // Some default integer value, 1 0x3C83126F, // Some default float value, 0.005 } (These actually take the form of X macro constructs, but that doesn't make a difference here.) Commenting is nice, but is there a better way? It's be great to be able to do something like: const unsigned int DEFAULTS[] = { 0x00000001, // Some default integer value, 1 COMPILE_TIME_CONVERT(0.005), // Some default float value, 0.005 } ...but I'm completely at a loss, and I don't even know if such a thing is possible. Notes Obviously "no, it isn't possible" is an acceptable answer if true. I'm not overly concerned about portability, so implementation defined behaviour is fine, undefined behaviour is not (I have the IDB appendix sitting in front of me). As fas as I'm aware, this needs to be a compile time conversion, since DEFAULTS is in the global scope. Please correct me if I'm wrong about this.

  Read the article

• Setting javascript prototype function within object class declaration

  - by Tauren

  Normally, I've seen prototype functions declared outside the class definition, like this: function Container(param) { this.member = param; } Container.prototype.stamp = function (string) { return this.member + string; } var container1 = new Container('A'); alert(container1.member); alert(container1.stamp('X')); This code produces two alerts with the values "A" and "AX". I'd like to define the prototype function INSIDE of the class definition. Is there anything wrong with doing something like this? function Container(param) { this.member = param; if (!Container.prototype.stamp) { Container.prototype.stamp = function() { return this.member + string; } } } I was trying this so that I could access a private variable in the class. But I've discovered that if my prototype function references a private var, the value of the private var is always the value that was used when the prototype function was INITIALLY created, not the value in the object instance: Container = function(param) { this.member = param; var privateVar = param; if (!Container.prototype.stamp) { Container.prototype.stamp = function(string) { return privateVar + this.member + string; } } } var container1 = new Container('A'); var container2 = new Container('B'); alert(container1.stamp('X')); alert(container2.stamp('X')); This code produces two alerts with the values "AAX" and "ABX". I was hoping the output would be "AAX" and "BBX". I'm curious why this doesn't work, and if there is some other pattern that I could use instead.

  Read the article

• How to store an inventory using hashtables?

  - by Harm De Weirdt

  Hello everyone. For an assignment in collego we have to make a script in Perl that allows us to manage an inventory for an e-store. (The example given was Amazon) Users can make orders in a fully text-based environment and the inventory must be updated when an order is completed. Every item in the inventory has 3 to 4 attributes: a product code, a title, a price and for some an amount (MP3's for example do not have this attribute) Since this is my first encounter with Perl, i don't really know how to start. My main problem is how i should "implement" the inventory in the program. One of the functions of the program is searching trough the titles. Another is to make an order, where the user should give a product code. My first idea was a hashtable with the productcode as key. But if i wanted to search in the titles that could be a problem because of this: the hashkey would be something like DVD-123, the information belonging to that key could be "The Green Mask 12" (without the ") where the 12 indicates how many of this DVD are currently in stock. So i'd have to find a way to ignore the 12 in the end. Another solution was to use the title as Hashkey, but that would prove cumbersome too I think. Is there a way to make a hashtable with 2 key's, and when I give only one it returns an array with the other values? (Including the other key and the other information) That way I could use another key depending on what info I need from my inventory. We have to read the default inventory from a txt file looking like this: MP3-72|Lady Gaga - Kiss and Run (Fear of Commitment Monster)|0.99 CD-400|Kings of Leon - Only By The Night|14.50|2 MP3-401|Kings of Leon - Closer|0.85 DVD-144|Live Free or Die Hard|14.99|2 SOFT-864|Windows Vista|49.95 Any help would be appreciated very much :) PS: I am sorry for my bad grammar, English isn't my native language.

  Read the article

• Fastcgi 500 error on preg_match_all in PHP

  - by Bertvan

  Hi, I'm trying to set up some exotic PHP code (I'm no expert), and I get a FastCGI Error 500 on a PHP line containing 'preg_match_all'. When I comment out the line, the page is returned with a 200 (but not how it was meant to be). The code is parsing php, html and javascript content loaded from the database and is composing them to return the finished page. Now, by placing around some error_log entries I could determine that the line with the preg_match_all is the cause of the 500. However the line is hit multiple times during the loading of the page and on other occasions, the line does not cause an error. Here's how it looks like exactly: preg_match_all ("/(<([\w]+)[^>]*>)((?:.|\n)*)(<\/\\2>)/", $part['data'], $tags, PREG_PATTERN_ORDER|PREG_OFFSET_CAPTURE); The subject string is a piece of text that looks like: <script> ... some javascript functions ... </script> [Edit:] This is code that is up and running correctly elsewhere, so this very well could be a PHP setting or environment difference. I'm using PHP 5.2.13 on IIS6 with FastCGI. [Edit:] Nothing is mentioned in the log files. At least not in the ones I checked: IIS Logs Event Logs PHP Log Any thoughts or direction would be welcome.

  Read the article

• Implement user authentication against remote DB with a Web Service

  - by Juan González

  I'm just starting reasearch about the best way to implement user authentication within my soon-to-be app. This is what I have so far: A desktop (Windows) application on a remote server. That application is accessed locally with a browser (it has a web console and MS SQL Server to store everything). The application is used with local credendials stored in the DB. This is what I'd like to accompllish: Provide access to some information on that SQL Server DB from my app. That access of course must be granted once a user has id himself with valid credentials. This is what I know so far: How to create my PHP web service and query info from a DB using JSON. How to work with AFNetworking libraries to retrieve information. How to display that info on the app. What I don't know is which could be the best method to implement user authentication from iOS. Should I send username and password? Should I send some hash? Is there a way to secure the handshake? I'd for sure appreciate any advise, tip, or recommendation you have from previous experience. I don't want to just implement it but instead I want to do it as good as possible.

  Read the article

• Use of 'this keyword' javascript in IE ?

  - by Ron

  Is there a workaround for Internet Explorer to implement the functionality offered by 'this' javascript keyword to get the dom element that triggered the event? My problem scenario is : I have a variable number of text fields in the html form, like input type="text" id="11" input type="text" id="12" .. I need to handle the "onchange" event for each text field, and the handling is dependent on the 'id' of the field that triggered the event. So far I understand that my options are: 1) attach a dedicated event handler for each text field. so if I have n fields, i have n different functions, something like: input type="text" id="11" onchange="function11();" input type="text" id="12" onchange="function12();" but the text fields are added and removed dynamically, so a better way would be to have one generic function instead. 2) use the 'this' keyword like: input type="text" id="11" onchange="functionGeneric(this);" input type="text" id="12" onchange="functionGeneric(this);" But this option does not work with Internet Explorer. Can anyone suggest a work around for getting it work in IE or some other solution that can be applied here? Thanks.

  Read the article

• How can I provide users with the functionality of the DBUnit DatabaseOperation methods from a web in

  - by reckoner

  I am currently updating a java-based web application which allows database developers to create stored procedure regression test suites for database testing. Currently, for test setup, execution and clean-up stages, the user is provided with text boxes where they are able to enter SQL code which is executed by the isql command. I would like to extend the application to use DB Unit’s DatabaseOperation methods to provide more ways to setup the state of the database than just SQL statements. The main reason for using Db Unit rather than just SQL statements is to be able to create and store xml and xls DataSets on a server where they can be associated with their test cases and used for data setup. My question is: How can I provide users with the functionality of the DBUnit DatabaseOperation methods from a web interface? I have considered: Creating a simple programming language and a parser to read some simple syntax involving the DB Unit method names which accept a parameter being the file location to an xml or xls DataSet. I was thinking of allowing the user to register the files they need with the web app which would catalogue them and provide each file with an identifier which could passed as a parameter to the methods in this simple programming language. Creating an XML DTD which provides the user with the ability to specify operations and parameters. If I went this approach, how can I execute the methods and their parameters that I parse from the XML document? Creating a table in the database which stores the method and a FK relation to a catalogued DataSet file, however I don’t think this would be good solution due to the fact that data entry would be tedious. Thanks for your help.

  Read the article

• Designing a general database interface in PHP

  - by lamas

  I'm creating a small framework for my web projects in PHP so I don't have to do the basic work over and over again for every new website. It is not my goal to create a second CakePHP or Codeigniter and I'm also not planning to build my websites with any of the available frameworks as I prefer to use things I've created myself in general. I have no problems in designing that framework when it comes to parts like the core structure, request handling, and so on but I'm getting stuck with designing the database interface for my modules. I've already thought about using the MVC pattern but thought that it would be a bit of a overkill. So the exact problem I'm facing is how my frameworks modules (viewCustomers could be a module, for example) should interact with the database. Is it a good idea to write SQL directly in PHP (mysql_query( 'SELECT firstname, lastname(.....))? How could I abstract a query like SELECT firstname, lastname FROM customers WHERE id=X Would MySQL helper functions like $this->db->get( array('firstname', 'lastname'), array('id'=>X) ) be a good idea? I suppose not because they actually make everything more complicated by requiring arrays to be created and passed. Is the Model pattern from MVC my only real option?

  Read the article

• Project management: Implementing custom errors in VS compilation process

  - by David Lively

  Like many architects, I've developed coding standards through years of experience to which I expect my developers to adhere. This is especially a problem with the crowd that believes that three or four years of experience makes you a senior-level developer.Approaching this as a training and code review issue has generated limited success. So, I was thinking that it would be great to be able to add custom compile-time errors to the build process to more strictly enforce this and other guidelines. For instance, we use stored procedures for ALL database access, which provides procedure-level security, db encapsulation (table structure is hidden from the app), and other benefits. (Note: I am not interested in starting a debate about this.) Some developers prefer inline SQL or parametrized queries, and that's fine - on their own time and own projects. I'd like a way to add a compilation check that finds, say, anything that looks like string sql = "insert into some_table (col1,col2) values (@col1, @col2);" and generates an error or, in certain circumstances, a warning, with a message like Inline SQL and parametrized queries are not permitted. Or, if they use the var keyword var x = new MyClass(); Variable definitions must be explicitly typed. Do Visual Studio and MSBuild provide a way to add this functionality? I'm thinking that I could use a regular expression to find unacceptable code and generate the correct error, but I'm not sure what, from a performance standpoint, is the best way to to integrate this into the build process. We could add a pre- or post-build step to run a custom EXE, but how can I return line- and file-specifc errors? Also, I'd like this to run after compilation of each file, rather than post-link. Is a regex the best way to perform this type of pattern matching, or should I go crazy and run the code through a C# parser, which would allow node-level validation via the parse tree? I'd appreciate suggestions and tales of prior experience.

  Read the article

• Deterministic and non uniform long string generation from seed

  - by Limonup

  I had this weird idea for an encryption that I wanted to try out, it may be bad, and it may have done before, but I'm just doing it for fun. The short version of the question is: Is it possible to generate a long, deterministic and non-uniformly distributed string/sequence of numbers from a small seed? Long(er) version: I was thinking to encrypt a text by changing encoding. The new encoding would be generated via Huffman algorithm. To work well, the Huffman algorithm would need a fairly long text with non uniform distribution. Then characters can have different bit-lengths which would be the primary strength of this encryption. The problem is that its impractical to enter in/remember a long text each time you want to decrypt the text. So I was wondering if it was possible to generate a text from password seed? It doesn't matter what the text is, as long as it has non uniform distribution of characters and that the exact same sequence can be recreated each time you give it the same seed. Preferably, are there any functions/extensions in Python that can do this? EDIT: To expand on the "strength" of varying bit length: if I have a string "test", ASCII values 116, 101, 115, 116, which gives bit values of 1110100 1100101 1110011 1110100 Then, say my Huffman algorithm generates encoding like t = 101 e = 1100111 s = 10001 The final string is 101 1100111 10001 101, if we encode this back to ASCII, we get 1011100 1111000 1101000, which is 3 entirely different characters. Obviously its impossible to perform any kind of frequency analysis or something like that on this.

  Read the article

• How to safely transfer reference to object across window?

  - by Morgan Cheng

  I'm debugging a web application. Javasript in one window create one object and use it as argument to invoke global method in another window. Pseudo code is like below. var obj = new Foo(); anotherWin.bar(obj); In anotherWin, the argument is stored in global variable. var g_obj; function bar(obj) { g_obj = obj; ... } When other function tries to reference g_obj.Id, it throws exception "Cannot evaluate expression". This happens in IE8.0.7600.16385 on Windows 7. In Visual Studio debugger, when this exception happens, the g_obj shows as {...} It looks all its properties are lost. Perhaps the root reason is the object is created in one window but only referenced in another window. The object might be garbage-collected at any time. Is there any way to work around this?

  Read the article

• Putting BigDecimal data into HSQLDB test database using DbUnit

  - by Denise

  Hi everyone, I'm using Hibernate JPA in my backend. I am writing a unit test using JUnit and DBUnit to insert a set of data into an in-memory HSQL database. My dataset contains: <order_line order_line_id="1" quantity="2" discount_price="0.3"/> Which maps to an OrderLine Java object where the discount_price column is defined as: @Column(name = "discount_price", precision = 12, scale = 2) private BigDecimal discountPrice; However, when I run my test case and assert that the discount price returned equals 0.3, the assertion fails and says that the stored value is 0. If I change the discount_price in the dataset to be 0.9, it rounds up to 1. I've checked to make sure HSQLDB isn't doing the rounding and it definitely isn't because I can insert an order line object using Java code with a value like 5.3 and it works fine. To me, it seems like DBUtils is for some reason rounding the number I've defined. Is there a way I can force this to not happen? Can anyone explain why it might be doing this? Thanks!

  Read the article

• Need some help with a MySQL subquery count

  - by Ferdy

  I'm running into my own limits of MySQL query skills, so I hope some SQL guru can help out on this one. The situation is as follow: I have images that can be tagged. As you might expect this is stored in three tables: Image Tag Tag_map (maps images to tags) I have a SQL query that calculates the related tags based on a tag id. The query basically checks what other tags were used for images for images using that tag. Example: Image1 tagged as "Bear" Image2 tagged as "Bear" and "Canada" If I throw "Bear" (or its tag id) at the query, it will return "Canada". This works fine. Here's the query: SELECT tag.name, tag.id, COUNT(tag_map.id) as cnt FROM tag_map,tag WHERE tag_map.tag_id = tag.id AND tag.id != '185' AND tag_map.image_id IN (SELECT tag_map.image_id FROM tag_map INNER JOIN tag ON tag_map.tag_id = tag.id WHERE tag.id = '185') GROUP BY tag_map.id LIMIT 0,100 The part I'm stuck with is the count. For each related tag returned, I want to know how many images are in that tag. Currently it always returns 1, even if there are for example 3. I've tried counting different columns all resulting in the same output, so I guess there is a flaw in my thinking.

  Read the article

• Accessing Members of Containing Objects from Contained Objects.

  - by Bunkai.Satori

  If I have several levels of object containment (one object defines and instantiates another object which define and instantiate another object..), is it possible to get access to upper, containing - object variables and functions, please? Example: class CObjectOne { public: CObjectOne::CObjectOne() { Create(); }; void Create(); std::vector<ObjectTwo>vObejctsTwo; int nVariableOne; } bool CObjectOne::Create() { CObjectTwo ObjectTwo(this); vObjectsTwo.push_back(ObjectTwo); } class CObjectTwo { public: CObjectTwo::CObjectTwo(CObjectOne* pObject) { pObjectOne = pObject; Create(); }; void Create(); CObjectOne* GetObjectOne(){return pObjectOne;}; std::vector<CObjectTrhee>vObjectsTrhee; CObjectOne* pObjectOne; int nVariableTwo; } bool CObjectTwo::Create() { CObjectThree ObjectThree(this); vObjectsThree.push_back(ObjectThree); } class CObjectThree { public: CObjectThree::CObjectThree(CObjectTwo* pObject) { pObjectTwo = pObject; Create(); }; void Create(); CObjectTwo* GetObjectTwo(){return pObjectTwo;}; std::vector<CObjectsFour>vObjectsFour; CObjectTwo* pObjectTwo; int nVariableThree; } bool CObjectThree::Create() { CObjectFour ObjectFour(this); vObjectsFour.push_back(ObjectFour); } main() { CObjectOne myObject1; } Say, that from within CObjectThree I need to access nVariableOne in CObjectOne. I would like to do it as follows: int nValue = vObjectThree[index].GetObjectTwo()->GetObjectOne()->nVariable1; However, after compiling and running my application, I get Memory Access Violation error. What is wrong with the code above(it is example, and might contain spelling mistakes)? Do I have to create the objects dynamically instead of statically? Is there any other way how to achieve variables stored in containing objects from withing contained objects?

  Read the article

• Bilinear interpolation - DirectX vs. GDI+

  - by holtavolt

  I have a C# app for which I've written GDI+ code that uses Bitmap/TextureBrush rendering to present 2D images, which can have various image processing functions applied. This code is a new path in an application that mimics existing DX9 code, and they share a common library to perform all vector and matrix (e.g. ViewToWorld/WorldToView) operations. My test bed consists of DX9 output images that I compare against the output of the new GDI+ code. A simple test case that renders to a viewport that matches the Bitmap dimensions (i.e. no zoom or pan) does match pixel-perfect (no binary diff) - but as soon as the image is zoomed up (magnified), I get very minor differences in 5-10% of the pixels. The magnitude of the difference is 1 (occasionally 2)/256. I suspect this is due to interpolation differences. Question: For a DX9 ortho projection (and identity world space), with a camera perpendicular and centered on a textured quad, is it reasonable to expect DirectX.Direct3D.TextureFilter.Linear to generate identical output to a GDI+ TextureBrush filled rectangle/polygon when using the System.Drawing.Drawing2D.InterpolationMode.Bilinear setting? For this (magnification) case, the DX9 code is using this (MinFilter,MipFilter set similarly): Device.SetSamplerState(0, SamplerStageStates.MagFilter, (int)TextureFilter.Linear); and the GDI+ path is using: g.InterpolationMode = InterpolationMode.Bilinear; I thought that "Bilinear Interpolation" was a fairly specific filter definition, but then I noticed that there is another option in GDI+ for "HighQualityBilinear" (which I've tried, with no difference - which makes sense given the description of "added prefiltering for shrinking") Followup Question: Is it reasonable to expect pixel-perfect output matching between DirectX and GDI+ (assuming all external coordinates passed in are equal)? If not, why not? Finally, there are a number of other APIs I could be using (Direct2D, WPF, GDI, etc.) - and this question generally applies to comparing the output of "equivalent" bilinear interpolated output images across any two of these. Thanks!

  Read the article

• Object addSubview only works in viewDidLoad

  - by DecodingSand

  Hi, I'm new to iPhone dev and need some help with adding subViews. I have a reusable object that I made that is stored in a separate .h .m and xib file. I would like to use this object in my main project's view controller. I have included the header and the assignment of the object generates no errors. I am able to load the object into my main project but can only do things with it inside my viewDidLoad method. I intend to have a few of these objects on my screen and am looking fora solution that is more robust then just hard wiring up multiple copies of the shape object. As soon as I try to access the object outside of the viewDidLoad it produces a variable unknown error - first use in this function. Here is my viewDidLoad method: shapeViewController *shapeView = [[shapeViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"shapeViewController" bundle:nil]; [self.view addSubview: shapeView.view]; // This is the problem line // This code works changes the display on the shape object [shapeView updateDisplay:@"123456"]; ---- but the same code outside of the viewDidLoad generates the error. So to sum up, everything works except when I try to access the shapeView object in the rest of the methods. Thanks in advance

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 563 564 565 566 567 568 569 570 571 572 573 574  | Next Page >