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  • ios 4.1 doesn't call Phonegap API

    - by Johannes Klauß
    I'm working on a cross platform app for Android 2.2 and iOS 4.1 (dev devices). On Android everything works fine (accelerometer and geolocation) even if it's a little laggy. On iOS it's way more smooth, but he doesn't call the Phonegap functions. That's my JS code: var watchID = null; var shaking = { left: false, right: true }; function startWatch() { // Update acceleration every 100 ms var options = { frequency : 100 }; watchID = navigator.accelerometer.watchAcceleration(function(acceleration) { if(acceleration.x < -8) { shaking.left = true; } else if(acceleration.x > 8) { shaking.right = true; } if(shaking.left && shaking.right) { navigator.notification.vibrate(500); shaking.left = false; shaking.right = false; stopWatch(); } }, null, options); } I just call it with <a href="" onclick="startWatch();">start Accel</a> But iOS doesn't react at all. Is there any special call you need to do in iOS?

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  • Jquery: How do I select dynamic ids in this format?

    - by sjsc
    I'm trying to select dynamic ids when a user types something into the input fields. My app spits out the input fields in the following format: <input id="student_1_first_name" /> <input id="student_1_last_name" /> <input id="student_2_first_name" /> <input id="student_2_last_name" /> <input id="student_3_first_name" /> <input id="student_3_last_name" /> etc. For example, I tried doing this to select the end of the id string: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready( function (){ $("input[id$=_first_name]").bind("keyup", run_some_function_here); run_some_function_here(); $("input[id$=_last_name]").bind("keyup", run_some_function_here); run_some_function_here(); } ); </script> When I do that, Jquery can't seem to select the input ids, so the functions don't run. Do you have any ideas on how I can select the ids correctly?

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  • How to avoid multiple, unused has_many associations when using multiple models for the same entity (

    - by mikep
    Hello, I'm looking for a nice, Ruby/Rails-esque solution for something. I'm trying to split up some data using multiple tables, rather than just using one gigantic table. My reasoning is pretty much to try and avoid the performance drop that would come with having a big table. So, rather than have one table called books, I have multiple tables: books1, books2, books3, etc. (I know that I could use a partition, but, for now, I've decided to go the 'multiple tables' route.) Each user has their books placed into a specific table. The actual book table is chosen when the user is created, and all of their books go into the same table. The goal is to try and keep each table pretty much even -- but that's a different issue. One thing I don't particularly want to have is a bunch of unused associations in the User class. Right now, it looks like I'd have to do the following: class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :books1, :books2, :books3, :books4, :books5 end class Books1 < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user end class Books2 < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user end First off, for each specific user, only one of the book tables would be usable/applicable, since all of a user's books are stored in the same table. So, only one of the associations would be in use at any time and any other has_many :bookX association that was loaded would be a waste. I don't really know Ruby/Rails does internally with all of those has_many associations though, so maybe it's not so bad. But right now I'm thinking that it's really wasteful, and that there may just be a better, more efficient way of doing this. Is there's some sort of special Ruby/Rails methodology that could be applied here to avoid having to have all of those has_many associations? Also, does anyone have any advice on how to abstract the fact that there's multiple book tables behind a single books model/class?

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  • How to access and run field events from extension js?

    - by Dan Roberts
    I have an extension that helps in submitting forms automatically for a process at work. We are running into a problem with dual select boxes where one option is selected and then that selection changes another field's options. Since setting an option selected property to true doesn't trigger the field's onchange event I am trying to do so through code. The problem I've run into is that if I try to access or run functions on the field object from the extension, I get the error Error: uncaught exception: [Exception... "Component is not available" nsresult: "0x80040111 (NS_ERROR_NOT_AVAILABLE)" location: "JS frame :: chrome://webformsidebar/content/webformsidebar.js :: WebFormSidebar_FillProcess :: line 499" data: no] the line causing the error is... if (typeof thisField.onchange === 'function') The line right before it works just fine... thisField.options[t].selected=true; ...so I'm not sure why this is resulting in such an error. What surprises me most I guess is that checking for the existence of the function leads to an error. It feels like the problem is related to the code running in the context of the extension instead of the browser window document. If so, is there any way to call a function in the browser window context instead? Do I need to actually inject code into the page somehow? Any other ideas? Thanks

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  • Legitimate uses of the Function constructor

    - by Marcel Korpel
    As repeatedly said, it is considered bad practice to use the Function constructor (also see the ECMAScript Language Specification, 5th edition, § 15.3.2.1): new Function ([arg1[, arg2[, … argN]],] functionBody) (where all arguments are strings containing argument names and the last (or only) string contains the function body). To recapitulate, it is said to be slow, as explained by the Opera team: Each time […] the Function constructor is called on a string representing source code, the script engine must start the machinery that converts the source code to executable code. This is usually expensive for performance – easily a hundred times more expensive than a simple function call, for example. (Mark ‘Tarquin’ Wilton-Jones) Though it's not that bad, according to this post on MDC (I didn't test this myself using the current version of Firefox, though). Crockford adds that [t]he quoting conventions of the language make it very difficult to correctly express a function body as a string. In the string form, early error checking cannot be done. […] And it is wasteful of memory because each function requires its own independent implementation. Another difference is that a function defined by a Function constructor does not inherit any scope other than the global scope (which all functions inherit). (MDC) Apart from this, you have to be attentive to avoid injection of malicious code, when you create a new Function using dynamic contents. Lots of disadvantages and it is intelligible that ECMAScript 5 discourages the use of the Function constructor by throwing an exception when using it in strict mode (§ 13.1). That said, T.J. Crowder says in an answer that [t]here's almost never any need for the similar […] new Function(...), either, again except for some advanced edge cases. So, now I am wondering: what are these “advanced edge cases”? Are there legitimate uses of the Function constructor?

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  • Using ember-resource with couchdb - how can i save my documents?

    - by Thomas Herrmann
    I am implementing an application using ember.js and couchdb. I choose ember-resource as database access layer because it nicely supports nested JSON documents. Since couchdb uses the attribute _rev for optimistic locking in every document, this attribute has to be updated in my application after saving the data to the couchdb. My idea to implement this is to reload the data right after saving to the database and get the new _rev back with the rest of the document. Here is my code for this: // Since we use CouchDB, we have to make sure that we invalidate and re-fetch // every document right after saving it. CouchDB uses an optimistic locking // scheme based on the attribute "_rev" in the documents, so we reload it in // order to have the correct _rev value. didSave: function() { this._super.apply(this, arguments); this.forceReload(); }, // reload resource after save is done, expire to make reload really do something forceReload: function() { this.expire(); // Everything OK up to this location Ember.run.next(this, function() { this.fetch() // Sub-Document is reset here, and *not* refetched! .fail(function(error) { App.displayError(error); }) .done(function() { App.log("App.Resource.forceReload fetch done, got revision " + self.get('_rev')); }); }); } This works for most cases, but if i have a nested model, the sub-model is replaced with the old version of the data just before the fetch is executed! Interestingly enough, the correct (updated) data is stored in the database and the wrong (old) data is in the memory model after the fetch, although the _rev attribut is correct (as well as all attributes of the main object). Here is a part of my object definition: App.TaskDefinition = App.Resource.define({ url: App.dbPrefix + 'courseware', schema: { id: String, _rev: String, type: String, name: String, comment: String, task: { type: 'App.Task', nested: true } } }); App.Task = App.Resource.define({ schema: { id: String, title: String, description: String, startImmediate: Boolean, holdOnComment: Boolean, ..... // other attributes and sub-objects } }); Any ideas where the problem might be? Thank's a lot for any suggestion! Kind regards, Thomas

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  • pass object from JS to PHP and back

    - by Radu
    This is something that I don't think can't be done, or can't be done easy. Think of this, You have an button inside a div in HTML, when you click it, you call a php function via AJAX, I would like to send the element that start the click event(or any element as a parameter) to PHP and BACK to JS again, in a way like serialize() in PHP, to be able to restore the element in JS. Let me give you a simple example: PHP: function ajaxCall(element){ return element; } JS: callbackFunction(el){ el.color='red'; } HTML: <div id="id_div"> <input type="button" value="click Me" onClick="ajaxCall(this, callbackFunction);" /> </div> So I thing at 3 methods method 1. I can give each element in the page an ID. so the call to Ajax would look like this: ajaxCall(this.id, callbackFunction); and the callback function would be: document.getElementById(el).color='red'; This method I think is hard, beacause in a big page is hard to keep track of all ID's. method 2. I think that using xPath could be done, If i can get the exact path of an element, and in the callback function evaluate that path to reach the element. This method needs some googling, it is just an ideea. method 3. Modify my AJAX functions, so it retain the element that started the event, and pass it to the callback function as argument when something returns from PHP, so in my AJAX would look like this: eval(callbackFunction(argumentsFromPhp, element)); and the callback function would be: callbackFunction(someArgsFromPhp, el){ el.color='red'; // parse someArgsFromPhp } I think that the third option is my choise to start this experiment. Any of you has a better idea how I can accomplish this ? Thank you.

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  • Resume Activity with back button

    - by Hallik
    I have an application I am creating with a DashboardActivity & a SettingsActivity. On the dashboard, I have one object displayed, but when I go into settings, I want to be able to select/deselect X options. Once the user clicks the back button, I save that data locally and to the server. Once the phone receives a success message from the server that it was stored properly, I want to reload the dashboard. I thought I would do this with the onPause and onResume, but they are called when the DashboardActivity is first created. What would be the best way to reload the dashboard by calling my web service after the settings were saved to the server? Here is what I am doing when the back button is hit @Override public boolean onKeyDown(int keyCode, KeyEvent event) { //Save data to the server once the user hits the back button if ((keyCode == KeyEvent.KEYCODE_BACK)) { SchoolSearchActivity.this.divisionProxy = new DivisionProxy(SchoolSearchActivity.this.saveUserDivisionHandler); SchoolSearchActivity.this.divisionProxy.submitUserDivisions(SchoolSearchActivity.this.userDivisions, SchoolSearchActivity.this.user_id); //SchoolSearchActivity.this.finish(); //Toast.makeText(SchoolSearchActivity.this, "Divisions Saved",Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } return true; } The above opens an HTTP connection, and when the response is received, the handler processes the response. I am going to: 1) throw up a progress dialog box letting the user know it's being submitted to the server, and once a response is received, 2) go back to the previous activity and call the "refresh" webservice again. What's the best way to accomplish 1 & 2?

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  • .NET How would I build a DAL to meet my requirments?

    - by Jonno
    Assuming that I must deploy an asp.net app over the following 3 servers: 1) DB - not public 2) 'middle' - not public 3) Web server - public I am not allowed to connect from the web server to the DB directly. I must pass through 'middle' - this is purely to slow down an attacker if they breached the web server. All db access is via stored procedures. No table access. I simply want to provide the web server with a ado dataset (I know many will dislike this, but this is the requirement). Using asmx web services - it works, but XML serialisation is slow and it's an extra set of code to maintain and deploy. Using a ssh/vpn tunnel so that the one connects to the db 'via' the middle server, seems to remove any possible benefit of maintaining 'middle'. Using WCF binary/tcp removes the XML problem, but still there is extra code. Is there an approach that provides the ease of ssh/vpn, but the potential benefit of having the dal on the middle server? Many thanks.

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  • Ajax long polling (comet) + php on lighttpd v1.4.22 multiple instances problem.

    - by fibonacci
    Hi, I am new to this site, so I really hope I will provide all the necessary information regarding my question. I've been trying to create a "new message arrived notification" using long polling. Currently I am initiating the polling request by window.onLoad event of each page in my site. On the server side I have an infinite loop: while(1){ if(NewMessageArrived($current_user))break; sleep(10); } echo $newMessageCount; On the client side I have the following (simplified) ajax functions: poll_new_messages(){ xmlhttp=GetXmlHttpObject(); //... xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=got_new_message_count; //... xmlhttp.send(); } got_new_message_count(){ if (xmlhttp.readyState==4){ updateMessageCount(xmlhttp.responseText); //... poll_new_messages(); } } The problem is that with each page load, the above loop starts again. The result is multiple infinite loops for each user that eventually make my server hang. *The NewMessageArived() function queries MySQL DB for new unread messages. *At the beginning of the php script I run start_session() in order to obtain the $current_user value. I am currently the only user of this site so it is easy for me to debug this behavior by writing time() to a file inside this loop. What I see is that the file is being written more often than once in 10 seconds, but it starts only when I go from page to page. Please let me know if any additional information might help. Thank you.

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  • C++ Returning Multiple Items

    - by Travis Parks
    I am designing a class in C++ that extracts URLs from an HTML page. I am using Boost's Regex library to do the heavy lifting for me. I started designing a class and realized that I didn't want to tie down how the URLs are stored. One option would be to accept a std::vector<Url> by reference and just call push_back on it. I'd like to avoid forcing consumers of my class to use std::vector. So, I created a member template that took a destination iterator. It looks like this: template <typename TForwardIterator, typename TOutputIterator> TOutputIterator UrlExtractor::get_urls( TForwardIterator begin, TForwardIterator end, TOutputIterator dest); I feel like I am overcomplicating things. I like to write fairly generic code in C++, and I struggle to lock down my interfaces. But then I get into these predicaments where I am trying to templatize everything. At this point, someone reading the code doesn't realize that TForwardIterator is iterating over a std::string. In my particular situation, I am wondering if being this generic is a good thing. At what point do you start making code more explicit? Is there a standard approach to getting values out of a function generically?

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  • ConcurrentLinkedQueue$Node remains in heap after remove()

    - by action8
    I have a multithreaded app writing and reading a ConcurrentLinkedQueue, which is conceptually used to back entries in a list/table. I originally used a ConcurrentHashMap for this, which worked well. A new requirement required tracking the order entries came in, so they could be removed in oldest first order, depending on some conditions. ConcurrentLinkedQueue appeared to be a good choice, and functionally it works well. A configurable amount of entries are held in memory, and when a new entry is offered when the limit is reached, the queue is searched in oldest-first order for one that can be removed. Certain entries are not to be removed by the system and wait for client interaction. What appears to be happening is I have an entry at the front of the queue that occurred, say 100K entries ago. The queue appears to have the limited number of configured entries (size() == 100), but when profiling, I found that there were ~100K ConcurrentLinkedQueue$Node objects in memory. This appears to be by design, just glancing at the source for ConcurrentLinkedQueue, a remove merely removes the reference to the object being stored but leaves the linked list in place for iteration. Finally my question: Is there a "better" lazy way to handle a collection of this nature? I love the speed of the ConcurrentLinkedQueue, I just cant afford the unbounded leak that appears to be possible in this case. If not, it seems like I'd have to create a second structure to track order and may have the same issues, plus a synchronization concern.

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  • How can i zip files in Java and not include files paths

    - by Ignacio
    For example, i want to zip a file stored in /Users/me/Desktop/image.jpg I maded this method: public static Boolean generateZipFile(ArrayList<String> sourcesFilenames, String destinationDir, String zipFilename){ // Create a buffer for reading the files byte[] buf = new byte[1024]; try { // VER SI HAY QUE CREAR EL ROOT PATH boolean result = (new File(destinationDir)).mkdirs(); String zipFullFilename = destinationDir + "/" + zipFilename ; System.out.println(result); // Create the ZIP file ZipOutputStream out = new ZipOutputStream(new FileOutputStream(zipFullFilename)); // Compress the files for (String filename: sourcesFilenames) { FileInputStream in = new FileInputStream(filename); // Add ZIP entry to output stream. out.putNextEntry(new ZipEntry(filename)); // Transfer bytes from the file to the ZIP file int len; while ((len = in.read(buf)) > 0) { out.write(buf, 0, len); } // Complete the entry out.closeEntry(); in.close(); } // Complete the ZIP file out.close(); return true; } catch (IOException e) { return false; } } But when i extract the file, the unzipped files have the full path. I don't want the full path of each file in the zip i only want the filename. How can i made this?

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  • no such file to load -- rubygems (LoadError)

    - by Vineeth
    Hello, I recently installed rails in fedora 12. I'm new to linux as well. Everything works fine on Windows 7. But I'm facing lot of problems in linux. Help please! I've installed all the essentials to my knowledge to get the basic script/server up and running. I have this error from boot.rb popping up when I try script/server. Some of the details I'd like to give here: The directories where rails, ruby and gem are installed, [vineeth@localhost my_app]$ which ruby /usr/local/bin/ruby [vineeth@localhost my_app]$ which rails /usr/bin/rails [vineeth@localhost my_app]$ which gem /usr/bin/gem And when I run the script/server, this is the error. [vineeth@localhost my_app]$ script/server ./script/../config/boot.rb:9:in `require': no such file to load -- rubygems (LoadError) from ./script/../config/boot.rb:9 from script/server:2:in `require' from script/server:2 And the PATH file looks like this [vineeth@localhost my_app]$ cat ~/.bash_profile # .bash_profile # Get the aliases and functions if [ -f ~/.bashrc ]; then . ~/.bashrc fi # User specific environment and startup programs PATH=$PATH:$HOME/bin export PATH="/usr/local/bin:/usr/local/sbin:/usr/bin/ruby:$PATH" I suppose it is something to do with the PATH file. Let me know what I need to change here. If there are other changes I should make, please let me know, Thanks

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  • qTip jQuery Plugin not always Firing

    - by tonsils
    Hi, I am using the qTip jquery plugin qTip plugin for a website I'm working on based on another thread I raised here: stack overflow thread My question is, I have a navigation bar running along the top of my screen which is basically sets the title attribute based on the tab menu you are in, these are all stored within a javascript array. For example, I have three menu options running along the top of the screen, say Menu A, Menu B and Menu C. I also have an information image positioned at the rightmost position of the nav bar, which I set the title attribute, based on the Menu option selected in the Nav Bar. For example: Menu A => myRole[0] = "Admin" Menu B => myRole[1] = "Manager" Menu C => myRole[2] = "Guest" So basically as the user clicks on each of the menus in the nav bar, I set the title attribute in the information image to either "Admin","Manager" or "Guest". At startup, the qTip plugin works and displays "Admin" when I hover over it but when I change the menu to Menu C, it still displays "Admin" instead of "Guest" From the looks of it, it doesn't seem to be calling the qTip plugin, which I have positioned at the footer of the screen (see actual code below). Any ideas how to ensure that the qTip fires every time I click/change menu options and pickups value within javascript array? <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.qtip-1.0.0-rc3.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $('div#infoi img[title]').qtip({ position: { adjust: { x:-110, y:0 }, corner: { target: 'bottomLeft', tooltip: 'topMiddle' } }, style: { width: 250, padding: 5, background: '#E7F1FA', color: 'black', textAlign: 'center', border: { width: 3, color: '#65a9d7' }, tip: 'topRight' } }); }); </script> Thanks.

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  • Win32 DLL importing issues (DllMain)

    - by brady
    I have a native DLL that is a plug-in to a different application (one that I have essentially zero control of). Everything works just great until I link with an additional .lib file (links my DLL to another DLL named ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll). This file contains some additional API from the parent application that I would like to utilize. I haven't even written any code to use any of the functions exported but just linking in this new DLL is causing problems. Specifically I get the following error when I attempt to run the program: The application failed to initialize properly (0xc0000025). Clock on OK to terminate the application. I believe I have read somewhere that this is typically due to a DllMain function returning FALSE. Also, the following message is written to the standard output: ERROR: Memory allocation attempted before component initialization I am almost 100% sure this error message is coming from the application and is not some type of Windows error. Looking into this a little more (aka flailing around and flipping every switch I know of) I linked with /MAP turned on and found this in the resulting .map file: 0001:000af220 ??3@YAXPEAX@Z 00000001800b0220 f ABQSMABasCoreUtils_import:ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll 0001:000af226 ??2@YAPEAX_K@Z 00000001800b0226 f ABQSMABasCoreUtils_import:ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll 0001:000af22c ??_U@YAPEAX_K@Z 00000001800b022c f ABQSMABasCoreUtils_import:ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll 0001:000af232 ??_V@YAXPEAX@Z 00000001800b0232 f ABQSMABasCoreUtils_import:ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll If I undecorate those names using "undname" they give the following (same order): void __cdecl operator delete(void * __ptr64) void * __ptr64 __cdecl operator new(unsigned __int64) void * __ptr64 __cdecl operator new[](unsigned __int64) void __cdecl operator delete[](void * __ptr64) I am not sure I understand how anything from ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll can exist within this .map file or why my DLL is even attempting to load ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll if I don't have any code that references this DLL. Can anyone help me put this information together and find out why this isn't working? For what it's worth I have confirmed via "dumpbin" that the parent application imports the same DLL (ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll), so it is being loaded no matter what. I have also tried delay loading this DLL in my DLL but that did not change the results.

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  • Best and simple way to handle JSON in Django

    - by primal
    Hi, As part of the application we are developing (with android client and Django server) a json object which contains user name and pass word is sent to server from android client as follows HttpPost post = new HttpPost(URL); /*Adding key value pairs */ json.put("username", un); json.put("password", pwd); StringEntity se = new StringEntity(json.toString()); post.setEntity(se); response = client.execute(post); The response is parsed like this result = responsetoString(response.getEntity().getContent()); //Converts response to String jObject = new JSONObject(result); JSONObject post = jObject.getJSONObject("post"); username = post.getString("username"); message = post.getString("message"); Hope upto this everything is fine. The problem comes when parsing or sending JSON responses in Django server. Whats the best way to do this? We tried using SimpleJSON and it turned out not to be so simple as we didn't find any good tutorials or sample code for the same? Are there any python functions similiar to get,put and opt in java for JSON? Any help would be much appreciated..

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  • jQuery: hard time to get <embed> element

    - by Patrick
    hi, how can I get the embed element with jQuery ? (I spent enough time trying with "children(), find(), last() jquery functions). This is my code. Until here it works, I would like to get the second children (embed). $('div.filefield-file').each(function(index) { console.log($(this).children()); }); </script> This is HTML code: Scheduling Video <div class="field-item even"> <div class="filefield-file clear-block"><div class="filefield-icon field-icon-video-x-flv"><img class="field-icon-video-x-flv" alt="video/x-flv icon" src="http://localhost/drupal/sites/all/modules/filefield/icons/protocons/16x16/mimetypes/video-x-generic.png"></div><div style="background-color: rgb(255, 255, 255); width: 400px;"><embed style="display: block;" src="/drupal/videoPlayer.swf?file=http://localhost/drupal/sites/default/files/files/projects/Project3/videos/screenshot.flv" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" pluginspage="http://www.adobe.com/go/getflashplayer" bgcolor="#ffffff" allowfullscreen="true" autoplay="true" flashvars="file=http://localhost/drupal/sites/default/files/files/projects/Project3/videos/screenshot.flv" height="400" width="400"><div>screenshot.flv</div></div></div> </div>

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  • Images from SQL Server JPG/PNG Image Column not being Type Converted to Bitmap in HttpHandlers (cons

    - by kanchirk
    Our Silverlight 3.0 Client consumes Images stored/retrieved on the File System thorough ASP.NET HttpHandlers successfully. We are trying to store and read back Images using a SQL Server 2008 Database. Please find the stripped down code pasted below with the Exception. "Bitmap is not Valid" //Store document to the database private void SaveImageToDatabaseKK(HttpContext context, string pImageFileName) { try { //ADO.NET Entity Framework ImageTable documentDB = new ImageTable(); int intLength = Convert.ToInt32(context.Request.InputStream.Length); //Move the file contents into the Byte array Byte[] arrContent = new Byte[intLength]; context.Request.InputStream.Read(arrContent, 0, intLength); //Insert record into the Document table documentDB.InsertDocument(pImageFileName, arrContent, intLength); } catch { } } =The method to Read Back the Row from the Table and Send it back is below.= private void RetrieveImageFromDatabaseTableKK(HttpContext context, string pImageName) { try { ImageTable documentDB = new ImageTable(); var docRow = documentDB.GetDocument(pImageName); //based on Imagename which is unique //DocData column in table is **Image** if (docRow!=null && docRow.DocData != null && docRow.DocData.Length > 0) { Byte[] bytImage = docRow.DocData; if (bytImage != null && bytImage.Length > 0) { Bitmap newBmp = ConvertToBitmap(context, bytImage ); if (newBmp != null) { newBmp.Save(context.Response.OutputStream, ImageFormat.Jpeg); newBmp.Dispose(); } } } } catch (Exception exRI) { } } // Convert byte array to Bitmap (byte[] to Bitmap) protected Bitmap ConvertToBitmap(byte[] bmp) { if (bmp != null) { try { TypeConverter tc = TypeDescriptor.GetConverter(typeof(Bitmap)); Bitmap b = (Bitmap)tc.ConvertFrom(bmp); **//This is where the Exception Occurs.** return b; } catch (Exception) { } } return null; }

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  • How to get the title and subtitle for a pin when we are implementing the MKAnnotation?

    - by wolverine
    I have implemented the MKAnnotation as below. I will put a lot of pins and the information for each of those pins are stored in an array. Each member of this array is an object whose properties will give the values for the title and subtitle of the pin. Each object corresponds to a pin. But how can I display these values for the pin when I click a pin?? @interface UserAnnotation : NSObject <MKAnnotation> { CLLocationCoordinate2D coordinate; NSString *title; NSString *subtitle; NSString *city; NSString *province; } @property (nonatomic, assign) CLLocationCoordinate2D coordinate; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *title; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *subtitle; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *city; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *province; -(id)initWithCoordinate:(CLLocationCoordinate2D)c; And .m is @implementation UserAnnotation @synthesize coordinate, title, subtitle, city, province; - (NSString *)title { return title; } - (NSString *)subtitle { return subtitle; } - (NSString *)city { return city; } - (NSString *)province { return province; } -(id)initWithCoordinate:(CLLocationCoordinate2D)c { coordinate=c; NSLog(@"%f,%f",c.latitude,c.longitude); return self; } @end

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  • CakePHP: Custom Function in bootstrap that uses $ajax->link not working

    - by nekko
    Hello I have two questions: (1) Is it best practice to create global custom functions in the bootstrap file? Is there a better place to store them? (2) I am unable use the following line of code in my custom function located in my bootstrap.php file: $url = $ajax->link ( 'Delete', array ('controller' => 'events', 'action' => 'delete', 22 ), array ('update' => 'event' ), 'Do you want to delete this event?' ); echo $url; I receive the following error: Notice (8): Undefined variable: ajax [APP\config\bootstrap.php, line 271] Code } function testAjax () { $url = $ajax->link ( 'Delete', array ('controller' => 'events', 'action' => 'delete', 22 ), array ('update' => 'event' ), 'Do you want to delete this event?' ); testAjax - APP\config\bootstrap.php, line 271 include - APP\views\event\queue.ctp, line 19 View::_render() - CORE\cake\libs\view\view.php, line 649 View::render() - CORE\cake\libs\view\view.php, line 372 Controller::render() - CORE\cake\libs\controller\controller.php, line 766 Dispatcher::_invoke() - CORE\cake\dispatcher.php, line 211 Dispatcher::dispatch() - CORE\cake\dispatcher.php, line 181 [main] - APP\webroot\index.php, line 91 However it works as intended if I place that same code in my view: <a onclick=" event.returnValue = false; return false;" id="link1656170149" href="/shout/events/delete/22">Delete</a> Please help :) Thanks in advance!!

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  • Updating a local sqlite db that is used for local metadata & caching from an service?

    - by Pharaun
    I've searched through the site and haven't found a question/answer that quite answer my question, the closest one I found was: Syncing objects between two disparate systems best approach. Anyway to begun, because there is no RSS feeds available, I'm screen scrapping a webpage, hence it does a fetch then it goes through the webpage to scrap out all of the information that I'm interested in and dumps that information into a sqlite database so that I can query the information at my leisure without doing repeat fetching from the website. However I'm also storing various metadata on the data itself that is stored in the sqlite db, such as: have I looked at the data, is the data new/old, bookmark to a chunk of data (Think of it as a collection of unrelated data, and the bookmark is just a pointer to where I am in processing/reading of the said data). So right now my current problem is trying to figure out how to update the local sqlite database with new data and/or changed data from the website in a manner that is effective and straightforward. Here's my current idea: Download the page itself Create a temporary table for the parsed data to go into Do a comparison between the official and the temporary table and copy updates and/or new information to the official table This process seems kind of complicated because I would have to figure out how to determine if the data in the temporary table is new, updated, or unchanged. So I am wondering if there isn't a better approach or if anyone has any suggestion on how to architecture/structure such system?

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  • Volatile fields in C#

    - by Danny Chen
    From the specification 10.5.3 Volatile fields: The type of a volatile field must be one of the following: A reference-type. The type byte, sbyte, short, ushort, int, uint, char, float, bool, System.IntPtr, or System.UIntPtr. An enum-type having an enum base type of byte, sbyte, short, ushort, int, or uint. First I want to confirm my understanding is correct: I guess the above types can be volatile because they are stored as a 4-bytes unit in memory(for reference types because of its address), which guarantees the read/write operation is atomic. A double/long/etc type can't be volatile because they are not atomic reading/writing since they are more than 4 bytes in memory. Is my understanding correct? And the second, if the first guess is correct, why a user defined struct with only one int field in it(or something similar, 4 bytes is ok) can't be volatile? Theoretically it's atomic right? Or it's not allowed simply because that all user defined structs(which is possibly more than 4 bytes) are not allowed to volatile by design?

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  • What is the best URL strategy to handle multiple search parameters and operators?

    - by Jon Winstanley
    Searching with mutltiple Parameters In my app I would like to allow the user to do complex searches based on several parameters, using a simple syntax similar to the GMail functionality when a user can search for "in:inbox is:unread" etc. However, GMail does a POST with this information and I would like the form to be a GET so that the information is in the URL of the search results page. Therefore I need the parameters to be formatted in the URL. Requirements: Keep the URL as clean as possible Avoid the use of invalid URL chars such as square brackets Allow lots of search functionality Have the ability to add more functions later. I know StackOverflow allows the user to search by multiple tags in this way: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/tagged/c+sql However, I'd like to also allow users to search with multiple additional parameters. Initial Design My design is currently to do use URLs such as these: http://example.com/search/tagged/c+sql/searchterm/transactions http://example.com/search/searchterm/transactions http://example.com/search/tagged/c+sql http://example.com/search/tagged/c+sql/not-tagged/java http://example.com/search/tagged/c+sql/created/yesterday http://example.com/search/created_by/user1234 I intend to parse the URL after the search parameter, then decide how to construct my search query. Has anyone seen URL parameters like this implemented well on a website? If so, which do it best?

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  • What is difference between my atoi() calls?

    - by Lucas
    I have a big number stored in a string and try to extract a single digit. But what are the differences between those calls? #include <iostream> #include <string> int main(){ std::string bigNumber = "93485720394857230"; char tmp = bigNumber.at(5); int digit = atoi(&tmp); int digit2 = atoi(&bigNumber.at(5)) int digit3 = atoi(&bigNumber.at(12)); std::cout << "digit: " << digit << std::endl; std::cout << "digit2: " << digit2 << std::endl; std::cout << "digit3: " << digit3 << std::endl; } This will produce the following output. digit: 7 digit2: 2147483647 digit3: 57230 The first one is the desired result. The second one seems to me to be a random number, which I cannot find in the string. The third one is the end of the string, but not just a single digit as I expected, but up from the 12th index to the end of the string. Can somebody explain the different outputs to me? EDIT: Would this be an acceptable solution? char tmp[2] = {bigNumber.at(5), '\0'}; int digit = atoi(tmp); std::cout << "digit: " << digit << std::endl;

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