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  • Determining if Memory Pointer is Valid - C++

    - by Jim Fell
    It has been my observation that if free( ptr ) is called where ptr is not a valid pointer to system-allocated memory, an access violation occurs. Let's say that I call free like this: LPVOID ptr = (LPVOID)0x12345678; free( ptr ); This will most definitely cause an access violation. Is there a way to test that the memory location pointed to by ptr is valid system-allocated memory? It seems to me that the the memory management part of the Windows OS kernel must know what memory has been allocated and what memory remains for allocation. Otherwise, how could it know if enough memory remains to satisfy a given request? (rhetorical) That said, it seems reasonable to conclude that there must be a function (or set of functions) that would allow a user to determine if a pointer is valid system-allocated memory. Perhaps Microsoft has not made these functions public. If Microsoft has not provided such an API, I can only presume that it was for an intentional and specific reason. Would providing such a hook into the system prose a significant threat to system security? Situation Report Although knowing whether a memory pointer is valid could be useful in many scenarios, this is my particular situation: I am writing a driver for a new piece of hardware that is to replace an existing piece of hardware that connects to the PC via USB. My mandate is to write the new driver such that calls to the existing API for the current driver will continue to work in the PC applications in which it is used. Thus the only required changes to existing applications is to load the appropriate driver DLL(s) at startup. The problem here is that the existing driver uses a callback to send received serial messages to the application; a pointer to allocated memory containing the message is passed from the driver to the application via the callback. It is then the responsibility of the application to call another driver API to free the memory by passing back the same pointer from the application to the driver. In this scenario the second API has no way to determine if the application has actually passed back a pointer to valid memory.

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  • making a password-only auth with bcrypt and mongoose

    - by user3081123
    I want to create service that let you login only with password. You type a password and if this password exists - you are logged in and if it's not - username is generated and password is encrypted. I'm having some misunderstandings and hope someone would help me to show where I'm mistaken. I guess, it would look somewhat like this in agularjs First we receive a password in login controller. $scope.signup = function() { var user = { password: $scope.password, }; $http.post('/auth/signup', user); }; Send it via http.post and get in in our node server file. We are provided with a compare password bcrypt function userSchema.methods.comparePassword = function(candidatePassword, cb) { bcrypt.compare(candidatePassword, this.password, function(err, isMatch) { if (err) return cb(err); cb(null, isMatch); }); }; So right now we are creating function to catch our http request app.post('/auth/signup', function(req, res, next) { Inside we use a compair password function to realize if such password exists or not yet. So we have to encrypt a password with bcrypt to make a comparison First we hash it same way as in .pre var encPass; bcrypt.genSalt(10, function(err, salt) { if (err) return next(err); bcrypt.hash(req.body.password, salt, function(err, hash) { if (err) return next(err); encPass=hash; )}; )}; We have encrypted password stored in encPass so now we follow to finding a user in database with this password User.findOne({ password: encPass }, function(err, user) { if (user) { //user exists, it means we should pass an ID of this user to a controller to display it in a view. I don't know how. res.send({user.name}) //like this? How should controller receive this? With $http.post? } else { and now if user doesn't exist - we should create it with user ID generated by my function var nUser = new User({ name: generId(), password: req.body.password }); nUser.save(function(err) { if (err) return next(err); )}; )}; )}; Am I doing anything right? I'm pretty new to js and angular. If so - how do I throw a username back at controller? If someone is interested - this service exists for 100+ symbol passphrases so possibility of entering same passphrase as someone else is miserable. And yeah, If someone logged in under 123 password - the other guy will log in as same user if he entered 123 password, but hey, you are warned to make a big passphrase. So I'm confident about the idea and I only need a help with understanding and realization.

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  • Can I use WCF to replace my current Web Service and Window Service combination?

    - by gun_shy
    I need a little bit of advise regarding the situation I am faced with. The current arrangement I have been tasked with improving just doesn't sit well with me and I feel like there is a better way to do it. The more I read about WCF, the more I get the feeling that it might be what I am looking for. Right now, I have an asp.net client, a .net web service, a windows service, a ms sql database, and a third party application that is used for processing a group of 'project' files into a finalized file. Since the third party application can only handle processing one 'project' at a time, the combination of the web service, window service, and database have been arranged to create a job queue manager for the third party application. The client sends a zip 'project' file containing multiple sub files to the web service. The web service adds a new 'project' line to the database, generating a unique job id. The zip file is expanded to a folder location on the server using the job id as the folder name. The web service then returns the job id to the client. The client will use this id to poll the web service for the status of the job submitted. When the job is complete, the client will request the processed file. The windows service polls the database every x minutes. If a new job exists, the service will pull the oldest job and send it to the third party app for processing. If the processing succeeds, the window service updates the project line in the database, marking the job complete. The window service will continue to process any non complete jobs in the database until there are no more. When it stops finding any jobs, it will sleep x minutes and then poll the database again. I do not like the fact that the window service has to poll the database. If there is only one job submitted, the client will have to wait for the window service to poll and then wait while the 'project' is being processed. It seems like WCF could be used to combine the web and window services using a combination of the InstanceContextMode.Single and ConcurrencyMode.Multiple. So far, I have been unable to find any articles or examples that would point me in the right direction. Can WCF be utilized to accomplish the job queue logic of the current arrangement in a better way? As always, any help is more than appreciated.

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  • Finding open contiguous blocks of time for every day of a month, fast

    - by Chris
    I am working on a booking availability system for a group of several venues, and am having a hard time generating the availability of time blocks for days in a given month. This is happening server-side in PHP, but the concept itself is language agnostic -- I could be doing this in JS or anything else. Given a venue_id, month, and year (6/2012 for example), I have a list of all events occurring in that range at that venue, represented as unix timestamps start and end. This data comes from the database. I need to establish what, if any, contiguous block of time of a minimum length (different per venue) exist on each day. For example, on 6/1 I have an event between 2:00pm and 7:00pm. The minimum time is 5 hours, so there's a block open there from 9am - 2pm and another between 7pm and 12pm. This would continue for the 2nd, 3rd, etc... every day of June. Some (most) of the days have nothing happening at all, some have 1 - 3 events. The solution I came up with works, but it also takes waaaay too long to generate the data. Basically, I loop every day of the month and create an array of timestamps for each 15 minutes of that day. Then, I loop the time spans of events from that day by 15 minutes, marking any "taken" timeslot as false. Remaining, I have an array that contains timestamp of free time vs. taken time: //one day's array after processing through loops (not real timestamps) array( 12345678=>12345678, // <--- avail 12345878=>12345878, 12346078=>12346078, 12346278=>false, // <--- not avail 12346478=>false, 12346678=>false, 12346878=>false, 12347078=>12347078, // <--- avail 12347278=>12347278 ) Now I would need to loop THIS array to find continuous time blocks, then check to see if they are long enough (each venue has a minimum), and if so then establish the descriptive text for their start and end (i.e. 9am - 2pm). WHEW! By the time all this looping is done, the user has grown bored and wandered off to Youtube to watch videos of puppies; it takes ages to so examine 30 or so days. Is there a faster way to solve this issue? To summarize the problem, given time ranges t1 and t2 on day d, how can I determine the remaining time left in d that is longer than the minimum time block m. This data is assembled on demand via AJAX as the user moves between calendar months. Results are cached per-page-load, so if the user goes to July a second time, the data that was generated the first time would be reused. Any other details that would help, let me know. Edit Per request, the database structure (or the part that is relevant here) *events* id (bigint) title (varchar) *event_times* id (bigint) event_id (bigint) venue_id (bigint) start (bigint) end (bigint) *venues* id (bigint) name (varchar) min_block (int) min_start (varchar) max_start (varchar)

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  • iOs receivedData from NSURLConnection is nil

    - by yhl
    I was wondering if anyone could point out why I'm not able to capture a web reply. My NSLog shows that my [NSMutableData receivedData] has a length of 0 the entire run of the connection. The script that I hit when I click my login button returns a string. My NSLog result is pasted below, and after that I've pasted both the .h and .m files that I have. NSLog Result 2012-11-28 23:35:22.083 [12548:c07] Clicked on button_login 2012-11-28 23:35:22.090 [12548:c07] theConnection is succesful 2012-11-28 23:35:22.289 [12548:c07] didReceiveResponse 2012-11-28 23:35:22.290 [12548:c07] didReceiveData 2012-11-28 23:35:22.290 [12548:c07] 0 2012-11-28 23:35:22.290 [12548:c07] connectionDidFinishLoading 2012-11-28 23:35:22.290 [12548:c07] 0 ViewController.h #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface ViewController : UIViewController // Create an Action for the button. - (IBAction)button_login:(id)sender; // Add property declaration. @property (nonatomic,assign) NSMutableData *receivedData; @end ViewController.m #import ViewController.h @interface ViewController () @end @implementation ViewController @synthesize receivedData; - (void)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didReceiveResponse:(NSURLResponse *)response { NSLog(@"didReceiveResponse"); [receivedData setLength:0]; } - (void)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didReceiveData:(NSData *)data { NSLog(@"didReceiveData"); [receivedData appendData:data]; NSLog(@"%d",[receivedData length]); } - (void)connectionDidFinishLoading:(NSURLConnection *)connection { NSLog(@"connectionDidFinishLoading"); NSLog(@"%d",[receivedData length]); } - (IBAction)button_login:(id)sender { NSLog(@"Clicked on button_login"); NSString *loginScriptURL = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"http://www.website.com/app/scripts/login.php?"]; NSMutableURLRequest *theRequest = [NSMutableURLRequest requestWithURL:[NSURL URLWithString:loginScriptURL]]; NSString *postString = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"&paramUsername=user&paramPassword=pass"]; NSData *postData = [postString dataUsingEncoding:NSASCIIStringEncoding allowLossyConversion:YES]; [theRequest setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; [theRequest setHTTPBody:postData]; // Create the actual connection using the request. NSURLConnection *theConnection = [[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:theRequest delegate:self]; // Capture the response if (theConnection) { NSLog(@"theConnection is succesful"); } else { NSLog(@"theConnection failed"); } } @end

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  • PHP Shared Sessions across Domain

    - by bigstylee
    Hi, I have seen a few answers to this on SOO but most of these are concerned with the use of subdomains, of which none have worked for me. The common one being that the use of session.cookie_domain, which from my understanding will only work with subdomains. I am interested in a solution that deals with deals with entirely different domains (and includes the possibility of subdomains). Unfortunately project deadlines being what they are, time is not on my side, so I turn to SOO's expertise and experience. The current project brief is to be able to log into one site which currently only stores the user_id in the session and then be able to retrieve this value while on a different domain within the same server enviroment. Session data is being stored/retrieved from a database where the session id is the primary key. I am hoping to find a "light wieght" and "easy" to implement solution. The system is utlising an in-house Model View Controller design pattern, so all requests (including different domains) are run through a single bootstrap script. Using the domain name as a variable, this determines what context to display to the user. One option that did look like to have potential is the use of a hidden image and using the alt tag to set the user id. My first impressions suggest this immediately seems "too easy" (if possible) and riddled with security flaws. Disscuss? Another option which I considered is using the IP and User Agent for authentication but again I feel this not going to be a reliable option due to shared networks and changing IP addresses. My third option (and preferred) which I considered and as yet not seen discussed is using htaccess to fool the user into thinking that they are on a different domain when infact apache is redirecting; something like www.foo.com/index.php?domain=bar.com&controller=news/categoires/1 but displays to the user as www.bar.com/news/categories/1 foo.com represents the "main site domain" which all requests are run through and bar.com is what the user thinks they are accessing. The controller request dictates the page and view being requested. Is this possible? Are there other options? Pros/Cons? Thanks in advanced!!!

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  • jquery .get/.post not working on ie 7 or 8, works fine in ff

    - by Samutz
    I have basically this on a page: <script type="text/javascript"> function refresh_context() { $("#ajax-context").html("Searching..."); $.get("/ajax/ldap_search.php", {cn: $("#username").val()}, function(xml) { $("#ajax-context").html($("display", xml).text()); $("#context").val($("context", xml).text()); }, 'xml'); } $(document).ready(function() { $("#username").blur(refresh_context); }); </script> <input type="text" name="username" id="username" maxlength="255" value="" /> <input type="hidden" name="context" id="context" value=""/> <div id="ajax-context"></div> What it should do (and does fine on Firefox) is when you type a username in to the #username field, it will run /ajax/ldap_search.php?cn=$username, which searches our company's ldap for the username and returns it's raw context and a formatted version of the context like this: <result> <display>Staff -&gt; Accounting -&gt; John Smith</display> <context>cn=jsmith,ou=Accounting,ou=Staff,ou=Users,o=MyOrg</context> </result> The formatted version (display) goes to the div #ajax-context and goes to the hidden input #context. (Also, the - are actually - "& g t ;" (without spaces)). However, on IE the div stays stuck on "Searching..." and the hidden input value stays blank. I've tried both .get and .post and neither work. I'm sure it's failing on the .get because if I try this, I don't even get the alert: $.get("/ajax/ldap_search.php", {cn: $("#username").val()}, function() { alert("Check"); }); Also, IE doesn't give me any script errors. Edit: Added "$(document).ready(function() {", the .blur was already in it in my code, but I forgot to include that in my post. Edit 2: The request is being sent and apache2 is receiving it: 10.135.128.96 - - [01/May/2009:10:04:27 -0500] "GET /ajax/ldap_search.php?cn=i_typed_this_in_IE HTTP/1.1" 200 69

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  • Grid View Button Passing Data Via On Click

    - by flyersun
    Hi, I'm pretty new to C# and asp.net so aplogies if this is a really stupid question. I'm using a grid view to display a number of records from a database. Each row has an Edit Button. When the button is clicked I want an ID to be passed back to a funtion in my .cs file. How do I bind the rowID to the Button field? I've tired using a hyper link instead but this doens't seem to work because I'm posting back to the same page which already has a Permanter on the URL. asp.net <asp:GridView ID="gvAddresses" runat="server" onrowcommand="Edit_Row"> <Columns> <asp:ButtonField runat="server" ButtonType="Button" Text="Edit"> </Columns> </asp:GridView> c# int ImplantID = Convert.ToInt32(Request.QueryString["ImplantID"]); Session.Add("ImplantID", ImplantID); List<GetImplantDetails> DataObject = ImplantDetails(ImplantID); System.Data.DataSet DSImplant = new DataSet(); System.Data.DataTable DTImplant = new DataTable("Implant"); DSImplant.Tables.Add(DTImplant); DataColumn ColPostCode = new DataColumn(); ColPostCode.ColumnName = "PostCode"; ColPostCode.DataType = typeof(string); DTImplant.Columns.Add(ColPostCode); DataColumn ColConsigneeName = new DataColumn(); ColConsigneeName.ColumnName = "Consignee Name"; ColConsigneeName.DataType = typeof(string); DTImplant.Columns.Add(ColConsigneeName); DataColumn ColIsPrimaryAddress = new DataColumn(); ColIsPrimaryAddress.ColumnName = "Primary"; ColIsPrimaryAddress.DataType = typeof(int); DTImplant.Columns.Add(ColIsPrimaryAddress); DataColumn ColImplantCustomerDetailsID = new DataColumn(); ColImplantCustomerDetailsID.ColumnName = "Implant ID"; ColImplantCustomerDetailsID.DataType = typeof(int); DTImplant.Columns.Add(ColImplantCustomerDetailsID); foreach (GetImplantDetails Object in DataObject) { DataRow DRImplant = DTImplant.NewRow(); DRImplant["PostCode"] = Object.GetPostCode(); DRImplant["Consignee Name"] = Object.GetConsigneeName(); DRImplant["Primary"] = Object.GetIsPrimaryAddress(); DRImplant["Implant ID"] = Object.GeTImplantCustomerDetailsID(); DTImplant.Rows.Add(DRImplant); <--- this is what I need to be added to the button } gvAddresses.DataSource = DTImplant; gvAddresses.DataBind();

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  • getting service from wsdd via xpath not wroking (xmltask)

    - by subes
    Hi, I am trying to get the XPath "/deployment/service". Tested on this site: http://www.xmlme.com/XpathTool.aspx <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="no"?> <deployment xmlns="http://xml.apache.org/axis/wsdd/" xmlns:java="http://xml.apache.org /axis/wsdd/providers/java"> <service name="kontowebservice" provider="java:RPC" style="rpc" use="literal"> <parameter name="wsdlTargetNamespace" value="http://strategies.spine"/> <parameter name="wsdlServiceElement" value="ExposerService"/> <parameter name="wsdlServicePort" value="kontowebservice"/> <parameter name="className" value="dmd4biz.container.webservice.konto.internal.KontoWebServiceImpl_WS"/> <parameter name="wsdlPortType" value="Exposer"/> <parameter name="typeMappingVersion" value="1.2"/> <operation xmlns:operNS="http://strategies.spine" xmlns:rtns="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" name="expose" qname="operNS:expose" returnQName="exposeReturn" returnType="rtns:anyType" soapAction=""> <parameter xmlns:tns="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" qname="in0" type="tns:anyType"/> </operation> <parameter name="allowedMethods" value="expose"/> <parameter name="scope" value="Request"/> </service> </deployment> I absolutely can't find out why it always tells me that my xpath does not match... This may be stupid, but am I missing something? EDIT Thanks to the answer from Dimitre Novatchev I was able to find a workaround: <xmltask failwithoutmatch="true" report="false"> <fileset dir="${src.gen}/" includes="**/*-deploy.wsdd" /> <copy path="//*[local-name()='service']" buffer="tmpServiceBuf" append="true" /> </xmltask> <xmltask failwithoutmatch="true" report="false" source="${basedir}/env/axis/WEB-INF/server-config.wsdd" dest="${build.stage}/resources/WEB-INF/server-config.wsdd"> <insert path="//*[local-name()='transport'][last()]" buffer="tmpServiceBuf" position="after" /> </xmltask> Binding namespaces with xmltask (which is the tool that gave me the headaches) seems not to be possible. The code above did the trick.

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  • Ajax gets nothing back from the php.

    - by ShaMun
    Jquery i dont have alert and firefox i dont have anything in return. The code was working before, database query have successfull records also. What i am missing??? Jquery ajax. $.ajax({ type : "POST", url : "include/add_edit_del.php?model=teksten_display", data : "oper=search&ids=" + _id , dataType: "json", success : function(msg){ alert(msg); } }); PHP case 'teksten_display': $id = $_REQUEST['ids']; $res = $_dclass-_query_sql( "select a,b,id,wat,c,d from tb1 where id='" . $id . "'" ); $_rows = array(); while ( $rows = mysql_fetch_array ($res) ) { $_rows = $rows; } //header('Cache-Control: no-cache, must-revalidate'); //header('Expires: Mon, 26 Jul 1997 05:00:00 GMT'); header('Content-type: application/json'); echo utf8_encode( json_encode($_rows) ) ; //echo json_encode($_rows); //var_dump($_rows); //print_r ($res); break; Firefox response/request header Date Sat, 24 Apr 2010 22:34:55 GMT Server Apache/2.2.3 (CentOS) X-Powered-By PHP/5.1.6 Expires Thu, 19 Nov 1981 08:52:00 GMT Cache-Control no-store, no-cache, must-revalidate, post-check=0, pre-check=0 Pragma no-cache Content-Length 0 Connection close Content-Type application/json Host www.xxxx.be User-Agent Mozilla/5.0 (X11; U; Linux i686; en-US; rv:1.9.1.9) Gecko/20100330 Fedora/3.5.9-2.fc12 Firefox/3.5.9 Accept application/json, text/javascript, */* Accept-Language en-us,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding gzip,deflate Accept-Charset ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive 300 Connection keep-alive Content-Type application/x-www-form-urlencoded; charset=UTF-8 X-Requested-With XMLHttpRequest Referer http://www.xxxx.be/xxxxx Content-Length 17 Cookie csdb=2; codb=5; csdbb=1; codca=1.4; csdca=3; PHPSESSID=benunvkpecqh3pmd8oep5b55t7; CAKEPHP=3t7hrlc89emvg1hfsc45gs2bl2

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  • Criticise/Recommendations for my code

    - by aLk
    Before i go any further it would be nice to know if there is any major design flaws in my program so far. Is there anything worth changing before i continue? Model package model; import java.sql.*; import java.util.*; public class MovieDatabase { @SuppressWarnings({ "rawtypes", "unchecked" }) public List queryMovies() throws SQLException { Connection connection = null; java.sql.Statement statement = null; ResultSet rs = null; List results = new ArrayList(); try { DriverManager.registerDriver(new com.mysql.jdbc.Driver()); connection = DriverManager.getConnection("jdbc:mysql://localhost:3306/test", "root", "password"); statement = connection.createStatement(); String query = "SELECT * FROM movie"; rs = statement.executeQuery(query); while(rs.next()) { MovieBean bean = new MovieBean(); bean.setMovieId(rs.getInt(1)); bean.setTitle(rs.getString(2)); bean.setYear(rs.getInt(3)); bean.setRating(rs.getInt(4)); results.add(bean); } } catch(SQLException e) { } return results; } } Servlet public class Service extends HttpServlet { @SuppressWarnings("rawtypes") protected void doGet(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException, IOException { response.setContentType("text/html"); PrintWriter out = response.getWriter(); out.println("Movies!"); MovieDatabase movies = new MovieDatabase(); try { List results = movies.queryMovies(); Iterator it = results.iterator(); while(it.hasNext()) { MovieBean movie = new MovieBean(); movie = (MovieBean)it.next(); out.println(movie.getYear()); } } catch(SQLException e) { } } } Bean package model; @SuppressWarnings("serial") public class MovieBean implements java.io.Serializable { protected int movieid; protected int rating; protected int year; protected String title; public MovieBean() { } public void setMovieId(int movieidVal) { movieid = movieidVal; } public void setRating(int ratingVal) { rating = ratingVal; } public void setYear(int yearVal) { year = yearVal; } public void setTitle(String titleVal) { title = titleVal; } public int getMovieId() { return movieid; } public int getRating() { return rating; } public int getYear() { return year; } public String getTitle() { return title; } }

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  • How to set Minimum and Maximum Character limitation to EditText in Android?

    - by nishitpatel
    I am new to android here i have very silly problem i want to set my Edit text box minimum and maximum input value. Here I am creating one Simple validation for Edit text it only take A-Z and 0-9 value with minimum 5 and Maximum 8 character. I set the Maximum and other validation as follow. <EditText android:id="@+id/edittextKode_Listing" android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_marginRight="5dp" android:layout_marginLeft="5dp" android:layout_alignTop="@+id/textKode_listing" android:layout_toRightOf="@+id/textKode_listing" android:maxLength="8" android:inputType="textCapCharacters" android:digits="0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTVUWXYZ" /> but not able to set Minimum requirement. My Edit text is in alert dialog and i also apply the following code to solve this problem ` private void openInboxDialog() { LayoutInflater inflater = this.getLayoutInflater(); // declare dialog view final View dialogView = inflater.inflate(R.layout.kirim_layout, null); final EditText edittextKode = (EditText) dialogView.findViewById(R.id.edittextKode_Listing); final EditText edittextalamat = (EditText) dialogView.findViewById(R.id.edittextAlamat); edittextKode.setOnFocusChangeListener(new OnFocusChangeListener() { @Override public void onFocusChange(View v, boolean hasFocus) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub if(edittextKode.getText().toString().length() > 0){ if(edittextKode.getText().toString().length() < 5) { edittextKode.setError("Error"); Toast.makeText(GPSActivity.this, "Kode listing value not be less than 5", Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); edittextKode.requestFocus(); } } } }); final AlertDialog.Builder builder = new AlertDialog.Builder(GPSActivity.this); builder.setTitle("Kirim").setView(dialogView) .setNeutralButton("OK", new DialogInterface.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(DialogInterface dialog, int which) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub gpsCoordinates = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.text_GPS_Coordinates); kode = edittextKode.getText().toString(); alamat = edittextalamat.getText().toString(); catatan = edittextcatatan.getText().toString(); pengirim = edittextPengirim.getText().toString(); if (kode.length() > 0 && alamat.length() > 0 && catatan.length() > 0 && pengirim.length() > 0) { message = "Kode listing : " + kode + "\nAlamat : " + alamat + " \nCatatan : " + catatan + " \n Pengirim : " + pengirim + "\nKoordinat GPS : " + gpsCoordinates.getText().toString(); sendByGmail(); } else { Toast.makeText( getApplicationContext(), "Please fill all three fields to send mail", Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } } }); builder.create(); builder.show(); }` in this alert dialog i have two edittext i want to apply my validation on first edittext i called the setOnFocusChangeListener to check its minimum length on focus change and if length is less than 5 request for focus but it still type in second edittext. please help me out.

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  • PHP problems when transfering code from Windows to OS X

    - by Makka95
    I have recently bought a new MacBook Pro. Before I had my MacBook Pro I was working on a website on my desktop computer. And now I want to transfer this code to my new MacBook Pro. The problem is that when I transfered the code (I put it on Dropbox and simply downloaded it on my MacBook Pro) I started to see lots of error messages in my PHP code. The error message I”m receiving is: Warning: Cannot modify header information - headers already sent by (output started at /some/file.php:1) in /some/file.php on line 23 I have done some research on this and it seems that this error is most frequently caused by a new line, simple whitespace or any output before the <?php sign. I have looked through all the places where I have cookies that are being sent in the HTTP request and also where I'm using the header() function. I haven’t detected any output or whitespace that possibly could interfere and cause this problem. Noteworthy is that the error always says that the output is started at line 1. Which got me thinking if there is some kind of coding differences in the way that the Mac OS X and Windows operating systems handle new lines or white spaces? Or could the Dropbox transfer messed something up? The code on one of the sites(login.php) which produces the error: <?php include "mysql_database.php"; login(); $id = $_SESSION['Loggedin']; setcookie("login", $id, (time()+60*60*24*30)); header('Location: ' . $_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER']); ?> login function: function login() { $connection = connecttodatabase(); $pass = ""; $user = ""; $query = ""; if (isset($_POST['user']) && $_POST['user'] != null) { $user = $_POST['user']; if (isset($_POST['pass']) && $_POST['pass'] != null) { $pass = md5($_POST['pass']); $query = "SELECT ID FROM Anvandare WHERE Nickname='$user' AND Password ='$pass'"; } } if ($query != "") { $id = $connection->query($query); $id = mysqli_fetch_assoc($id); $id = $id['ID']; $_SESSION['Loggedin'] = $id; } closeconnection($connection); } Complete error: Warning: Cannot modify header information - headers already sent by (output started at /Users/name/GitHub/website/login.php:1) in /Users/namn/GitHub/website/login.php on line 9

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  • Can you call FB.login inside a callback from other FB methods (like FB.getLoginStatus) without triggering popup blockers?

    - by Erik Kallevig
    I'm trying to set up a pretty basic authentication logic flow with the FB JavaScript SDK to check a user's logged-in status and permissions before performing an action (and prompting the user to login with permissions if they are not)... User types a message into a textarea on my site to post to their Facebook feed and click's a 'post to facebook' button on my site. In response to the click, I check user's logged in status with FB.getLoginStatus In the callback to FB.getLoginStatus, if user is not logged in, prompt them to login (FB.login). In the callback to FB.login I then need to make sure they have the right permissions so I make a call to FB.api('/me/permissions') -- if they don't , I again prompt them to login (FB.login) The problem I'm running into is that anytime I try to call FB.login inside a callback to other FB methods, the browser seems to lose track of the origin of execution (the click) and thus will block the popup. I'm wondering if I'm missing some way to prompt the user to login after checking their status without the browser mistakenly thinking that it's not a user-initiated popup? I've currently fallen back to just calling FB.login() first regardless. The undesired side effect of this approach, however, is that if the user is already logged-in with permissions and I'm still calling FB.login, the auth popup will open and close immediately before continuing, which looks rather buggy despite being functional. It seems like checking a user's login status and permissions before doing something would be a common flow so I feel like I'm missing something. Here's some example code. <div onclick="onClickPostBtn()">Post to Facebook</div> <script> // Callback to click on Post button. function onClickPostBtn() { // Check if logged in, prompt to do so if not. FB.getLoginStatus(function(response) { if (response.status === 'connected') { checkPermissions(response.authResponse.accessToken); } else { FB.login(function(){}, {scope: 'publish_stream'}) } }); } // Logged in, check permissions. function checkPermissions(accessToken) { FB.api('/me/permissions', {'access_token': accessToken}, function(response){ // Logged in and authorized for this site. if (response.data && response.data.length) { // Parse response object to check for permission here... if (hasPermission) { // Logged in with permission, perform some action. } else { // Logged in without proper permission, request login with permissions. FB.login(function(){}, {scope: 'publish_stream'}) } // Logged in to FB but not authorized for this site. } else { FB.login(function(){}, {scope: 'publish_stream'}) } } ); } </script>

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  • Guilty of unsound programming

    - by TelJanini
    I was reading Robert Rossney's entry on "What's the most unsound program you've had to maintain?" found at: (What's the most unsound program you've had to maintain?) when I realized that I had inadvertently developed a near-identical application! The app consists of an HTTPListener object that grabs incoming POST requests. Based on the information in the header, I pass the body of the request to SQL Server to perform the appropriate transaction. The requests look like: <InvoiceCreate Control="389> <Invoice> <CustomerNumber>5555</CustomerNumber> <Total>300.00</Total> <RushOrder>1</RushOrder> </Invoice> </InvoiceCreate> Once it's received by the HTTPListener object, I perform the required INSERT to the Invoice table using SQL Server's built-in XML handling functionality via a stored procedure: INSERT INTO Invoice (InvoiceNumber, CustomerNumber, Total, RushOrder) SELECT @NEW_INVOICE_NUMBER, @XML.value('(InvoiceCreate/Invoice/CustomerNumber)[1]', 'varchar(10)'), @XML.value('(InvoiceCreate/Invoice/Total)[1]', 'varchar(10)'), @XML.value('(InvoiceCreate/Invoice/Total)[1]', 'varchar(10)') I then use another SELECT statement in the same stored procedure to return the value of the new Invoice Number that was inserted into the Invoices table: SELECT @NEW_INVOICE_NUMBER FOR XML PATH 'InvoiceCreateAck' I then read the generated XML using a SQL data reader object in C# and use it as the response of the HTTPListener object. My issue is, I'm noticing that Robert is indeed correct. All of my application logic exists inside the stored procedure, so I find myself having to do a lot of error-checking (i.e. validating the customer number and invoicenumber values) inside the stored procedure. I'm still a midlevel developer, and as such, am looking to improve. Given the original post, and my current architecture, what could I have done differently to improve the application? Are there any patterns or best practices that I could refer to? What approach would you have taken? I'm open to any and all criticism, as I'd like to do my part to reduce the amount of "unsound programming" in the world.

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  • fieldWithErrors not wrapping every error field

    - by Teef L
    Notice the following result when I submit blank :title and :description fields The validations are in the controller: class Question < ActiveRecord::Base validates_presence_of :title validates_presence_of :description And, the form is generated with those names: -form_for(@question) do |f| = f.error_messages = f.label :title = f.text_field :title, :size => 50, :onchange => remote_function(:url => {:action => :display_tag_suggestions}, :with => 'Form.Element.serialize(this)') #suggestions = f.label :description = f.text_area :description ... But, for some reason, only :title gets wrapped in the error div tags: <form action="/questions" class="new_question" id="new_question" method="post"> <div style="margin:0;padding:0"><input name="authenticity_token" type="hidden" value="6HQaiu1D0gBQcKw2pLeZP6Jvn0FSClPD5Sk9HwegzPg=" /></div> <div class="errorExplanation" id="errorExplanation"> <h2>2 errors prohibited this question from being saved</h2> <p>There were problems with the following fields:</p> <ul> <li>Title can't be blank</li> <li>Description can't be blank</li> </ul> </div> <label for="question_title">Title</label> <div class="fieldWithErrors"><input id="question_title" name="question[title]" onchange="new Ajax.Request('/questions/display_tag_suggestions', {asynchronous:true, evalScripts:true, parameters:Form.Element.serialize(this) + '&amp;authenticity_token=' + encodeURIComponent('6HQaiu1D0gBQcKw2pLeZP6Jvn0FSClPD5Sk9HwegzPg=')})" size="50" type="text" value="" /></div> <label for="question_description">Description</label> <textarea cols="40" id="question_description" name="question[description]" rows="20"></textarea> ... I don't think that behavior is expected. The problem most people have is that it's wrapping things with divs, which won't display properly. My problem is that fields aren't being wrapped with divs to begin with! I haven't made any (conscious) changes to how errors are handled, so I'm not sure why it's not working properly.

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  • appending multiple groups with values from xml

    - by zurna
    In my xml file comments are listed as <Comments> <CommentID id="1"> <CommentBy>efet</CommentBy> <CommentDesc> Who cares!!! My boyfriend thinks the same with me. tell your friends. </CommentDesc> </CommentID> <CommentID id="2"> <CommentBy>tetto</CommentBy> <CommentDesc> xyz.... </CommentDesc> </CommentID> </Comments> I need to append them inside the ul of the div id="nw-comments". <div id="nw-comments" class="article-page"> <h3>Member Comments</h3> <ul> <li class="top-level"> <ul class="comment-options right"> <li> <a id="reply_1272195" class="reply" href="javascript:void(0);" name="anchor_1272195">Reply</a> </li> <li class="last"> <a id="report_1272195" class="report" href="javascript:void(0);">Report Abuse</a> </li> </ul> <h6>Posted By: [CommentBy] @ [CommentDateEntered]</h6> <div class="post-content"> <p>[CommentDesc]</p> </div> </li> </ul> </div> I tried to do it with the following code but I keep getting errors. $(document).ready(function(){ $.ajax({ dataType: "xml", url: "/FLPM/content/news/news.cs.asp?Process=ViewNews&NEWSID=<%=Request.QueryString("NEWSID")%>", success: function(xml) { $(xml).find('row').each(function(){ var id = $(this).attr('id'); var FullName = $(this).find('FullName').text(); var CommentBy = $(this).find('CommentBy').text(); var CommentDateEntered = $(this).find('CommentDateEntered').text(); var CommentDesc = $(this).find('CommentDesc').text(); $("#nw-comments ul").append("<h6>Posted By: " + CommentBy + " @ " + CommentDateEntered + "</h6><div class=""post-content""><p>" + CommentDesc + "</p></div>"); }); } });

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  • Calling a webservice synchronously from a Silverlight 3 application?

    - by Lasse V. Karlsen
    I am trying to reuse some .NET code that performs some calls to a data-access-layer type service. I have managed to package up both the input to the method and the output from the method, but unfortunately the service is called from inside code that I really don't want to rewrite in order to be asynchronous. Unfortunately, the webservice code generated in Silverlight only produces asynchronous methods, so I was wondering if anyone had working code that managed to work around this? I tried the recipe found here: The Easy Way To Synchronously Call WCF Services In Silverlight, but unfortunately it times out and never completes the call. Or rather, what seems to happen is that the completed event handler is called, but only after the method returns. I am suspecting that the event handler is called from a dispatcher or similar, and since I'm blocking the main thread here, it never completes until the code is actually back into the GUI loop. Or something like that. Here's my own version that I wrote before I found the above recipe, but it suffers from the same problem: public static object ExecuteRequestOnServer(Type dalInterfaceType, string methodName, object[] arguments) { string securityToken = "DUMMYTOKEN"; string input = "DUMMYINPUT"; object result = null; Exception resultException = null; object evtLock = new object(); var evt = new System.Threading.ManualResetEvent(false); try { var client = new MinGatServices.DataAccessLayerServiceSoapClient(); client.ExecuteRequestCompleted += (s, e) => { resultException = e.Error; result = e.Result; lock (evtLock) { if (evt != null) evt.Set(); } }; client.ExecuteRequestAsync(securityToken, input); try { var didComplete = evt.WaitOne(10000); if (!didComplete) throw new TimeoutException("A data access layer web service request timed out (" + dalInterfaceType.Name + "." + methodName + ")"); } finally { client.CloseAsync(); } } finally { lock (evtLock) { evt.Close(); evt = null; } } if (resultException != null) throw resultException; else return result; } Basically, both recipes does this: Set up a ManualResetEvent Hook into the Completed event The event handler grabs the result from the service call, and signals the event The main thread now starts the web service call asynchronously It then waits for the event to become signalled However, the event handler is not called until the method above has returned, hence my code that checks for evt != null and such, to avoid TargetInvocationException from killing my program after the method has timed out. Does anyone know: ... if it is possible at all in Silverlight 3 ... what I have done wrong above?

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  • What should I learn & use to become a pro in PHP & Python Web development?

    - by pecker
    Hello, I'll just show some code to show how I do web development in PHP. <html> <head> <title>Example #3 TDavid's Very First PHP Script ever!</title> </head> <? print(Date("m/j/y")); require_once("somefile.php"); $mysql_db = "DATABASE NAME"; $mysql_user = "YOUR MYSQL USERNAME"; $mysql_pass = "YOUR MYSQL PASSWORD"; $mysql_link = mysql_connect("localhost", $mysql_user, $mysql_pass); mysql_select_db($mysql_db, $mysql_link); $result = mysql_query("SELECT impressions from tds_counter where COUNT_ID='$cid'", $mysql_link); if(mysql_num_rows($result)) { mysql_query("UPDATE tds_counter set impressions=impressions+1 where COUNT_ID='$cid'", $mysql_link); $row = mysql_fetch_row($result); if(!$inv) { print("$row[0]"); } } ?> <body> </body> </html> Thats it. I write every file like this. Recently, I learnt OOP and started using classes & objects in PHP. I hear that there are many frameworks there for PHP. They say that one must use these libraries. But I feel they are just making things complicated. Anyway, this is how I've been doing my web development. Now, I want to improve this. and make it professional. Also I want to move to Python. I searched SO archives and found everyone suggesting Django. But, can any one give me some idea about how web development in Python works? user (client) request for page --- webserver(-embedded PHP interpreter) ---- Server side(PHP) Script --- MySQL Server. Now, is it that instead of PHP interpreter there is python interpreter & instead of php script there is python script, which contains both HTML & python (embedded in some kind of python tags). Python script connects to database server and fetches some data which will be printed as HTML. or is it different in python world? Is this Django thing like frameworks for PHP? Can't one code in python without using Django. Because, I never encountered any post without django Please give me some kick start.

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  • Why the only hidden field that is being filled from GET action is not being passed in model?

    - by user1807954
    Sorry for the long title, I didn't know how to make it any shorter. My code: My model: public class CarFilter { public String carMake { get; set; } public String carModel { get; set; } public String carEdition { get; set; } . . . public String SortBy { get; set; } } public class CarSearch : CarFilter { public List<Car> Car { get; set; } } My controller: public ActionResult SearchResult(CarSearch search) { var cars = from d in db.Cars select d; if (Request.HttpMethod == "POST") { search.SortBy = "Price"; } search.Car = new List<Car>(); search.Car.AddRange(cars); var temp = new List<CarSearch>(); temp.Add(search); return View(temp); } My Index view (where user filters results): @model IEnumerable<Cars.Models.CarSearch> @using (Html.BeginForm("SearchResult", "Home", FormMethod.Post)){..forms and other stuff..} My SearchResult view (where user sees the results of filtration): @model IEnumerable<Cars.Models.CarSearch> @using (Html.BeginForm("SearchResult", "Home", FormMethod.Get)) { @Html.Hidden("carMake") @Html.Hidden("carModel") @Html.Hidden("carEdition") . . . @Html.Hidden("SortBy", temp.SortBy) <input name="SortBy" class="buttons" type="submit" value="Make"/> My goal What I'm trying to do is when user clicked on sort by Make it will have to GET back all the variables in hidden field back to the SearchResult action in order to sort the result (same filtered results). Result Is: <input id="SortBy" name="SortBy" type="hidden" value=""/>. The value is null and it's not being passed but all the other hidden fields such as carMake and etc have value. But when I use foreach it works perfect. Question Why is this like this? the SortBy is in the same model class as other fields in the view. The only difference is that SortBy is not being filled in the Index view with other fields, instead it's being filled in controller action. What is the explanation for this? Am I missing any C# definition or something such as dynamic objects or something?

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  • Check Avaibility of a page before loading using jquery/ajax

    - by overcomer
    Is it possible check the Accessibility of a page before loading it? I have a form, running on mobile device using wireless connection. The problem is: not always this connection is avaible and i would like to alert the user when is doing a submit or an unload of the page. The problem is that the page contains elements doing redirect like this: <input type="button" value="MyText" onClick="script1;script2;...window.location='mylocation" /> If the user click on this button and the server is not achievable, i will recive some undesiderable errors. Also if I want to generalize my script i do not know the value of "mylocation" previously. The page contains elements to submit the Form also: <input type="submit" name="SUBMIT" value="MyValue" onClick="return eval('validationForm()')" /> For the submitting I'm using the ajaxForm plugin and it works quite well. This is a snippet of code: Thanks to your answer I found the solution to the problem. That's the code: function checkConnection(u,s){ $.ajax({ url:u, cache:false, timeout:3000, error: function(jqXHR, textStatus) { alert("Request failed: " + textStatus ); }, success: function() { eval(s); } }); } $(document).ready(function() { // part of the function that checks buttons with redirect // for any input that contain a redirect on onClick attribute ("window.locarion=") $("input[type=button]").each(function(){ var script = $(this).attr("onClick"); var url = ""; var position = script.indexOf("window.location") ; if (position >= 0) { // case of redirect url = script.substring(position+17, script.lenght); url = url.split("\'")[0]; url = "\'"+url+"\'"; // that's my url script = "\""+script+"\""; // that's the complete script $(this).attr("onClick","checkConnection("+url+","+script+")"); } }); // part of the function that checks the submit buttons (using ajaxForm plugin) var is_error = false; var options = { error: function() { if (alert("Error Message")==true) { } is_error = true; }, target: window.document, replaceTarget: is_error, timeout: 3000 }; $("#myForm").ajaxForm(options); }); I hope that this will be usefull.

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  • How to pass multiple PHP variables to a jQuery function?

    - by jcpeden
    I'm working on a Wordpress plugin. I need to pass plugin directories (that can change depending on an individual's installation) to a jquery function. What is the best way of doing this? The version of the plugin that I can to work on had included all the javascript in the PHP file so the functions were parsed along with the rest of the content before being rendered in a browser. I'm looking at AJAX but I think it might be more complicated than I need. I can get away with just two variables in this case (directories, nothing set by the user). As I've read its good practice, I'm trying to keep the js and php separate. When the plugin initializes, it call the js file: //Wordpress calls the .js when the plugin loads wp_enqueue_script( 'wp-backitup-funtions', plugin_dir_url( __FILE__ ) . 'js/wp-backitup.js', array( 'jquery' ) ); Then I'm in the .js file and need to figure out how to generate the following variables: dir = '<?php echo content_url() ."/plugins"; ?>'; dir = '<?php echo content_url() ."/themes"; ?>'; dir = '<?php echo content_url() ."/uploads"; ?>'; And run the parse the following requests: xmlhttp.open("POST","<?php echo plugins_url() .'/wp-backitup/includes/wp-backitup-restore.php'); ?>",true); xmlhttp.open("POST","<?php echo plugins_url() .'/wp-backitup/includes/wp-backitup-start.php'); ?>",true); xmlhttp.open("POST","<?php echo plugins_url() .'/wp-backitup/wp-backitup-directory.php'); ?>",true); xmlhttp.open("POST","<?php echo plugins_url() .'/wp-backitup/wp-backitup-db.php'); ?>",true); window.location = "<?php echo plugins_url() .'/wp-backitup/backitup-project.zip'); ?>"; xmlhttp.open("POST","<?php echo plugins_url() .'/wp-backitup/wp-backitup-delete.php'); ?>",true); Content URL and Plugins URL differ only by /plugins/ so if I was hard pressed, I would only really need to make a single PHP request and then bring this into the JS.

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  • Help Desk Database Design

    - by user237244
    The company I work at has very specific and unique needs for a help desk system, so none of the open source systems will work for us. That being the case, I created a custom system using PHP and MySQL. It's far from perfect, but it's infinitely better than the last system they were using; trust me! It meets most of our needs quite nicely, but I have a question about the way I have the database set up. Here are the main tables: ClosedTickets ClosedTicketSolutions Locations OpenTickets OpenTicketSolutions Statuses Technicians When a user submits a help request, it goes in the "OpenTickets" table. As the technicians work on the problem, they submit entries with a description of what they've done. These entries go in the "OpenTicketSolutions" table. When the problem has been resolved, the last technician to work on the problem closes the ticket and it gets moved to the "ClosedTickets" table. All of the solution entries get moved to the "ClosedTicketSolutions" table as well. The other tables (Locations, Statuses, and Technicians) exist as a means of normalization (each location, status, and technician has an ID which is referenced). The problem I'm having now is this: When I want to view a list of all the open tickets, the SQL statement is somewhat complicated because I have to left join the "Locations", "Statuses", and "Technicians" tables. Fields from various tables need to be searchable as well. Check out how complicated the SQL statement is to search closed tickets for tickets submitted by anybody with a first name containing "John": SELECT ClosedTickets.*, date_format(ClosedTickets.EntryDate, '%c/%e/%y %l:%i %p') AS Formatted_Date, date_format(ClosedDate, '%c/%e/%y %l:%i %p') AS Formatted_ClosedDate, Concat(Technicians.LastName, ', ', Technicians.FirstName) AS TechFullName, Locations.LocationName, date_format(ClosedTicketSolutions.EntryDate, '%c/%e/%y') AS Formatted_Solution_EntryDate, ClosedTicketSolutions.HoursSpent AS SolutionHoursSpent, ClosedTicketSolutions.Tech_ID AS SolutionTech_ID, ClosedTicketSolutions.EntryText FROM ClosedTickets LEFT JOIN Technicians ON ClosedTickets.Tech_ID = Technicians.Tech_ID LEFT JOIN Locations ON ClosedTickets.Location_ID = Locations.Location_ID LEFT JOIN ClosedTicketSolutions ON ClosedTickets.TicketNum = ClosedTicketSolutions.TicketNum WHERE (ClosedTickets.FirstName LIKE '%John%') ORDER BY ClosedDate Desc, ClosedTicketSolutions.EntryDate, ClosedTicketSolutions.Entry_ID One thing that I'm not able to do right now is search both open and closed tickets at the same time. I don't think a union would work in my case. So I'm wondering if I should store the open and closed tickets in the same table and just have a field indicating whether or not the ticket is closed. The only problem I can forsee is that we have so many closed tickets already (nearly 30,000) so the whole system might perform slowly. Would it be a bad idea to combine the open and closed tickets?

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  • Database advantages? Access, MySQL, msSQL, or any others?

    - by JimZ
    Dear all Stackoverflowers, I just started to learn programming and now I'm putting this question online based on a quote: no question is silly My work needs to develop a order system based on web, which wants a database system. Since using Excel for years as a general office user, I naturally turn this to Access. However, most people say Access is very limited comparing to MySQL or MSSQL, or any other more professional database system. But after developing some functions for my company's order system, I really find Access can fulfill my request. And I also tried MSSQL to develop, which I found it not quite convenient to use. I have searched in stackoverflow and find no general answer about my doubt. Now I am sincerely hoping some experienced and professional developers could clear my doubts. Now I'm listing some Access advantages, which I don't think other database system have. I hope you could help me also find these advantages in others. 1. Access is portable, I can just copy a xxx.accdb file to my company and continue with development. 2. Access is easy to generate helpful table, for example, it will automatically generate a field that can automatically count, could be used as primary key value. 3. it is more compatable with Excel, to display and filter data. 4. importantly, it nerely needs no environment to setup, just needs MS Office to be installed. ............others However, I also find some points that MSSQL is advantaged: 1. security reasons 2. easy to backup, ( just use BACKUP..... sql statement to do it) 3. can edit stored procedure to save some functions to database ...............others specifically, I wish some friends could tell me how to make other database portable? since I usually work both at home and in office. It's a headache to move MSSQL work to my office, since the version of MSSQL is not the same. Thank you all and best regards, :)

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  • Android: Stopping method to be called twice if already running.

    - by user285831
    I'm trying to prevent my application to call the same method twice in the event of a double-click, or if the user presses different buttons quickly, almost at the same time. I have clickable Views, acting as buttons, that call the same method but passing different parameters. This is the call: startTheSearch(context, getState(), what, where); Inside this method I'm creating a new Thread, because it queries a web server for the result: new Thread(new Runnable() { public void run() { progDiag = ProgressDialog.show(ctx, null, "Searching", true); getServerXML(context, what, where, searchIsCustom, mOffset); handler.sendEmptyMessage(0); } }).start(); The problem is that upon two quick clicks, the method is fired twice, two threads are created, and consequently two new activities are created. That makes my app crash. When the methods are done, and we have the result from the server, we call the handler: private Handler handler = new Handler() { @Override public void handleMessage(Message msg) { super.handleMessage(msg); try { Intent i = new Intent(Golf.this, Result.class); Bundle b = new Bundle(); b.putString("what", mWhat); b.putString("where", mWhere); b.putInt("offset", mOffset); b.putBoolean("searchIsCustom", searchIsCustom); i.putExtras(b); startActivityForResult(i, Activity.RESULT_OK); progDiag.dismiss(); } catch (Exception e) { Alerts.generalDialogAlert("Error", "settings", ctx); } } }; I tried to have a global boolean variable called "blocked" initially set to false, creating a condition like: if(!blocked){ blocked = true; new Thread(new Runnable() { public void run() { But this only seems to work on slower phones like the G1, I tried on Nexus and before it set blocked = true, the second request has was granted. So is there any way I can block the method being called if it's already running, or if the thread has started so it wont create a new one? Please, I really need to fix this. I've been developing on Android for almost 2 months now, but I'm yet to tackle that bug. Thanks in advance.

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