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  • GLSL shader render to texture not saving alpha value

    - by quadelirus
    I am rendering to a texture using a GLSL shader and then sending that texture as input to a second shader. For the first texture I am using RGB channels to send color data to the second GLSL shader, but I want to use the alpha channel to send a floating point number that the second shader will use as part of its program. The problem is that when I read the texture in the second shader the alpha value is always 1.0. I tested this in the following way: at the end of the first shader I did this: gl_FragColor(r, g, b, 0.1); and then in the second texture I read the value of the first texture using something along the lines of vec4 f = texture2D(previous_tex, pos); if (f.a != 1.0) { gl_FragColor = vec4(0.0, 0.0, 0.0, 1.0); return; } No pixels in my output are black, whereas if I change the above code to read gl_FragColor(r, g, 0.1, 1.0); //Notice I'm now sending 0.1 for blue and in the second shader vec4 f = texture2D(previous_tex, pos); if (f.b != 1.0) { gl_FragColor = vec4(0.0, 0.0, 0.0, 1.0); return; } All the appropriate pixels are black. This means that for some reason when I set the alpha value to something other than 1.0 in the first shader and render to a texture, it is still seen as being 1.0 by the second shader. Before I render to texture I glDisable(GL_BLEND); It seems pretty clear to me that the problem has to do with OpenGL handling alpha values in some way that isn't obvious to me since I can use the blue channel in the way I want, and figured someone out there will instantly see the problem.

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  • Rot13 for numbers.

    - by dreeves
    EDIT: Now a Major Motion Blog Post at http://messymatters.com/sealedbids The idea of rot13 is to obscure text, for example to prevent spoilers. It's not meant to be cryptographically secure but to simply make sure that only people who are sure they want to read it will read it. I'd like to do something similar for numbers, for an application involving sealed bids. Roughly I want to send someone my number and trust them to pick their own number, uninfluenced by mine, but then they should be able to reveal mine (purely client-side) when they're ready. They should not require further input from me or any third party. (Added: Note the assumption that the recipient is being trusted not to cheat.) It's not as simple as rot13 because certain numbers, like 1 and 2, will recur often enough that you might remember that, say, 34.2 is really 1. Here's what I'm looking for specifically: A function seal() that maps a real number to a real number (or a string). It should not be deterministic -- seal(7) should not map to the same thing every time. But the corresponding function unseal() should be deterministic -- unseal(seal(x)) should equal x for all x. I don't want seal or unseal to call any webservices or even get the system time (because I don't want to assume synchronized clocks). (Added: It's fine to assume that all bids will be less than some maximum, known to everyone, say a million.) Sanity check: > seal(7) 482.2382 # some random-seeming number or string. > seal(7) 71.9217 # a completely different random-seeming number or string. > unseal(seal(7)) 7 # we always recover the original number by unsealing.

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  • sqlite3 - stringWithUTF8String is leaking!

    - by Darko Hebrang
    I would appreciate if someone could help me solve my leaking problem. The leaks occur at: aImage, aCategory, aDescription, category and categories. I release them in dealloc, but obviously that is not sufficient: -(void) readListFromDatabase:(char *) sqlStatement { // Setup some globals databaseName = @"mydatabase.sql"; // Get the path to the documents directory and append the databaseName NSArray *documentPaths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *documentsDir = [documentPaths objectAtIndex:0]; databasePath = [documentsDir stringByAppendingPathComponent:databaseName]; // Setup the database object sqlite3 *database; // Init the categories Array categories = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; // Open the database from the users filessytem if(sqlite3_open([databasePath UTF8String], &database) == SQLITE_OK) { // Setup the SQL Statement and compile it for faster access sqlite3_stmt *compiledStatement; if(sqlite3_prepare_v2(database, sqlStatement, -1, &compiledStatement, NULL) == SQLITE_OK) { // Loop through the results and add them to the feeds array while(sqlite3_step(compiledStatement) == SQLITE_ROW) { // Read the data from the result row aImage = [NSString stringWithUTF8String:(char *)sqlite3_column_text(compiledStatement, 0)]; aCategory = [NSString stringWithUTF8String:(char *)sqlite3_column_text(compiledStatement, 1)]; aDescription = [NSString stringWithUTF8String:(char *)sqlite3_column_text(compiledStatement, 2)]; // Create a new category object with the data from the database category=[[Category alloc] initWithName:aImage category_name:aCategory description_text:aDescription]; // Add the category object to the categories Array [categories addObject:category]; [category release]; } } // Release the compiled statement from memory sqlite3_finalize(compiledStatement); } sqlite3_close(database); } - (void)dealloc { [databaseName release]; [databasePath release]; [categories release]; [aImage release]; [aCategory release]; [aDescription release]; [category release]; [super dealloc]; }

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  • How can i Execute a Controller's ActionMethod programatically?

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, I'm trying to execute a controller's Action Method programatically and I'm not sure how. Scenario: When my ControllerFactory fails to find the controller, I wish it to manually execute a single action method which i have on a simple, custom controller. I don't want to rely on using any route data to determine the controller/method .. because that route might not have been wired up. Eg. // NOTE: Error handling removed from this example. public class MyControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { protected override IController GetControllerInstance(Type controllerType) { IController result = null; // Try and load the controller, based on the controllerType argument. // ... snip // Did we retrieve a controller? if (controller == null) { result = new MyCustomController(); ((MyCustomController)result).Execute404NotFound(); // <-- HERE! } return result; } } .. and that method is .. public static void Execute404NotFound(this Controller controller) { result = new 404NotFound(); // Setup any ViewData.Model stuff. result.ExecuteResult(controller.ControllerContext); // <-- RUNTIME // ERROR's HERE } Now, when I run the controller factory fails to find a controller, i then manually create my own basic controller. I then call the extension method 'Execute404NotFound' on this controller instance. That's fine .. until it runs the ExecuteResult(..) method. Why? the controller has no ControllerContext data. As such, the ExecuteResult crashes because it requires some ControllerContext. So - can someone out there help me? see what I'm doing wrong. Remember - i'm trying to get my controller factory to manually / programmatically call a method on a controller which of course would return an ActionResult. Please help!

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  • How do I best remove the unicode characters that XHTML regards as non-valid using php?

    - by Andrew Stacey
    I run a forum designed to support an international mathematics group. I've recently switched it to unicode for better support of international characters. In debugging this conversion, I've discovered that not all unicode characters are considered as valid XHTML (the relevant website appears to be http://www.w3.org/TR/unicode-xml/). One of the steps that the forum software goes through before presenting the posts to the browser is an XHTML validation/sanitisation step. It seems a reasonable idea that at that stage it should remove any unicode characters that XHTML doesn't like. So my question is: Is there a standard (or best) way of doing this in PHP? (The forum is written in PHP, by the way.) I guess that the failsafe would be a simple str_replace (if that's also the best, do I need to do anything extra to make sure it works properly with unicode?) but that would involve me having to go through the XHTML DTD (or the above-referenced W3 page) carefully to figure out what characters to list in the search part of str_replace, so if this is the best way, has someone already done that so that I can steal, err, copy, it? (Incidentally, the character that caused the problem was U+000C, the 'formfeed', which (according to the W3 page) is valid HTML but invalid XHTML!)

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  • Absolute positioned div jumps outside containing div in IE7

    - by user367232
    Having trouble with a couple of display issues in IE7. Firstly, my large text headers display too far up in Internet Explorer (all pages) Secondly, my descriptions on my Portfolio pages end up outside their containing divs. Works great on FF/Chrome/Opera/Safari though! You'll see what I mean: http://bit.ly/a3hUD4 (I've used bitly so my dumb questions don't show up when someone googles my website). I've googled extensively. Not sure if problem number 2 is a overflow issue, or a absolute positioning bug in IE. Here's the CSS for the centre div with the jumbo-text titles .column1 { padding: 103px 10px 10px 10px; float: left; width: 500px; margin: 0; } And for the description div on the portfolio page .porttxtbox { text-align: right; background-image: url(images/porttxtBG.png); bottom: 0; position: absolute; width: 100%; padding: 0px; margin: 0px; } And it's container div .portimgbox { padding: 0px; margin: 0px; height: 250px; width: 480px; position: relative; border: 5px solid #EAEAEA; Thanks in advance!

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  • What programming hack from your past are you most ashamed of?

    - by LeopardSkinPillBoxHat
    We've all been there (usually when we are young and inexperienced). Fixing it properly is too difficult, too risky or too time-consuming. So you go down the hack path. Which hack from your past are you most ashamed of, and why? I'm talking about the ones where you would be really embarrassed if someone could attribute the hack to you (quite easily if you are using revision control software). One hack per answer please. Mine was shortly after I started in my first job. I was working on a legacy C system, and there was this strange defect where a screen view failed to update properly under certain circumstances. I wasn't familiar with how to use the debugger at this time, so I added traces into the code to figure out what was going on. Then I realised that the defect didn't occur anymore with the traces in the code. I slowly backed out the traces one-by-one, until I realised that only a single trace was required to make the problem go away. My logic now would tell me that I was dealing with some sort of race-condition or timing related issue that the trace just "hid under the rug". But I checked in the code with the following line, and all was well: printf(""); Which hacks are you ashamed of?

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  • delete UITableView row apple addMusic example

    - by Pavan
    Hi, i am trying to add a swipe to delete feature to the addmusic example project (downloaded free from apple) so that i am able able to delete a specific row. Ive added the following code just so that i can enable to delete feature but i dont know how to remove the song from the list which i believe to be the mediaItemCollection and actually deleting it from the userMediaItemCollection which is used to queue the songs to the player. - (void)tableView:(UITableView*)tableView willBeginEditingRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { } - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView commitEditingStyle:(UITableViewCellEditingStyle)editingStyle forRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { // If row is deleted, remove it from the list. if (editingStyle == UITableViewCellEditingStyleDelete) { // delete your data item here // Animate the deletion from the table. [tableView deleteRowsAtIndexPaths:[NSArray arrayWithObject:indexPath]withRowAnimation:UITableViewRowAnimationFade]; } } The swipe to delete feature works nicely, the delete button only appears when swiped, but when i click delete, a SIGBART error occurs, the whole application freezes, (although the musix does continue to play, lol). Can someone please tell me how i can delete the row at that index and how i can delete it from the mediaitemcollection please. When taking that single line of code out: [tableView deleteRowsAtIndexPaths:[NSArray arrayWithObject:indexPath]withRowAnimation:UITableViewRowAnimationFade]; the swipe to delete works, except that it does not delete anything obviously since i havent added any actual delete functionality/coding that needs to be done. All ideas appreciated.

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  • Date difference in Javascript (ignoring time of day)

    - by Alan
    I'm writing an equipment rental application where clients are charged a fee for renting equipment based on the duration (in days) of the rental. So, basically, (daily fee * number of days) = total charge. For instant feedback on the client side, I'm trying to use Javascript to figure out the difference in two calendar dates. I've searched around, but nothing I've found is quite what I'm looking for. Most solutions I've seen are of the form: function dateDiff1(startDate, endDate) { return ((endDate.getTime() - startDate.getTime()) / 1000*60*60*24); } My problem is that equipment can be checked out and returned at any time of day during those two dates with no additional charge. The above code is calculating the number of 24 hour periods between the two dates, when I'm really interested in the number of calendar days. For example, if someone checked out equipment at 6am on July 6th and returned it at 10pm on July 7th, the above code would calculate that more than one 24 hour period had passed, and would return 2. The desired result is 1, since only one calendar date has elapsed (i.e. the 6th to the 7th). The closest solution I've found is this function: function dateDiff2(startDate, endDate) { return endDate.getDate() - startDate.getDate(); } which does exactly what I want, as long as the two dates are within the same month. However, since getDate() only returns the day of month (i.e. 1-31), it doesn't work when the dates span multiple months (e.g. July 31 to August 1 is 1 day, but the above calcuates 1 - 31, or -29). On the backend, in PHP, I'm using gregoriantojd(), which seems to work just fine (see this post for an example). I just can't find an equivalent solution in Javascript. Anyone have any ideas?

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  • mod_cgi , mod_fastcgi, mod_scgi , mod_wsgi, mod_python, FLUP. I don't know how many more. what is mo

    - by claws
    I recently learnt Python. I liked it. I just wanted to use it for web development. This thought caused all the troubles. But I like these troubles :) Coming from PHP world where there is only one way standardized. I expected the same and searched for python & apache. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/449055/setting-up-python-on-windows-apache says Stay away from mod_python. One common misleading idea is that mod_python is like mod_php, but for python. That is not true. So what is equivalent of mod_php in python? I need little clarification on this one http://stackoverflow.com/questions/219110/how-python-web-frameworks-wsgi-and-cgi-fit-together CGI, FastCGI and SCGI are language agnostic. You can write CGI scripts in Perl, Python, C, bash, or even Assembly :). So, I guess mod_cgi , mod_fastcgi, mod_scgi are their corresponding apache modules. Right? WSGI is some kind of optimized/improved inshort an efficient version specifically designed for python language only. In order to use this mod_wsgi is a way to go. right? This leaves out mod_python. What is it then? Apache - mod_fastcgi - FLUP (via CGI protocol) - Django (via WSGI protocol) Flup is another way to run with wsgi for any webserver that can speak FCGI, SCGI or AJP What is FLUP? What is AJP? How did Django come in the picture? These questions raise quetions about PHP. How is it actually running? What technology is it using? mod_php & mod_python what are the differences? In future if I want to use Perl or Java then again will I have to get confused? Kindly can someone explain things clearly and give a Complete Picture.

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  • how to pass values from one page to another on jquery form submit

    - by andy787899
    I'm trying to build a form using php & jquery, but I'm a little confused as to what to do with the jquery portion of it... Basically, when the user submits the first form, I want to direct them to the "next step" form, but I want to retain the values submitted from the first one in a hidden input field... If someone can either show me how or point me to a good tutorial, I'd appreciate it... I don't have any of the php or jquery yet, and this is just a simplified version of the html markup... //first.php <form name="form1" method="post" action="second.php"> <input type="text" name="name" value="" />Name <input type="submit" name="step1" value="Next" /> </form> //second.php <form name="form2" method="post" action="process.php"> <input type="hidden" name="name" value="{$_POST['name']}" /> <input type="text" name="message" value="" />message <input type="submit" name="step2" value="Finish" /> </form>

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  • how to pass values from one page to another on jquery form submit

    - by andy787899
    I'm trying to build a form using php & jquery, but I'm a little confused as to what to do with the jquery portion of it... Basically, when the user submits the first form, I want to direct them to the "next step" form, but I want to retain the values submitted from the first one in a hidden input field... If someone can either show me how or point me to a good tutorial, I'd appreciate it... I don't have any of the php or jquery yet, and this is just a simplified version of the html markup... //first.php <form name="form1" method="post" action="second.php"> <input type="text" name="name" value="" />Name <input type="submit" name="step1" value="Next" /> </form> //second.php <form name="form2" method="post" action="process.php"> <input type="hidden" name="name" value="{$_POST['name']}" /> <input type="text" name="message" value="" />message <input type="submit" name="step2" value="Finish" /> </form>

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  • PDO bindparam not working.

    - by jim
    I am trying to save data into a database using PDO. All columns save correctly with the exception of one. No matter what I try, I cannot get the data to go in. myfunc($db, $data) { echo $data; // <----- Outputs my data. example: 'jim jones' $stmt = $db->prepare("CALL test(:id, :data, :ip, :expires)"); $stmt->bindParam(':id', $id, PDO::PARAM_STR); $stmt->bindParam(':data', $data, PDO::PARAM_STR); $stmt->bindParam(':ip', $ip, PDO::PARAM_STR); $stmt->bindParam(':expires', $expires, PDO::PARAM_STR); ... } So even after verifying that the data variable in fact holds my data, the bindParam method will not bind. When I echo the data variable, I can see the data is there. It will not save though. If I copy the echo'd output of the data variable to screen and paste it into a new variable, it WILL save. I'm at this now for a couple of hours. Can someone please have a look? EDIT: I want to also mention that I have tried using bindValue() in place of bindParam() and the data for the data variable will still not save.

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  • iTextSharp Conversion from Table to pdfPTable

    - by Al.
    I have an old ASP.NET project originally done in ASP.NET 1.1 w/ iText.NET and converted to .NET 2.0 and iTextSharp 4.1.6.0. It uses lots of Table (I'm assuming pdfptable wasn't an option at the time it was created.) I am trying to convert this code to use the latest iTextSharp 5.0.0 dll and now see Table and cell have been removed. I started converting it anyway and soon found there is no equivalent to a lot of the functionality that Table offered. Mainly AddCell no longer allows a col,row setting. There are literally thousands of these calls in this code and the posibility of changing it to generate linearly row by row looks hopeless at the moment. The current code looks something like: Dim myTable As New Table(NumReq + 2, IngDS.Tables(0).Rows.Count + 3) myTable.SetWidths(Width) myTable.Width = 100 myTable.Padding = 2 myCell = New Cell(New Phrase("Some Text", New iTextSharp.text.Font(iTextSharp.text.Font.HELVETICA, 8, iTextSharp.text.Font.NORMAL, iTextSharp.text.Color.BLACK))) myCell.SetHorizontalAlignment(Element.ALIGN_RIGHT) myCell.GrayFill = 0.75 myTable.AddCell(myCell, Row, Col) myCell = New Cell(New Phrase("Other Text",New iTextSharp.text.Font(iTextSharp.text.Font.HELVETICA, 8, iTextSharp.text.Font.NORMAL, iTextSharp.text.Color.BLACK))) myCell.GrayFill = 0.75 myTable.AddCell(myCell, Row, Col+1) Before I embark down that road I was hoping someone would be able to point me in a direction that I'm just totally missing that will make this conversion much more simple. Any ideas? Thanks.

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  • Calling a .net webservice from a plain HTML site using jQuery

    - by pwee167
    Hi guys, I wanted to know it is possible to call a hosted .net web service from a HTML page using jQuery? I tried this piece of code, but it doesn't work for me: $('#myForm').click(function() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", data: '{}', url: "http://localhost:49590/Service.asmx?op=HelloWorld", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function(response) { alert(response.d); }, failure: function(result) { alert(result.status + ' ' + result.statusText); } }); }); And the webservice is as such: [WebService(Namespace = "http://tempuri.org/")] [WebServiceBinding(ConformsTo = WsiProfiles.BasicProfile1_1)] [System.ComponentModel.ToolboxItem(false)] // To allow this Web Service to be called from script, using ASP.NET AJAX, uncomment the following line. [System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptService] public class Service : System.Web.Services.WebService { [WebMethod] public string HelloWorld() { return "Hello World"; } } I have searched for this and found only examples where it is done from asp.net or asp.net mvc projects. I am not sure what I am missing but I thought this was possible from a plain HTML site with javascript, so can someone please point me in the right direction. Cheers!

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  • Login Website, curious Cookie Problem

    - by Collin Peters
    Hello, Language: C# Development Environment: Visual Studio 2008 Sorry if the english is not perfect. I want to login to a Website and get some Data from there. My Problem is that the Cookies does not work. Everytime the Website says that I should activate Cookies but i activated the Cookies trough a Cookiecontainer. I sniffed the traffic serveral times for the login progress and I see no problem there. I tried different methods to login and I have searched if someone else have this Problem but no results... Login Page is: "www.uploaded.to", Here is my Code to Login in Short Form: private void login() { //Global CookieContainer for all the Cookies CookieContainer _cookieContainer = new CookieContainer(); //First Login to the Website HttpWebRequest _request1 = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create("http://uploaded.to/login"); _request1.Method = "POST"; _request1.CookieContainer = _cookieContainer; string _postData = "email=XXXXX&password=XXXXX"; byte[] _byteArray = Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(_postData); Stream _reqStream = _request1.GetRequestStream(); _reqStream.Write(_byteArray, 0, _byteArray.Length); _reqStream.Close(); HttpWebResponse _response1 = (HttpWebResponse)_request1.GetResponse(); _response1.Close(); //######################## //Follow the Link from Request1 HttpWebRequest _request2 = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create("http://uploaded.to/login?coo=1"); _request2.Method = "GET"; _request2.CookieContainer = _cookieContainer; HttpWebResponse _response2 = (HttpWebResponse)_request2.GetResponse(); _response2.Close(); //####################### //Get the Data from the Page after Login HttpWebRequest _request3 = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create("http://uploaded.to/home"); _request3.Method = "GET"; _request3.CookieContainer = _cookieContainer; HttpWebResponse _response3 = (HttpWebResponse)_request3.GetResponse(); _response3.Close(); } I'm stuck at this problem since many weeks and i found no solution that works, please help...

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  • Duplicate Items Using Join in NHibernate Map

    - by Colin Bowern
    I am trying to retrieve the individual detail rows without having to create an object for the parent. I have a map which joins a parent table with the detail to achieve this: Table("UdfTemplate"); Id(x => x.Id, "Template_Id"); Map(x => x.FieldCode, "Field_Code"); Map(x => x.ClientId, "Client_Id"); Join("UdfFields", join => { join.KeyColumn("Template_Id"); join.Map(x => x.Name, "COLUMN_NAME"); join.Map(x => x.Label, "DISPLAY_NAME"); join.Map(x => x.IsRequired, "MANDATORY_FLAG") .CustomType<YesNoType>(); join.Map(x => x.MaxLength, "DATA_LENGTH"); join.Map(x => x.Scale, "DATA_SCALE"); join.Map(x => x.Precision, "DATA_PRECISION"); join.Map(x => x.MinValue, "MIN_VALUE"); join.Map(x => x.MaxValue, "MAX_VALUE"); }); When I run the query in NH using: Session.CreateCriteria(typeof(UserDefinedField)) .Add(Restrictions.Eq("FieldCode", code)).List<UserDefinedField>(); I get back the first row three times as opposed to the three individual rows it should return. Looking at the SQL trace in NH Profiler the query appears to be correct. The problem feels like it is in the mapping but I am unsure how to troubleshoot that process. I am about to turn on logging to see what I can find but I thought I would post here in case someone with experience mapping joins knows where I am going wrong.

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  • SQL ORACLE - Datatable in where clause

    - by Gage
    Currently I have a sql call returning a dataset from a MSSQL database and I want to take a column from that data and return ID's based off that column from the ORACLE database. I can do this one at a time but that requires multiple calls, I am wondering if this can be done with one call. String sql=String.Format(@"Select DIST_NO FROM DISTRICT WHERE DIST_DESC = '{0}'", row.Table.Rows[0]["Op_Centre"].ToString()); Above is the string I am using to return one ID at a time. I know the {0} can be used to format your value into the string and maybe there is a way to do that with a datatable. Also to use multiple values in the where clause it would be: String sql=String.Format(@"Select DIST_NO FROM DISTRICT WHERE DIST_DESC in ('{0}')", row.Table.Rows[0] ["Op_Centre"].ToString()); Although I realize all of this can be done I am wondering if theres an easy way to add it all to the sql string in one call. As I am writing this I am realizing I could break the string into sections then just add every row value to the SQL string within the "WHERE DIST_DESC IN (" clause... I am still curious to see if there is another way though, and because someone else may come across this problem I will post a solution if I develop one. Thanks in advance.

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  • Performance of java on different hardware?

    - by tangens
    In another SO question I asked why my java programs run faster on AMD than on Intel machines. But it seems that I'm the only one who has observed this. Now I would like to invite you to share the numbers of your local java performance with the SO community. I observed a big performance difference when watching the startup of JBoss on different hardware, so I set this program as the base for this comparison. For participation please download JBoss 5.1.0.GA and run: jboss-5.1.0.GA/bin/run.sh (or run.bat) This starts a standard configuration of JBoss without any extra applications. Then look for the last line of the start procedure which looks like this: [ServerImpl] JBoss (Microcontainer) [5.1.0.GA (build: SVNTag=JBoss_5_1_0_GA date=200905221634)] Started in 25s:264ms Please repeat this procedure until the printed time is somewhat stable and post this line together with some comments on your hardware (I used cpu-z to get the infos) and operating system like this: java version: 1.6.0_13 OS: Windows XP Board: ASUS M4A78T-E Processor: AMD Phenom II X3 720, 2.8 GHz RAM: 2*2 GB DDR3 (labeled 1333 MHz) GPU: NVIDIA GeForce 9400 GT disc: Seagate 1.5 TB (ST31500341AS) Use your votes to bring the fastest configuration to the top. I'm very curious about the results. EDIT: Up to now only a few members have shared their results. I'd really be interested in the results obtained with some other architectures. If someone works with a MAC (desktop) or runs an Intel i7 with less than 3 GHz, please once start JBoss and share your results. It will only take a few minutes.

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  • [Apache Camel] Generating multiple files based on DB query in a nice way

    - by chantingwolf
    Dear all, I have a following question. I have to generate many files based on sql query. Let's say for example, I have get from database a list of orders made today and genarate file for each order and later store each file on ftp. Ideally I would like to get follewing. Not quite sure how to get it. from(MyBean).to(Ftp) The problem and main question is how to generate multiple messages by custom bean (for example). I am not sure if splitter EIP is ok in this case because in my case I have not just one message to split, but I just have to generate and send many messages. http://camel.apache.org/splitter.html I hope, someone meet this problem before. If the task will be to generate just one file - everything is quite simple - you need just fill Exchange.OutMessage (or something like this). But what about multiple files - I really can't get, how to manage this situation. P.S. Sorry if this question is stupid. I am novice in Camel (working with it just for coupe weeks). It's a great tool. Actually, that's why I want to use in in the best way. Thanks a lot.

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  • Using Git to work with subversion: Ignoring modifications to tracked files

    - by Chris Nicola
    I am currently working with a subversion repository but I am using git to work locally on my machine. It makes work much easier, but it also makes some of the bad behavior going on in the subversion repo quite glaring and that creates problems for me. There is a somewhat complex local build process after pulling down the code and it creates (and unfortunately modifies) a number of files. Obviously these changes are not meant to be committed back to the repository. Unfortunately the build process is actually modifying some tracked files (yes, most likely because someone mistakenly committed these build artifacts at some point to the subversion repository). Since these are modifications adding them to my ignore file does nothing for me. I can avoid checking these changes back it, I simple don't stage or commit them, but having unstaged local changes means I can't rebase without first cleaning them up. What I would like to know is if there any way to ignore future changes to a set of tracked files? Alternatively, is there another way to handle the problem I am having, or will I just have to tell whoever checked in these files to clean them up?

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  • Iterative Cartesian Product in Java

    - by akappa
    Hi, I want to compute the cartesian product of an arbitrary number of nonempty sets in Java. I've wrote that iterative code... public static <T> List<Set<T>> cartesianProduct(List<Set<T>> list) { List<Iterator<T>> iterators = new ArrayList<Iterator<T>>(list.size()); List<T> elements = new ArrayList<T>(list.size()); List<Set<T>> toRet = new ArrayList<Set<T>>(); for (int i = 0; i < list.size(); i++) { iterators.add(list.get(i).iterator()); elements.add(iterators.get(i).next()); } for (int j = 1; j >= 0;) { toRet.add(Sets.newHashSet(elements)); for (j = iterators.size()-1; j >= 0 && !iterators.get(j).hasNext(); j--) { iterators.set(j, list.get(j).iterator()); elements.set(j, iterators.get(j).next()); } elements.set(Math.abs(j), iterators.get(Math.abs(j)).next()); } return toRet; } ...but I found it rather inelegant. Someone has a better, still iterative solution? A solution that uses some wonderful functional-like approach? Otherwise... suggestion about how to improve it? Errors? Thanks :)

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  • Problems in getting data from CFStreamCreatePairWithSocketToHost

    - by gkedmi
    Hi I'm building an iPhoe app with a socket to a PC app , I need to get an image from this PC app. It's my first time using "CFStreamCreatePairWithSocketToHost".After I establish the socket with "NSOperation" I call CFStreamClientContext streamContext = {0, self, NULL, NULL, NULL}; BOOL success = CFReadStreamSetClient(myReadStream, kMyNetworkEvents,MyStreamCallBack,&streamContext); CFReadStreamScheduleWithRunLoop(myReadStream, CFRunLoopGetCurrent(), kCFRunLoopDefaultMode); then I call CFWriteStreamWrite(myWriteStream, &writeBuffer, 3); // Open read stream. if (!CFReadStreamOpen(myReadStream)) { // Notify error } . . . while(!cancelled && !finished) { SInt32 result = CFRunLoopRunInMode(kCFRunLoopDefaultMode, 0.25, NO); if (result == kCFRunLoopRunStopped || result == kCFRunLoopRunFinished) { break; } if (([NSDate timeIntervalSinceReferenceDate] - _lastRead) MyConnectionTimeout) { // Call timed out cancelled = YES; break; } // Also handle stream status CFStreamStatus status = CFReadStreamGetStatus(myReadStream); } and then when I get "kCFStreamEventHasBytesAvailable" I use while (CFReadStreamHasBytesAvailable(myReadStream)) { CFReadStreamRead(myReadStream, readBuffer, 1000); //and buffer the the bytes } It's unpredictable , sometimes I get the whole picture , sometime I got just part of it , and I can't understand what make the different. can someone has an idea what is wrong here? thanks

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  • Alerting for incorrect cell values

    - by Allan
    My problem: I have two ranges R16 and R01. These ranges were set up by swiping each range and then renaming them in the upper left panel of the sheet. Each range requires users to fill in each cell with a value. R16 requires users to enter a number of 0 through 5. The range R01 requires a value of 0 or 1 to be entered. NO cell can be left blank in any cell within these two ranges. These ranges and requirements are specific to this sheet only. It would be nice if at the time of user entering a number, an error message appeared like [invalid entry] if the value inputted was outside parameters set. For example, in R16, if someone entered 12 or -1 they would be alerted. Finally when the user presses a button on the page to use these values in a separate process, it is essential to check that no cell is left blank. I am trying to find a way to halt the running of the marco (via the button) if these parameters above are not met. Thank you

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  • nedmalloc: where does mem<fm come from?

    - by Suma
    While implementing nedmalloc into my application, I am frequently hitting a situation when nedmalloc refuses to free a block of memory, claiming it did not allocate it. While debugging I have come up to the point I see a particular condition which is failing, all other (including magic numbers) succeed. The condition is this: if((size_t)mem-(size_t)fm>=(size_t)1<<(SIZE_T_BITSIZE-1)) return 0; On Win32 this seems to be equivalent to: if((int)((size_t)mem-(size_t)fm)<0) return 0; Which seems to be the same as: if((size_t)mem<(size_t)fm) return 0; In my case I really see mem < fm. What I do not understand now is, where does this condition come from. I cannot find anything which would guarantee the fm <= m anywhere in code. Yet, "select isn't broken": I doubt it would really be a bug in nedmalloc, most likely I am doing something wrong somewhere, but I cannot find it. Once I turn debugging features of nedmalloc on, the problem goes away. If someone here understands inner working of nedmalloc, could you please explain to me why is fm <= m?

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