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  • exec problem in sql 2005

    - by IordanTanev
    Hi, i have the situation where i have two databases whith same structure. The first have some data in its datatables. I need to create a script that will transfer the data from the first database to the second. I have created this script. DECLARE @table_name nvarchar(MAX), @query nvarchar(MAX) DECLARE @table_cursor CURSOR SET @table_cursor = CURSOR FAST_FORWARD FOR Select TABLE_NAME FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.TABLES OPEN @table_cursor FETCH NEXT FROM @table_cursor INTO @table_name WHILE @@FETCH_STATUS = 0 BEGIN SET @query = 'INSERT INTO ' + @table_name + ' SELECT * FROM MyDataBase.dbo.' + @table_name print @query exec @query FETCH NEXT FROM @table_cursor INTO @table_name END CLOSE @table_cursor DEALLOCATE @table_cursor The problem is that when i run th script the "print @query" statement prints statement like this INSERT INTO table SELECT * FROM MyDataBase.dbo.table When i copy this and run it from Management studio it works fine. But when the script trys to run it with exec i get this error Msg 911, Level 16, State 1, Line 21 Could not locate entry in sysdatabases for database 'INSERT INTO table SELECT * FROM MPDEV090314'. No entry found with that name. Make sure that the name is entered correctly. Hope someone can tell me whot is wront with this. Best Regards, Iordan Tanev

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  • Select highest rated, oldest track

    - by Blair McMillan
    I have several tables: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Tracks]( [Id] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [Artist_Id] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [Album_Id] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [Title] [nvarchar](255) NOT NULL, [Length] [int] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Tracks_1] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [Id] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] CREATE TABLE [dbo].[TrackHistory]( [Id] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [Track_Id] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [Datetime] [datetime] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_TrackHistory] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [Id] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] INSERT INTO [cooltunes].[dbo].[TrackHistory] ([Track_Id] ,[Datetime]) VALUES ("335294B0-735E-4E2C-8389-8326B17CE813" ,GETDATE()) CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Ratings]( [Id] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [Track_Id] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [User_Id] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [Rating] [tinyint] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Ratings] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [Id] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] INSERT INTO [cooltunes].[dbo].[Ratings] ([Track_Id] ,[User_Id] ,[Rating]) VALUES ("335294B0-735E-4E2C-8389-8326B17CE813" ,"C7D62450-8BE6-40F6-80F1-A539DA301772" ,1) Users User_Id|Guid Other fields Links between the tables are pretty obvious. TrackHistory has each track added to it as a row whenever it is played ie. a track will appear in there many times. Ratings value will either be 1 or -1. What I'm trying to do is select the Track with the highest rating, that is more than 2 hours old, and if there is a duplicate rating for a track (ie a track receives 6 +1 ratings and 1 - rating, giving that track a total rating of 5, another track also has a total rating of 5), the track that was last played the longest ago should be returned. (If all tracks have been played within the last 2 hours, no rows should be returned) I'm getting somewhere doing each part individually using the link above, SUM(Value) and GROUP BY Track_Id, but I'm having trouble putting it all together. Hopefully someone with a bit more (MS)SQL knowledge will be able to help me. Many thanks!

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  • Simulating O_NOFOLLOW (2): Is this other approach safe?

    - by Daniel Trebbien
    As a follow-up question to this one, I thought of another approach which builds off of @caf's answer for the case where I want to append to file name and create it if it does not exist. Here is what I came up with: Create a temporary directory with mode 0700 in a system temporary directory on the same filesystem as file name. Create an empty, temporary, regular file (temp_name) in the temporary directory (only serves as placeholder). Open file name for reading only, just to create it if it does not exist. The OS may follow name if it is a symbolic link; I don't care at this point. Make a hard link to name at temp_name (overwriting the placeholder file). If the link call fails, then exit. (Maybe someone has come along and removed the file at name, who knows?) Use lstat on temp_name (now a hard link). If S_ISLNK(lst.st_mode), then exit. open temp_name for writing, append (O_WRONLY | O_APPEND). Write everything out. Close the file descriptor. unlink the hard link. Remove the temporary directory. (All of this, by the way, is for an open source project that I am working on. You can view the source of my implementation of this approach here.) Is this procedure safe against symbolic link attacks? For example, is it possible for a malicious process to ensure that the inode for name represents a regular file for the duration of the lstat check, then make the inode a symbolic link with the temp_name hard link now pointing to the new, symbolic link? I am assuming that a malicious process cannot affect temp_name.

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  • How does the overall view hierarchy change when using UIKit view manipulations?

    - by executor21
    I've been trying to figure out what happens in the view hierarchy when methods like pushViewController:animated, presentModalViewController:animated, and tab switches in UITabBarViewController are used, as well as UIAlertView and UIActionSheet. (Side note: I'm doing this because I need to know whether a specific UIView of my creation is visible on screen when I do not know anything about how it or its superview may have been added to the view hierarchy. If someone knows a good way to determine this, I'd welcome the knowledge.) To figure it out, I've been logging out the hierarchy of [[UIApplication sharedApplication] keyWindow] subviews in different circumstances. Is the following correct: When a new viewController is pushed onto the stack of a UINavigationController, the old viewController's view is no longer in the view hierarchy. That is, only the top view controller's view is a subview of UINavigationController's view (according to logs, it's actually several private classes such as UILayoutContainerView). Are the views of view controllers below the top controller of the stack actually removed from the window? A very similar thing happens when a new viewController is presented via presentModalViewController:animated. The new viewController's view is the only subview of the kew window. Is this correct? The easiest thing to understand: a UIAlertView creates its own window and makes it key. The strangest thing I encountered: a UIActionSheet is shown via showInView: method, the actionSheet isn't in the view hierarchy at all. It's not a subview of the view passed as an argument to showInView:, it isn't added as a subview of the key window, and it doesn't create its own window. How does it appear, then? I haven't tried this yet, so I'd like to know what happens in the keyWindow hierarchy when tabs in a UITabBarController are switched. Is the view of the selected UIViewController moved to the top, or does it work like with pushViewController:animated and presentModalViewController:animated, where only the displayed view is in the window hierarchy?

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  • create this array

    - by calccrypto
    i know this sounds silly, but can someone please post the arrays described by rfc2612: Cm = 0x5A827999 Mm = 0x6ED9EBA1 Cr = 19 Mr = 17 for (i=0; i<24; i++) { for (j=0; j<8; j++) { Tmj_(i) = Cm Cm = (Cm + Mm) mod 2**32 Trj_(i) = Cr Cr = (Cr + Mr) mod 32 } } i think im doing is wrong for some reason i get this for Tr [[10, 18, 26, 2, 10, 18, 26, 2, 10, 18, 26, 2, 10, 18, 26, 2, 10, 18, 26, 2, 10, 18, 26, 2], [10, 18, 26, 2, 10, 18, 26, 2, 10, 18, 26, 2, 10, 18, 26, 2, 10, 18, 26, 2, 10, 18, 26, 2], [10, 18, 26, 2, 10, 18, 26, 2, 10, 18, 26, 2, 10, 18, 26, 2, 10, 18, 26, 2, 10, 18, 26, 2], [10, 18, 26, 2, 10, 18, 26, 2, 10, 18, 26, 2, 10, 18, 26, 2, 10, 18, 26, 2, 10, 18, 26, 2], [10, 18, 26, 2, 10, 18, 26, 2, 10, 18, 26, 2, 10, 18, 26, 2, 10, 18, 26, 2, 10, 18, 26, 2], [10, 18, 26, 2, 10, 18, 26, 2, 10, 18, 26, 2, 10, 18, 26, 2, 10, 18, 26, 2, 10, 18, 26, 2], [10, 18, 26, 2, 10, 18, 26, 2, 10, 18, 26, 2, 10, 18, 26, 2, 10, 18, 26, 2, 10, 18, 26, 2], [10, 18, 26, 2, 10, 18, 26, 2, 10, 18, 26, 2, 10, 18, 26, 2, 10, 18, 26, 2, 10, 18, 26, 2]]

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  • Load image dynamically on Silverlight

    - by FelixMM
    I have a Silverlight app that has to load an image dynamically, depending on the image name. The approach that im taking right now is passing the image name by query string to the page and passing that as a param to the Silverlight objet tag This is the query string passed Response.Redirect("Build.aspx?img=" + this.PictureUploader.PostedFile.FileName; And I try to pass it to Silverlight like this: <object id="SilverlightObject" data="data:application/x-silverlight-2," type="application/x-silverlight-2" width="100%" height="100%"> <param name="source" value="Silverlight/iMapsSL.xap"/> <param name="onError" value="onSilverlightError" /> <param name="background" value="white" /> <param name="minRuntimeVersion" value="3.0.40624.0" /> <param name="autoUpgrade" value="true" /> <param name="image" value="<%# Request.QueryString["img"] %>" /> <a href="http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkID=149156&v=3.0.40624.0" style="text-decoration:none"> <img src="http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkId=108181" alt="Get Microsoft Silverlight" style="border-style:none"/> </a> </object><iframe id="_sl_historyFrame" style="visibility:hidden;height:0px;width:0px;border:0px"></iframe> in the last param tag with name=image value= Requerst.QueryString I catch the image inside the Silverlight app like this private void Application_Startup(object sender, StartupEventArgs e) { string pictureName = ""; if (e.InitParams != null && e.InitParams.Count > 0) { pictureName = e.InitParams["image"]; this.RootVisual = new MainPage(pictureName); } else { this.RootVisual = new MainPage(); } } And when MainPage starts, I set the image source of the Image control like this this.Image.Source = new BitmapImage(new Uri(pictureName, UriKind.RelativeOrAbsolute)); But Silverlight loads without an image, any help someone?

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  • PHP $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'] vs. $_SERVER['SERVER_NAME'], am I understanding the man pages correctly?

    - by Jeff
    I did a lot of searching and also read the PHP $_SERVER man page. Do I have this right regarding which to use for my PHP scripts for simple link definitions used throughout my site? $_SERVER['SERVER_NAME'] is based on your web servers' config file (Apache2 in my case), and varies depending on a few directives: (1) VirtualHost, (2) ServerName, (3) UseCanonicalName, etc. $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'] is based on the request from the client. Therefore, it would seem to me that the proper one to use in order to make my scripts as compatible as possible would be $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST']. Is this assumption correct? Followup comments: I guess I got a little paranoid after reading this article and noting that someone said "they wouldn't trust any of the $_SERVER vars": http://markjaquith.wordpress.com/2009/09/21/php-server-vars-not-safe-in-forms-or-links/ and also: http://www.php.net/manual/en/reserved.variables.server.php (comment: Vladimir Kornea 14-Mar-2009 01:06) Apparently the discussion is mainly about $_SERVER['PHP_SELF'] and why you shouldn't use it in the form action attribute without proper escaping to prevent XSS attacks. My conclusion about my original question above is that it is "safe" to use $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'] for all links on a site without having to worry about XSS attacks, even when used in forms. Please correct me if I'm wrong.

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  • Field specific errors for ETL

    - by AaronLS
    I am creating a ETL process in MS SQL Server and I would like to have errors specific to a particular column of a particular row. For example, the data is initially loaded from excel files into a table(we'll call the Initial table) where all columns are varchar(2000) and then I stage the data to another table(the DataTypedTable) that contains more specific data types (datetime,int, etc.) or more tightly constrained varchar lengths. I need to be able to create error messages for a specific field such as: "Jan. 13th" is not a valid date format for the submission date. Please use a format of MM/DD/YYYY These error messages would need to be stored in some way such that later in the process a automated process can create reports with the error messages such that each message references a specific row and field(someone will need to go back and correct the data in the source system and resubmit the excel file). So ideally it would be inserted into a Failures tables of some sort and contain the primary key of the failed row, the column name, and the error message. Question: So I am wondering if this can be accomplished with SSIS, or some open source tool like Talend, and if so, what would be your general approach? Or what hand coded approach you would take? Couple approaches I've thought of using SQL(up until no I have done ETL by hand in SQL procs, but I want to consider other approaches. Possible C# even.): Use a cursor to read through the Initial table, and for each row insert a blank record with only the primary key into the DataTyped table, then use a single update statement for each column, such that if that update fails I can insert a very specific error message specific to that column in the error messages table. Insert all the data as is into the DataTyped table, but have duplicate columns like SubmissionDate and SubmissionDateOld. After the initial insert the *Old columns have data, the rest are blank, and I have a single update for each column that sets the SubmissionDate based on the SubmissionDateOld. In addition to suggesting an approach, I'd like to know if you are using that approach or something similar already in the work you do.

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  • Java mail attachment not working on Tomcat

    - by losintikfos
    Hello guys, I have an application which e-mails confirmations. The email part utilises Commons Mail API. The simple code which does the send mail is as shown below; import org.apache.commons.mail.*; ... // Create the attachment EmailAttachment attachment = new EmailAttachment(); attachment.setURL(new URL("http://cashew.org/doc.pdf")); attachment.setDisposition(EmailAttachment.ATTACHMENT); attachment.setDescription("Testing attach"); attachment.setName("doc.pdf"); // Create the email message MultiPartEmail email = new MultiPartEmail(); email.setHostName("mail.cashew.com"); email.addTo("[email protected]"); email.setFrom("[email protected]"); email.setSubject("Testing); email.setMsg("testing message"); // add the attachment email.attach(attachment); // send the email email.send(); My problem is, when I execute this application from Eclipse, I get email sent with attachment without any issues. But when i deploy the application to Tomcat server (I have tried both version 5 & 6 no joy), the e-mail is sent with below content; ------=_Part_0_25002283.1275298567928 Content-Type: text/plain; charset=us-ascii Content-Transfer-Encoding: 7bit testing Regards, los ------=_Part_0_25002283.1275298567928 Content-Type: application/pdf; name="doc.pdf" Content-Transfer-Encoding: base64 Content-Disposition: attachment; filename="doc.pdf" Content-Description: Testing attach JVBERi0xLjQNJeLjz9MNCjYzIDAgb2JqDTw8L0xpbmVhcml6ZWQgMS9MIDMxMzE4Mi9PIDY1L0Ug Mjg2NjY5L04gMS9UIDMxMTgwMi9IIFsgMjgzNiAzNzZdPj4NZW5kb2JqDSAgICAgICAgICAgICAg DQp4cmVmDQo2MyAxMjcNCjAwMDAwMDAwMTYgMDAwMDAgbg0KMDAwMDAwMzM4MCAwMDAwMCBuDQow MDAwMDAzNTIzIDAwMDAwIG4NCjAwMDAwMDQzMDcgMDAwMDAgbg0KMDAwMDAwNTEwOSAwMDAwMCBu DQowMDAwMDA2Mjc5IDAwMDAwIG4NCjAwMDAwMDY0MTAgMDAwMDAgbg0KMDAwMDAwNjU0NiAwMDAw MCBuDQowMDAwMDA3OTY3IDAwMDAwIG4NCjAwMDAwMDkwMjMgMDAwMDAgbg0KMDAwMDAwOTk0OSAw MDAwMCBuDQowMDAwMDExMDAwIDAwMDAwIG4NCjAwMDAwMTIwNTkgMDAwMDAgbg0KMDAwMDAxMjky MCAwMDAwMCBuDQowMDAwMDEyOTU0IDAwMDAwIG4NCjAwMDAwMTI5ODIgMDAwMDAgbg0KMDAwMDAx ....... CnN0YXJ0eHJlZg0KMTE2DQolJUVPRg0K ------=_Part_0_25002283.1275298567928-- One thing also I have noticed is, the header information donot show TO and Subject values. Hmm pretty wierd. I have to point out that, above is not generated of DEBUG, it is the actual message recieved in my outlook client. Can someone help me please! Do anyone knows what's going on?

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  • Rails preventing duplicates in polymorphic has_many :through associations

    - by seaneshbaugh
    Is there an easy or at least elegant way to prevent duplicate entries in polymorphic has_many through associations? I've got two models, stories and links that can be tagged. I'm making a conscious decision to not use a plugin here. I want to actually understand everything that's going on and not be dependent on someone else's code that I don't fully grasp. To see what my question is getting at, if I run the following in the console (assuming the story and tag objects exist in the database already) s = Story.find_by_id(1) t = Tag.find_by_id(1) s.tags << t s.tags << t My taggings join table will have two entries added to it, each with the same exact data (tag_id = 1, taggable_id = 1, taggable_type = "Story"). That just doesn't seem very proper to me. So in an attempt to prevent this from happening I added the following to my Tagging model: before_validation :validate_uniqueness def validate_uniqueness taggings = Tagging.find(:all, :conditions => { :tag_id => self.tag_id, :taggable_id => self.taggable_id, :taggable_type => self.taggable_type }) if !taggings.empty? return false end return true end And it works almost as intended, but if I attempt to add a duplicate tag to a story or link I get an ActiveRecord::RecordInvalid: Validation failed exception. It seems that when you add an association to a list it calls the save! (rather than save sans !) method which raises exceptions if something goes wrong rather than just returning false. That isn't quite what I want to happen. I suppose I can surround any attempts to add new tags with a try/catch but that goes against the idea that you shouldn't expect your exceptions and this is something I fully expect to happen. Is there a better way of doing this that won't raise exceptions when all I want to do is just silently not save the object to the database because a duplicate exists?

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  • How do I find out what process Id and thread id / name has a file open

    - by peter
    Hi All, I am using C# in an application and am having some problems with a file becoming locked. The piece of code does this, while (true) { Read a packet from a socket (with data in it to add to the file) Open a file Writes data to it Close a file } But in the process the file becomes locked. I don't really understand how, we are are definately catching and reporting exceptions so I don't see how the file doesn't get closed every time. My best guess is that something else is opening the file, but I want to prove it. Can someone please provide a piece of code to check whether the file is open and if so report what processid and threadid has the file open. For example if I had this code, StreamWriter streamWriter1 = new StreamWriter(@"c:\logs\test.txt"); streamWriter1.WriteLine("Test"); // code to check for locks?? StreamWriter streamWriter2 = new StreamWriter(@"c:\logs\test.txt"); streamWriter1.Close(); streamWriter2.Close(); That will throw an exception because the file is locked when we try and open it the second time. So where the comment is what could I put in there to report that the current app (process Id) and the current thread (thread Id) have the file locked? Thanks.

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  • How can I factor out repeated expressions in an SQL Query? Column aliases don't seem to be the ticke

    - by Weston C
    So, I've got a query that looks something like this: SELECT id, DATE_FORMAT(CONVERT_TZ(callTime,'+0:00','-7:00'),'%b %d %Y') as callDate, DATE_FORMAT(CONVERT_TZ(callTime,'+0:00','-7:00'),'%H:%i') as callTimeOfDay, SEC_TO_TIME(callLength) as callLength FROM cs_calldata WHERE customerCode='999999-abc-blahblahblah' AND CONVERT_TZ(callTime,'+0:00','-7:00') >= '2010-04-25' AND CONVERT_TZ(callTime,'+0:00','-7:00') <= '2010-05-25' If you're like me, you probably start thinking that maybe it would improve readability and possibly the performance of this query if I wasn't asking it to compute CONVERT_TZ(callTime,'+0:00','-7:00') four separate times. So I try to create a column alias for that expression and replace further occurances with that alias: SELECT id, CONVERT_TZ(callTime,'+0:00','-7:00') as callTimeZoned, DATE_FORMAT(callTimeZoned,'%b %d %Y') as callDate, DATE_FORMAT(callTimeZoned,'%H:%i') as callTimeOfDay, SEC_TO_TIME(callLength) as callLength FROM cs_calldata WHERE customerCode='5999999-abc-blahblahblah' AND callTimeZoned >= '2010-04-25' AND callTimeZoned <= '2010-05-25' This is when I learned, to quote the MySQL manual: Standard SQL disallows references to column aliases in a WHERE clause. This restriction is imposed because when the WHERE clause is evaluated, the column value may not yet have been determined. So, that approach would seem to be dead in the water. How is someone writing queries with recurring expressions like this supposed to deal with it?

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  • How to count term frequency for set of documents?

    - by ManBugra
    i have a Lucene-Index with following documents: doc1 := { caldari, jita, shield, planet } doc2 := { gallente, dodixie, armor, planet } doc3 := { amarr, laser, armor, planet } doc4 := { minmatar, rens, space } doc5 := { jove, space, secret, planet } so these 5 documents use 14 different terms: [ caldari, jita, shield, planet, gallente, dodixie, armor, amarr, laser, minmatar, rens, jove, space, secret ] the frequency of each term: [ 1, 1, 1, 4, 1, 1, 2, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 2, 1 ] for easy reading: [ caldari:1, jita:1, shield:1, planet:4, gallente:1, dodixie:1, armor:2, amarr:1, laser:1, minmatar:1, rens:1, jove:1, space:2, secret:1 ] What i do want to know now is, how to obtain the term frequency vector for a set of documents? for example: Set<Documents> docs := [ doc2, doc3 ] termFrequencies = magicFunction(docs); System.out.pring( termFrequencies ); would result in the ouput: [ caldari:0, jita:0, shield:0, planet:2, gallente:1, dodixie:1, armor:2, amarr:1, laser:1, minmatar:0, rens:0, jove:0, space:0, secret:0 ] remove all zeros: [ planet:2, gallente:1, dodixie:1, armor:2, amarr:1, laser:1 ] Notice, that the result vetor contains only the term frequencies of the set of documents. NOT the overall frequencies of the whole index! The term 'planet' is present 4 times in the whole index but the source set of documents only contains it 2 times. A naive implementation would be to just iterate over all documents in the docs set, create a map and count each term. But i need a solution that would also work with a document set size of 100.000 or 500.000. Is there a feature in Lucene i can use to obtain this term vector? If there is no such feature, how would a data structure look like someone can create at index time to obtain such a term vector easily and fast? I'm not that Lucene expert so i'am sorry if the solution is obvious or trivial.

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  • passing an array of structures (containing two mpz_t numbers) to a function

    - by jerome
    Hello, I'm working on some project where I use the type mpz_t from the GMP C library. I have some problems passing an array of structures (containing mpz_ts) adress to a function : I wille try to explain my problem with some code. So here is the structure : struct mpz_t2{ mpz_t a; mpz_t b; }; typedef struct mpz_t2 *mpz_t2; void petit_test(mpz_t2 *test[]) { printf("entering petit test function\n"); for (int i=0; i < 4; i++) { gmp_printf("test[%d]->a = %Zd and test[%d]->b = %Zd\n", test[i]->a, test[i]->b); } } /* IN MAIN FUNCTION */ mpz_t2 *test = malloc(4 * sizeof(mpz_t2 *)); for (int i=0; i < 4; i++) { mpz_t2_init(&test[i]); // if I pass test[i] : compiler error mpz_set_ui(test[i].a, i); //if test[i]->a compiler error mpz_set_ui(test[i].b, i*10); //same problem gmp_printf("%Zd\n", test[i].b); //prints correct result } petit_test(test); The programm prints the expected result (in main) but after entering the petit_test function produces a segmentation fault error. I would need to edit the mpz_t2 structure array in petit_test. I tried some other ways allocating and passing the array to the function but I didn't manage to get this right. If someone has a solution to this problem, I would be very thankfull! Regards, jérôme.

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  • Zend: Fetching row from session db table after generating session id

    - by Nux
    Hi, I'm trying to update the session table used by Zend_Session_SaveHandler_DbTable directly after authenticating the user and writing the session to the DB. But I can neither update nor fetch the newly inserted row, even though the session id I use to check (Zend_Session::getId()) is valid and the row is indeed inserted into the table. Upon fetching all session ids (on the same request) the one I newly inserted is missing from the results. It does appear in the results if I fetch it with something else. I've checked whether it is a problem with transactions and that does not seem to be the problem - there is no active transaction when I'm fetching the results. I've also tried fetching a few seconds after writing using sleep(), which doesn't help. $auth->getStorage()->write($ident); //sleep(1) $update = $this->db->update('session', array('uid' => $ident->user_id), 'id='.$this->db->quote(Zend_Session::getId())); $qload = 'SELECT id FROM session'; $load = $this->db->fetchAll($qload); echo $qload; print_r($load); $update fails. $load doesn't contain the row that was written with $auth-getStorage()-write($identity). $qload does contain the correct query - copying it to somewhere else leads to the expected result, that is the inserted row is included in the results. Database used is MySQL - InnoDB. If someone knows how to directly fix this (i.e. on the same request, not doing something like updating after redirecting to another page) without modifying Zend_Session_SaveHandler_DbTable: Thank you very much!

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  • In .NET, Why Can I Access Private Members of a Class Instance within the Class?

    - by AMissico
    While cleaning some code today written by someone else, I changed the access modifier from Public to Private on a class variable/member/field. I expected a long list of compiler errors that I use to "refactor/rework/review" the code that used this variable. Imagine my surprise when I didn't get any errors. After reviewing, it turns out that another instance of the Class can access the private members of another instance declared within the Class. Totally unexcepted. Is this normal? I been coding in .NET since the beginning and never ran into this issue, nor read about it. I may have stumbled onto it before, but only "vaguely noticed" and move on. Can anyone explain this behavoir to me? I would like to know the "why" I can do this. Please explain, don't just tell me the rule. Am I doing something wrong? I found this behavior in both C# and VB.NET. The code seems to take advantage of the ability to access private variables. Sincerely, Totally Confused Class Jack Private _int As Integer End Class Class Foo Public Property Value() As Integer Get Return _int End Get Set(ByVal value As Integer) _int = value * 2 End Set End Property Private _int As Integer Private _foo As Foo Private _jack As Jack Private _fred As Fred Public Sub SetPrivate() _foo = New Foo _foo.Value = 4 'what you would expect to do because _int is private _foo._int = 3 'TOTALLY UNEXPECTED _jack = New Jack '_jack._int = 3 'expected compile error _fred = New Fred '_fred._int = 3 'expected compile error End Sub Private Class Fred Private _int As Integer End Class End Class

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  • Using Javascript to flip flop a textbox's readonly flag

    - by Velika
    I have a frame with several radio buttons where the user is supposed to select the "Category" that his Occupation falls into and then unconditionally also specify his occupation. If the user selects "Retired", the requirement is to prefill "Retired" in the "Specify Occupation" text box and to disable it to prevent it from being changed. The Specify Occupation text box should also no longer be a tab stop. If the user selects a radio button other than Retired the Specify Occupation text box should be enabled and once again in the normal tab sequence. Originally, I was setting and clearing the disabled property on the Specify occupation textbox, then I found out that, upon submitting the form, disabled fields are excluded from the submit and the REQUIRED validator on the Specify Occupation textbox was being raised because the textbox was being blanked out. What is the best way to solve this? My approach below was to mimic a disabled text box by setting/resetting the readonly attribute on the text box and changing the background color to make it appear disabled. (I suppose I should be changing the forecolor instead of teh background color). Nevertheless, my code to make the textbox readonly and to reset it doesn't appear to be working. function OccupationOnClick(sender) { debugger; var optOccupationRetired = document.getElementById("<%= optOccupationRetired.ClientId %>"); var txtSpecifyOccupation = document.getElementById("<%= txtSpecifyOccupation.ClientId %>"); var optOccupationOther = document.getElementById("<%= optOccupationOther.ClientId %>"); if (sender == optOccupationRetired) { txtSpecifyOccupation.value = "Retired" txtSpecifyOccupation.readonly = "readonly"; txtSpecifyOccupation.style.backgroundColor = "#E0E0E0"; txtSpecifyOccupation.tabIndex = -1; } else { if (txtSpecifyOccupation.value == "Retired") txtSpecifyOccupation.value = ""; txtSpecifyOccupation.style.backgroundColor = "#FFFFFF"; txtSpecifyOccupation.readonly = ""; txtSpecifyOccupation.tabIndex = 0; } } Can someone provide a suggest for the best way to handle this scenario and porovide a tweek to the code above to fix the setting/resetting on the readonly property?

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  • Microsoft JScript runtime error: '(function name)' is undefined

    - by Velika2
    Microsoft JScript runtime error: 'txtGivenName_OnFocus' is undefined After adding what I thought was unrelated javascript code to a web page, I am suddenly getting errors that suggest that the browser cannot locate a javascript function that, to me, appears plain as day in design mode. I'm thinking that this is a load sequence order problem of some sort. Originally, my script was at the bottom of the page. I did this with the intent of helping my site's SEO ranking. When I moved the function to the top of the web page, the error went away. Now it is back. I have a feeling someone is going to suggest a jQuery solution to execute some code only when the page is fully loaded. I'm I ignorant of jQuery. IfjQuery is given in the answer, please explain what I need to do (references, placement of script files) for VS 2010 RTM. I am trying to set the focus to the first textbox on the webpage and preselect all of the text in the textbox More info: If I disable this Validator, the problem goes away: <asp:CustomValidator ID="valSpecifyOccupation" runat="server" ErrorMessage="Required" ClientValidationFunction="txtSpecifyOccupation_ClientValidate" Display="Dynamic" Enabled="False"></asp:CustomValidator> function txtSpecifyOccupation_ClientValidate(source, args) { var optOccupationRetired = document.getElementById("<%=optOccupationRetired.ClientID %>"); if (optOccupationRetired.checked) { args.IsValid = true; } else { var txtSpecifyOccupation = document.getElementById("<%=txtSpecifyOccupation.ClientID %>"); args.IsValid = ValidatorTrim(txtSpecifyOccupation.value) != ""; } }

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  • Authentication Problem - not recognizing 'else' - Ruby on rails...

    - by bgadoci
    I can't seem to figure out what I am doing wrong here. I have implemented the Super Simple Authentication from Ryan Bates tutorial and while the login portion is functioning correctly, I can't get an error message and redirect to happen correctly for a bad login. Ryan Bates admits in his comments he left this out but can't seem to implement his recommendation. Basically what is happening is that when someone logs in correctly it works. When a bad password is entered it does the same redirect and flashes 'successfully logged in' thought they are not. The admin links do not show (which is correct and are the links protected by the <% if admin? %) but I need it to say 'failed login' and redirect to login path. Here is my code: SessionsController class SessionsController < ApplicationController def create if session[:password] = params[:password] flash[:notice] = 'Successfully logged in' redirect_to posts_path else flash[:notice] = "whoops" redirect_to login_path end end def destroy reset_session flash[:notice] = 'Successfully logged out' redirect_to posts_path end end ApplicationController class ApplicationController < ActionController::Base helper_method :admin? protected def authorize unless admin? flash[:error] = "unauthorized request" redirect_to posts_path false end end def admin? session[:password] == "123456" end helper :all # include all helpers, all the time protect_from_forgery # See ActionController::RequestForgeryProtection for details # end

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  • Can I use a *.tag from another *.tag file in the same /WEB-INF/tags folder?

    - by Ytsejammer
    Hello, I am trying to refactor my JSP code so that a small conditional test condition gets reused through a *.tag file. There are some big parts of my UI that depend on the value of a two-state property of an object present in the request. Let's say the property is 'gender' and the object is of type Person. Like I said, I would like to simplify & centralize the test on the gender property using a tag. For this purpose, I created two tag files: /WEB-INF/tags/if-male.tag /WEB-INF/tags/if-female.tag Now, I have another tiny spot that gets repeated in all over my application; let's say is the salutation to my site user. With this idea, I created a tag like this: /WEB-INF/tags/salutation.tag As you can imagine, I am trying to use the if-male/if-female test within the salutation.tag file to output 'Mrs.' or 'Mr.' like this: <%@ tag body-content="empty" %> <%@ taglib prefix="g" uri="/WEB-INF/tags" %> <g:if-male> Mr. </g:if-male> <g:if-female> Mrs. </g:if-female> Is the use of the if-male/if-female tags legal within the salutation.tag file? I have tried with such arrangement, but it looks like the JDeveloper 10.1.3.4 compiler gets confused and cannot deal with the salutation.tag tag invoking the other two tags in the same 'library' (folder under /WEB-INF/tags). The reference works perfectly in Jetty 6 and it looks like it works as well if I deploy the application to OC4J directly without relying on JDeveloper to pre-compile all my JSPs. I hope someone can shed some light on this. Thanks, YJ

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  • How to run R through PHP with exec?

    - by dkar
    I am going to ask something, that I know that it has been asked already some times. But since, all of the past posts are quite old and none of them answer my problem..I try again. I am completely new in R language and relative new in php. What I want to do is to use the exec() function from php in order to execute a R script. Most of the people here will start talking about rapache, rserve and I don't know what else..but since I am not familiar with all these technologies, I prefer just using exec. The code I will show here is working just fine when I run it with Rscript from the terminal. # R script png("temp.png") plot(5,5) dev.off() But when I try to run it either with Rscript or with R CMD BATCH from PHP, like this: echo exec("Rscript my_rscript.R"); //OR //echo exec("R CMD BATCH my_rscript.R"); I get nothing back. I have checked if exec() function is available and if it works. Everything is ok with this. I read also, that I might have to change the permissions of the webserver...but I don't know how to do this in mamp. I hope I am clear with my problem and someone can help. Thanks Dimitris

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  • Jquery Date Picker: Append Start Date to End Date and display dates in the future only.

    - by Tim
    Hello, I am using Jquery Date pickers to get Start and End Dates for an application I am building. I have two datepickers, one for a start date and one for an end date. When someone clicks a date in the start date picker I need that date to be appended automatically to the end date picker. I also need the end date picker to select future dates only from the date that has been appended to it. There are two demos on the jquery datepicker site that do what I want, but I am unsure how to combine them to both do what I want. Example One: This example shows how you can tie two date pickers together so that the date selected in one influences the dates that can be selected in the other $(function() { $('.date-pick').datePicker() $('#start-date').bind( 'dpClosed', function(e, selectedDates) { var d = selectedDates[0]; if (d) { d = new Date(d); $('#end-date').dpSetStartDate(d.addDays(1).asString()); } } ); $('#end-date').bind( 'dpClosed', function(e, selectedDates) { var d = selectedDates[0]; if (d) { d = new Date(d); $('#start-date').dpSetEndDate(d.addDays(-1).asString()); } } ); }); Example Two: An example showing inline date pickers which are linked together and trigger behaviour in each other... $(function() { $('#date-view1') .datePicker({inline:true}) .bind( 'dateSelected', function(e, selectedDate, $td) { $('#date1').val(selectedDate.asString()); $('#date-view2, #date-view3').dpSetSelected(selectedDate.addDays(3).asString()); } ); $('#date-view2') .datePicker({inline:true}) .bind( 'dateSelected', function(e, selectedDate, $td) { $('#date2').val(selectedDate.asString()); } ); $('#date-view3').datePicker(); $('#form-check') .bind( 'click', function() { alert('date1=' + $('#date1').val() + '\n' + 'date2=' + $('#date2').val()); } ); }); I have tried many combinations of the codes listed above, but I have not been able to get the desired results. Thanks for all your help, Tim

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  • Use Excel VBA to fill out and submit Google Docs form

    - by guitarthrower
    I'm trying to do something like this post but with Excel VBA. I would like to submit a response on a google docs form each time a button is pressed on an Excel add-in. The addin will be an XLA file and written in VBA. I want to be able to collect what features the users are using. If someone has a better solution, I'm open. ---Edit--- This is the form I am trying to write to (excerpt of the code for one of the fields.) <div class="errorbox-good"> <div class="ss-item ss-item-required ss-text"> <div class="ss-form-entry"> <label for="entry_0" class="ss-q-title"> UserName <span class="ss-required-asterisk">*</span> </label> <label for="entry_0" class="ss-q-help"></label> <input type="text" id="entry_0" class="ss-q-short" value="" name="entry.0.single"> </div> </div> </div>

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  • Escaping single quote in PHP when inserting into MySQL

    - by hairdresser-101
    PLEASE NOTE: I am reposting as the original was not answered correctly... I AM LOOKING FOR THE WHY - NOT THE SOLUTION - I KNOW THE SOLUTION, WHAT I DON'T UNDERSTAND IS THE WHY! I have a perplexing issue that I can't seem to comprehend... I'm hoping someone here might be able to point me in the right direction... I have two SQL statements: - the first enters information from a form into the database. - the second takes data from the database entered above, sends an email and then logs the details of the transaction The problem is that it a appears that a single quote is triggering a MySQL error on the second entry only!!! The first instance works without issue but the second instance triggers the mysql_error(). Does the data from a form get handled differently from the data captured in a form? Query#1 - This works without issue (and without escaping the single quote) $result = mysql_query("INSERT INTO job_log (order_id, supplier_id, category_id, service_id, qty_ordered, customer_id, user_id, salesperson_ref, booking_ref, booking_name, address, suburb, postcode, state_id, region_id, email, phone, phone2, mobile, delivery_date, stock_taken, special_instructions, cost_price, cost_price_gst, sell_price, sell_price_gst, ext_sell_price, retail_customer, created, modified, log_status_id) VALUES ('$order_id', '$supplier_id', '$category_id', '{$value['id']}', '{$value['qty']}', '$customer_id', '$user_id', '$salesperson_ref', '$booking_ref', '$booking_name', '$address', '$suburb', '$postcode', '$state_id', '$region_id', '$email', '$phone', '$phone2', '$mobile', STR_TO_DATE('$delivery_date', '%d/%m/%Y'), '$stock_taken', '$special_instructions', '$cost_price', '$cost_price_gst', '$sell_price', '$sell_price_gst', '$ext_sell_price', '$retail_customer', '".date('Y-m-d H:i:s', time())."', '".date('Y-m-d H:i:s', time())."', '1')"); Query#2 - This fails when entering a name with a single quote (i.e. O'Brien) $query = mysql_query("INSERT INTO message_log (order_id, timestamp, message_type, email_from, supplier_id, primary_contact, secondary_contact, subject, message_content, status) VALUES ('$order_id', '".date('Y-m-d H:i:s', time())."', '$email', '$from', '$row->supplier_id', '$row->primary_email' ,'$row->secondary_email', '$subject', '$message_content', '1')");

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  • Escaping single quote in PHP when inserting into MySQL

    - by hairdresser-101
    I have a perplexing issue that I can't seem to comprehend... I'm hoping someone here might be able to point me in the right direction... I have two SQL statements: - the first enters information from a form into the database. - the second takes data from the database entered above, sends an email and then logs the details of the transaction The problem is that it a appears that a single quote is triggering a MySQL error on the second entry only!!! The first instance works without issue but the second instance triggers the mysql_error(). Does the data from a form get handled differently from the data captured in a form? Query#1 - This works without issue (and without escaping the single quote) $result = mysql_query("INSERT INTO job_log (order_id, supplier_id, category_id, service_id, qty_ordered, customer_id, user_id, salesperson_ref, booking_ref, booking_name, address, suburb, postcode, state_id, region_id, email, phone, phone2, mobile, delivery_date, stock_taken, special_instructions, cost_price, cost_price_gst, sell_price, sell_price_gst, ext_sell_price, retail_customer, created, modified, log_status_id) VALUES ('$order_id', '$supplier_id', '$category_id', '{$value['id']}', '{$value['qty']}', '$customer_id', '$user_id', '$salesperson_ref', '$booking_ref', '$booking_name', '$address', '$suburb', '$postcode', '$state_id', '$region_id', '$email', '$phone', '$phone2', '$mobile', STR_TO_DATE('$delivery_date', '%d/%m/%Y'), '$stock_taken', '$special_instructions', '$cost_price', '$cost_price_gst', '$sell_price', '$sell_price_gst', '$ext_sell_price', '$retail_customer', '".date('Y-m-d H:i:s', time())."', '".date('Y-m-d H:i:s', time())."', '1')"); Query#2 - This fails when entering a name with a single quote (i.e. O'Brien) $query = mysql_query("INSERT INTO message_log (order_id, timestamp, message_type, email_from, supplier_id, primary_contact, secondary_contact, subject, message_content, status) VALUES ('$order_id', '".date('Y-m-d H:i:s', time())."', '$email', '$from', '$row->supplier_id', '$row->primary_email' ,'$row->secondary_email', '$subject', '$message_content', '1')");

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