Search Results

Search found 15115 results on 605 pages for 'state pattern'.

Page 57/605 | < Previous Page | 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64  | Next Page >

  • Events + Adapter Pattern

    - by Stretto
    I have an adapter pattern on a generic class that essentially adapts between types: class A<T> { event EventHandler e; } class Aadapter<T1, T2> : A<T1> { A<T2> a; Aadapter(A<T2> _a) { a = _a; } } The problem is that A contains an event. I effectively want all event handlers assigned to Adapter to fall through to a. It would be awesome if I could assign the a's event handler to adapter's event handler but this is impossible? The idea here is that A is almost really just A but we need a way to adapt the them. Because of the way event's work I can't how to efficiently do it except manually add two event handlers and when they are called they "relay" the to the other event. This isn't pretty though and it would seem much nicer if I could have something like class A<T> { event EventHandler e; } class Aadapter<T1, T2> : A<T1> { event *e; A<T2> a; Aadapter(A<T2> _a) { a = _a; e = a.e; } } in a sense we have a pointer to the event that we can assign a2's event to. I doubt there is any simple way but maybe someone has some idea to make it work. (BTW, I realize this is possible with virtual events but I'd like to avoid this if at all possible)

    Read the article

  • Generic Singleton Fasade design pattern

    - by Paul
    Hi I try write singleton fasede pattern with generics. I have one problem, how can I call method from generic variable. Something like this: T1 t1 = new T1(); //call method from t1 t1.Method(); In method SingletonFasadeMethod I have compile error: Error 1 'T1' does not contain a definition for 'Method' and no extension method 'Method' accepting a first argument of type 'T1' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) Any advace? Thank, I am beginner in C#. All code is here: namespace GenericSingletonFasade { public interface IMyInterface { string Method(); } internal class ClassA : IMyInterface { public string Method() { return " Calling MethodA "; } } internal class ClassB : IMyInterface { public string Method() { return " Calling MethodB "; } } internal class ClassC : IMyInterface { public string Method() { return "Calling MethodC"; } } internal class ClassD : IMyInterface { public string Method() { return "Calling MethodD"; } } public class SingletonFasade<T1,T2,T3> where T1 : class,new() where T2 : class,new() where T3 : class,new() { private static T1 t1; private static T2 t2; private static T3 t3; private SingletonFasade() { t1 = new T1(); t2 = new T2(); t3 = new T3(); } class SingletonCreator { static SingletonCreator() { } internal static readonly SingletonFasade<T1,T2,T3> uniqueInstace = new SingletonFasade<T1,T2,T3>(); } public static SingletonFasade<T1,T2,T3> UniqueInstace { get { return SingletonCreator.uniqueInstace; } } public string SingletonFasadeMethod() { //Problem is here return t1.Method() + t2.Method() + t3.Method(); } } }

    Read the article

  • Which design pattern fits - strategy makes sense ?

    - by user554833
    --Bump *One desperate try to get someone's attention I have a simple database table that stores list of users who have subscribed to folders either by email OR to show up on the site (only on the web UI). In the storage table this is controlled by a number(1 - show on site 2- by email). When I am showing in UI I need to show a checkbox next to each of folders for which the user has subscribed (both email & on site). There is a separate table which stores a set of default subscriptions which would apply to each user if user has not expressed his subscription. This is basically a folder ID and a virtual group name. But, Email subscriptions do not count for applying these default groups. So if no "on site" subscription apply default group. Thats the rule. How about a strategy pattern here (Pseudo code) Interface ISubscription public ArrayList GetSubscriptionData(Pass query object) Public class SubscriptionWithDefaultGroup Implement ArrayList GetSubscriptionData(Pass query object) Public class SubscriptionWithoutDefaultGroup Implement ArrayList GetSubscriptionData(Pass query object) Public class SubscriptionOnlyDefaultGroup Implement ArrayList GetSubscriptionData(Pass query object) does this even make sense? I would be more than glad for receive any criticism / help / notes. I am learning. Cheers

    Read the article

  • JSP includes and MVC pattern

    - by xingyu
    I am new to JSP/Servlets/MVC and am writing a JSP page (using Servlets and MVC pattern) that displays information about recipies, and want the ability for users to "comment" on it too. So for the Servlet, on doGet(), it grabs all the required info into a Model POJO and forwards the request on to a JSP View for rendering. That is working just fine. I'd like the "comment" part to be a separate JSP, so on the RecipeView.jsp I can use to separate these views out. So I've made that, but am now a little stuck. The form in the CommentOnRecipe.jsp posts to a CommentAction servlet that handles the recording of the comment just fine. So when I reload the Recipe page, I can see the comment I just made. I'd like to: Reload the page automatically after commenting (no AJAX for now) Block the user from making more than one comment on each Recipe over a 1 day timeframe (via a Cookie). So I store a cookie indicating the product ID whenever the user makes a comment, so we can check this later? How would it work in a MVC context? Show a message to the user that they have already commented on the Recipe when they visit one which they have commented on I'm confused about using beans/including JSPs etc on how to achieve this. I know in ASP.NET land, it would be a UseControl that I would place on a page, or in ASP.NET MVC, it would be a PartialView of some sort. I'm just confused with the way this works in a JSP/Servlets/MVC context.

    Read the article

  • Singleton pattern in C++

    - by skydoor
    I have a question about the singleton pattern. I saw two cases concerning the static member in the singleton class. First it is an object, like this class CMySingleton { public: static CMySingleton& Instance() { static CMySingleton singleton; return singleton; } // Other non-static member functions private: CMySingleton() {} // Private constructor ~CMySingleton() {} CMySingleton(const CMySingleton&); // Prevent copy-construction CMySingleton& operator=(const CMySingleton&); // Prevent assignment }; One is an pointer, like this class GlobalClass { int m_value; static GlobalClass *s_instance; GlobalClass(int v = 0) { m_value = v; } public: int get_value() { return m_value; } void set_value(int v) { m_value = v; } static GlobalClass *instance() { if (!s_instance) s_instance = new GlobalClass; return s_instance; } }; What's the difference between the two cases? Which one is correct?

    Read the article

  • Python: Sorting array with custom pattern

    - by Binka
    In my little project here I have sorted a list in decending order, however, my goal is to sort it in this custom pattern. (largest - smallest - next largest - next smallest -)etc. In java I was able to do this like this... My goal is to do the same thing but in python, except backwards. Any ideas on how to convert that last for loop that does the wackysort into python and make it go backwards? public static void wackySort(int[] nums){ //first, this simply sorts the array by ascending order. int sign = 0; int temp = 0; int temp2 = 0; for (int i = 0; i < nums.length; i++){ for (int j = 0; j < nums.length -1; j++){ if (nums[j] > nums[j+1]){ temp = nums[j]; nums[j] = nums[j+1]; nums[j+1] = temp; } } } //prepare for new array to actually do the wacky sort. System.out.println(); int firstPointer = 0; int secondPointer = nums.length -1; int[] newarray = new int[nums.length]; int size = nums.length; //for loop that increments by two taking second slot replacing the last (n-1) term for (int i = 0; i < nums.length -1; i+=2){ newarray[i] = nums[firstPointer++]; newarray[i+1] = nums[secondPointer--]; } //storing those values back in the nums array for (int i = 0; i < nums.length; i++){ nums[i] = newarray[i]; } }

    Read the article

  • A self-creator: What pattern is this? php

    - by user151841
    I have several classes that are basically interfaces to database rows. Since the class assumes that a row already exists ( __construct expects a field value ), there is a public static function that allows creation of the row and returns an instance of the class. Here's a pseudo-code example : class fruit { public $id; public function __construct( $id ) { $this->id = $id; $sql = "SELECT * FROM Fruits WHERE id = $id"; ... $this->arrFieldValues[$field] = $row[$value]; } public function __get( $var ) { return $this->arrFieldValues[$var]; } public function __set( $var, $val ) { $sql = "UPDATE fruits SET $var = $val WHERE id = $this->id"; } public static function create( $id ) { $sql = "INSERT INTO Fruits ( fruit_name ) VALUE ( '$fruit' )"; $id = mysql_insert_id(); $fruit = & new fruit($id); return $fruit; } } $obj1 = fruit::create( "apple" ); $obj2 = & new fruit( 12 ); What is this pattern called? Edit: I changed the example to one that has more database-interface functionality. For most of the time, this kind of class would be instantiated normally, through __construct(). But sometimes when you need to create a new row first, you would call create().

    Read the article

  • Scala regex Named Capturing Groups

    - by Brent
    In scala.util.matching.Regex trait MatchData I see that there support for groupnames (Named Capturing Groups) But since Java does not support groupnames until version 7 as I understand it, Scala version 2.8.0.RC4 (Java HotSpot(TM) 64-Bit Server VM, Java 1.6. gives me this exception: scala> val pattern = """(?<login>\w+) (?<id>\d+)""".r java.util.regex.PatternSyntaxException: Look-behind group does not have an obvio us maximum length near index 11 (?<login>\w+) (?<id>\d+) ^ at java.util.regex.Pattern.error(Pattern.java:1713) at java.util.regex.Pattern.group0(Pattern.java:2488) at java.util.regex.Pattern.sequence(Pattern.java:1806) at java.util.regex.Pattern.expr(Pattern.java:1752) at java.util.regex.Pattern.compile(Pattern.java:1460) So the question is Named Capturing Groups supported in Scala? If so any examples out there? If not I might look into the Named-Regexp lib from clement.denis.

    Read the article

  • Add multiple entities to Javascript namespace from different files

    - by Brian M. Hunt
    Given a namespaces ns used in two different files: abc.js ns = ns || (function () { foo = function() { ... }; return { abc : foo }; }()); def.js // is this correct? ns = ns || {} ns.def = ns.def || (function () { defoo = function () { ... }; return { deFoo: defoo }; }()); Is this the proper way to add def to the ns to a namespace? In other words, how does one merge two contributions to a namespace in javascript? If abc.js comes before def.js I'd expect this to work. If def.js comes before abc.js I'd expect ns.abc to not exist because ns is defined at the time. It seems there ought to be a design pattern to eliminate any uncertainty of doing inclusions with the javascript namespace pattern. I'd appreciate thoughts and input on how best to go about this sort of 'inclusion'. Thanks for reading. Brian

    Read the article

  • Exception "The operation is not valid for the state of the transaction" using TransactionScope

    - by Lanfear
    We have a web service on server #1 and a database on server #2. Web service uses transaction scope to produce distributed transaction. Everything is correct. And we have another database on server #3. We had some problems with this server and we reinstalled operation system and software. We configured MSDTC and tried to use web service from server #1 to communicate with database on this server. And now after first select statement within transaction scope we get: "The operation is not valid for the state of the transaction". This exception falls in every web service request if it is using transaction scope. Server #2 and Server #3 is almost similar. The difference can be only in settings. .NET framework 3.5 SP1 installed and SQL Server SP3 on all servers. Full stacktrace: System.Transactions.TransactionState.EnlistPromotableSinglePhase(InternalTransaction tx, IPromotableSinglePhaseNotification promotableSinglePhaseNotification, Transaction atomicTransaction) ? System.Transactions.Transaction.EnlistPromotableSinglePhase(IPromotableSinglePhaseNotification promotableSinglePhaseNotification) ? System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.EnlistNonNull(Transaction t ? System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.Enlist(Transaction t ? System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.Activate(Transaction transaction) ? System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionInternal.ActivateConnection(Transaction transaction) ? System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.GetConnection(DbConnection owningObject) ? System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.GetConnection(DbConnection owningConnection) ? System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionClosed.OpenConnection(DbConnection outerConnection, DbConnectionFactory connectionFactory) ? System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection.Open() ? NHibernate.Connection.DriverConnectionProvider.GetConnection() ? NHibernate.Impl.SessionFactoryImpl.OpenConnection() I searched this message but didn't found any appropriate solution. So what settings should I check and what exactly should I do to fix it?

    Read the article

  • WCF: Manually configuring Binding and Endpoint causes SerciveChannel Faulted State

    - by Matthias
    Hi there, I've created a ComVisible assembly to be used in a classic-asp application. The assembly should act as a wcf client and connect to a wcf service host (inside a windows service) on the same machine using named pipes. The wcf service host works fine with other clients, so the problem must be within this assembly. In order to get things work I added a service reference to the ComVisible assembly and proxy classes and the corresponding app.config settings were generated for me. Everything fine so far except that the app config would not be recognized when doing an CreateObject with my assembly in the asp code. I went and tried to hardcode (just for testing) the Binding and Endpoint and pass those two to the constructor of my ClientBase derived proxy using this code: private NetNamedPipeBinding clientBinding = null; private EndpointAddress clientAddress = null; clientBinding = new NetNamedPipeBinding(); clientBinding.OpenTimeout = new TimeSpan(0, 1, 0); clientBinding.CloseTimeout = new TimeSpan(0, 0, 10); clientBinding.ReceiveTimeout = new TimeSpan(0, 2, 0); clientBinding.SendTimeout = new TimeSpan(0, 1, 0); clientBinding.TransactionFlow = false; clientBinding.TransferMode = TransferMode.Buffered; clientBinding.TransactionProtocol = TransactionProtocol.OleTransactions; clientBinding.HostNameComparisonMode = HostNameComparisonMode.StrongWildcard; clientBinding.MaxBufferPoolSize = 524288; clientBinding.MaxBufferSize = 65536; clientBinding.MaxConnections = 10; clientBinding.MaxReceivedMessageSize = 65536; clientAddress = new EndpointAddress("net.pipe://MyService/"); MyServiceClient client = new MyServiceClient(clientBinding, clientAddress); client.Open(); // do something with the client client.Close(); But this causes the following error: The communication object, System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel, cannot be used for communication because it is in the faulted state. The environment is .Net Framework 3.5 / C#. What am I missing here?

    Read the article

  • How do I save an Android application's state?

    - by Bernard
    I've been playing around with the Android SDK, and I am a little unclear on saving an applications state. So given this minor re-tooling of the 'Hello, Android' example: package com.android.hello; import android.app.Activity; import android.os.Bundle; import android.widget.TextView; public class HelloAndroid extends Activity { /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); mTextView = new TextView(this); if (savedInstanceState == null) { mTextView.setText("Welcome to HelloAndroid!"); } else { mTextView.setText("Welcome back."); } setContentView(mTextView); } private TextView mTextView = null; } I thought that might be all one needed to do for the simplest case, but it always gives me the first message, no matter how I navigate away from the app. I'm sure it's probably something simple like overriding onPause or something like that, but I've been poking away in the docs for 30 minutes or so and haven't found anything obvious, so would appreciate any help. Cue me looking a fool in three, two, one... Thanks.

    Read the article

  • HTML.CheckBox persisting state after POST - Refresh ModelState?

    - by Kirschstein
    I have a form that's made up of many items (think order items on an amazon order). Each row has a checkbox associated with them so the user can select many items and click 'remove'. The form is built up a bit like this; <% for (int i = 0; i < Model.OrderItems.Count; i++) { %> <tr> <td><%= Html.Hidden(String.Format("OrderItems[{0}].Id", i), Model.OrderItems[i].Id)%> <%= Html.CheckBox(String.Format("OrderItems[{0}].Checked", i), Model.OrderItems[i].Checked)%></td> <td><%= Html.TextBox(String.Format("OrderItems[{0}].Name", i), Model.OrderItems[i].Name)%></td> <td><%= Html.TextBox(String.Format("OrderItems[{0}].Cost", i), Model.OrderItems[i].Cost)%></td> <td><%= Html.TextBox(String.Format("OrderItems[{0}].Quantity", i), Model.OrderItems[i].Quantity)%></td> </tr> <% } %> The model binder does its magic just fine and the list is correctly populated. However, after I process the request in the action (e.g. remove the appropriate items) and return a new view containing fewer items, the state of the form is 'semi' persisted. Some check boxes remain checked, even though in the edit model all the bools are set to false. I don't have this problem if I return a RedirectToActionResult, but using that as a solution seems a bit of a hacky work around. I think I need to flush/refresh the ModelState, or something similiar, but I'm unsure of the terms to search for to find out how.

    Read the article

  • Determining whether geographic point is within X meters of a state border (using shapefile for borde

    - by DanM
    So I'm writing a Java app, and I've got an ESRI Shapefile which contains the borders of all the U.S. states. What I need is to be able to determine whether any given lat/lon point is within a specified distance from ANY state border line - i.e., I will not be specifying a particular border line, just need to see whether the point is close to any of them. The solution does NOT have to be very precise at all; e.g. I don't need to be dealing with measuring perpendicular to the border, or whatever. Just checking to see if going X meters north, south, east or west would result in crossing a border would be more than sufficient. The solution DOES have to be computationally efficient, as I'll be performing a huge number of these calculations. I'm planning to use the GeoTools library (though if there's a simpler option, I'm all for it) with the Shapefile plugin. What I don't really understand is: Once I've got the shapefile loaded into memory, how do I check to see whether I'm near a border? Thanks! -Dan

    Read the article

  • PostgreSQL - Error: SQL state: XX000.

    - by rob
    I have a table in Postgres that looks like this: CREATE TABLE "Population" ( "Id" bigint NOT NULL DEFAULT nextval('"population_Id_seq"'::regclass), "Name" character varying(255) NOT NULL, "Description" character varying(1024), "IsVisible" boolean NOT NULL CONSTRAINT "pk_Population" PRIMARY KEY ("Id") ) WITH ( OIDS=FALSE ); And a select function that looks like this: CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION "Population_SelectAll"() RETURNS SETOF "Population" AS $BODY$select "Id", "Name", "Description", "IsVisible" from "Population"; $BODY$ LANGUAGE 'sql' STABLE COST 100 Calling the select function returns all the rows in the table as expected. I have a need to add a couple of columns to the table (both of which are foreign keys to other tables in the database). This gives me a new table def as follows: CREATE TABLE "Population" ( "Id" bigint NOT NULL DEFAULT nextval('"population_Id_seq"'::regclass), "Name" character varying(255) NOT NULL, "Description" character varying(1024), "IsVisible" boolean NOT NULL, "DefaultSpeciesId" bigint NOT NULL, "DefaultEcotypeId" bigint NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT "pk_Population" PRIMARY KEY ("Id"), CONSTRAINT "fk_Population_DefaultEcotypeId" FOREIGN KEY ("DefaultEcotypeId") REFERENCES "Ecotype" ("Id") MATCH SIMPLE ON UPDATE NO ACTION ON DELETE NO ACTION, CONSTRAINT "fk_Population_DefaultSpeciesId" FOREIGN KEY ("DefaultSpeciesId") REFERENCES "Species" ("Id") MATCH SIMPLE ON UPDATE NO ACTION ON DELETE NO ACTION ) WITH ( OIDS=FALSE ); and function: CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION "Population_SelectAll"() RETURNS SETOF "Population" AS $BODY$select "Id", "Name", "Description", "IsVisible", "DefaultSpeciesId", "DefaultEcotypeId" from "Population"; $BODY$ LANGUAGE 'sql' STABLE COST 100 ROWS 1000; Calling the function after these changes results in the following error message: ERROR: could not find attribute 11 in subquery targetlist SQL state: XX000 What is causing this error and how do I fix it? I have tried to drop and recreate the columns and function - but the same error occurs. Platform is PostgreSQL 8.4 running on Windows Server. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Android - Lifecycle and saving an Instance State questions

    - by The Salt
    So within my application is a form for creating a new user, with relevant details and information about the user. There's no problems there, it's just what happens when the user leaves the activity without pressing the confirm button. Here's what I want to do: If the user presses the back button, attempt to save all the data to the database and inform the user. If the activity is interrupted (ie by a phone call), save all the data into a temporary location so when the activity is at the top of the stack again, nothing appears to have changed (but the data still hasn't yet been saved to the database). If the activity gets killed for more resources when in the background, do the same as point 2 above (ie when the activity is started again, it appears that nothing has changed). If the whole application is started again (by clicking on the icon again) and there is temporary data stored from either points 2 or 3 above, navigate to the "create user" activity and display data as if nothings changed. Here's how I'm currently trying to do it: Use onDestroy() and isFinishing() functions to find when the activity is being killed, to cover point 1 above (to then try and save all data). Save all data with onSaveInstanceState into a bundle (to cover point 2 above) Does the bundle created with onSaveInstanceState survive the activity being killed for more resources, so when its recreated the previous state can be retrieved (as in point 3 above)? No idea how to implement point 4. Any help would be massively appreciated. Cheers!

    Read the article

  • State Animation on ListBox ItemTemplate

    - by Peanut
    I have a listbox which reads from Observable collection, and is ItemTemplate'ed: <DataTemplate x:Key="DataTemplate1"> <Grid x:Name="grid" Height="47.333" Width="577" Opacity="0.495"> <Image HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="10.668,8,0,8" Width="34" Source="{Binding ImageLocation}"/> <TextBlock Margin="56,8,172.334,8" TextWrapping="Wrap" Text="{Binding ApplicationName}" FontSize="21.333"/> <Grid x:Name="grid1" HorizontalAlignment="Right" Margin="0,10.003,-0.009,11.33" Width="26" Opacity="0" RenderTransformOrigin="0.5,0.5"> <Image HorizontalAlignment="Stretch" Margin="0" Source="image/downloads.png" Stretch="Fill" MouseDown="Image_MouseDown" /> </Grid> </Grid> </DataTemplate> <ListBox x:Name="searchlist" Margin="8" ItemTemplate="{DynamicResource DataTemplate1}" ItemsSource="{Binding SearchResults}" SelectionChanged="searchlist_SelectionChanged" ItemContainerStyle="{DynamicResource ListBoxItemStyle1}" /> In general, my question is "What is the easiest way to do Animation on Particular Items in this listbox As they are selected? Basically the image inside the "grid1" will be setting its opacity to 1, slowly. I would prefer to use states, but I do not know of any way to just tell blend and xaml to "When a selected item is changed, change the image opacity to 1 over a period of .3 seconds". Infact, I have been doing this in the .cs file using the VisualStateManager. Also, there is another issue. When the selected index is changed, we goto the CS file and look at SelectedItem. SelectedItem returns an instance of the Object in which it was bound to (The object inside the observable collection), and NOT an instance of the DataTemplate/ListItem etc. So how am I able to pull the correct image out of this list? State animation with VisualStateManager I can handle fine if its just normal things, but when it comes to generated listboxes' items, I'm lost. Thanks

    Read the article

  • submitting the form even if the form is in invalid state

    - by Abu Hamzah
    i am using asp.net web forms and i am using bassistance.de jquery validation.. i have bunch of fields in the form and its validatating how it suppose to but its still executing my code behind code, why is it doing that? here is my code: form: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#aspnetForm").validate({ rules: { <%=txtVisitName.UniqueID %>: { maxlength:1, //minlength: 12, required: true } ................. }, messages: { <%=txtVisitName.UniqueID %>: { required: "Enter visit name", minlength: jQuery.format("Enter at least {0} characters.") } ............ }, success: function(label) { label.html("&nbsp;").addClass("checked"); } }); $("#aspnetForm").validate(); }); </script> <div > <h1> Page</h1> <asp:Label runat="server" ID='Label1'>Visit Name:</asp:Label> <asp:TextBox ID="txtVisitName" runat='server'></asp:TextBox> ............ ............... <button id="btnSubmit" name="btnSubmit" type="submit"> Submit</button> </div> and i have a external .js file referencing to my web form page. $(document).ready(function() { $("#btnSubmit").click(function() { SavePage(); }); }); i have a WebMethod .cs and i have bookmark and it does hitting that line of code even thoug my page is in invalid state. how would i fix this? thanks.

    Read the article

  • Properly maintain sorted state of Array/Set

    - by Jeff
    I'm trying to get data out of my MOC and then create some new objects based on those objects, and put it all back together, while keeping my sort state. The securities come out of the MOC in proper order. And everything seems to be fine until I do the assignment to the game at the bottom from setWithArray. The documentation says that setWithArray removed the duplicate objects, if there are any. I'm wonder if that's messing up my data, but I don't see a good alternative. The data is ultimately being pulled out into a UITableView. When I add items to the game manually, then they stay sorted, so I don't think the breaking of the sort is beyond the scope of what I've included here. NSError *error; NSArray *allTheSecurities = [managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:request error:&error]; if (allTheSecurities == nil) { // Handle the error. } [request release]; /**/ NSLog( @"Enumerate..." ); NSEnumerator *enumerator = [allTheSecurities objectEnumerator]; id anObject; NSMutableArray *portfolioStocks = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; while (anObject = [enumerator nextObject]) { NSLog( @"Iteration... %@", [anObject name] ); NSLog( @"Build a stock..." ); PortfolioStocks *this_stock = (PortfolioStocks *)[NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"PortfolioStocks" inManagedObjectContext:context]; NSLog( @"Set a value..." ); [this_stock setSecurity:(Security *)anObject]; [this_stock setQuantity:[NSNumber numberWithInt:0]]; NSLog( @"Add to portfolioStocks..." ); [portfolioStocks addObject:this_stock]; } //Sorted properly up to here! NSLog( @"Add to portfolio..." ); [game setPortfolio:[NSSet setWithArray:portfolioStocks]]; // <-- This is where it's not sorted anymore.

    Read the article

  • submittingthe form even if the form is in invalid state

    - by Abu Hamzah
    i am using asp.net web forms and i am using bassistance.de jquery validation.. i have bunch of fields in the form and its validatating how it suppose to but its still executing my code behind code, why is it doing that? here is my code: form: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#aspnetForm").validate({ rules: { <%=txtVisitName.UniqueID %>: { maxlength:1, //minlength: 12, required: true } ................. }, messages: { <%=txtVisitName.UniqueID %>: { required: "Enter visit name", minlength: jQuery.format("Enter at least {0} characters.") } ............ }, success: function(label) { label.html("&nbsp;").addClass("checked"); } }); $("#aspnetForm").validate(); }); </script> <div > <h1> Page</h1> <asp:Label runat="server" ID='Label1'>Visit Name:</asp:Label> <asp:TextBox ID="txtVisitName" runat='server'></asp:TextBox> ............ ............... <button id="btnSubmit" name="btnSubmit" type="submit"> Submit</button> </div> and i have a external .js file referencing to my web form page. $(document).ready(function() { $("#btnSubmit").click(function() { SavePage(); }); }); i have a WebMethod .cs and i have bookmark and it does hitting that line of code even thoug my page is in invalid state. how would i fix this? thanks.

    Read the article

  • Hibernate NamingStrategy implementation that maintains state between calls

    - by Robert Petermeier
    Hi, I'm working on a project where we use Hibernate and JBoss 5.1. We need our entity classes to be mapped to Oracle tables that follow a certain naming convention. I'd like to avoid having to specify each table and column name in annotations. Therefore, I'm currently considering implementing a custom implementation of org.hibernate.cfg.NamingStrategy. The SQL naming conventions require the name of columns to have a suffix that is equivalent to a prefix of the table name. If there is a table "T100_RESOURCE", the ID column would have to be named "RES_ID_T100". In order to implement this in a NamingStrategy, the implementation would have to maintain state, i.e. the current class name it is creating the mappings for. It would rely on Hibernate to always call classToTableName() before propertyToColumnName() and to determine all column names by calling propertyToColumnName() before the next call to classToTableName() Is it safe to do that or are there situations where Hibernate will mix things up? I am not thinking of problems through multiple threads here (which can be solved by keeping the last class name in a ThreadLocal) but also of Hibernate deliberately calling this out of order in certain circumstances. For example Hibernate asking for mappings of three properties of class A, then one of class B, then again more attributes of class A.

    Read the article

  • jQuery Hover Fade Button with an Active State

    - by Tim
    I do not want to double post a question; I was trying to post an add-on to my first question that I was looking for additional help. How does one go about this? Here is the original question. jQuery Hover Fade Button with an Active State Was hoping to see if there is a solution to the glitch I found. The problem I am now looking for help with is all other buttons still have the hover effect, but a button that was once active no longer does. <ul class="buttons"> <li><a class="button" href="#">button 1</a></li> <li><a class="button" href="#">button 2</a></li> <li><a class="button" href="#">button 3</a></li> </ul> Best way to explain this. If button 2 is clicked – it is now active. Buttons 1 and 3 will still hover. If you click on button 1 – it is now active and button 2 will no longer hover while button 3 will. Eventually when you go through the series of all buttons the animation hover is no longer.

    Read the article

  • IE and replaceWith not preserving radio button state

    - by copelco
    Hello, I've run into an issue regarding replaceWith not maintaining the state of a moved radio button input. I've prepared a simple example illustrating this issue. This works in FF and Chrome, but not IE. Is there a way around this? Thanks! jsbin: http://jsbin.com/unola4/2 code: <html> <head> <script class="jsbin" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.3.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <title>IE replaceWith issue</title> <script type='text/javascript'> $(function(){ $('a').click(function(e) { e.preventDefault(); $('#temp').replaceWith($('#window').children()); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <a href='#'>run replaceWith</a> <p>Select a radio button and then click "run replaceWith". The value persists in FF, but not IE.</p> <div id='window' style='background-color: #DDD; height: 100px;'> <input id="id_received_date-days_0" type="radio" name="received_date-days" value="30" /> <input id="id_received_date-days_1" type="radio" name="received_date-days" value="50" /> <input type='text' name='test-test' /> </div> <br /> <form id='foo' style='background-color: #EEE'> <div id='temp'></div> </form> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • UIViewController maintains state after being nilled

    - by Eric
    In my app, I made a BookViewController class that displays and animates the pages of a book and a MainMenuViewController class that displays a set of books the user can read. In the latter class, when the user taps on one of the books, a function is called that should create a completely new instance of BookViewController, but for some reason the instance maintains its state (i.e. it resumes from the page the user left off). How can this be if I set it to nil? What am I missing here? (Note that I'm using ARC). MainMenuViewController.m @interface MainMenuViewController () @property (strong) BookViewController *bookViewController; @end @implementation MainMenuViewController @synthesize bookViewController; -(void)bookTapped:(UIButton *)sender{ NSString *bookTitle; if(sender == book1button) bookTitle = @"book1"; else if(sender == book2button) bookTitle = @"book2"; bookViewController = nil; bookViewController = [[BookViewController alloc] initWithBookTitle:bookTitle]; [self presentViewController:bookViewController animated:YES completion:nil]; } BookViewController.h @interface BookViewController : UIViewController -(id)initWithBookTitle:(NSString *)bookTitle; @end BookViewController.m @implementation BookViewController -(id)initWithBookTitle:(NSString *)theBookTitle{ self = [super init]; if(self){ bookTitle = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@", theBookTitle]; [self setModalTransitionStyle:UIModalTransitionStyleCrossDissolve]; NSLog(@"init a BookViewController with bookTitle: %@", bookTitle); } return self; } Every time a book is tapped, bookTapped: is called, and thee console always prints: 2012-08-31 16:29:51.750 AppName[25713:c07] init a BookViewController with bookTitle: book1 So if a new instance of BookViewController is being created, how come it seems to be returning the old one?

    Read the article

  • Global State and Singletons Dependency injection

    - by Manu
    this is a problem i face lot of times when i am designing a new app i'll use a sample problem to explain this think i am writing simple game.so i want to hold a list of players. i have few options.. 1.use a static field in some class private static ArrayList<Player> players = new ArrayList<Integer>(); public Player getPlayer(int i){ return players.get(i); } but this a global state 2.or i can use a singleton class PlayerList{ private PlayerList instance; private PlayerList(){...} public PlayerList getInstance() { if(instance==null){ ... } return instance; } } but this is bad because it's a singleton 3.Dependency injection class Game { private PlayerList playerList; public Game(PlayerList list) { this.list = list; } public PlayerList getPlayerList() { return playerList; } } this seems good but it's not, if any object outside Game need to look at PlayerList (which is the usual case) i have to use one of the above methods to make the Game class available globally. so I just add another layer to the problem. didn't actually solve anything. what is the optimum solution ? (currently i use Singleton approach)

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64  | Next Page >