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  • jQuery toggle() with unknown initial state

    - by Jason Morhardt
    I have a project that I am working on that uses a little image to mark a record as a favorite on multiple rows in a table. The data gets pulled from a DB and the image is based on whether or not that item is a favorite. One image for a favorite, a different image if not a favorite. I want the user to be able to toggle the image and make it a favorite or not. Here's my code: $(function () { $('.FavoriteToggle').toggle( function () { $(this).find("img").attr({src:"../../images/icons/favorite.png"}); var ListText = $(this).find('.FavoriteToggleIcon').attr("title"); var ListID = ListText.match(/\d+/); $.ajax({ url: "include/AJAX.inc.php", type: "GET", data: "action=favorite&ItemType=0&ItemID=" + ListID, success: function () {} }); }, function () { $(this).find("img").attr({src:"../../images/icons/favorite_not.png"}); var ListText = $(this).find('.FavoriteToggleIcon').attr("title"); var ListID = ListText.match(/\d+/); $.ajax({ url: "include/AJAX.inc.php", type: "GET", data: "action=favorite&ItemType=0&ItemID=" + ListID, success: function () {} }); } ); }); Works great if the initial state is not a favorite. But you have to double click to get the image to change if it IS a favorite initially. This causes the AJAX to fire twice and essentially make it a favorite then not a favorite before the image responds. The user thinks he's made it a favorite because the image changed, but in fact, it's not. Help anybody?

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  • How do I use .htaccess conditional redirects for multiple domains?

    - by John
    I'm managing about 15 or so domains for a particular promotion. Each domain has specific redirects in place, as shown below. Rather than make 15 different .htaccess files that I would later have to manage separately, I'd like to use a single .htaccess file and use a symbolic link into each website's directory. The trouble is that, I can't figure out how to make the rules apply only for a specific domain. Every time I visit www.redirectsite2.com, it sends me to www.targetsite.com/search.html?state=PA&id=75, when it should instead be sending me to www.targetsite.com/search.html?state=NJ&id=68. How exactly do I make multiple RewriteRules apply for a given domain and only that domain? Is this even possible to do within a single .htaccess file? Options +FollowSymlinks # redirectsite1.com RewriteEngine On RewriteBase / # start processing rules for www.redirectsite1.com RewriteCond %{QUERY_STRING} ^$ RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^www\.redirectsite1\.com$ # rule for organic visit first RewriteRule ^$ http://targetsite.com/search.html?state=PA&id=75 [QSA,R,L] RewriteRule ^PGN$ http://targetsite.com/search.html?state=PA&id=26 [QSA,R,NC,L] RewriteRule ^NS$ http://targetsite.com/search.html?state=PA&id=27 [QSA,R,NC,L] RewriteRule ^INQ$ http://targetsite.com/search.html?state=PA&id=28 [QSA,R,NC,L] RewriteRule ^AA$ http://targetsite.com/search.html?state=PA&id=29 [QSA,R,NC,L] RewriteRule ^PI$ http://targetsite.com/search.html?state=PA&id=30 [QSA,R,NC,L] RewriteRule ^GV$ http://targetsite.com/search.html?state=PA&id=31 [QSA,R,NC,L] # catch-all rule, using the same id as the organic visit RewriteRule ^([a-z]+)?$ http://targetsite.com/search.html?state=PA&id=75 [QSA,R,NC,L] # end processing rules for www.redirectsite1.com # begin rules for redirectsite2.com RewriteCond %{QUERY_STRING} ^$ RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^www\.redirectsite2\.com$ # rule for organic visit first RewriteRule ^$ http://targetsite.com/search.html?state=NJ&id=68 [QSA,R,L] RewriteRule ^SL$ http://targetsite.com/search.html?state=NJ&id=6 [QSA,R,NC,L] RewriteRule ^APP$ http://targetsite.com/search.html?state=NJ&id=8 [QSA,R,NC,L] # catch-all rule, using the same id as the organic visit RewriteRule ^([a-z]+)?$ http://targetsite.com/search.html?state=NJ&id=68 [QSA,R,NC,L] Thanks for any help you may be able to provide!

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  • Silverlight child windows in MVVM pattern

    - by rrejc
    Hello, I am trying to find the right way to get the data from a ChildWindow/popup using a MVVM pattern in Silverlight (3). For example: I have a main page with a data entry form and I want to open a popup with a list of customers. When user selects a customer I want to transfer selected customer into the main page. This is what the (example) code which I am using at the moment: Main page public partial class MainPage : UserControl { public MainPageViewModel ViewModel { get; private set; } public MainPage() { InitializeComponent(); ViewModel = new MainPageViewModel(); DataContext = ViewModel; } private void SearchCustomer_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { ViewModel.SearchCustomer(); } } public class MainPageViewModel: ViewModel { private string customer; public string Customer { get { return customer; } set { customer = value; RaisePropertyChanged("Customer"); } } public void SearchCustomer() { // Called from a view SearchWindow searchWindow = new SearchWindow(); searchWindow.Closed += (sender, e) => { if ((bool)searchWindow.DialogResult) { Customer = searchWindow.ViewModel.SelectedCustomer.ToString(); } }; searchWindow.Show(); } } Child window public partial class SearchWindow : ChildWindow { public SearchWindowViewModel ViewModel { get; private set; } public SearchWindow() { InitializeComponent(); ViewModel = new SearchWindowViewModel(); DataContext = ViewModel; } private void OKButton_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { DialogResult = ViewModel.OkButtonClick(); } private void CancelButton_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { DialogResult = ViewModel.CancelButtonClick(); } } public class SearchWindowViewModel: ViewModel { private Customer selectedCustomer; private ObservableCollection<Customer> customers; public ObservableCollection<Customer> Customers { get { return customers; } set {customers = value; RaisePropertyChanged("Customers"); } } public Customer SelectedCustomer { get { return selectedCustomer; } set { selectedCustomer = value; RaisePropertyChanged("SelectedCustomer"); } } public SearchWindowViewModel() { Customers = new ObservableCollection<Customer>(); ISearchService searchService = new FakeSearchService(); foreach (Customer customer in searchService.FindCustomers("dummy")) Customers.Add(customer); } public bool? OkButtonClick() { if (SelectedCustomer != null) return true; else return null; // show some error message before that } public bool? CancelButtonClick() { return false; } } Is this the right way or is there anything more "simple"? Cheers, Rok

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  • Java Builder pattern with Generic type bounds

    - by I82Much
    Hi all, I'm attempting to create a class with many parameters, using a Builder pattern rather than telescoping constructors. I'm doing this in the way described by Joshua Bloch's Effective Java, having private constructor on the enclosing class, and a public static Builder class. The Builder class ensures the object is in a consistent state before calling build(), at which point it delegates the construction of the enclosing object to the private constructor. Thus public class Foo { // Many variables private Foo(Builder b) { // Use all of b's variables to initialize self } public static final class Builder { public Builder(/* required variables */) { } public Builder var1(Var var) { // set it return this; } public Foo build() { return new Foo(this); } } } I then want to add type bounds to some of the variables, and thus need to parametrize the class definition. I want the bounds of the Foo class to be the same as that of the Builder class. public class Foo<Q extends Quantity> { private final Unit<Q> units; // Many variables private Foo(Builder<Q> b) { // Use all of b's variables to initialize self } public static final class Builder<Q extends Quantity> { private Unit<Q> units; public Builder(/* required variables */) { } public Builder units(Unit<Q> units) { this.units = units; return this; } public Foo build() { return new Foo<Q>(this); } } } This compiles fine, but the compiler is allowing me to do things I feel should be compiler errors. E.g. public static final Foo.Builder<Acceleration> x_Body_AccelField = new Foo.Builder<Acceleration>() .units(SI.METER) .build(); Here the units argument is not Unit<Acceleration> but Unit<Length>, but it is still accepted by the compiler. What am I doing wrong here? I want to ensure at compile time that the unit types match up correctly.

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  • Implementing EAV pattern with Hibernate for User -> Settings relationship

    - by Trevor
    I'm trying to setup a simple EAV pattern in my web app using Java/Spring MVC and Hibernate. I can't seem to figure out the magic behind the hibernate XML setup for this scenario. My database table "SETUP" has three columns: user_id (FK) setup_item setup_value The database composite key is made up of user_id | setup_item Here's the Setup.java class: public class Setup implements CommonFormElements, Serializable { private Map data = new HashMap(); private String saveAction; private Integer speciesNamingList; private User user; Logger log = LoggerFactory.getLogger(Setup.class); public String getSaveAction() { return saveAction; } public void setSaveAction(String action) { this.saveAction = action; } public User getUser() { return user; } public void setUser(User user) { this.user = user; } public Integer getSpeciesNamingList() { return speciesNamingList; } public void setSpeciesNamingList(Integer speciesNamingList) { this.speciesNamingList = speciesNamingList; } public Map getData() { return data; } public void setData(Map data) { this.data = data; } } My problem with the Hibernate setup, is that I can't seem to figure out how to map out the fact that a foreign key and the key of a map will construct the composite key of the table... this is due to a lack of experience using Hibernate. Here's my initial attempt at getting this to work: <composite-id> <key-many-to-one foreign-key="id" name="user" column="user_id" class="Business.User"> <meta attribute="use-in-equals">true</meta> </key-many-to-one> </composite-id> <map lazy="false" name="data" table="setup"> <key column="user_id" property-ref="user"/> <composite-map-key class="Command.Setup"> <key-property name="data" column="setup_item" type="string"/> </composite-map-key> <element column="setup_value" not-null="true" type="string"/> </map> Any insight into how to properly map this common scenario would be most appreciated!

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  • C# Finalize/Dispose pattern

    - by robUK
    Hello, C# 2008 I have been working on this for a while now. And I am still confused about some issues. My questions below 1) I know that you only need a finalizer if you are disposing of unmanaged resources. However, if you are using managed resources that make calls to unmanaged resources. Would you still need to implement a finalizer? 2) However, if you develop a class that doesn't use any unmanged resources directly or indirectly and you implement the IDisposable so that clients of your class can use the 'using statement'. Would it be acceptable to implement the IDisposable just so that clients of your class can use the using statement? using(myClass objClass = new myClass()) { // Do stuff here } 3) I have developed this simple code below to demostrate the Finalize/dispose pattern: public class NoGateway : IDisposable { private WebClient wc = null; public NoGateway() { wc = new WebClient(); wc.DownloadStringCompleted += wc_DownloadStringCompleted; } // Start the Async call to find if NoGateway is true or false public void NoGatewayStatus() { // Start the Async's download // Do other work here wc.DownloadStringAsync(new Uri(www.xxxx.xxx)); } private void wc_DownloadStringCompleted(object sender, DownloadStringCompletedEventArgs e) { // Do work here } // Dispose of the NoGateway object public void Dispose() { wc.DownloadStringCompleted -= wc_DownloadStringCompleted; wc.Dispose(); GC.SuppressFinalize(this); } } Question about the source code: 1) Here I have not added the finalizer. And normally the finalizer will be called by the GC, and the finalizer will call the Dispose. As I don't have the finalizer, when do I call the Dispose method? Is it the client of the class that has to call it? So my class in the example is called NoGateway and the client could use and dispose of the class like this: Would the Dispose method be automatically called when execution reaches the end of the using block? using(NoGateway objNoGateway = new NoGateway()) { // Do stuff here } Or does the client have to manually call the dispose method i.e.? NoGateway objNoGateway = new NoGateway(); // Do stuff with object objNoGateway.Dispose(); // finished with it Many thanks for helping with all these questions, 2) I am using the webclient class in my 'NoGateway' class. Because the webclient implements the IDisposable interface. Does this mean that the webclient indirectly uses unmanaged resources? Is there any hard and fast rule to follow about this. How do I know that a class uses unmanaged resources?

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  • Design pattern question: encapsulation or inheritance

    - by Matt
    Hey all, I have a question I have been toiling over for quite a while. I am building a templating engine with two main classes Template.php and Tag.php, with a bunch of extension classes like Img.php and String.php. The program works like this: A Template object creates a Tag objects. Each tag object determines which extension class (img, string, etc.) to implement. The point of the Tag class is to provide helper functions for each extension class such as wrap('div'), addClass('slideshow'), etc. Each Img or String class is used to render code specific to what is required, so $Img->render() would give something like <img src='blah.jpg' /> My Question is: Should I encapsulate all extension functionality within the Tag object like so: Tag.php function __construct($namespace, $args) { // Sort out namespace to determine which extension to call $this->extension = new $namespace($this); // Pass in Tag object so it can be used within extension return $this; // Tag object } function render() { return $this->extension->render(); } Img.php function __construct(Tag $T) { $args = $T->getArgs(); $T->addClass('img'); } function render() { return '<img src="blah.jpg" />'; } Usage: $T = new Tag("img", array(...); $T->render(); .... or should I create more of an inheritance structure because "Img is a Tag" Tag.php public static create($namespace, $args) { // Sort out namespace to determine which extension to call return new $namespace($args); } Img.php class Img extends Tag { function __construct($args) { // Determine namespace then call create tag $T = parent::__construct($namespace, $args); } function render() { return '<img src="blah.jpg" />'; } } Usage: $Img = Tag::create('img', array(...)); $Img->render(); One thing I do need is a common interface for creating custom tags, ie I can instantiate Img(...) then instantiate String(...), I do need to instantiate each extension using Tag. I know this is somewhat vague of a question, I'm hoping some of you have dealt with this in the past and can foresee certain issues with choosing each design pattern. If you have any other suggestions I would love to hear them. Thanks! Matt Mueller

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  • Dependency Injection and Unit of Work pattern

    - by sunwukung
    I have a dilemma. I've used DI (read: factory) to provide core components for a homebrew ORM. The container provides database connections, DAO's,Mappers and their resultant Domain Objects on request. Here's a basic outline of the Mappers and Domain Object classes class Mapper{ public function __constructor($DAO){ $this->DAO = $DAO; } public function load($id){ if(isset(Monitor::members[$id]){ return Monitor::members[$id]; $values = $this->DAO->selectStmt($id); //field mapping process omitted for brevity $Object = new Object($values); return $Object; } } class User(){ public function setName($string){ $this->name = $string; //mark modified by means fair or foul } } The ORM also contains a class (Monitor) based on the Unit of Work pattern i.e. class Monitor(){ private static array modified; private static array dirty; public function markClean($class); public function markModified($class); } The ORM class itself simply co-ordinates resources extracted from the DI container. So, to instantiate a new User object: $Container = new DI_Container; $ORM = new ORM($Container); $User = $ORM->load('user',1); //at this point the container instantiates a mapper class //and passes a database connection to it via the constructor //the mapper then takes the second argument and loads the user with that id $User->setName('Rumpelstiltskin');//at this point, User must mark itself as "modified" My question is this. At the point when a user sets values on a Domain Object class, I need to mark the class as "dirty" in the Monitor class. I have one of three options as I can see it 1: Pass an instance of the Monitor class to the Domain Object. I noticed this gets marked as recursive in FirePHP - i.e. $this-Monitor-markModified($this) 2: Instantiate the Monitor directly in the Domain Object - does this break DI? 3: Make the Monitor methods static, and call them from inside the Domain Object - this breaks DI too doesn't it? What would be your recommended course of action (other than use an existing ORM, I'm doing this for fun...)

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  • PHP Regex: How to match anything except a pattern between two tags

    - by Ryan
    Hello, I am attempting to match a string which is composed of HTML. Basically it is an image gallery so there is a lot of similarity in the string. There are a lot of <dl> tags in the string, but I am looking to match the last <dl>(.?)+</dl> combo that comes before a </div>. The way I've devised to do this is to make sure that there aren't any <dl's inside the <dl></dl> combo I'm matching. I don't care what else is there, including other tags and line breaks. I decided I had to do it with regular expressions because I can't predict how long this substring will be or anything that's inside it. Here is my current regex that only returns me an array with two NULL indicies: preg_match_all('/<dl((?!<dl).)+<\/dl>(?=<\/div>)/', $foo, $bar) As you can see I use negative lookahead to try and see if there is another <dl> within this one. I've also tried negative lookbehind here with the same results. I've also tried using +? instead of just + to no avail. Keep in mind that there's no pattern <dl><dl></dl> or anything, but that my regex is either matching the first <dl> and the last </dl> or nothing at all. Now I realize . won't match line breaks but I've tried anything I could imagine there and it still either provides me with the NULL indicies or nearly the whole string (from the very first occurance of <dl to </dl></div>, which includes several other occurances of <dl>, exactly what I didn't want). I honestly don't know what I'm doing incorrectly. Thanks for your help! I've spent over an hour just trying to straighten out this one problem and it's about driven me to pulling my hair out.

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  • Problem with Command Pattern under Visual Studio 2008 (C++)

    - by D.Giunchi
    Dear All, I've a problem with this pattern under c++ on VS 2008. The same code has been tested in gcc (linux, mac and mingw for widnows) and it works. I copy/paste the code here: class MyCommand { public: virtual void execute() = 0; virtual ~MyCommand () {}; }; class MyOperation { public: virtual void DoIt() {}; //I also write it not inline }; class MyOperationDerived : public MyOperation { public: virtual void DoIt() {}; //I also write it not inline }; class MyUndoStackCommand : public MyCommand { public: typedef void(MyOperation::*Action)(); MyUndoStackCommand(MyOperation *rec, Action action); /*virtual*/ void execute(); /*virtual*/ ~MyUndoStackCommand(); private: MyOperation *myReceiver; Action myAction ; }; in cpp: #include "MyUndoStackCommand.h" #include "MyOperation.h" MyUndoStackCommand::~MyUndoStackCommand() { } MyUndoStackCommand::MyUndoStackCommand(myOperation *rec, Action action): myReceiver(rec), myAction(action) { } void MyUndoStackCommand::execute() { ((myReceiver)->*(myAction))(); } use in main.cpp: MyReceiver receiver; MyUndoStackCommand usc(&receiver, &MyOperation::DoIt); usc.execute(); when I debug under visual studio only if I set inside MyUndoStackCommand, directly myAction = &MyOperation::DoIt , it works, otherwise not. Any advice? thank you very much, dan Edit: The following code compiles with g++ - changes by Neil Butterworth flagged as //NB. class MyCommand { public: virtual void execute() = 0; virtual ~MyCommand () {}; }; class MyOperation { public: virtual void DoIt() {}; //I also write it not inline }; class MyOperationDerived : public MyOperation { public: virtual void DoIt() {}; //I also write it not inline }; class MyUndoStackCommand : public MyCommand { public: typedef void(MyOperation::*Action)(); MyUndoStackCommand(MyOperation *rec, Action action); /*virtual*/ void execute(); /*virtual*/ ~MyUndoStackCommand(); private: MyOperation *myReceiver; Action myAction ; }; MyUndoStackCommand::~MyUndoStackCommand() { } MyUndoStackCommand::MyUndoStackCommand(MyOperation *rec, //NB Action action) : myReceiver(rec), myAction(action) { } void MyUndoStackCommand::execute() { ((myReceiver)->*(myAction))(); } int main() { MyOperation receiver; //NB MyUndoStackCommand usc(&receiver, &MyOperation::DoIt); usc.execute(); }

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  • WPF ToggleButton changing image depending on state

    - by mack369
    I would like to use ToggleButton in following way: There are 5 different images and each of them should be displayed depending on current state: button disabled button enabled, unchecked button enabled, unchecked, pointed by mouse cursor button enabled, checked button enabled, checked, pointed by mouse cursor I've found a simple example with two images on http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/wpf/thread/28c36bd2-2ef7-4232-9976-2a0967140e32 , but how to change the image depending on "checked" property? The second question: how can I avoid creating different styles for each button in my application? I'm using about 20 different buttons and each of them has different set of icons. So far I'm using only one icon, below my code. Is it possible to have common code (style and template) and to define the source of images in section where I want to create button (like in section 3 of my code)? <ControlTemplate x:Key="ToggleButtonTemplate" TargetType="{x:Type ToggleButton}"> <Grid> <Border x:Name="ContentBorder" CornerRadius="4" BorderBrush="Transparent" BorderThickness="1" Background="{DynamicResource ButtonOff}"> <ContentPresenter SnapsToDevicePixels="{TemplateBinding SnapsToDevicePixels}" HorizontalAlignment="{TemplateBinding HorizontalContentAlignment}" Margin="{TemplateBinding Padding}" VerticalAlignment="{TemplateBinding VerticalContentAlignment}" RecognizesAccessKey="True"/> </Border> </Grid> <ControlTemplate.Triggers> <Trigger Property="IsPressed" Value="true"> <Setter TargetName="ContentBorder" Property="Background" Value="{DynamicResource ButtonOn}"/> </Trigger> <Trigger Property="IsChecked" Value="true"> <Setter TargetName="ContentBorder" Property="Background" Value="{DynamicResource ButtonOn}"/> </Trigger> <Trigger Property="IsEnabled" Value="false"> <Setter TargetName="ContentBorder" Property="Background" Value="{DynamicResource ButtonDisabled}"/> <Setter Property="Foreground" Value="{DynamicResource BorderDisabled}"/> </Trigger> </ControlTemplate.Triggers> </ControlTemplate> <Style x:Key="ToggleButtonStyle" TargetType="{x:Type ToggleButton}"> <Setter Property="Width" Value="64" /> <Setter Property="Height" Value="64" /> <Setter Property="HorizontalContentAlignment" Value="Center"/> <Setter Property="VerticalContentAlignment" Value="Center"/> <Setter Property="Template" Value="{DynamicResource ToggleButtonTemplate}" /> </Style> <ToggleButton IsChecked="{Binding Path=IsLectorModeEnabled}" Command="{Binding CmdLector}" Style="{DynamicResource ToggleButtonStyle}"> <Image Source="{DynamicResource LectorImage}" HorizontalAlignment="Center" VerticalAlignment="Center" Stretch="None" /> </ToggleButton>

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  • How to make ASP.Net MVC checkboxes keep state

    - by myotherme
    I have the following situation: I have a class Product that can have a confirmation from various Stations. So I have a ViewModel that holds the Product information, and a list of stations, and all the ProductStationConfirmations. public class ProductViewModel { public Product Product { get; private set; } public List<Station> Stations { get; private set; } public Dictionary<string, ProductStationConfirmation> ProductStationConfirmations { get; private set; } public ProductViewModel(int productID) { // Loads everything from DB } } In my partial view for inserting/editing I iterate over the stations to make a checkbox for each of them: <div class="editor-label"> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.Product.Title)%> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.Product.Title)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Product.Title)%> </div> <fieldset> <legend>Station Confirmations</legend> <% foreach (var station in Model.Stations) { %> <div class="nexttoeachother"> <div> <%= Html.Encode(station.Name) %> </div> <div> <%= Html.CheckBox("confirm_"+station.ID.ToString(), Request["confirm_"+station.ID.ToString()] == null ? Model.ProductStationConfirmations.ContainsKey(Entities.ProductStationConfirmation.MakeHash(Model.Product.ID, station.ID)) : Request["confirm_" + station.ID.ToString()].Contains("true") ) %> </div> </div> <% } %> </fieldset> This works and I can process the Request values to store the confirmed Stations, but it is really messy. I made it this way to preserve the state of the checkboxes between round trips if there is a problem with the model (missing title, bad value for decimal, or something that can only be checked server-side like duplicate tile). I would expect that there is a nicer way to do this, I just don't know what it is. I suspect that I need to change the shape of my ViewModel to better accommodate the data, but i don't know how. I am using MVC 2.

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  • How to retain the state of a activity that has a GLSurfaceView

    - by user348639
    My problem is our game can switch into menu and setting mode instantly but it will need 4-6 seconds to load texture, init GL render mode eventually I just used 6 simple textures to create 6 sprites in game. Please help me answer two questions: 1. How can I preload our assets in android os to start our game quicker? 2. In order to use a trick to create instance switch between activity, how can I retain my activity with GLSurfaceView state? I order to help you understanding my situation, please read the following code: The game using 3 activities as you can see in following configuration: <application android:label="@string/app_name" android:icon="@drawable/icon" android:allowBackup="true"> <activity android:name=".Menu" android:screenOrientation="portrait" android:theme="@android:style/Theme.NoTitleBar.Fullscreen" android:launchMode="singleTop"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER" /> </intent-filter> </activity> <activity android:name=".ReTouch" android:screenOrientation="portrait" /> <activity android:name=".Preference" android:screenOrientation="portrait" android:theme="@android:style/Theme.NoTitleBar.Fullscreen" /> </application> My .ReTouch class is a class that extended from RokonActivity (I am using rokon engine for my game), this engine will create a GLSurefaceView to render my game in OpenGL ES You can get RokonAcitivity's source code here: http://code.google.com/p/rokon/source/browse/tags/release/1.1.1/src/com/stickycoding/Rokon/RokonActivity.java public class ReTouch extends RokonActivity { public static final int REPLAY_DELAY_INTERVAL = 1000; private ReTouchGameBoard reTouchGame; and .Menu, .Preference are two normal standard activity in an android application. I am using this method to start and switch between activities: playButton.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { soundPool.play(soundId, 1, 1, 1, 0, 1); startActivity(new Intent(Menu.this, ReTouch.class)); } }); settingButton.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { soundPool.play(soundId, 1, 1, 1, 0, 1); startActivity(new Intent(Menu.this, Preference.class)); } }); quitButton.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { soundPool.play(soundId, 1, 1, 1, 0, 1); finish(); } });

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  • Finite State Machine Spellchecker

    - by Durell
    I would love to have a debugged copy of the finite state machine code below. I tried debugging but could not, all the machine has to do is to spell check the word "and",an equivalent program using case is welcomed. #include<cstdlib> #include<stdio.h> #include<string.h> #include<iostream> #include<string> using namespace std; char in_str; int n; void spell_check() { char data[256]; int i; FILE *in_file; in_file=fopen("C:\\Users\\mytorinna\\Desktop\\a.txt","r+"); while (!feof(in_file)) { for(i=0;i<256;i++) { fscanf(in_file,"%c",in_str); data[i]=in_str; } //n = strlen(in_str); //start(data); cout<<data; } } void start(char data) { // char next_char; //int i = 0; // for(i=0;i<256;i++) // if (n == 0) { if(data[i]="a") { state_A(); exit; } else { cout<<"I am comming"; } // cout<<"This is an empty string"; // exit();//do something here to terminate the program } } void state_A(int i) { if(in_str[i] == 'n') { i++; if(i<n) state_AN(i); else error(); } else error(); } void state_AN(int i) { if(in_str[i] == 'd') { if(i == n-1) cout<<" Your keyword spelling is correct"; else cout<<"Wrong keyword spelling"; } } int main() { spell_check(); system("pause"); return 0; }

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  • How to perform duplicate key validation using entlib (or DataAnnotations), MVC, and Repository pattern

    - by olivehour
    I have a set of ASP.NET 4 projects that culminate in an MVC (3 RC2) app. The solution uses Unity and EntLib Validation for cross-cutting dependency injection and validation. Both are working great for injecting repository and service layer implementations. However, I can't figure out how to do duplicate key validation. For example, when a user registers, we want to make sure they don't pick a UserID that someone else is already using. For this type of validation, the validating object must have a repository reference... or some other way to get an IQueryable / IEnumerable reference to check against other rows already in the DB. What I have is a UserMetadata class that has all of the property setters and getters for a user, along with all of the appropriate DataAnnotations and EntLib Validation attributes. There is also a UserEntity class implemented using EF4 POCO Entity Generator templates. The UserEntity depends on UserMetadata, because it has a MetadataTypeAttribute. I also have a UserViewModel class that has the same exact MetadataType attribute. This way, I can apply the same validation rules, via attributes, to both the entity and viewmodel. There are no concrete references to the Repository classes whatsoever. All repositories are injected using Unity. There is also a service layer that gets dependency injection. In the MVC project, service layer implementation classes are injected into the Controller classes (the controller classes only contain service layer interface references). Unity then injects the Repository implementations into the service layer classes (service classes also only contain interface references). I've experimented with the DataAnnotations CustomValidationAttribute in the metadata class. The problem with this is the validation method must be static, and the method cannot instantiate a repository implementation directly. My repository interface is IRepository, and I have only one single repository implementation class defined as EntityRepository for all domain objects. To instantiate a repository explicitly I would need to say new EntityRepository(), which would result in a circular dependency graph: UserMetadata [depends on] DuplicateUserIDValidator [depends on] UserEntity [depends on] UserMetadata. I've also tried creating a custom EntLib Validator along with a custom validation attribute. Here I don't have the same problem with a static method. I think I could get this to work if I could just figure out how to make Unity inject my EntityRepository into the validator class... which I can't. Right now, all of the validation code is in my Metadata class library, since that's where the custom validation attribute would go. Any ideas on how to perform validations that need to check against the current repository state? Can Unity be used to inject a dependency into a lower-layer class library?

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  • "state is undetermined" when starting Grails app on CloudFoundry

    - by SeattleStephens
    I have a Grails app that has been running on CloudFoundry for months. I updated the app from Grails 2.0.4 to 2.1.0 and also updated a few plugins I have been using. Now when I push the app to CloudFoundry and do the start, I receive the error: 'appname' state is undetermined, not enough information available. The tomcat Catalina log shows the NoClassDefFoundError below. I've read about issues with the Ivy cache but have not looked into that yet. I have updated vmc to the latest version (0.3.18). SEVERE: Error deploying web application directory ROOT java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: org/apache/tomcat/PeriodicEventListener at java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClass1(Native Method) at java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClassCond(ClassLoader.java:632) at java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClass(ClassLoader.java:616) at java.security.SecureClassLoader.defineClass(SecureClassLoader.java:141) at org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.findClassInternal(WebappClassLoader.java:2818) at org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.findClass(WebappClassLoader.java:1159) at org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.loadClass(WebappClassLoader.java:1647) at org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.loadClass(WebappClassLoader.java:1526) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardWrapper.loadServlet(StandardWrapper.java:1128) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardWrapper.load(StandardWrapper.java:1026) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContext.loadOnStartup(StandardContext.java:4421) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContext.start(StandardContext.java:4734) at org.apache.catalina.core.ContainerBase.addChildInternal(ContainerBase.java:799) at org.apache.catalina.core.ContainerBase.addChild(ContainerBase.java:779) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardHost.addChild(StandardHost.java:601) at org.apache.catalina.startup.HostConfig.deployDirectory(HostConfig.java:1079) at org.apache.catalina.startup.HostConfig.deployDirectories(HostConfig.java:1002) at org.apache.catalina.startup.HostConfig.deployApps(HostConfig.java:506) at org.apache.catalina.startup.HostConfig.start(HostConfig.java:1317) at org.apache.catalina.startup.HostConfig.lifecycleEvent(HostConfig.java:324) at org.apache.catalina.util.LifecycleSupport.fireLifecycleEvent(LifecycleSupport.java:142) at org.apache.catalina.core.ContainerBase.start(ContainerBase.java:1065) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardHost.start(StandardHost.java:840) at org.apache.catalina.core.ContainerBase.start(ContainerBase.java:1057) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardEngine.start(StandardEngine.java:463) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardService.start(StandardService.java:525) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardServer.start(StandardServer.java:754) at org.apache.catalina.startup.Catalina.start(Catalina.java:595) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:25) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:597) at org.apache.catalina.startup.Bootstrap.start(Bootstrap.java:289) at org.apache.catalina.startup.Bootstrap.main(Bootstrap.java:414) Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.apache.tomcat.PeriodicEventListener at org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.loadClass(WebappClassLoader.java:1680) at org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.loadClass(WebappClassLoader.java:1526) ... 34 more

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  • how useful is Turing completeness? are neural nets turing complete?

    - by Albert
    While reading some papers about the Turing completeness of recurrent neural nets (for example: Turing computability with neural nets, Hava T. Siegelmann and Eduardo D. Sontag, 1991), I got the feeling that the proof which was given there was not really that practical. For example the referenced paper needs a neural network which neuron activity must be of infinity exactness (to reliable represent any rational number). Other proofs need a neural network of infinite size. Clearly, that is not really that practical. But I started to wonder now if it does make sense at all to ask for Turing completeness. By the strict definition, no computer system nowadays is Turing complete because none of them will be able to simulate the infinite tape. Interestingly, programming language specification leaves it most often open if they are turing complete or not. It all boils down to the question if they will always be able to allocate more memory and if the function call stack size is infinite. Most specification don't really specify this. Of course all available implementations are limited here, so all practical implementations of programming languages are not Turing complete. So, what you can say is that all computer systems are just equally powerful as finite state machines and not more. And that brings me to the question: How useful is the term Turing complete at all? And back to neural nets: For any practical implementation of a neural net (including our own brain), they will not be able to represent an infinite number of states, i.e. by the strict definition of Turing completeness, they are not Turing complete. So does the question if neural nets are Turing complete make sense at all? The question if they are as powerful as finite state machines was answered already much earlier (1954 by Minsky, the answer of course: yes) and also seems easier to answer. I.e., at least in theory, that was already the proof that they are as powerful as any computer.

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  • How to detect a WCF session crash before calling a contract method?

    - by brain_pusher
    I am using a session mode for my WCF service. The problem is the following: if session is broken and no longer exists, client can't know it before calling a contract. For example, if the service has been restarted, the client's session id is invalid, because that session has been closed on the server side. I check the channel state before calling the contract and its value is CommunicationState.Opened even if session is already broken. So, when I call the contract after this check I get a CommunicationException with this message: The remote endpoint no longer recognizes this sequence. This is most likely due to an abort on the remote endpoint. The value of wsrm:Identifier is not a known Sequence identifier. The reliable session was faulted. Is there any workaround? I need a way to get an appropriate session state before calling a contract so that I can restore it without getting an exception. P.S. The CommunicationException type is general, so I can't detect a session crash by catching this exception. P.P.S. I have asked the similar question here, but in that case I didn't know the reason, now I don't know how to evade it.

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  • How does this Singleton Web Class persists session data, even though session is not updated in the p

    - by Micah Burnett
    Ok, I've got this singleton-like web class which uses session to maintain state. I initially thought I was going to have to manipulate the session variables on each "set" so that the new values were updated in the session. However I tried using it as-is, and somehow, it remembers state. For example, if run this code on one page: UserContext.Current.User.FirstName = "Micah"; And run this code in a different browser tab, FirstName is displayed correctly: Response.Write(UserContext.Current.User.FirstName); Can someone tell me (prove) how this data is getting persisted in the session? Here is the class: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; public class UserContext { private UserContext() { } public static UserContext Current { get { if (System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Session["UserContext"] == null) { UserContext uc = new UserContext(); uc.User = new User(); System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Session["UserContext"] = uc; } return (UserContext)System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Session["UserContext"]; } } private string HospitalField; public string Hospital { get { return HospitalField; } set { HospitalField = value; ContractField = null; ModelType = null; } } private string ContractField; public string Contract { get { return ContractField; } set { ContractField = value; ModelType = string.Empty; } } private string ModelTypeField; public string ModelType { get { return ModelTypeField; } set { ModelTypeField = value; } } private User UserField; public User User { get { return UserField; } set { UserField = value; } } public void DoSomething() { } } public class User { public int UserId { get; set; } public string FirstName { get; set; } }

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  • Session timeout is very short on IIS 7.5

    - by Mehdi Mousavi
    I have a website on windows server 2008 and iis 7 on a VPS. It works fine and has no problems, but after moving it to a shared hosting server with IIS 7.5, the session is lost after 4 or 5 clicks (like 30 secs) and I have to login again and again. The two sites are same, I copied the site from the VPS exactly as-is to the shared hosting server. The session timeouts in both web.config files are same. On the shared hosting server I don't have access to IIS manager to manipulate the settings. All I have is Plesk Control Panel 9.5 and the website's web.config file. What could be causing this to happen?

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  • Windows SteadyState - system's security log is full

    - by Matt
    Quick version: New computer, attached to Windows domain, with SteadyState w/ Disk Protection turned on, cannot log on as domain user because Windows states 'system security log is full' Troubleshooting performed: disabled all 'restrictions' listed in SteadyState, cleared system security log, changed security log settings to overwrite entries when it becomes full, restarted computer to commit changes, verified changes were commited - still cannot log on as domain user, changed Documents and Settings folder to another partition, still cannot log on as domain user Let me know if you need a more detailed description of any steps performed. I appreciate any help you can give me.

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  • How to set up cluster with SESSION replication in Coldfusion 10?

    - by user3427540
    I am not able to set up a cluster with session replication. I have successfully set up a cluster with sticky session. When googled I found a lot of links explaining the same issue, like http://cfmlblog.adamcameron.me/2012/11/problem-with-session-replication-with.html https://forums.adobe.com/thread/1238702?start=0&tstart=0 Does deselecting the sticky session auto enables the session replication? But no where i got a solutions. Anyone solved this problem?

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  • How to delete everything except .svn directories?

    - by Arek
    I have quite complex directory tree. There are many subdirectories, in those subdirectories beside other files and directories are ".svn" directories. Now, under linux I want to delete all files and directories except the .svn directories. I found many solutions about opposite behaviour - deleting all .svn directories in the tree. Can somebody quote me the correct answer for deleting everything except .svn?

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  • Is it safe to use consumer MLC SSDs in a server?

    - by Zypher
    We (and by we I mean Jeff) are looking into the possibility of using Consumer MLC SSD disks in our backup data center. We want to try to keep costs down and usable space up - so the Intel X25-E's are pretty much out at about 700$ each and 64GB of capacity. What we are thinking of doing is to buy some of the lower end SSD's that offer more capacity at a lower price point. My boss doesn't think spending about 5k for disks in servers running out of the backup data center is worth the investment. Just how dangerous of an approach is this and what can be done to mitigate these dangers?

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  • Is there a way to save "work sessions" in linux

    - by mike
    I regularly work on different projects, using different software. For project 1 I need to open for ex : Filezilla, Gedit and Nautilus (set to a specific folder) For project 2 I need to open foz ex : Gimp, Nautilus (set to another specific folder) etc. What I would like is a kind of sessions manager, where I could create entries "project 1", "project 2", etc. And with one click or command, open all the softwares I need. Perhaps there's an easy way to write a batch file for this? Any idea is welcome :)

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