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  • controlling threads flow

    - by owca
    I had a task to write simple game simulating two players picking up 1-3 matches one after another until the pile is gone. I managed to do it for computer choosing random value of matches but now I'd like to go further and allow humans to play the game. Here's what I already have : http://paste.pocoo.org/show/201761/ Class Player is a computer player, and PlayerMan should be human being. Problem is, that thread of PlayerMan should wait until proper value of matches is given but I cannot make it work this way. Logic is as follows: thread runs until matches equals to zero. If player number is correct at the moment function pickMatches() is called. After decreasing number of matches on table, thread should wait and another thread should be notified. I know I must use wait() and notify() but I can't place them right. Class Shared keeps the value of current player, and also amount of matches. public void suspendThread() { suspended = true; } public void resumeThread() { suspended = false; } @Override public void run(){ int matches=1; int which = 0; int tmp=0; Shared data = this.selectData(); String name = this.returnName(); int number = this.getNumber(); while(data.getMatches() != 0){ while(!suspended){ try{ which = data.getCurrent(); if(number == which){ matches = pickMatches(); tmp = data.getMatches() - matches; data.setMatches(tmp, number); if(data.getMatches() == 0){ System.out.println(" "+ name+" takes "+matches+" matches."); System.out.println("Winner is player: "+name); stop(); } System.out.println(" "+ name+" takes "+matches+" matches."); if(number != 0){ data.setCurrent(0); } else{ data.setCurrent(1); } } this.suspendThread(); notifyAll(); wait(); }catch(InterruptedException exc) {} } } } @Override synchronized public int pickMatches(){ Scanner scanner = new Scanner(System.in); int n = 0; Shared data = this.selectData(); System.out.println("Choose amount of matches (from 1 to 3): "); if(data.getMatches() == 1){ System.out.println("There's only 1 match left !"); while(n != 1){ n = scanner.nextInt(); } } else{ do{ n = scanner.nextInt(); } while(n <= 1 && n >= 3); } return n; } }

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  • Accessing array values in jQuery ajax callback function

    - by gibberish
    Values are received through a jQuery AJAX callback, but I've been unsuccessful getting at the values. Here's the ajax call: $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "ajax/ax_all_ajax_fns.php", data: 'request=edit_timecard_entry&staff_id='+staff_id+'&tid='+tid, success: function(data){ alert(data); } } Here's the code sent out by ax_all_ajax_fns.php: $staff_id = $_POST['staff_id']; $t_id = $_POST['tid']; $rCard = mysql_query("SELECT `staff_id`, `date`, `project_id`, `project_num`, `task_desc`, `hours` FROM `timecards` WHERE `t_id`='$t_id'"); $aCard = mysql_fetch_assoc($rCard); print_r($aCard); // echo $aCard; Of course, I don't want the information print_r'd, I want it echoed. The print_r was used to demonstrate that the correct data was sent out by the PHP script, and it is echoed successfully in the alert() box in the success function. So the correct data is being returned, and (if correctly formatted) it is viewable. The data returned in this way looks like this in the alert() popup: Array ( [staff_id] => 51 [date] => 2012-10-18 [project_id] => 0 [project_num => 49 [task_desk] => This is a task [hours] => 3.30 ) But when I use echo to output the $aCard array and then try to break it down inside the success function of the ajax call, I can't figure out how to get at the values. My attempts have consistently returned values of "undefined". In the success function, in place of alert(data);, I've tried this: var tce_staff_id = data['staff_id']; alert(tce_staff_id); and this: var tce_staff_id = data.staff_id; alert(tce_staff_id); What am I missing? UPDATE: Thanks to Martin S. for information re json_encode() PHP instruction. I've modified the ajax script as follows: echo json_encode($aCard); I now get THIS result from alert(data); in the success function: {"staff_id":"51","date":"2012-10-18","project_id":"0","project_num":"49","task_desc":"This is a task","hours":"3.30"} However, the following returns "undefined": alert(data.staff_id); alert(data[0].staff_id); var test = data.staff_id; alert(test); Can anyone see what I'm missing? All above code comes immediately after alert(data) inside the success callback of the ajax function. alert(data) DOES work and displays the desired data, as above.

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  • CSS Drop-Shadows Without Images

    - by Spencer B.
    I'm trying to use Nicolas Gallagher's brilliant CSS work on applying CSS drop-shadows to elements without images and without extra markup using the :before and :after pseudo-elements. His code is provided below... .drop-shadow { position:relative; width:90%; } .drop-shadow:before, .drop-shadow:after { content:""; position:absolute; z-index:-1; bottom:15px; left:10px; width:50%; height:20%; max-width:300px; -webkit-box-shadow:0 15px 10px rgba(0, 0, 0, 0.7); -moz-box-shadow:0 15px 10px rgba(0, 0, 0, 0.7); box-shadow:0 15px 10px rgba(0, 0, 0, 0.7); -webkit-transform:rotate(-3deg); -moz-transform:rotate(-3deg); -o-transform:rotate(-3deg); transform:rotate(-3deg); } .drop-shadow:after{ right:10px; left:auto; -webkit-transform:rotate(3deg); -moz-transform:rotate(3deg); -o-transform:rotate(3deg); transform:rotate(3deg); } I'm trying to target all images wrapped with an a tag, which in Wordpress are really full-size images that have been resized to a medium height and width in the backend. When the user clicks on the smaller image in the post, it opens up a new tab with the fullsize view of the image (I'm sure you're already familiar with this if you use Wordpress). For some reason, I can't get his code to work, and I'm wondering if I'm targeting this wrong within my CSS. Can you help? In place of the .drop-shadow class that he uses, I'm target all images wrapped with an a tag within the #main-i div. So, like this... #main-i a img Does anyone know how to target it better than I have so that I can get the drop shadows to be applied for all images within the specified div? Thanks for your help! P.S. An example of the image I am wanting to target with this CSS is the picture of the Haitian boy here: http://lifebridgecypress.org/our-heart/seventy-two/help-haiti

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  • Learning to create beautiful /next-generation GUI

    - by ShaChris23
    I really want to create a stunning-looking GUI desktop application that looks like, for example: Mac OS X interface Picasa desktop client on windows IPhone apps Office 2007 I've mostly been programming GUI using Qt/Swing/WinForm and I'm tired of creating so plain looking GUI, lol. So I was thinking about diving into stuff like: jQuery WPF/C# iPhone SDK Silverlight Adobe Air/Flex Just to get some ideas on how to create really cool looking UI. Does that sound like a good list? Any developers here that could share what platform they use to create very cool looking desktop app? On a sidenote, I really wonder what developers at Apple / Microsoft use to develop their own cool-looking software. EDIT A lot of responses talk about the importance of usability over "cool-looking".. I totally agree that usability and simplicity are the most important aspects of user interface design. I've been doing GUI development for a while now ( 3 years), so that I understand. But using cool-looking UI also improves user experience + it could make big difference on whether or not your software sells. I mean, otherwise why would Microsoft/Apple try to make their OS UI look "cooler" everytime there's a new version? Why would websites like pragprog.com, or versionsapp.com. make their websites look like that? Basically you kill 2 birds with one stone: stunnning-looking UI + super usability (because it looks simple and intuitive). That is what I'm striving for. And as far as I know, I cannot achieve that using Qt/Winform. Most of the books I have read just show you how to make average-looking (read: 1990's) UI. I want to learn how to create cool-looking UI. And the only place I see cool-looking UIs these days are the technology I list above. I'm not enamored with any technology; but I just want to know how things are done in other technology to see if I could apply them to the technology I'm using, or see if I could use those technology in my line of work. An example: if I were to pick between this UI and this UI, I probably would pick the latter, if just based on looks alone. Functionally, they are just the same UI; they both allow you to keep track of your time. They both contain buttons and textboxes, etc. But the fact that they look different, also differentiate them in terms of attractiveness. So in all, I think the "ice on the cake" is very important. I would say it's the thing you strive for after you are certain you have a totally intuitive, usable UI.

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  • Ruby on Rails: Routing error

    - by JamesMcL13
    I am having trouble deleting and showing user records. Here is my routes.rb FinalApp::Application.routes.draw do resources :admin devise_for :users, :controllers => { :registrations => 'admin' } resources :projects match "search" => "projects#search", :as => :search root :to => 'projects#index' end Here is my admin controller: class AdminController < ApplicationController def index @users = User.all respond_to do |format| format.html # index.html.erb format.json { render :json => @users } end end def create @user = User.new(params[:user]) respond_to do |format| if @user.save format.html { redirect_to @user, notice: 'User was successfully created.' } format.json { render json: @user, status: :created, location: @user } else format.html { render action: "new" } format.json { render json: @user.errors, status: :unprocessable_entity } end end end # GET /users/1 # GET /users/1.json def show @user = User.find(params[:id]) @user_user_id = params[:id] respond_to do |format| format.html # show.html.erb format.json { render json: @user } end end # GET /users/new # GET /users/new.json def new @user = User.new respond_to do |format| format.html # new.html.erb format.json { render json: @user } end end # GET /users/1/edit def edit @user = User.find(params[:id]) end # POST /users # POST /users.json # PUT /users/1 # PUT /users/1.json def update @user = User.find(params[:id]) respond_to do |format| if @user.update_attributes(params[:user]) format.html { redirect_to @user, notice: 'User was successfully updated.' } format.json { head :no_content } else format.html { render action: "edit" } format.json { render json: @user.errors, status: :unprocessable_entity } end end end # DELETE /users/1 # DELETE /users/1.json def destroy @user = User.find(params[:id]) @user.destroy respond_to do |format| format.html { redirect_to users_url } format.json { head :no_content } end end end Here is my view: <%= stylesheet_link_tag "admin" %> <body> <div id ="title1">Admin</div> <div class ="menu"></div> <div id ="section3"> <table id = "mytable"> <table border = "1"> <tr> <th>Username </th> <th>Email</th> <th>First Name</th> <th>Last Name</th> <th>Admin?</th> <th></th> <th></th> <th></th> </tr> <%= link_to "New User", admin_new_path %><br /> <% @users.each do |t| %> <tr> <td><%= t.username %></td> <td><%= t.email %></td> <td><%= t.firstname %></td> <td><%= t.lastname %></td> <td><%= t.admin %></td> <td><%= link_to 'Show', t %></td> <td> <%= button_to "Delete", t, method: :delete, data: { confirm: 'Are you sure?' } %></td> </tr> <% end %> </table></br> </body> </html> I can display the User database, but when I go to delete a record. I get this error No route matches [DELETE] "/users/11". I am new to rails so please remember this when trying to help. Thanks in advance. Edit: here are my routes = admin_index GET /admin(.:format) admin#index POST /admin(.:format) admin#create new_admin GET /admin/new(.:format) admin#new edit_admin GET /admin/:id/edit(.:format) admin#edit admin GET /admin/:id(.:format) admin#show PUT /admin/:id(.:format) admin#update DELETE /admin/:id(.:format) admin#destroy new_user_session GET /users/sign_in(.:format) devise/sessions#new user_session POST /users/sign_in(.:format) devise/sessions#create destroy_user_session DELETE /users/sign_out(.:format) devise/sessions#destroy user_password POST /users/password(.:format) devise/passwords#create new_user_password GET /users/password/new(.:format) devise/passwords#new edit_user_password GET /users/password/edit(.:format) devise/passwords#edit PUT /users/password(.:format) devise/passwords#update cancel_user_registration GET /users/cancel(.:format) admin#cancel user_registration POST /users(.:format) admin#create new_user_registration GET /users/sign_up(.:format) admin#new edit_user_registration GET /users/edit(.:format) admin#edit PUT /users(.:format) admin#update DELETE /users(.:format) admin#destroy projects GET /projects(.:format) projects#index POST /projects(.:format) projects#create new_project GET /projects/new(.:format) projects#new edit_project GET /projects/:id/edit(.:format) projects#edit project GET /projects/:id(.:format) projects#show PUT /projects/:id(.:format) projects#update DELETE /projects/:id(.:format) projects#destroy search /search(.:format) projects#search root / projects#index

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  • Google Bookmarks Accelerator for IE8

    - by MACHiNESMiTH
    To Editors: Sorry, I didnt realise the question thing till you pointed it out. Also I didn't know about the appengine tag, I'm assuming it was selected by mistake from that JS autosuggestion box (it usually happens with me, I run a P3) my apologies for that too. I've edited it now, if it doesnt work let me know. Hi all, I'm making (or at least trying to make) a Google bookmarks accelerator for IE8, but I keep running into "Internet Explorer could not install this accelerator. There was a problem with the Accelerator's information." Does anyone know why this is happening? Here is the code I've made <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" ?> <os:openServiceDescription xmlns="http://www.microsoft.com/schemas/openservicedescription/1.0"> <os:homepageUrl>http://www.google.com/bookmarks</os:homepageUrl> <os:display> <os:description>Add this page to GoogleBookmarks</os:description> <os:name>Add to GoogleBookmarks</os:name> <os:icon>http://www.google.com/favicon.ico</os:icon> </os:display> <os:activity category="Bookmarks"> <os:activityAction context="document"> <os:execute method="get" action="http://www.google.com/bookmarks/mark?op=add&output=popup"> <os:parameter name="bkmk" value="{documentUrl}" /> <os:parameter name="title" value="{documentTitle}" /> <os:parameter name="annotation" value="{selection}" /> </os:execute> </os:activityAction> </os:activity> </os:openServiceDescription> These are the references I used: MSDN Developers Guide MSDN Format Specification Unofficial Google API (used as a look up so far) and yes i know that I cannot send document variables between schemes (HTTP - HTTPS, for example) or between servers in different security zones (Intranet - Internet etc) Also, if this is the wrong place, what are the recommended sites and/or forums for xml related posts? (not really questions - but more like full blown detailed rant like posts) Thanks

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  • XPathNavigator in Silverlight

    - by vladimir
    I have a code library that makes heavy use of XPathNavigator to parse some specific xml document. The xml document is cross-referenced, meaning that an element can reference another which has not yet been encountered during parsing: <ElementA ...> <DependentElementX id="1234"> </ElementA> <ElementX id="1234" .../> The document doesn't really look like this, but the point is that 1) there is an xml schema that enforces the overall document structure, 2) elements inside the document can reference each other using some IDs, and 3) there is quite a few such cross references between different elements in the document. The document is parsed in two phases. In the first pass I walk through the document XPathDocument doc = ...; XPathNavigator nav = doc.CreateNavigator(); nav.MoveToRoot(); nav.MoveToFirstChild()... and occasionally 'bookmark' the current position (element) in the document using XPathNavigator.Clone() method. This gives me a lightweight instance of an XPathNavigator which I can store somewhere and use later to jump back to a particular place (element) in my document. Once I have enough information collected in the first pass (for example, I have made sure there is indeed an ElementX with an id='1234'), I jump back to saved bookmarks (using those saved XPathNavigators) and complete the parsing. Well, now I'm about to use this library in Silverlight 3.0 and to my horror the XPathNavigator is not in the System.Xml assembly. Questions: 1) Am I missing something obvious (i.e. XPathNavigator does exist in some shape or form, for example in a toolkit or a freeware library)? 2) If I do have to make modifications in the code, what would be the best way to go? Ideally, I would like to make minimal changes, not to rewrite 80% of the code just to be able to use something like XLinq. To resume, in case I have to give up XPathNavigator, all I need is a way to bookmark places in my document and to get back to them so that I can continue to iterate from where I left off. Thanks in advance for any help/ideas.

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  • Can I append to a preprocessor macro?

    - by JCSalomon
    Is there any way in standard C—or with GNU extensions—to append stuff to a macro definition? E.g., given a macro defined as #define quux_list X(foo) X(bar) can I append X(bas) so that it now expands as if I’d defined it #define quux_list X(foo) X(bar) X(bas)? I’m playing with discriminated/tagged unions along these lines: struct quux_foo { int x; }; struct quux_bar { char *s; }; struct quux_bas { void *p; }; enum quux_type {quux_foo, quux_bar, quux_bas}; struct quux { enum quux_type type; union { struct quux_foo foo; struct quux_bar bar; struct quux_bas bas; } t; }; I figure this is a good place for the X-macro. If I define a macro #define quux_table X(foo) X(bar) X(bas) the enumeration & structure can be defined thus, and never get out of sync: #define X(t) quux_ ## t, enum quux_type {quux_table}; #undef X #define X(t) struct quux_ ## t t; struct quux { enum quux_type type; union {quux_table} t; }; #undef X Of course, the quux_* structures can get out of sync, so I’d like to do something like this, only legally: struct quux_foo { int x; }; #define quux_table quux_table X(foo) struct quux_bar { char *s; }; #define quux_table quux_table X(bar) struct quux_bas { void *p; }; #define quux_table quux_table X(bas) (Well, what I really want to be able to do is something like member_struct(quux, foo) { int x; }; but I’m well aware that macros cannot be (re)defined from within macros.) Anyhow, that’s my motivating example. Is there a way to accomplish this? Boost.Preprocessor examples are fine, if you can show me how to make the X-macro technique work with that library.

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  • problem about gridview and baseadapter? Pls help

    - by flybirdtt
    I need a gridview to place 9 items. And i write a custom baseadapter. But find a problem about the position in the getView method.it looks like this gridview miss the 7th item.The code like this:` public View getView(int position, View convertView, ViewGroup parent) { LayoutDTO lDto = menuHashtable.get(Integer.toString(position)); ViewHolder vHolder = new ViewHolder(); if (lDto != null) { String titleString = lDto.getTitle(); Log.v("title...........", titleString + " " + Integer.toString(position) ); Bitmap iconBitmap = lDto.getIcon(); convertView = mInflater.inflate(R.layout.custombutton, null); vHolder.icon = (ImageView) convertView .findViewById(R.id.imageicon); vHolder.icon.setImageBitmap(iconBitmap); vHolder.text = (TextView) convertView .findViewById(R.id.icontitle); int index = titleString.indexOf("\u0026"); if (index != -1) { String title1 = titleString.substring(0, index + 1).trim(); String title2 = titleString.substring(index + 1, titleString.length()).trim(); vHolder.text.setLines(2); String newtitle = title1 + "\n" + title2; vHolder.text.setText(newtitle); } else { vHolder.text.setLines(2); String newtitle = titleString + "\n" + " "; vHolder.text.setText(newtitle); } convertView.setTag(vHolder); } return convertView; }` The log show this: 05-20 21:37:16.066: VERBOSE/title...........(158): Dining 0 05-20 21:37:16.105: VERBOSE/title...........(158): Dining 0 05-20 21:37:16.125: VERBOSE/title...........(158): Dining 0 05-20 21:37:16.135: VERBOSE/title...........(158): Dining 0 05-20 21:37:16.166: VERBOSE/title...........(158): Dining 0 05-20 21:37:16.185: VERBOSE/title...........(158): Entertainment 1 05-20 21:37:16.195: VERBOSE/title...........(158): Shopping 2 05-20 21:37:16.195: VERBOSE/title...........(158): Fashion 3 05-20 21:37:16.205: VERBOSE/title...........(158): Health & Beauty 4 05-20 21:37:16.215: VERBOSE/title...........(158): Supermarkets 5 05-20 21:37:16.226: VERBOSE/title...........(158): Auto Services 6 05-20 21:37:16.236: VERBOSE/title...........(158): Travel & Accommodation 8 05-20 21:37:16.316: VERBOSE/title...........(158): Dining 0 05-20 21:37:16.326: VERBOSE/title...........(158): Dining 0 05-20 21:37:16.336: VERBOSE/title...........(158): Dining 0 05-20 21:37:16.345: VERBOSE/title...........(158): Dining 0

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  • Modelling boost::Lockable with semaphore rather than mutex (previously titled: Unlocking a mutex fr

    - by dan
    I'm using the C++ boost::thread library, which in my case means I'm using pthreads. Officially, a mutex must be unlocked from the same thread which locks it, and I want the effect of being able to lock in one thread and then unlock in another. There are many ways to accomplish this. One possibility would be to write a new mutex class which allows this behavior. For example: class inter_thread_mutex{ bool locked; boost::mutex mx; boost::condition_variable cv; public: void lock(){ boost::unique_lock<boost::mutex> lck(mx); while(locked) cv.wait(lck); locked=true; } void unlock(){ { boost::lock_guard<boost::mutex> lck(mx); if(!locked) error(); locked=false; } cv.notify_one(); } // bool try_lock(); void error(); etc. } I should point out that the above code doesn't guarantee FIFO access, since if one thread calls lock() while another calls unlock(), this first thread may acquire the lock ahead of other threads which are waiting. (Come to think of it, the boost::thread documentation doesn't appear to make any explicit scheduling guarantees for either mutexes or condition variables). But let's just ignore that (and any other bugs) for now. My question is, if I decide to go this route, would I be able to use such a mutex as a model for the boost Lockable concept. For example, would anything go wrong if I use a boost::unique_lock< inter_thread_mutex for RAII-style access, and then pass this lock to boost::condition_variable_any.wait(), etc. On one hand I don't see why not. On the other hand, "I don't see why not" is usually a very bad way of determining whether something will work. The reason I ask is that if it turns out that I have to write wrapper classes for RAII locks and condition variables and whatever else, then I'd rather just find some other way to achieve the same effect. EDIT: The kind of behavior I want is basically as follows. I have an object, and it needs to be locked whenever it is modified. I want to lock the object from one thread, and do some work on it. Then I want to keep the object locked while I tell another worker thread to complete the work. So the first thread can go on and do something else while the worker thread finishes up. When the worker thread gets done, it unlocks the mutex. And I want the transition to be seemless so nobody else can get the mutex lock in between when thread 1 starts the work and thread 2 completes it. Something like inter_thread_mutex seems like it would work, and it would also allow the program to interact with it as if it were an ordinary mutex. So it seems like a clean solution. If there's a better solution, I'd be happy to hear that also. EDIT AGAIN: The reason I need locks to begin with is that there are multiple master threads, and the locks are there to prevent them from accessing shared objects concurrently in invalid ways. So the code already uses loop-level lock-free sequencing of operations at the master thread level. Also, in the original implementation, there were no worker threads, and the mutexes were ordinary kosher mutexes. The inter_thread_thingy came up as an optimization, primarily to improve response time. In many cases, it was sufficient to guarantee that the "first part" of operation A, occurs before the "first part" of operation B. As a dumb example, say I punch object 1 and give it a black eye. Then I tell object 1 to change it's internal structure to reflect all the tissue damage. I don't want to wait around for the tissue damage before I move on to punch object 2. However, I do want the tissue damage to occur as part of the same operation; for example, in the interim, I don't want any other thread to reconfigure the object in such a way that would make tissue damage an invalid operation. (yes, this example is imperfect in many ways, and no I'm not working on a game) So we made the change to a model where ownership of an object can be passed to a worker thread to complete an operation, and it actually works quite nicely; each master thread is able to get a lot more operations done because it doesn't need to wait for them all to complete. And, since the event sequencing at the master thread level is still loop-based, it is easy to write high-level master-thread operations, as they can be based on the assumption that an operation is complete when the corresponding function call returns. Finally, I thought it would be nice to use inter_thread mutex/semaphore thingies using RAII with boost locks to encapsulate the necessary synchronization that is required to make the whole thing work.

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  • WCF Duplex Interaction with Web Server

    - by Mark Struzinski
    Here is my scenario, and it is causing us a considerable amount of grief at the moment: We have a vendor web service which provides base level telephony functionality. This service has a SOAP api, which we are leveraging to build up a custom UI that is integrated into our in house web apps. The api functions on 2 levels. You make standard client calls into the service to initiate actions, such as Login, Place Call, Hang Up, etc. On a different thread, the service sends events back to the client to alert the user of things that are occurring on the system (agent successfully logged in, call was disconnected, etc). I implemented a WCF service to sit between the web server and the vendor service. This WCF service operates in duplex mode, establishing a 2 way connection with the web server. The web server makes outbound calls to the WCF service, which routes them to the vendor's web service. Events are received back to the WCF service, which passes them onto the web server via a callback channel on the WCF client. As events are received on the web server, they are placed into a hash table with the user's name as the key, and a .NET queue as the value to hold the event. Each event is enqueued to the agent who owns it. On a 2 second interval, the web page polls the web server via an ajax request to get new events for the logged in user. It hits the hash table for the user key, dequeues any events that are present, and serializes them back up to the web page. From there, they are processed in order and appropriate messages are displayed to the user. This implementation performs well in a single user scenario. The second I put more than 1 user on the system, I start getting frequent timeouts with the following CommunicationException: A connection attempt failed because the connected party did not properly respond after a period of time, or established connection failed because connected host has failed to respond We are running Windows Server 2008 R2 both servers. Both the web app and WCF service are running on .NET 3.5. The WCF service is running under the net.tcp protocol in duplex mode. The web app is ASP.NET MVC 2. Has anyone dealt with anything like this scenario? Is there a more efficient way (or a widely accepted pattern) to implement this?

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  • Using jQuery to Dynamically Insert Into List Alphabetically

    - by Dex
    I have two ordered lists next to each other. When I take a node out of one list I want to insert it alphabetically into the other list. The catch is that I want to take just the one element out and place it back in the other list without refreshing the entire list. The strange thing is that when I insert into the list on the right, it works fine, but when I insert back into the list on the left, the order never comes out right. I have also tried reading everything into an array and sorting it there just in case the children() method isn't returning things in the order they are displayed, but I still get the same results. Here is my jQuery: function moveNode(node, to_list, order_by){ rightful_index = 1; $(to_list) .children() .each(function(){ var ordering_field = (order_by == "A") ? "ingredient_display" : "local_counter"; var compA = $(node).attr(ordering_field).toUpperCase(); var compB = $(this).attr(ordering_field).toUpperCase(); var C = ((compA > compB) ? 1 : 0); if( C == 1 ){ rightful_index++; } }); if(rightful_index > $(to_list).children().length){ $(node).fadeOut("fast", function(){ $(to_list).append($(node)); $(node).fadeIn("fast"); }); }else{ $(node).fadeOut("fast", function(){ $(to_list + " li:nth-child(" + rightful_index + ")").before($(node)); $(node).fadeIn("fast"); }); } } Here is what my html looks like: <ol> <li ingredient_display="Enriched Pasta" ingredient_id="101635" local_counter="1"> <span class="rank">1</span> <span class="rounded-corners"> <span class="plus_sign">&nbsp;&nbsp;+&nbsp;&nbsp;</span> <div class="ingredient">Enriched Pasta</div> <span class="minus_sign">&nbsp;&nbsp;-&nbsp;&nbsp;</span> </span> </li> </ol>

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  • Android - MapView contained within a Listview

    - by Ryan
    Hello, Currently I am trying to place a MapView within a ListView. Has anyone had any success with this? Is it even possible? Here is my code: ListView myList = (ListView) findViewById(android.R.id.list); List<Map<String, Object>> groupData = new ArrayList<Map<String, Object>>(); Map<String, Object> curGroupMap = new HashMap<String, Object>(); groupData.add(curGroupMap); curGroupMap.put("ICON", R.drawable.back_icon); curGroupMap.put("NAME","Go Back"); curGroupMap.put("VALUE","By clicking here"); Iterator it = data.entrySet().iterator(); while (it.hasNext()) { //Get the key name and value for it Map.Entry pair = (Map.Entry)it.next(); String keyName = (String) pair.getKey(); String value = pair.getValue().toString(); if (value != null) { //Add the parents -- aka main categories curGroupMap = new HashMap<String, Object>(); groupData.add(curGroupMap); //Push the correct Icon if (keyName.equalsIgnoreCase("Phone")) curGroupMap.put("ICON", R.drawable.phone_icon); else if (keyName.equalsIgnoreCase("Housing")) curGroupMap.put("ICON", R.drawable.house_icon); else if (keyName.equalsIgnoreCase("Website")) curGroupMap.put("ICON", R.drawable.web_icon); else if (keyName.equalsIgnoreCase("Area Snapshot")) curGroupMap.put("ICON", R.drawable.camera_icon); else if (keyName.equalsIgnoreCase("Overview")) curGroupMap.put("ICON", R.drawable.overview_icon); else if (keyName.equalsIgnoreCase("Location")) curGroupMap.put("ICON", R.drawable.map_icon); else curGroupMap.put("ICON", R.drawable.icon); //Pop on the Name and Value curGroupMap.put("NAME", keyName); curGroupMap.put("VALUE", value); } } curGroupMap = new HashMap<String, Object>(); groupData.add(curGroupMap); curGroupMap.put("ICON", R.drawable.back_icon); curGroupMap.put("NAME","Go Back"); curGroupMap.put("VALUE","By clicking here"); //Set up adapter mAdapter = new SimpleAdapter( mContext, groupData, R.layout.exp_list_parent, new String[] { "ICON", "NAME", "VALUE" }, new int[] { R.id.photoAlbumImg, R.id.rowText1, R.id.rowText2 } ); myList.setAdapter(mAdapter); //Bind the adapter to the list Thanks in advance for your help!!

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  • How do I refactor these two C# functions to abstrtact their logic from the specific class properties

    - by ObligatoryMoniker
    I have two functions whose underlying logic is the same but in one case it sets one property value on a class and in another case it sets a different one. How can I rewrite the following two functions to abstract away as much of the algorithm as possible so that I can make changes in logic in a single place? SetBillingAddress private void SetBillingAddress(OrderAddress newBillingAddress) { BasketHelper basketHelper = new BasketHelper(SiteConstants.BasketName); OrderAddress oldBillingAddress = basketHelper.Basket.Addresses[basketHelper.BillingAddressID]; bool NewBillingAddressIsNotOldBillingAddress = ((oldBillingAddress == null) || (newBillingAddress.OrderAddressId != oldBillingAddress.OrderAddressId)); bool BillingAddressHasBeenPreviouslySet = (oldBillingAddress != null); bool BillingAddressIsNotSameAsShippingAddress = (basketHelper.ShippingAddressID != basketHelper.BillingAddressID); bool NewBillingAddressIsNotShippingAddress = (newBillingAddress.OrderAddressId != basketHelper.ShippingAddressID); if (NewBillingAddressIsNotOldBillingAddress && BillingAddressHasBeenPreviouslySet && BillingAddressIsNotSameAsShippingAddress) { basketHelper.Basket.Addresses.Remove(oldBillingAddress); } if (NewBillingAddressIsNotOldBillingAddress && NewBillingAddressIsNotShippingAddress) { basketHelper.Basket.Addresses.Add(newBillingAddress); } basketHelper.BillingAddressID = newBillingAddress.OrderAddressId; basketHelper.Basket.Save(); } And here is the second one: SetShippingAddress private void SetBillingAddress(OrderAddress newShippingAddress) { BasketHelper basketHelper = new BasketHelper(SiteConstants.BasketName); OrderAddress oldShippingAddress = basketHelper.Basket.Addresses[basketHelper.ShippingAddressID]; bool NewShippingAddressIsNotOldShippingAddress = ((oldShippingAddress == null) || (newShippingAddress.OrderAddressId != oldShippingAddress.OrderAddressId)); bool ShippingAddressHasBeenPreviouslySet = (oldShippingAddress != null); bool ShippingAddressIsNotSameAsBillingAddress = (basketHelper.ShippingAddressID != basketHelper.BillingAddressID); bool NewShippingAddressIsNotBillingAddress = (newShippingAddress.OrderAddressId != basketHelper.BillingAddressID); if (NewShippingAddressIsNotOldShippingAddress && ShippingAddressHasBeenPreviouslySet && ShippingAddressIsNotSameAsBillingAddress) { basketHelper.Basket.Addresses.Remove(oldShippingAddress); } if (NewShippingAddressIsNotOldShippingAddress && NewShippingAddressIsNotBillingAddress) { basketHelper.Basket.Addresses.Add(newShippingAddress); } basketHelper.ShippingAddressID = newShippingAddress.OrderAddressId; basketHelper.Basket.Save(); } My initial thought was that if I could pass a class's property by refernce then I could rewrite the previous functions into something like private void SetPurchaseOrderAddress(OrderAddress newAddress, ref String CurrentChangingAddressIDProperty) and then call this function and pass in either basketHelper.BillingAddressID or basketHelper.ShippingAddressID as CurrentChangingAddressIDProperty but since I can't pass C# properties by reference I am not sure what to do with this code to be able to reuse the logic in both places. Thanks for any insight you can give me.

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  • Query an XmlDocument without getting a 'Namespace prefix is not defined' problem

    - by Dan Revell
    I've got an Xml document that both defines and references some namespaces. I load it into an XmlDocument object and to the best of my knowledge I create a XmlNamespaceManager object with which to query Xpath against. Problem is I'm getting XPath exceptions that the namespace "my" is not defined. How do I get the namespace manager to see that the namespaces I am referencing are already defined. Or rather how do I get the namespace definitions from the document to the namespace manager. Furthermore tt strikes me as strange that you have to provide a namespace manager to the document which you create from the documents nametable in the first place. Even if you need to hardcode manual namespaces why can't you add them directly to the document. Why do you always have to pass this namespace manager with every single query? What can't XmlDocument just know? The Code: XmlDocument xmlDoc = new XmlDocument(); xmlDoc.Load(programFiles + @"Common Files\Microsoft Shared\web server extensions\12\TEMPLATE\FEATURES\HfscBookingWorkflow\template.xml"); XmlNamespaceManager ns = new XmlNamespaceManager(xmlDoc.NameTable); XmlNode referenceNode = xmlDoc.SelectSingleNode("/my:myFields/my:ReferenceNumber", ns); referenceNode.InnerXml = this.bookingData.ReferenceNumber; XmlNode titleNode = xmlDoc.SelectSingleNode("/my:myFields/my:Title", ns); titleNode.InnerXml = this.bookingData.FamilyName; ... The Xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" ?> <?mso-infoPathSolution name="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:office:infopath:Inspection:-myXSD-2010-01-15T18-21-55" solutionVersion="1.0.0.104" productVersion="12.0.0" PIVersion="1.0.0.0" ?> <?mso-application progid="InfoPath.Document" versionProgid="InfoPath.Document.2"?> - <my:myFields xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xhtml="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xmlns:my="http://schemas.microsoft.com/office/infopath/2003/myXSD/2010-01-15T18:21:55" xmlns:xd="http://schemas.microsoft.com/office/infopath/2003"> <my:DateRequested xsi:nil="true" /> <my:DateVisited xsi:nil="true" /> <my:ReferenceNumber /> <my:FireCall>false</my:FireCall> ...

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  • Referencing both an old version and new version of the same DLL (VB.Net)

    - by ckittel
    Consider the following situation: WidgetCompany produced a .NET DLL in 2006 called Widget.dll, version 1.0. I consumed this Widget.dll file throughout my VB.Net application. Over time, WidgetCompany has been updating Widget.dll, I never bothered to keep up, continuing to ship version 1.0 of Widget.dll with my software. It's now 2010, my project is now a VB.Net 3.5 application and WidgetCompany has come out with Widget.dll version 3.0. It looks and functions almost identical to Widget.dll version 1.0, using all the same namespaces and type names from before. However, Widget.dll version 3.0 has many run-time breaking changes since 1.0 and I cannot simply cut over to the new version; however, I don't want to continue developing against the 1.0 version and therefore keep digging myself deeper in the hole. What I want to do is do all new development in my project with Widget.dll version 3.0, whilst keeping Widget.dll version 1.0 around until I find time to convert all of my 1.0 consumption to the newer 3.0 code. Now, for starters, I obviously cannot simply reference both Widget.dll (Ver 1.0) and Widget.dll (Ver 3.0) in Visual Studio. Doing so gives me the following message: "A reference to 'Widget.dll' could not be added. A reference to the component 'Widget' already exists in the project." To work around that, I can simply rename version 3.0 Widget.dll to Widget.3.dll. But this is where I'm stuck. Any attempts to reference types found in "the dll" leads to ambiguity and the compiler obviously doesn't have any clue as to what I really want in this or that case. Is there something I can do that gives a DLL a new "root" Namespace or something? For example, if I could say "Widget.dll has a new root namespace of Legacy" then I could update existing code to reference the types found in Legacy.<RootNamespace> namespace while all new code could simply reference types from the <RootNamespace> namespace. Pipe dream or reality? Are there other solutions to situations this (besides "don't get in this situation in the first place")?

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  • vb.net one dimensional string array manipulation difficulty

    - by Luay
    Hi, I am having some problems with manipulating a one dimensional string array in vb.net and would like your assistance please. My objective is to get 4 variables (if possible) from a file path. these variables are: myCountry, myCity, myStreet, Filename. All declared as string. The file location is also declared as string. so I have: Dim filePath As String to illustrate my problem and what I am trying to do I have the following examples: 1- C:\my\location\is\UK\Birmingham\Summer Road\this house.txt. In this example myCountry would be= UK. myCity= Birmingham. myStreet=Summer Road. Filename=this house.txt 2- C:\my Location\is\France\Lyon\that house.txt. here myCountry=France. myCity=Lyon. There is no street. Filename=that house.txt 3- C:\my Location is\Germany\the other house.txt Here myCountry=Germany. No city. No street. Filename=the other house.txt What I am trying to say is I have no idea before hand about the lenght of the string or the position of the variables I want. I also don't know if I am going to find/get a city or street name in the path. However I do now that i will get myCountry and it will be one of 5 options: UK, France, Germany, Spain, Italy. To tackle my problem, the first thing I did was Dim pathArr() As String = filePath.Split("\") to get the FileName I did: FileName = pathArr.Last To get myCountry I did: If filePath.Contains("UK") Then myCountry = "UK" ElseIf filePath.Contains("France") Then myCountry = "France" ElseIf filePath.Contains("Germany") Then myCountry = "Germany" ElseIf filePath.Contains("Spain") Then myCountry = "Spain" ElseIf filePath.Contains("Italy") Then myCountry = "Italy" End If in trying to figure out myCity and myStreet (and whether they exist in the string in the first place) I started with: Dim ind As Integer = Array.IndexOf(pathArr, myCountry) to get the index of the myCountry string. I thought I could make my way from there but I am stuck and don't know what to do next. Any help will be appreciated. Thanks

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  • ASP.NET Dynamically filtering data

    - by Jasper
    For a project I'm working on, we're looking for a way to dynamically add filters to a page which then control the dataoutput in, for instance, a grid. We want to add the filters dynamically because we want the customer to be able to change which properties can be filtered and what filtertype (textbox, dropdown, colourpicker, etc.) should be used. The filter should work as follows: - The customer links a filter to a certain property and specifies the filtertype (for this example: dropdown). - A user control which contains all the filter loads all filters specified - The filters load all values of the specified property as options. The first time the page loads; this would be the values of all items. - Now the user selects a value from one of the filters; the page reloads - Only items which have the specified filter value are retrieved, the user may specify one or more filters at the same time. - Once a user drills down by filtering, only filtervalues of the retrieved items should be used in the other filters. I have the following problems: - When I create the filters runtime, events are lost because the controls get recreated each postback. - I could place the filters in PreInit which should solve this, but then determining which controls should be loaded becomes a problem since loading all environment vars isn't finished yet - I don't know a good way of returning all the filter values to a central point from which I can make a good query. - The query has to be dynamic. I'm using linq which I want to make dynamic so I don't have to select everything everytime. How to make a dynamic select query based on a string stored in the database? - I have to select items based on the filtervalues and then adjust the rest of the filters to the already made selection. That kind of messes up the whole regular databinding sequence. Any help in one of the above would be great! PS: One thing I thought about was passing along filter values in the postback which would have to be recognizable. That way the server could use them for selection and then create the filters and autoselect the previously selected filtervalues. I'm not quite sure how to acheive this though...

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  • jQuery nested sortables jumpy behaviour

    - by sebbie
    I want to allow user to drag and drop UI elements. I've 'container' and 'control', control may be in container, containers may include other containers (this is important requirement). I created simple prototype using jQuery. HTML: <div class="one"> <div class="control">Control 1</div> <div class="control">Control 2</div> <div class="control container"> Container drag area <div class="control">Subcontrol 1</div> <div class="control">Subcontrol 2</div> <div class="control">Subcontrol 3</div> <div class="control">Subcontrol 4</div> <div class="control">Subcontrol 5</div> <div class="control">Subcontrol 6</div> <div class="control">Subcontrol 7</div> <div class="control">Subcontrol 8</div> <div class="control">Subcontrol 9</div> </div> <div class="control">Control 3</div> Then I created sortables using jQueryUI: $('.one').sortable({ items: 'div.control', placeholder: 'placeholder', forcePlaceholderSize: true }); Now when I'm trying to drag "Subcontrol 8" and place it between "Subcontrol 2" and "Subcontrol 3" for example I'm getting jumpy effect, you can observe it here: http://jsbin.com/egipu4/2 Interesting thing is - when I remove ability to drag "container" then it becomes smooth and perfect (you can see this on jsbin example below "jumpy" example, you can't drag using "Container drag area" span). I tried different "nested" plugins and techniques, google'd for a long time and the only one that worked was on this page: (StackOverflow doesn't allow me to post more than one like, google for "Brian Swartzfager's Blog: Nested List Sort Demo" should be first, sorry!) But it does work great only in jQuery1.2 and very old jQueryUI. If I include latest jQuery (1.3/1.4) and UI (1.7/1.8) it gets jumpy as well. What am I doing wrong?

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  • Fast multi-window rendering with C#

    - by seb
    I've been searching and testing different kind of rendering libraries for C# days for many weeks now. So far I haven't found a single library that works well on multi-windowed rendering setups. The requirement is to be able to run the program on 12+ monitor setups (financial charting) without latencies on a fast computer. Each window needs to update multiple times every second. While doing this CPU needs to do lots of intensive and time critical tasks so some of the burden has to be shifted to GPUs. That's where hardware rendering steps in, in another words DirectX or OpenGL. I have tried GDI+ with windows forms and figured it's way too slow for my needs. I have tried OpenGL via OpenTK (on windows forms control) which seemed decently quick (I still have some tests to run on it) but painfully difficult to get working properly (hard to find/program good text rendering libraries). Recently I tried DirectX9, DirectX10 and Direct2D with Windows forms via SharpDX. I tried a separate device for each window and a single device/multiple swap chains approaches. All of these resulted in very poor performance on multiple windows. For example if I set target FPS to 20 and open 4 full screen windows on different monitors the whole operating system starts lagging very badly. Rendering is simply clearing the screen to black, no primitives rendered. CPU usage on this test was about 0% and GPU usage about 10%, I don't understand what is the bottleneck here? My development computer is very fast, i7 2700k, AMD HD7900, 16GB ram so the tests should definitely run on this one. In comparison I did some DirectX9 tests on C++/Win32 API one device/multiple swap chains and I could open 100 windows spread all over the 4-monitor workspace (with 3d teapot rotating on them) and still had perfectly responsible operating system (fps was dropping of course on the rendering windows quite badly to around 5 which is what I would expect running 100 simultaneous renderings). Does anyone know any good ways to do multi-windowed rendering on C# or am I forced to re-write my program in C++ to get that performance (major pain)? I guess I'm giving OpenGL another shot before I go the C++ route... I'll report any findings here. Test methods for reference: For C# DirectX one-device multiple swapchain test I used the method from this excellent answer: Display Different images per monitor directX 10 Direct3D10 version: I created the d3d10device and DXGIFactory like this: D3DDev = new SharpDX.Direct3D10.Device(SharpDX.Direct3D10.DriverType.Hardware, SharpDX.Direct3D10.DeviceCreationFlags.None); DXGIFac = new SharpDX.DXGI.Factory(); Then initialized the rendering windows like this: var scd = new SwapChainDescription(); scd.BufferCount = 1; scd.ModeDescription = new ModeDescription(control.Width, control.Height, new Rational(60, 1), Format.R8G8B8A8_UNorm); scd.IsWindowed = true; scd.OutputHandle = control.Handle; scd.SampleDescription = new SampleDescription(1, 0); scd.SwapEffect = SwapEffect.Discard; scd.Usage = Usage.RenderTargetOutput; SC = new SwapChain(Parent.DXGIFac, Parent.D3DDev, scd); var backBuffer = Texture2D.FromSwapChain<Texture2D>(SC, 0); _rt = new RenderTargetView(Parent.D3DDev, backBuffer); Drawing command executed on each rendering iteration is simply: Parent.D3DDev.ClearRenderTargetView(_rt, new Color4(0, 0, 0, 0)); SC.Present(0, SharpDX.DXGI.PresentFlags.None); DirectX9 version is very similar: Device initialization: PresentParameters par = new PresentParameters(); par.PresentationInterval = PresentInterval.Immediate; par.Windowed = true; par.SwapEffect = SharpDX.Direct3D9.SwapEffect.Discard; par.PresentationInterval = PresentInterval.Immediate; par.AutoDepthStencilFormat = SharpDX.Direct3D9.Format.D16; par.EnableAutoDepthStencil = true; par.BackBufferFormat = SharpDX.Direct3D9.Format.X8R8G8B8; // firsthandle is the handle of first rendering window D3DDev = new SharpDX.Direct3D9.Device(new Direct3D(), 0, DeviceType.Hardware, firsthandle, CreateFlags.SoftwareVertexProcessing, par); Rendering window initialization: if (parent.D3DDev.SwapChainCount == 0) { SC = parent.D3DDev.GetSwapChain(0); } else { PresentParameters pp = new PresentParameters(); pp.Windowed = true; pp.SwapEffect = SharpDX.Direct3D9.SwapEffect.Discard; pp.BackBufferFormat = SharpDX.Direct3D9.Format.X8R8G8B8; pp.EnableAutoDepthStencil = true; pp.AutoDepthStencilFormat = SharpDX.Direct3D9.Format.D16; pp.PresentationInterval = PresentInterval.Immediate; SC = new SharpDX.Direct3D9.SwapChain(parent.D3DDev, pp); } Code for drawing loop: SharpDX.Direct3D9.Surface bb = SC.GetBackBuffer(0); Parent.D3DDev.SetRenderTarget(0, bb); Parent.D3DDev.Clear(ClearFlags.Target, Color.Black, 1f, 0); SC.Present(Present.None, new SharpDX.Rectangle(), new SharpDX.Rectangle(), HWND); bb.Dispose(); C++ DirectX9/Win32 API test with multiple swapchains and one device code is here: http://pastebin.com/tjnRvATJ It's a modified version from Kevin Harris's nice example code.

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  • Strange iPhone memory leak in xml parser

    - by Chris
    Update: I edited the code, but the problem persists... Hi everyone, this is my first post here - I found this place a great ressource for solving many of my questions. Normally I try my best to fix anything on my own but this time I really have no idea what goes wrong, so I hope someone can help me out. I am building an iPhone app that parses a couple of xml files using TouchXML. I have a class XMLParser, which takes care of downloading and parsing the results. I am getting memory leaks when I parse an xml file more than once with the same instance of XMLParser. Here is one of the parsing snippets (just the relevant part): for(int counter = 0; counter < [item childCount]; counter++) { CXMLNode *child = [item childAtIndex:counter]; if([[child name] isEqualToString:@"PRODUCT"]) { NSMutableDictionary *product = [[NSMutableDictionary alloc] init]; for(int j = 0; j < [child childCount]; j++) { CXMLNode *grandchild = [child childAtIndex:j]; if([[grandchild stringValue] length] > 1) { NSString *trimmedString = [[grandchild stringValue] stringByTrimmingCharactersInSet:[NSCharacterSet whitespaceAndNewlineCharacterSet]]; [product setObject:trimmedString forKey:[grandchild name]]; } } // Add product to current category array switch (categoryId) { case 0: [self.mobil addObject: product]; break; case 1: [self.allgemein addObject: product]; break; case 2: [self.besitzeIch addObject: product]; break; case 3: [self.willIch addObject: product]; break; default: break; } [product release]; } } The first time, I parse the xml no leak shows up in instruments, the next time I do so, I got a lot of leaks (NSCFString / NSCFDictionary). Instruments points me to this part inside CXMLNode.m, when I dig into a leaked object: theStringValue = [NSString stringWithUTF8String:(const char *)theXMLString]; if ( _node->type != CXMLTextKind ) xmlFree(theXMLString); } return(theStringValue); I really spent a long time and tried multiple approaches to fix this, but to no avail so far, maybe I am missing something essential? Any help is highly appreciated, thank you!

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  • How can I make these images download on a seperate thread?

    - by Andy Barlow
    Hello!! I have the following code running on my Android device. It works great and displays my list items wonderfully. It's also clever in the fact it only downloads the data when it's needed by the ArrayAdapter. However, whilst the download of the thumbnail is occurring, the entire list stalls and you cannot scroll until it's finished downloading. Is there any way of threading this so it'll still scroll happily, maybe show a place holder for the downloading image, finish the download, and then show? Any help with this would be really apreciated. Thank-you kindly. Andy Barlow private class CatalogAdapter extends ArrayAdapter { private ArrayList<SingleQueueResult> items; //Must research what this actually does! public CatalogAdapter(Context context, int textViewResourceId, ArrayList<SingleQueueResult> items) { super(context, textViewResourceId, items); this.items = items; } /** This overrides the getview of the ArrayAdapter. It should send back our new custom rows for the list */ @Override public View getView(int position, View convertView, ViewGroup parent) { View v = convertView; if (v == null) { LayoutInflater vi = (LayoutInflater)getSystemService(Context.LAYOUT_INFLATER_SERVICE); v = vi.inflate(R.layout.mylists_rows, null); } final SingleQueueResult result = items.get(position); // Sets the text inside the rows as they are scrolled by! if (result != null) { TextView title = (TextView)v.findViewById(R.id.mylist_title); TextView format = (TextView)v.findViewById(R.id.mylist_format); title.setText(result.getTitle()); format.setText(result.getThumbnail()); // Download Images ImageView myImageView = (ImageView)v.findViewById(R.id.mylist_thumbnail); downloadImage(result.getThumbnail(), myImageView); } return v; } } // This should run in a seperate thread public void downloadImage(String imageUrl, ImageView myImageView) { try { url = new URL(imageUrl); URLConnection conn = url.openConnection(); conn.connect(); InputStream is = conn.getInputStream(); BufferedInputStream bis = new BufferedInputStream(is); Bitmap bm = BitmapFactory.decodeStream(bis); bis.close(); is.close(); myImageView.setImageBitmap(bm); } catch (IOException e) { /* Reset to Default image on any error. */ //this.myImageView.setImageDrawable(getResources().getDrawable(R.drawable.default)); } }

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  • jquery ajax error cannot find url outside of debug mode

    - by John Orlandella Jr.
    I inherited some code two weeks ago that is using the jquery.ajax method to connect to a .NET web service. Here is the piece of code give me the trouble... if (MSCTour.AppSettings.OFFLINE !== 'TRUE') { $.ajax({ url: url, data: json, type: "POST", contentType: "application/json", timeout: 10000, dataType: "json", // not "json" we'll parse success: function(res){ if (!callback) { return; } /* // *** Use json library so we can fix up MS AJAX dates */ var result = ""; if (res !== "") { try { result = $.evalJSON(res); } catch (e) { result = {}; bare = true; } } /* // *** Bare message IS result */ if (bare) { callback(result); return; } /* // *** Wrapped message contains top level object node // *** strip it off */ for (var property in result) { callback(result[property]); break; } }, error: function(xhr,status,error){ if (status === 'parsererror') {} else {return error;} }, complete: function(res, status){ if (callback) { if ((status != 'success' && status != 'error') || status === 'parsererror' || (status === 'timeout' && res !== '')) { try { result = $.secureEvalJSON(res); } catch (e) { result = {}; bare = true; } callback(res); } } return; } }); } The url variable at this point equals /testsite/service.svc/GetItems Now here is where my problem lies... When running this site out of debug mode through visual studio I am not having any problem connecting to the database through the web service and seeing all my data, for both viewing and updating. When I go through the normal web server for the same site, on the same page, no data is showing up. When I put a break on the error portion of the code above in firebug this is information I am getting in the image linked below. link text I am getting what appears to be a 404 error, but when I look on the server all of the files are in the right place... coupled with the fact that it works when in debug mode, I think I am slowly going crazy staring at these same lines of code trying to find the needle in the haystack. Any help or just a direction to look in would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Using JUnit as an acceptance test framework

    - by Chris Knight
    OK, so I work for a company who has openly adopted agile practices for development in recent years. Our unit tests and code quality are improving. One area we still are working on is to find what works best for us in the automated acceptance test arena. We want to take our well formed user stories and use these to drive the code in a test driven manner. This will also give us acceptance level tests for each user story which we can then automate. To date, we've tried Fit, Fitnesse and Selenium. Each have their advantages, but we've also had real issues with them as well. With Fit and Fitnesse, we can't help but feel they overcomplicate things and we've had many technical issues using them. The business haven't fully bought in these tools and aren't particularly keen on maintaining the scripts all the time (and aren't big fans of the table style). Selenium is really good, but slow and relies on real time data and resources. One approach we are now considering is the use of the JUnit framework to provide similiar functionality. Rather than testing just a small unit of work using JUnit, why not use it to write a test (using the JUnit framework) to cover an acceptance level swath of the application? I.e. take a new story ("As a user I would like to see basic details of my policy...") and write a test in JUnit which starts executing application code at the point of entry for the policy details link but covers all code and logic down to the stubbed data access layer and back to the point of forwarding to the next page in the application, asserting on what data the user should see on that page. This seems to me to have the following advantages: Simplicity (no additional frameworks required) Zero effort to integrate with our Continuous Integration build server (since it already handles our JUnit tests) Full skillset already present in the team (its just a JUnit test after all) And the downsides being: Less customer involvement (though they are heavily involved in writing the user stories in the first place from which the acceptance tests will be written) Perhaps more difficult to understand (or make understood) the user story and acceptance criteria in a JUnit class verses a freetext specification ala Fit or Fitnesse So, my question is really, have you ever tried this method? Ever considered it? What are your thoughts? What do you like and dislike about this approach? Finally, please only mention alternative frameworks if you can say why you like or dislike them more than this approach.

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  • Windows periodically disconnects, reconnects to the network

    - by einpoklum
    My setup: I have a PC with a Gigabyte GA-MA78S2H motherboard (Realtek Gigabit wired Ethernet on-board). I have the latest drivers (at least the latest driver for the NIC. I'm connecting via an Edimax BR-6216Mg (again, wired connection). For some reason I experience short periodic disconnects and reconnects. Specifically, Skype disconnects, tries to connect, succeeds after a short while; incoming SFTP sessions get dropped; using a browser, I sometime get stuck in the DNS lookup or connection to the website and a page won't load. A couple of seconds later, a reload works. All this happens with Windows XP SP3. With Windows 7, it also happens. (When I initially wrote this question I didn't notice it.) ipconfig for my adapter: Ethernet adapter Local Area Connection: Connection-specific DNS Suffix . : Description . . . . . . . . . . . : Realtek PCIe GBE Family Controller Physical Address. . . . . . . . . : 00-1D-7D-E9-72-9E Dhcp Enabled. . . . . . . . . . . : Yes Autoconfiguration Enabled . . . . : Yes IP Address. . . . . . . . . . . . : 192.168.0.2 Subnet Mask . . . . . . . . . . . : 255.255.255.0 Default Gateway . . . . . . . . . : 192.168.0.254 DHCP Server . . . . . . . . . . . : 192.168.0.254 DNS Servers . . . . . . . . . . . : 192.117.235.235 62.219.186.7 Lease Obtained. . . . . . . . . . : Saturday, March 10, 2012 8:28:20 AM Lease Expires . . . . . . . . . . : Friday, January 26, 1906 2:00:04 AM A result of some tests a couple of the disconnects: C:\Documents and Settings\eyalroz.BAKNUNIN>nslookup google.com DNS request timed out. timeout was 2 seconds. *** Can't find server name for address 192.117.235.235: Timed out DNS request timed out. timeout was 2 seconds. *** Can't find server name for address 62.219.186.7: Timed out *** Default servers are not available Server: UnKnown Address: 192.117.235.235 DNS request timed out. timeout was 2 seconds. DNS request timed out. timeout was 2 seconds. *** Request to UnKnown timed-out C:\Documents and Settings\eyalroz.BAKNUNIN>ping 194.90.1.5 Pinging 194.90.1.5 with 32 bytes of data: Control-C ^C C:\Documents and Settings\eyalroz.BAKNUNIN>tracert -d 194.90.1.5 Tracing route to 194.90.1.5 over a maximum of 30 hops 1 <1 ms <1 ms <1 ms 192.168.0.254 2 * * 11 ms 10.168.128.1 3 14 ms 13 ms 14 ms 212.179.160.142 4 * * * Request timed out. 5 * * * Request timed out. 6 * * 47 ms 62.219.189.169 7 31 ms 27 ms 32 ms 62.219.189.150 8 15 ms 14 ms 16 ms 192.114.65.202 9 15 ms 15 ms 11 ms 212.143.10.66 10 13 ms 29 ms 31 ms 212.143.12.234 11 35 ms 15 ms 18 ms 212.143.8.72 12 22 ms 22 ms 16 ms 194.90.1.5 I usually ping 194.90.1.5 (which is not at my ISP) with 15ms response time and no losses. Things I've done/tried: [2012-03-26] I replaced the cable; I thought that made a difference, but the disconnects were back a while later, so that wasn't it. Updated the NIC driver. Tried reducing the MTU (used a utility called Dr. TCP); there was no effect. I updated my board BIOS revision (which caused all the HW to be "reinstalled" or re-identified - successfully). I installed another NIC, and tried switching to it - same effect with the on-board NIC. A while back I tried another router (although it was an Edimax model) - same problem. Connected the computer directly, with no router. Same problem. ping -t to the router (192.168.0.254) gives pongs, nothing is lost, and time is < 1 ms almost always (sometimes it says 1 or 2 ms). This is the case also during the disconnects.

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