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• IE is ignoring Z-Index on positioned elements

  - by Mike

  IE yet again is proving to be the bane of my existence. The top of a site I'm working on has a horizontal menu, an item of which triggers a pure-CSS menu that is positioned absolute within the parent menu DIV (positioned relative). This places the menu perfectly in both IE and the W3C compliant browsers. The problem arises when I have more positioned elements further down on the page. These are also positioned relative, because there is data inside them that needs to be positioned absolute... again, this displays properly in all browsers I've tested it on. The problem is, that then the top menu is opened, part is obscured by the positioned elements further down the page - in effect, it's positioned BELOW these elements even though there are z-index properties defined on all. (in both the CSS file and inline). The only way to get IE to display this properly is to place the actual HTML for the menu at the bottom of the page, below (in DOM terms) the positioned elements elsewhere on the page. I would only do this as an absolute last resort. All Elements are the same type (div). Here is the relevant HTML: <div id='menu'> <div id='cat_menu' style='display:none;z-index:10000;'> <table cellspacing='0' cellpadding='0' class='brmenu' width='100%'> [data] </table> </div> <div class='product_new' style='z-index:20;'>[data]</div> <div class='product_listing' style='background-color:#FFFFFF;'>[data]</div> And the relevant CSS: div#menu { height: 26px; padding: 0; position: relative; } div#cat_menu { position: absolute; top: 25px; left: 115px; width: 300px; z-index: 1000; } div.product_new { background-image: url("/images/sp_images.png"); background-position: 0 -108px; background-repeat: no-repeat; padding 0px; height: 40px; font-size: 9pt; margin-top: 5px; position: relative; z-index: 20; }

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• HELP! Any ideas? Im creating a new site using the below script embedded in my swf. But I keep getti

  - by Suzanne

  package com.flashden { import flash.display.MovieClip; import flash.text.*; import flash.events.MouseEvent; import flash.events.*; import flash.net.URLRequest; import flash.display.Loader; public class MenuItem extends MovieClip { private var scope; public var closedX; :Number public static const OPEN_MENU = "openMenu"; public function MenuItem(scope) { // set scope to talk back to -------------------------------// this.scope = scope; // disable all items not to be clickable -------------------// txt_label.mouseEnabled = false; menuItemShine.mouseEnabled = false; menuItemArrow.mouseEnabled = false; // make background clip the item to be clicked (button) ----// menuItemBG.buttonMode = true; // add click event listener to the header background -------// menuItemBG.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, clickHandler); } private function clickHandler (e:MouseEvent) { scope.openMenuItem(this); } public function loadContent (contentURL:String) { var loader:Loader = new Loader(); configureListeners(loader.contentLoaderInfo); var request:URLRequest = new URLRequest(contentURL); loader.load(request); // place x position of content at the bottom of the header so the top is not cut off ----// loader.x = 30; // we add the content at level 1, because the background clip is at level 0 ----// addChildAt(loader, 1); } private function configureListeners(dispatcher:IEventDispatcher):void { dispatcher.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, completeHandler); dispatcher.addEventListener(HTTPStatusEvent.HTTP_STATUS, httpStatusHandler); dispatcher.addEventListener(Event.INIT, initHandler); dispatcher.addEventListener(IOErrorEvent.IO_ERROR, ioErrorHandler); dispatcher.addEventListener(Event.OPEN, openHandler); dispatcher.addEventListener(ProgressEvent.PROGRESS, progressHandler); dispatcher.addEventListener(Event.UNLOAD, unLoadHandler); } private function completeHandler(event:Event):void { //trace("completeHandler: " + event); // remove loader animation ----------------// removeChild(getChildByName("mc_preloader")); } private function httpStatusHandler(event:HTTPStatusEvent):void { // trace("httpStatusHandler: " + event); } private function initHandler(event:Event):void { //trace("initHandler: " + event); } private function ioErrorHandler(event:IOErrorEvent):void { //trace("ioErrorHandler: " + event); } private function openHandler(event:Event):void { //trace("openHandler: " + event); } private function progressHandler(event:ProgressEvent):void { //trace("progressHandler: bytesLoaded=" + event.bytesLoaded + " bytesTotal=" + event.bytesTotal); } private function unLoadHandler(event:Event):void { //trace("unLoadHandler: " + event); } } }

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• How to intercept 401 from Forms Authentication in ASP.NET MVC?

  - by Jiho Han

  I would like to generate a 401 page if the user does not have the right permission. The user requests a url and is redirected to the login page (I have deny all anonymous in web.config). The user logs in successfully and is redirected to the original url. However, upon permission check, it is determined that the user does not have the required permission, so I would like to generate a 401. But Forms Authentication always handles 401 and redirects the user to the login page. To me, this isn't correct. The user has already authenticated, the user just does not have the proper authorization. In other scenarios, such as in ajax or REST service scenario, I definitely do not want the login page - I need the proper 401 page. So far, I've tried custom Authorize filter to return ViewResult with 401 but didn't work. I then tried a normal Action Filter, overriding OnActionExecuting, which did not work either. What I was able to do is handle an event in global.asax, PostRequestHandlerExecute, and check for the permission then write out directly to response: if (permissionDenied) { Context.Response.StatusCode = 401; Context.Response.Clear(); Context.Response.Write("Permission Denied"); Context.Response.Flush(); Context.Response.Close(); return; } That works but it's not really what I want. First of all, I'm not even sure if that is the right event or the place in the pipeline to do that. Second, I want the 401 page to have a little more content. Preferably, it should be an aspx page with possibly the same master page as the rest of the site. That way, anyone browsing the site can see that the permission is denied but with the same look and feel, etc. but the ajax or service user will get the proper status code to act on. Any idea how this can be achieved? I've seen other posts with similar requests but didn't see a solution that I can use. And no, I do not want a 403.

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• Python/Biophysics- Trying to code a simple stochastic simulation!

  - by user359597

  Hey guys- I'm trying to figure out what to make of the following code- this is not the clear, intuitive python I've been learning. Was it written in C or something then wrapped in a python fxn? The code I wrote (not shown) is using the same math, but I couldn't figure out how to write a conditional loop. If anyone could explain/decipher/clean this up, I'd be really appreciative. I mean- is this 'good' python- or does it look funky? I'm brand new to this- but it's like the order of the fxns is messed up? I understand Gillespie's- I've successfully coded several simpler simulations. So in a nutshell- good code-(pythonic)? order? c? improvements? am i being an idiot? The code shown is the 'answer,' to the following question from a biophysics text (petri-net not shown and honestly not necessary to understand problem): "In a programming language of your choice, implement Gillespie’s First Reaction Algorithm to study the temporal behaviour of the reaction A---B in which the transition from A to B can only take place if another compound, C, is present, and where C dynamically interconverts with D, as modelled in the Petri-net below. Assume that there are 100 molecules of A, 1 of C, and no B or D present at the start of the reaction. Set kAB to 0.1 s-1 and both kCD and kDC to 1.0 s-1. Simulate the behaviour of the system over 100 s." def sim(): # Set the rate constants for all transitions kAB = 0.1 kCD = 1.0 kDC = 1.0 # Set up the initial state A = 100 B = 0 C = 1 D = 0 # Set the start and end times t = 0.0 tEnd = 100.0 print "Time\t", "Transition\t", "A\t", "B\t", "C\t", "D" # Compute the first interval transition, interval = transitionData(A, B, C, D, kAB, kCD, kDC) # Loop until the end time is exceded or no transition can fire any more while t <= tEnd and transition >= 0: print t, '\t', transition, '\t', A, '\t', B, '\t', C, '\t', D t += interval if transition == 0: A -= 1 B += 1 if transition == 1: C -= 1 D += 1 if transition == 2: C += 1 D -= 1 transition, interval = transitionData(A, B, C, D, kAB, kCD, kDC) def transitionData(A, B, C, D, kAB, kCD, kDC): """ Returns nTransition, the number of the firing transition (0: A->B, 1: C->D, 2: D->C), and interval, the interval between the time of the previous transition and that of the current one. """ RAB = kAB * A * C RCD = kCD * C RDC = kDC * D dt = [-1.0, -1.0, -1.0] if RAB > 0.0: dt[0] = -math.log(1.0 - random.random())/RAB if RCD > 0.0: dt[1] = -math.log(1.0 - random.random())/RCD if RDC > 0.0: dt[2] = -math.log(1.0 - random.random())/RDC interval = 1e36 transition = -1 for n in range(len(dt)): if dt[n] > 0.0 and dt[n] < interval: interval = dt[n] transition = n return transition, interval if __name__ == '__main__': sim()

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• Supplying a callback to Jeditable

  - by pjmorse

  Summary: When I try supplying a onsubmit or onreset callback to Jeditable, I get Object [function] has no method 'apply' errors. How I got here: I've been working on a rails plugin to supply Jeditable and jWYSIWYG for in-place WYSIWYG editing. Development is driven by a Rails project I'm working on which asks for specific functions. One of the options I added was the ability to trigger Jeditable's edit mode using a button instead of clicking on the editable text itself, following the pattern suggested in this answer. The next step, though, is to hide the button while in edit mode, and reveal it again when leaving edit mode. The hide is easy enough; I just added a line to the triggering function which sends .toggle() to the button. Reveal is trickier. I figure I need to .toggle() again on submit or cancel, and helpfully, Jeditable offers onsubmit and onreset callbacks. However, when I try using those callbacks, I get this Object [something] has no method 'apply' errors. What I'm trying: Because this is in the context of a Rails helper, the actual mechanics are a little more involved than this, but the upshot is that I'm trying to follow this pattern, handing Jeditable this in the args: "onsubmit":"showTrigger", and then including this script: function showTrigger(settings, original) { $(".edit_trigger[id='element_id']").toggle(); } However, on submitting changes or canceling an edit, I get the error Object showTrigger has no method 'apply' ...as described above. I also tried sending in a function directly as the "onsubmit" argument (i.e. "onsubmit": "function(settings, original){$(\".edit_trigger[id='element_id']\").toggle();}" and then I just get Object function(settings, original){$(\".edit_trigger[id='element_id']\").toggle();} has no method 'apply' instead. There must be something wrong with how I'm handing in this callback. Any ideas? ETA: This answer suggests to me that somehow I'm providing a string to Jeditable when it expects a function instead. However, because I'm working within the context of a Rails helper, I'm not at all sure how to fix that - the "showTrigger" bit is set as a Ruby variable in the helper, and although window.showTrigger() is defined when the window is loaded, I don't know how to designate that function within a Ruby variable such that it will be recognized as a function at page load time.

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• Scala actors: receive vs react

  - by jqno

  Let me first say that I have quite a lot of Java experience, but have only recently become interested in functional languages. Recently I've started looking at Scala, which seems like a very nice language. However, I've been reading about Scala's Actor framework in Programming in Scala, and there's one thing I don't understand. In chapter 30.4 it says that using react instead of receive makes it possible to re-use threads, which is good for performance, since threads are expensive in the JVM. Does this mean that, as long as I remember to call react instead of receive, I can start as many Actors as I like? Before discovering Scala, I've been playing with Erlang, and the author of Programming Erlang boasts about spawning over 200,000 processes without breaking a sweat. I'd hate to do that with Java threads. What kind of limits am I looking at in Scala as compared to Erlang (and Java)? Also, how does this thread re-use work in Scala? Let's assume, for simplicity, that I have only one thread. Will all the actors that I start run sequentially in this thread, or will some sort of task-switching take place? For example, if I start two actors that ping-pong messages to each other, will I risk deadlock if they're started in the same thread? According to Programming in Scala, writing actors to use react is more difficult than with receive. This sounds plausible, since react doesn't return. However, the book goes on to show how you can put a react inside a loop using Actor.loop. As a result, you get loop { react { ... } } which, to me, seems pretty similar to while (true) { receive { ... } } which is used earlier in the book. Still, the book says that "in practice, programs will need at least a few receive's". So what am I missing here? What can receive do that react cannot, besides return? And why do I care? Finally, coming to the core of what I don't understand: the book keeps mentioning how using react makes it possible to discard the call stack to re-use the thread. How does that work? Why is it necessary to discard the call stack? And why can the call stack be discarded when a function terminates by throwing an exception (react), but not when it terminates by returning (receive)? I have the impression that Programming in Scala has been glossing over some of the key issues here, which is a shame, because otherwise it's a truly excellent book.

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• How can I test caching and cache busting?

  - by Nathan Long

  In PHP, I'm trying to steal a page from the Rails playbook (see 'Using Asset Timestamps' here): By default, Rails appends assets' timestamps to all asset paths. This allows you to set a cache-expiration date for the asset far into the future, but still be able to instantly invalidate it by simply updating the file (and hence updating the timestamp, which then updates the URL as the timestamp is part of that, which in turn busts the cache). It‘s the responsibility of the web server you use to set the far-future expiration date on cache assets that you need to take advantage of this feature. Here‘s an example for Apache: # Asset Expiration ExpiresActive On <FilesMatch "\.(ico|gif|jpe?g|png|js|css)$"> ExpiresDefault "access plus 1 year" </FilesMatch> If you look at a the source for a Rails page, you'll see what they mean: the path to a stylesheet might be "/stylesheets/scaffold.css?1268228124", where the numbers at the end are the timestamp when the file was last updated. So it should work like this: The browser says 'give me this page' The server says 'here, and by the way, this stylesheet called scaffold.css?1268228124 can be cached for a year - it's not gonna change.' On reloads, the browser says 'I'm not asking for that css file, because my local copy is still good.' A month later, you edit and save the file, which changes the timestamp, which means that the file is no longer called scaffold.css?1268228124 because the numbers change. When the browser sees that, it says 'I've never seen that file! Give me a copy, please.' The cache is 'busted.' I think that's brilliant. So I wrote a function that spits out stylesheet and javascript tags with timestamps appended to the file names, and I configured Apache with the statement above. Now: how do I tell if the caching and cache busting are working? I'm checking my pages with two plugins for Firebug: Yslow and Google Page Speed. Both seem to say that my files are caching: "Add expires headers" in Yslow and "leverage browser caching" in Page Speed are both checked. But when I look at the Page Speed Activity, I see a lot of requests and waiting and no 'cache hits'. If I change my stylesheet and reload, I do see the change immediately. But I don't know if that's because the browser never cached in the first place or because the cache is busted. How can I tell?

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• Suggestions for designing large-scale Java webapp from the ground up

  - by Chris Thompson

  Hi all, I'm about to start developing a large-scale system and I'm struggling with which direction to proceed. I've done plenty of Java web apps before and I have plenty of experience with servlet containers and GWT and some experience with Spring. The problem is most of my webapps have been thrown together just to be a proof of concept and what I'm struggling with is what set of frameworks to use. I need to have both a browser based application as well as a web service designed to support access from mobile devices (Android and iPhone for now). Ideally, I'd like to design this system in such a way that I don't end up rewriting all of my servlets for each client (browser and phone) although I don't mind having some small checks in there to properly format the data. In addition, although I'm the only developer now, that won't necessarily be the case down the road and I'd like to design something that scales well both with regards to traffic and number of developers (isn't just a nightmare to maintain). So where I am now is planning on using GWT to design the browser-based interface but I'm struggling with how to reuse that code with to present the interface (most likely xml) for the mobile devices. Using GWT RPC would, I think, make it relatively easy to do all of the AJAX in the browser, but might make generating xml for the mobile phones difficult. In addition, I like the idea of using something like Hibernate for persistence and Spring Security to secure the whole thing. Again, I'm not sure how well those will cooperate with GWT (I think Hibernate should be fine...) There's obviously a lot more to this than I've presented here, but I've tried to give you the 5-minute overview. I'm a bit stumped and was wondering if anybody in the community had any experience starting from this place. Does what I'm trying to do make sense? Is it realistic? I have no doubt I can make all of these frameworks speak the same language, I'm just wondering if it's worth my time to fight with them. Also, am I missing a framework that would be really beneficial? Thanks in advance and sorry for the relatively broad question... Chris

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• Rails: AJAX Controller JS not firing...

  - by neezer

  I'm having an issue with one of my controller's AJAX functionality. Here's what I have: class PhotosController < ApplicationController # ... def create @photo = Photo.new(params[:photo]) @photo.image_content_type = MIME::Types.type_for(@photo.image_file_name).to_s @photo.image_width = Paperclip::Geometry.from_file(params[:photo][:image]).width.to_i @photo.image_height = Paperclip::Geometry.from_file(params[:photo][:image]).height.to_i @photo.save! respond_to do |format| format.js end end # ... end This is called through a POST request sent by this code: $(function() { // add photos link $('a.add-photos-link').colorbox({ overlayClose: false, onComplete: function() { wire_add_photo_modal(); } }); function wire_add_photo_modal() { <% session_key = ActionController::Base.session_options[:key] %> $('#upload_photo').uploadify({ uploader: '/swf/uploadify.swf', script: '/photos', cancelImg: '/images/buttons/cancel.png', buttonText: 'Upload Photo(s)', auto: true, queueID: 'queue', fileDataName: 'photo[image]', scriptData: { '<%= session_key %>': '<%= u cookies[session_key] %>', commit: 'Adding Photo', controller: 'photos', action: 'create', '_method': 'post', 'photo[gallery_id]': $('#gallery_id').val(), 'photo[user_id]': $('#user_id').val(), authenticity_token: encodeURIComponent('<%= u form_authenticity_token if protect_against_forgery? %>') }, multi: true }); } }); Finally, I have my response code in app/views/photos/create.js.erb: alert('photo added!'); My log file shows that the request was successful (the photo was successfully uploaded), and it even says that it rendered the create action, yet I never get the alert. My browser shows NO javascript errors. Here's the log AFTER a request from the above POST request is submitted: Processing PhotosController#create (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-03-16 14:35:33) [POST] Parameters: {"Filename"=>"tumblr_kx74k06IuI1qzt6cxo1_400.jpg", "photo"=>{"user_id"=>"1", "image"=>#<File:/tmp/RackMultipart20100316-54303-7r2npu-0>}, "commit"=>"Adding Photo", "_edited_session"=>"edited", "folder"=>"/kakagiloon/", "authenticity_token"=>"edited", "action"=>"create", "_method"=>"post", "Upload"=>"Submit Query", "controller"=>"photos"} [paperclip] Saving attachments. [paperclip] saving /public/images/assets/kakagiloon/thumbnail/tumblr_kx74k06IuI1qzt6cxo1_400.jpg [paperclip] saving /public/images/assets/kakagiloon/profile/tumblr_kx74k06IuI1qzt6cxo1_400.jpg [paperclip] saving /public/images/assets/kakagiloon/original/tumblr_kx74k06IuI1qzt6cxo1_400.jpg Rendering photos/create Completed in 248ms (View: 1, DB: 6) | 200 OK [http://edited.local/photos] NOTE: I edited out all the SQL statements and I put "edited" in place of sensitive info. What gives? Why aren't I getting my alert();? Please let me know if you need anymore info to help me solve this issue! Thanks.

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• Understanding VS2010 C# parallel profiling results

  - by Haggai

  I have a program with many independent computations so I decided to parallelize it. I use Parallel.For/Each. The results were okay for a dual-core machine - CPU utilization of about 80%-90% most of the time. However, with a dual Xeon machine (i.e. 8 cores) I get only about 30%-40% CPU utilization, although the program spends quite a lot of time (sometimes more than 10 seconds) on the parallel sections, and I see it employs about 20-30 more threads in those sections compared to serial sections. Each thread takes more than 1 second to complete, so I see no reason for them to work in parallel - unless there is a synchronization problem. I used the built-in profiler of VS2010, and the results are strange. Even though I use locks only in one place, the profiler reports that about 85% of the program's time is spent on synchronization (also 5-7% sleep, 5-7% execution, under 1% IO). The locked code is only a cache (a dictionary) get/add: bool esn_found; lock (lock_load_esn) esn_found = cache.TryGetValue(st, out esn); if(!esn_found) { esn = pData.esa_inv_idx.esa[term_idx]; esn.populate(pData.esa_inv_idx.datafile); lock (lock_load_esn) { if (!cache.ContainsKey(st)) cache.Add(st, esn); } } lock_load_esn is a static member of the class of type Object. esn.populate reads from a file using a separate StreamReader for each thread. However, when I press the Synchronization button to see what causes the most delay, I see that the profiler reports lines which are function entrance lines, and doesn't report the locked sections themselves. It doesn't even report the function that contains the above code (reminder - the only lock in the program) as part of the blocking profile with noise level 2%. With noise level at 0% it reports all the functions of the program, which I don't understand why they count as blocking synchronizations. So my question is - what is going on here? How can it be that 85% of the time is spent on synchronization? How do I find out what really is the problem with the parallel sections of my program? Thanks.

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• Placing & deleting element(s) from a object (stack)

  - by Chris

  Hello, Initialising 2 stack objects: Stack s1 = new Stack(), s2 = new Stack(); s1 = 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 (array of 10 elements wich is empty to start with) top:0 const int Rows = 10; int[] Table = new int[Rows]; public void TableStack(int[] Table) { for (int i=0; i < Table.Length; i++) { } } My question is how exactly do i place a element on a stack (push) or take a element from the stack (pop) as the following: Push: s1.Push(5); // s1 = 5 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 (top:1) s1.Push(9); // s1 = 5 9 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 (top:2) Pop: int number = s1.Pop(); // s1 = 5 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 (top:1) 9 got removed Do i have to use get & set, and if so how exactly do i implent this with a array? Not really sure what to exactly use for this. Any hints highly appreciated. The program uses the following driver to test the Stack class (wich cannot be changed or modified): public void ExecuteProgram() { Console.Title = "StackDemo"; Stack s1 = new Stack(), s2 = new Stack(); ShowStack(s1, "s1"); ShowStack(s2, "s2"); Console.WriteLine(); int getal = TryPop(s1); ShowStack(s1, "s1"); TryPush(s2, 17); ShowStack(s2, "s2"); TryPush(s2, -8); ShowStack(s2, "s2"); TryPush(s2, 59); ShowStack(s2, "s2"); Console.WriteLine(); for (int i = 1; i <= 3; i++) { TryPush(s1, 2 * i); ShowStack(s1, "s1"); } Console.WriteLine(); for (int i = 1; i <= 3; i++) { TryPush(s2, i * i); ShowStack(s2, "s2"); } Console.WriteLine(); for (int i = 1; i <= 6; i++) { getal = TryPop(s2); //use number ShowStack(s2, "s2"); } }/*ExecuteProgram*/ Regards.

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• Can we identify individual sectors of a circle component uniquely in flex?

  - by Angeline Aarthi

  I have a custom circle component in my application, which is divided into 3 sectors as of now.Can we uniquely identify each segments of this circle? I want to drag and drop text or images from another container to this circle component. But I want to place different images in the different sectors. Is it possible to distinguish the individual sectors of the circle component? Here is my code: <mx:TabNavigator width="624" height="100%"> <mx:VBox id="currQuote" label="Currents Quote" width="100%"> <comp:MyCircle x1="175" y1="150" radius="150"/> <comp:MyCircle x1="175" y1="150" radius="120"/> <comp:MyCircle x1="175" y1="150" radius="25"/> <comp:MyLine x1="160" y1="122"/> </mx:VBox> <mx:VBox label="Quote Comparison" width="100%"/> <mx:VBox label="Reports" width="100%"/> </mx:TabNavigator> Circle component: package components { import mx.core.UIComponent; public class MyCircle extends UIComponent { public var x1:int; public var y1:int; public var radius:int; override protected function updateDisplayList(unscaledWidth:Number, unscaledHeight:Number):void { graphics.lineStyle(1, 0x000000); graphics.drawCircle(x1, y1, radius); } } } Line component: package components { import mx.core.UIComponent; public class MyLine extends UIComponent { public var x1:int; public var y1:int; override protected function updateDisplayList(unscaledWidth:Number, unscaledHeight:Number):void { graphics.lineStyle(1, 0x000000); graphics.moveTo(100,0); graphics.lineTo(x1, y1); graphics.moveTo(250,0); graphics.lineTo(185,120); } } } Actually I want the circle to be divided into 6 sectors, but for now just divided it into 3 sectors. But is it possible to uniqulely identify the individual sectors of the circle so that I can drag different images or texts into those particular sectors?

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• What Can I Do To One Of My Team Number (Good Friend As Well) Who Lost His Passion.

  - by skyflyer

  It seems this question is not program related, but there are lot of similar questions. So please bear with me! By the way, I am programmer and my team is also charging a software project. And SO is the only place which solved me lot of thorny troubles!THANK YOU GUYS! I joined my company with him years ago. At that time he was quite passionate on his job which is a front-end development. He gave us lot of useful suggestions concerning his work like design. And I believed he was a smart guy. I believe he still is smart too by the way. One years later, however, he seemed lost his passion and fooling around every day, did not care about his work any more and produced poorwork. Even worse he literally stopped learning new skills and honing his work related skills. For me it is horrible, we got to keep abreast with new technology development, otherwise we will be throw out. Since we were just coworkers, I did not care about it too much except mentioned my thoughts several times. But last month, we resembled a new group and assigned very important project. And I am the team leader, sadly! My boss gave me lot of support and expectation as well. I did a pretty good job before and I am very optimism to our future. But as a team, if my team does not work hard, we will be doomed to failure no matter how hard I work and push. In order to revitalize his passion, I tried couple of ways like talking to him about my concern and my boss's angry. I offered his new task which is quite new to him. I even persuaded my boss to give him new incentive package. But all of them knocked wall. His reaction was just he did not care. Even worse he did not want to talk about his situation. I want to be hard on him, but since we are friends and coworkers, I really can not see it will work. Even it works, I can not so quickly change my self from friend and coworker into manager. As a novice in management, I am really overwhelmed! I do not want get him fired, we are friends and I do not see him fired as my team number. What can I do? Thank you guys!

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• jquery ajax post callback - manipulation stops after the "third" call

  - by shanyu

  EDIT: The problem is not related to Boxy, I've run into the same issue when I've used JQuery 's load method. EDIT 2: When I take out link.remove() from inside the ajax callback and place it before ajax load, the problem is no more. Are there restrictions for manipulating elements inside an ajax callback function. I am using JQuery with Boxy plugin. When the 'Flag' link on the page is clicked, a Boxy modal pops-up and loads a form via ajax. When the user submits the form, the link (<a> tag) is removed and a new one is created from the ajax response. This mechanism works for, well, 3 times! After the 3rd, the callback function just does not remove/replace/append (tested several variations of manipulation) the element. The only hint I have is that after the 3rd call, the parent of the link becomes non-selectable. However I can't make anything of this. Sorry if this is a very trivial issue, I have no experience in client-side programming. The relevant html is below: <div class="flag-link"> <img class="flag-img" style="width: 16px; visibility: hidden;" src="/static/images/flag.png" alt=""/> <a class="unflagged" href="/i/flag/showform/9/1/?next=/users/1/ozgurisil">Flag</a> </div> Here is the relevant js code: $(document).ready(function() { $('div.flag-link a.unflagged').live('click', function(e){ doFlag(e); return false; }); ... }); function doFlag(e) { var link = $(e.target); var url = link.attr('href'); Boxy.load(url, {title:'Inappropriate Content', unloadOnHide:true, cache:false, behaviours: function(r) { $("#flag-form").live("submit", function(){ var post_url = $("#flag-form").attr('action'); boxy = Boxy.get(this); boxy.hideAndUnload(); $.post(post_url, $("#flag-form").serialize(), function(data){ par = link.parent(); par.append(data); alert (par.attr('class')); //BECOMES UNDEFINED AT THE 3RD CALL!! par.children('img.flag-img').css('visibility', 'visible'); link.remove(); }); return false; }); }}); }

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• How can I fix this NavigationController and UIToolbar offset issue in Objective-C?

  - by editor

  I'm adding a couple of buttons to an already-existing NavigationController. The two buttons are added to a UIView, which is pushed onto the NavigationItem. The buttons stop and reload a UIWebView. Problem is that there's a slight offset issue that is making it all look pretty ugly. I wish I could set the UIToolbar to transparent or clear background but that doesn't seem to be an option. Can't seem to use negative offsets either. I've got color matching, but if you look closely there's 1px or 2px of highlighting up top that's causing a visual mismatch and then a slight offset at the bottom. Some relevant code below (based on this, inbound Googlers). What are my options to resolve this? // create a toolbar for the buttons UIToolbar* toolbar = [[UIToolbar alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, 100, 45)]; [toolbar setBarStyle: UIBarStyleDefault]; UIColor *colorForBar = [[UIColor alloc] initWithRed:.72 green:0 blue:0 alpha:0]; toolbar.tintColor = colorForBar; [colorForBar release]; //[toolbar setTranslucent:YES]; // create an array for the buttons NSMutableArray* buttons = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:3]; // create a standard reload button UIBarButtonItem *reloadButton = [[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithBarButtonSystemItem:UIBarButtonSystemItemRefresh target:self action:@selector(reload)]; reloadButton.style = UIBarButtonItemStyleBordered; [buttons addObject:reloadButton]; [reloadButton release]; // create a spacer between the buttons UIBarButtonItem *spacer = [[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithBarButtonSystemItem:UIBarButtonSystemItemFixedSpace target:nil action:nil]; [buttons addObject:spacer]; [spacer release]; // create a standard delete button with the trash icon UIBarButtonItem *stopButton = [[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithBarButtonSystemItem:UIBarButtonSystemItemStop target:self action:@selector(stopLoading)]; stopButton.style = UIBarButtonItemStyleBordered; [buttons addObject:stopButton]; [stopButton release]; // put the buttons in the toolbar and release them [toolbar setItems:buttons animated:NO]; [buttons release]; // place the toolbar into the navigation bar self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = [[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithCustomView:toolbar]; [toolbar release];

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• difference equations in MATLAB - why the need to switch signs?

  - by jefflovejapan

  Perhaps this is more of a math question than a MATLAB one, not really sure. I'm using MATLAB to compute an economic model - the New Hybrid ISLM model - and there's a confusing step where the author switches the sign of the solution. First, the author declares symbolic variables and sets up a system of difference equations. Note that the suffixes "a" and "2t" both mean "time t+1", "2a" means "time t+2" and "t" means "time t": %% --------------------------[2] MODEL proc-----------------------------%% % Define endogenous vars ('a' denotes t+1 values) syms y2a pi2a ya pia va y2t pi2t yt pit vt ; % Monetary policy rule ia = q1*ya+q2*pia; % ia = q1*(ya-yt)+q2*pia; %%option speed limit policy % Model equations IS = rho*y2a+(1-rho)yt-sigma(ia-pi2a)-ya; AS = beta*pi2a+(1-beta)*pit+alpha*ya-pia+va; dum1 = ya-y2t; dum2 = pia-pi2t; MPs = phi*vt-va; optcon = [IS ; AS ; dum1 ; dum2; MPs]; He then computes the matrix A: %% ------------------ [3] Linearization proc ------------------------%% % Differentiation xx = [y2a pi2a ya pia va y2t pi2t yt pit vt] ; % define vars jopt = jacobian(optcon,xx); % Define Linear Coefficients coef = eval(jopt); B = [ -coef(:,1:5) ] ; C = [ coef(:,6:10) ] ; % B[c(t+1) l(t+1) k(t+1) z(t+1)] = C[c(t) l(t) k(t) z(t)] A = inv(C)*B ; %(Linearized reduced form ) As far as I understand, this A is the solution to the system. It's the matrix that turns time t+1 and t+2 variables into t and t+1 variables (it's a forward-looking model). My question is essentially why is it necessary to reverse the signs of all the partial derivatives in B in order to get this solution? I'm talking about this step: B = [ -coef(:,1:5) ] ; Reversing the sign here obviously reverses the sign of every component of A, but I don't have a clear understanding of why it's necessary. My apologies if the question is unclear or if this isn't the best place to ask.

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• jqtransform and collapsed DIV

  - by Marco

  Hello, I am using a jQuery plugin called: jqtransform This plugin uses JavaScript to apply CSS styles to form elements. The problem that I have consists in the following scenario: I’m building a search page, with a advanced search option. When the page loads, the div called “advancedSearch” is hidden, and it will only show if the user clicks a element. Inside the div#advancedSearch I have several form elements. However, if I hide the div#advancedSearch with the CSS style: “diplay:none;”, the jqtransform plugin doesn’t work correctly with the elements that are hidden. So my solution was to hide the div#advancedsearch with JavaScript. This actually works, and it does not matter if it’s done after the document is ready or not. But… with the JavaScript solution, the div#advancedSearch stays visible for a couple of milliseconds… which is visually annoying. So I was wondering if the solution to this problem would be in the CSS, or in correcting the jqtransform plugin, or even in finding a way to immediately hide the div#advancedSearch with JS making it immediately hidden. UPDATE 1 After jeerose comment I decided to place here my function (please note that the <%= % are ASP.Net tags, that I use to get the images path) $('.toggleAdvancedSearch').click(function() { $('#advancedSearchWrap').slideToggle(250); $('form.jqtransform').jqTransform({ imgPath: '<%= ResolveClientUrl("~/masterpages/img/jqtransform/") %>' }); return false; }); UPDATE 2 To test the problem, I did the following: Added another element to the page, with the ID “applyStyle”, and onClick I call the $('form').jqTransform(); Disabled the the $('form').jqTransform(); from the load of the page. If I press the a#applyStyle, before expanding the div#advancedSearch I get the same problem that I had. But if I expand the the div#advancedSearch and press the the a#applyStyle after, the problem is solved. However, if I run the page with the $('form').jqTransform(); function on the load, I cannot reapply it after with the pressing of the a#applyStyle. I think that the solution could be: disabling the all the elements that are inside the div#advancedSearch, and on the same function that expands the div, make It also apply the styles to the elements that are inside the div#advancedSearch. However, I don’t know how to do this (nether if this will work). PS: This seems to be a known issue with the plugin, but I cannot wait indefinitely for a solution.

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• DriverManager always returns my custom driver regardless of the connection URL

  - by JGB146

  I am writing a driver to act as a wrapper around two separate MySQL connections (to distributed databases). Basically, the goal is to enable interaction with my driver for all applications instead of requiring the application to sort out which database holds the desired data. Most of the code for this is in place, but I'm having a problem in that when I attempt to create connections via the MySQL Driver, the DriverManager is returning an instance of my driver instead of the MySQL Driver. I'd appreciate any tips on what could be causing this and what could be done to fix it! Below is a few relevant snippets of code. I can provide more, but there's a lot, so I'd need to know what else you want to see. First, from MyDriver.java: public MyDriver() throws SQLException { DriverManager.registerDriver(this); } public Connection connect(String url, Properties info) throws SQLException { try { return new MyConnection(info); } catch (Exception e) { return null; } } public boolean acceptsURL(String url) throws SQLException { if (url.contains("jdbc:jgb://")) { return true; } return false; } It is my understanding that this acceptsURL function will dictate whether or not the DriverManager deems my driver a suitable fit for a given URL. Hence it should only be passing connections from my driver if the URL contains "jdbc:jgb://" right? Here's code from MyConnection.java: Connection c1 = null; Connection c2 = null; /** *Constructors */ public DDBSConnection (Properties info) throws SQLException, Exception { info.list(System.out); //included for testing Class.forName("com.mysql.jdbc.Driver").newInstance(); String url1 = "jdbc:mysql://server1.com/jgb"; String url2 = "jdbc:mysql://server2.com/jgb"; this.c1 = DriverManager.getConnection( url1, info.getProperty("username"), info.getProperty("password")); this.c2 = DriverManager.getConnection( url2, info.getProperty("username"), info.getProperty("password")); } And this tells me two things. First, the info.list() call confirms that the correct user and password are being sent. Second, because we enter an infinite loop, we see that the DriverManager is providing new instances of my connection as matches for the mysql URLs instead of the desired mysql driver/connection. FWIW, I have separately tested implementations that go straight to the mysql driver using this exact syntax (al beit only one at a time), and was able to successfully interact with each database individually from a test application outside of my driver.

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• Troubleshooting Multiple Endpoints Problem in WCF

  - by omatase

  I have been using WCF for a few years now and am fairly comfortable with it, however there is one simple WCF concept that I have yet to employ and am having difficulties with it. Following this article about WCF addressing as it specifically relates to multiple endpoints in IIS I see these two excerpts: "Suppose you have a file named calc.svc and you place it in a virtual directory that corresponds to (http://localhost:8080/calcservice). The base address for this service will be (http://localhost:8080/calcservice/calc.svc)." and "Now, consider the endpoint configuration found in the virtual directory’s web.config file (in Figure 3). In this case, the address of the first endpoint becomes the same as the base address (http://localhost:8080/calcservice/calc.svc) since I left the endpoint address empty. The address of the second endpoint becomes the combination of the base address appended with "secure", like this: (http://localhost:8080/calcservice/calc.svc/secure)." Now in my application I'm trying to create two endpoints for the same service (shown below). The service name is MainService.svc. For endpoint one I have address="" and endpoint two has address="Soap11". Bringing the site up in IIS I can successfully hit this URL: (https://localhost:444/MainService.svc). This is the base address for the service according to all the documentation I can find. According to this article and others I have seen that confirm its information I should have the second endpoint at (https://localhost:444/MainService.svc/Soap11) but if I navigate to that URL I get a .Net exception indicating the resource is not found. Is there a tool I can use to see where my different endpoints will be available? Maybe some IIS or aspnet_isapi.dll logging I can turn on? My web.config section defining my endpoints follows. Thanks in advance for your help <service behaviorConfiguration="MyService.MainServiceBehavior" name="MyService.MainService"> <endpoint address="" binding="wsHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="WSBindingConfig" contract="MyService.IMainService"> <identity> <dns value="localhost" /> </identity> </endpoint> <endpoint address="Soap11" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="BasicBindingWithCredentials" contract="MyService.IMainService"> <identity> <dns value="localhost" /> </identity> </endpoint> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange" /> </service>

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• Linking buttion to jQuery through service

  - by Ruddy

  I have a small problem that should be very easy to overcome. For some reason I cant work this out. So the problem is I cannot get a button to link to some jquery. My set-up is as follows (showing the relevant code): Default.aspx jQuery: function getContent() { var data = { numberID: 1 }; $.jsonAspNet("ContentService.asmx", "GetContent", data, function (result) { $('#content').html(result); }); } jQuery(document).ready(function () { getContent(); } HTML: <div id="content"></div> ContentService.vb Public Function GetContent(number As Integer) As String Dim sb = New StringBuilder sb.AppendLine("<table>") sb.AppendLine("<tr>") sb.AppendLine("<td class='ui-widget-header ui-corner-all'>Number</td>") sb.AppendLine("</tr>") sb.AppendLine("<tr>") sb.AppendLine("<td>" & number & "</td>") sb.AppendLine("<td><a href='#' id='test' class='fg-button ui-state-default ui-corner-all'><img src='" & Context.Request.ApplicationPath & "/images/spacer.gif' class='ui-icon ui-icon-pencil' /></a></td>") sb.AppendLine("</tr>") sb.AppendLine("</table>") Return sb.ToString End Function So that's the basics of what I have everything works but I'm not sure how to get the button (id='test') to get linked to some jQuery. I want it to be pressed and bring up a popup. I have tried to put the jQuery on default.aspx but this doesn't seem to work unless the button is place in the HTML on that page. $('#test').unbind('click').click(function () { alert('Working'); }); I'm sure this is easy to be able to do but I have been trying for a while and cannot seem to get it to work.

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• Windows Server 2008 R2 network adapter stops working, requires hard reboot

  - by Geoff Dalgas

  TL;DR version: Turns out this was a Windows Server 2008 R2 kernel networking bug. After siccing Microsoft support on it, we (eventually) got an unpublished kernel hotfix from Microsoft to address it. If you, too, are experiencing mysterious low-level network driver failures requiring a reboot/bluescreen cycle, you might want that hotfix (or maybe Service Pack 1 whenever it is released, too.) We have been using HAProxy along with heartbeat from the Linux-HA project. We are using two linux instances to provide a failover. Each server has with their own public IP and a single IP which is shared between the two using a virtual interface (eth1:1) at IP: 69.59.196.211 The virtual interface (eth1:1) IP 69.59.196.211 is configured as the gateway for the windows servers behind them and we use ip_forwarding to route traffic. We are experiencing an occasional network outage on one of our windows servers behind our linux gateways. HAProxy will detect the server is offline which we can verify by remoting to the failed server and attempting to ping the gateway: Pinging 69.59.196.211 with 32 bytes of data: Reply from 69.59.196.220: Destination host unreachable. Running arp -a on this failed server shows that there is no entry for the gateway address (69.59.196.211): Interface: 69.59.196.220 --- 0xa Internet Address Physical Address Type 69.59.196.161 00-26-88-63-c7-80 dynamic 69.59.196.210 00-15-5d-0a-3e-0e dynamic 69.59.196.212 00-21-5e-4d-45-c9 dynamic 69.59.196.213 00-15-5d-00-b2-0d dynamic 69.59.196.215 00-21-5e-4d-61-1a dynamic 69.59.196.217 00-21-5e-4d-2c-e8 dynamic 69.59.196.219 00-21-5e-4d-38-e5 dynamic 69.59.196.221 00-15-5d-00-b2-0d dynamic 69.59.196.222 00-15-5d-0a-3e-09 dynamic 69.59.196.223 ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff static 224.0.0.22 01-00-5e-00-00-16 static 224.0.0.252 01-00-5e-00-00-fc static 225.0.0.1 01-00-5e-00-00-01 static On our linux gateway instances arp -a shows: peak-colo-196-220.peak.org (69.59.196.220) at <incomplete> on eth1 stackoverflow.com (69.59.196.212) at 00:21:5e:4d:45:c9 [ether] on eth1 peak-colo-196-215.peak.org (69.59.196.215) at 00:21:5e:4d:61:1a [ether] on eth1 peak-colo-196-219.peak.org (69.59.196.219) at 00:21:5e:4d:38:e5 [ether] on eth1 peak-colo-196-222.peak.org (69.59.196.222) at 00:15:5d:0a:3e:09 [ether] on eth1 peak-colo-196-209.peak.org (69.59.196.209) at 00:26:88:63:c7:80 [ether] on eth1 peak-colo-196-217.peak.org (69.59.196.217) at 00:21:5e:4d:2c:e8 [ether] on eth1 Why would arp occasionally set the entry for this failed server as <incomplete>? Should we be defining our arp entries statically? I've always left arp alone since it works 99% of the time, but in this one instance it appears to be failing. Are there any additional troubleshooting steps we can take help resolve this issue? THINGS WE HAVE TRIED I added a static arp entry for testing on one of the linux gateways which still didn't help. root@haproxy2:~# arp -a peak-colo-196-215.peak.org (69.59.196.215) at 00:21:5e:4d:61:1a [ether] on eth1 peak-colo-196-221.peak.org (69.59.196.221) at 00:15:5d:00:b2:0d [ether] on eth1 stackoverflow.com (69.59.196.212) at 00:21:5e:4d:45:c9 [ether] on eth1 peak-colo-196-219.peak.org (69.59.196.219) at 00:21:5e:4d:38:e5 [ether] on eth1 peak-colo-196-209.peak.org (69.59.196.209) at 00:26:88:63:c7:80 [ether] on eth1 peak-colo-196-217.peak.org (69.59.196.217) at 00:21:5e:4d:2c:e8 [ether] on eth1 peak-colo-196-220.peak.org (69.59.196.220) at 00:21:5e:4d:30:8d [ether] PERM on eth1 root@haproxy2:~# arp -i eth1 -s 69.59.196.220 00:21:5e:4d:30:8d root@haproxy2:~# ping 69.59.196.220 PING 69.59.196.220 (69.59.196.220) 56(84) bytes of data. --- 69.59.196.220 ping statistics --- 7 packets transmitted, 0 received, 100% packet loss, time 6006ms Rebooting the windows web server solves this issue temporarily with no other changes to the network but our experience shows this issue will come back. Swapping network cards and switches I noticed the link light on the port of the switch for the failed windows server was running at 100Mb instead of 1Gb on the failed interface. I moved the cable to several other open ports and the link indicated 100Mb for each port that I tried. I also swapped the cable with the same result. I tried changing the properties of the network card in windows and the server locked up and required a hard reset after clicking apply. This windows server has two physical network interfaces so I have swapped the cables and network settings on the two interfaces to see if the problem follows the interface. If the public interface goes down again we will know that it is not an issue with the network card. (We also tried another switch we have on hand, no change) Changing network hardware driver versions We've had the same problem with the latest Broadcom driver, as well as the built-in driver that ships in Windows Server 2008 R2. Replacing network cables As a last ditch effort we remembered another change that occurred was the replacement of all of the patch cords between our servers / switch. We had purchased two sets, one green of lengths 1ft - 3ft for the private interfaces and another set of red cables for the public interfaces. We swapped out all of the public interface patch cables with a different brand and ran our servers without issue for a full week ... aaaaaand then the problem recurred. Disable checksum offload, remove TProxy We also tried disabling TCP/IP checksum offload in the driver, no change. We're now pulling out TProxy and moving to a more traditional x-forwarded-for network arrangement without any fancy IP address rewriting. We'll see if that helps. Switch Virtualization providers On the off chance this was related to Hyper-V in some way (we do host Linux VMs on it), we switched to VMWare Server. No change. Switch host model We've reached the end of our troubleshooting rope and are now formally involving Microsoft support. They recommended changing the host model: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Host_model http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/magazine/2007.09.cableguy.aspx We did that, and.. we'll see.

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• Is there anything else I can do to optimize this MySQL query?

  - by Legend

  I have two tables, Table A with 700,000 entries and Table B with 600,000 entries. The structure is as follows: Table A: +-----------+---------------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +-----------+---------------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | id | bigint(20) unsigned | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | number | bigint(20) unsigned | YES | | NULL | | +-----------+---------------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ Table B: +-------------+---------------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +-------------+---------------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | id | bigint(20) unsigned | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | number_s | bigint(20) unsigned | YES | MUL | NULL | | | number_e | bigint(20) unsigned | YES | MUL | NULL | | | source | varchar(50) | YES | | NULL | | +-------------+---------------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ I am trying to find if any of the values in Table A are present in Table B using the following code: $sql = "SELECT number from TableA"; $result = mysql_query($sql) or die(mysql_error()); while($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($result)) { $number = $row['number']; $sql = "SELECT source, count(source) FROM TableB WHERE number_s < $number AND number_e > $number GROUP BY source"; $re = mysql_query($sql) or die(mysql_error); while($ro = mysql_fetch_array($re)) { echo $number."\t".$ro[0]."\t".$ro[1]."\n"; } } I was hoping that the query would go fast but then for some reason, it isn't terrible fast. My explain on the select (with a particular value of "number") gives me the following: mysql> explain SELECT source, count(source) FROM TableB WHERE number_s < 1812194440 AND number_e > 1812194440 GROUP BY source; +----+-------------+------------+------+-------------------------+------+---------+------+--------+----------------------------------------------+ | id | select_type | table | type | possible_keys | key | key_len | ref | rows | Extra | +----+-------------+------------+------+-------------------------+------+---------+------+--------+----------------------------------------------+ | 1 | SIMPLE | TableB | ALL | number_s,number_e | NULL | NULL | NULL | 696325 | Using where; Using temporary; Using filesort | +----+-------------+------------+------+-------------------------+------+---------+------+--------+----------------------------------------------+ 1 row in set (0.00 sec) Is there any optimization that I can squeeze out of this? I tried writing a stored procedure for the same task but it doesn't even seem to work in the first place... It doesn't give any syntax errors... I tried running it for a day and it was still running which felt odd. CREATE PROCEDURE Filter() Begin DECLARE number BIGINT UNSIGNED; DECLARE x INT; DECLARE done INT DEFAULT 0; DECLARE cur1 CURSOR FOR SELECT number FROM TableA; DECLARE CONTINUE HANDLER FOR NOT FOUND SET done = 1; CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE IF NOT EXISTS Flags(number bigint unsigned, count int(11)); OPEN cur1; hist_loop: LOOP FETCH cur1 INTO number; SELECT count(*) from TableB WHERE number_s < number AND number_e > number INTO x; IF done = 1 THEN LEAVE hist_loop; END IF; IF x IS NOT NULL AND x>0 THEN INSERT INTO Flags(number, count) VALUES(number, x); END IF; END LOOP hist_loop; CLOSE cur1; END

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• HowTo stick QDialog to Screen Borders like Skype do?

  - by mosg

  Hello. A long time ago I tried to find method how to stick QDialog window to screen borders for my small projects like Skype windows do it, but I failed. May be I was looking this code not in the right place, so now I'm looking the solution here, on stack! :) So, does any one have a deal with some kind of such code, links, samples? In my opinion, we have to reimplement QDialog moveEvent function, like below, but that code does not working: void CDialog::moveEvent(QMoveEvent * event) { QRect wndRect; int leftTaskbar = 0, rightTaskbar = 0, topTaskbar = 0, bottomTaskbar = 0; // int top = 0, left = 0, right = 0, bottom = 0; wndRect = this->frameGeometry(); // Screen resolution int screenWidth = QApplication::desktop()->width(); int screenHeight = QApplication::desktop()->height(); int wndWidth = wndRect.right() - wndRect.left(); int wndHeight = wndRect.bottom() - wndRect.top(); int posX = event->pos().x(); int posY = event->pos().y(); // Snap to screen border // Left border if (posX >= -m_nXOffset + leftTaskbar && posX <= leftTaskbar + m_nXOffset) { //left = leftTaskbar; this->move(leftTaskbar, posY); return; } // Top border if (posY >= -m_nYOffset && posY <= topTaskbar + m_nYOffset) { //top = topTaskbar; this->move(posX, topTaskbar); return; } // Right border if (posX + wndWidth <= screenWidth - rightTaskbar + m_nXOffset && posX + wndWidth >= screenWidth - rightTaskbar - m_nXOffset) { //right = screenWidth - rightTaskbar - wndWidth; this->move(screenWidth - rightTaskbar - wndWidth, posY); return; } // Bottom border if (posY + wndHeight <= screenHeight - bottomTaskbar + m_nYOffset && posY + wndHeight >= screenHeight - bottomTaskbar - m_nYOffset) { //bottom = screenHeight - bottomTaskbar - wndHeight; this->move(posX, screenHeight - bottomTaskbar - wndHeight); return; } QDialog::moveEvent(event); } Thanks.

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• PHP Processes reaching limit along with FastCGI timeouts

  - by Constant M

  I have a problem similar to http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1168384/how-to-troubleshoot-php-processes, but with a twist. We have a couple of managed servers that recently migrated to FastCGI. Since then we've been having problems. We have a content management system at a central place that we manage all our sites with. All the sites run on the same managed server. So basically its one PHP script that generates pages on the same server. The catch comes in where it works perfectly on some, and gives FCGI timeout errors on others. At the same time our support is saying that the PHP processes heap up to their limit and then causes Apache to stop working. I'm convinced this is a fault on their side, but would like to get my side clean too. Anyway have any suggestions where I can start looking for what's going wrong? I know it's a really broad question, but any help or pointers would be great. Thanks Just to add to that, here's a PS printout from support: happyh 13853 21556 0 01:04 ? 00:00:00 /usr/bin/php5-cgi happyh 13869 13853 0 01:04 ? 00:00:00 /usr/bin/php5-cgi mamedc 13914 21556 0 05:14 ? 00:00:00 /usr/bin/php5-cgi wealthf 13947 21556 0 01:21 ? 00:00:00 /usr/bin/php5-cgi wealthf 13961 13947 0 01:21 ? 00:00:00 /usr/bin/php5-cgi mamedc 14032 13914 0 05:14 ? 00:00:00 /usr/bin/php5-cgi lookgrt 14157 21556 0 04:47 ? 00:00:00 /usr/bin/php5-cgi lookgrt 14178 14157 0 04:47 ? 00:00:00 /usr/bin/php5-cgi wolfie 14262 21556 0 01:08 ? 00:00:00 /usr/bin/php5-cgi wolfie 14276 14262 0 01:08 ? 00:00:00 /usr/bin/php5-cgi yaukrl 14352 21556 0 01:21 ? 00:00:00 /usr/bin/php5-cgi yaukrl 14361 14352 0 01:21 ? 00:00:00 /usr/bin/php5-cgi itpays2 14538 21556 0 01:33 ? 00:00:00 /usr/bin/php5-cgi itpays2 14547 14538 0 01:33 ? 00:00:00 /usr/bin/php5-cgi brichmbx 14732 21556 0 04:47 ? 00:00:00 /usr/bin/php5-cgi brichmbx 14803 14732 0 04:47 ? 00:00:00 /usr/bin/php5-cgi greatl 14969 21556 0 01:00 ? 00:00:00 /usr/bin/php5-cgi

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• Opinion on "loop invariants", and are these frequently used in the industry?

  - by Michael Aaron Safyan

  I was thinking back to my freshman year at college (five years ago) when I took an exam to place-out of intro-level computer science. There was a question about loop invariants, and I was wondering if loop invariants are really necessary in this case or if the question was simply a bad example... the question was to write an iterative definition for a factorial function, and then to prove that the function was correct. The code that I provided for the factorial function was as follows: public static int factorial(int x) { if ( x < 0 ){ throw new IllegalArgumentException("Parameter must be = 0"); }else if ( x == 0 ){ return 1; }else{ int result = 1; for ( int i = 1; i <= x; i++ ){ result*=i; } return result; } } My own proof of correctness was a proof by cases, and in each I asserted that it was correct by definition (x! is undefined for negative values, 0! is 1, and x! is 1*2*3...*x for a positive value of x). The professor wanted me to prove the loop using a loop invariant; however, my argument was that it was correct "by definition", because the definition of "x!" for a positive integer x is "the product of the integers from 1... x", and the for-loop in the else clause is simply a literal translation of this definition. Is a loop invariant really needed as a proof of correctness in this case? How complicated must a loop be before a loop invariant (and proper initialization and termination conditions) become necessary for a proof of correctness? Additionally, I was wondering... how often are such formal proofs used in the industry? I have found that about half of my courses are very theoretical and proof-heavy and about half are very implementation and coding-heavy, without any formal or theoretical material. How much do these overlap in practice? If you do use proofs in the industry, when do you apply them (always, only if it's complicated, rarely, never)?

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