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  • Modifying my website to allow anonymous comments

    - by David
    I write the code for my own website as an educational/fun exercise. Right now part of the website is a blog (like every other site out there :-/) which supports the usual basic blog features, including commenting on posts. But I only have comments enabled for logged-in users; I want to alter the code to allow anonymous comments - that is, I want to allow people to post comments without first creating a user account on my site, although there will still be some sort of authentication involved to prevent spam. Question: what information should I save for anonymous comments? I'm thinking at least display name and email address (for displaying a Gravatar), and probably website URL because I eventually want to accept OpenID as well, but would anything else make sense? Other question: how should I modify the database to store this information? The schema I have for the comment table is currently comment_id smallint(5) // The unique comment ID post_id smallint(5) // The ID of the post the comment was made on user_id smallint(5) // The ID of the user account who made the comment comment_subject varchar(128) comment_date timestamp comment_text text Should I add additional fields for name, email address, etc. to the comment table? (seems like a bad idea) Create a new "anonymous users" table? (and if so, how to keep anonymous user ids from conflicting with regular user ids) Or create fake user accounts for anonymous users in my existing users table? Part of what's making this tricky is that if someone tries to post an anonymous comment using an email address (or OpenID) that's already associated with an account on my site, I'd like to catch that and prompt them to log in.

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  • Spring MVC with annotations: how to beget that method always is called

    - by TheStijn
    hi, I'm currently migrating a project that is using Spring MVC without annotations to Spring MVC with annotations. This is causing less problems than expected but I did come across one issue. In my project I have set up an access mechanisme. Whether or not a User has access to a certain view depends on more than just the role of the User (e.g. it also depends on the status of the entity, the mode (view/edit), ...). To address this I had created an abstract parent controller which has a method hasAccess. This method calls also other methods like getAllowedEditStatuses which are here and there overridden by the child controllers. The hasAccess method gets called from the showForm method (below code was minimized for your readability): @Override protected ModelAndView showForm(final HttpServletRequest request, final HttpServletResponse response, final BindException errors) throws Exception { Integer id = Integer.valueOf(request.getParameter("ID")); Project project = this.getProject(id); if (!this.hasAccess(project, this.getActiveUser())) { return new ModelAndView("errorNoAccess", "code", project != null ? project.getCode() : null); } return this.showForm(request, response, project, errors); } So, if the User has no access to the view then he gets redirected to an error page. Now the 'pickle': how to set this up when using annotations. There no longer is a showForm or other method that is always called by the framework. My (and maybe your) first thought was: simply call this method from within each controller before going to the view. This would of course work but I was hoping for a nicer, more generic solution (less code duplication). The only other solution I could think of is preceeding the hasAccess method with the @ModelAttribute annotation but this feels a lot like raping the framework :-). So, does anyone have a (better) idea? thanks, Stijn

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  • Ajax Form submittion in Google App Engine with jQuery

    - by user271785
    could not figure out why it is not working: i need to send request to server, generate some fragment of html in python with meanCal method, and then want that fragment embedded into submitting html file using calculation method and dynamically shows in dyContent div. all the processes are done by single click on submit button in a form. any suggestions??? thanks in advance. the submitting html: <div id="dyContent" style="height: 200px;"> waiting for user... {{ mgs }} </div> <div id="leturetext"> <form id="mean" method="post" action="/calculation"> <select name="meanselect"> <option value=10>example</option> <option value=11>exercise</option> </select> <input type="button" name="btnMean" value="Check Results" /> </form> </div> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { //$("#btnMean").live("click", function() { $("#mean").submit(function(){ $.ajax({ type: "POST", cache: false, url: "/meanCal", success: function(html) { $("#dyContent").html(html); } }); return false; }); }); </script> python: class MainHandler(webapp.RequestHandler): def get(self): path = self.request.path if doRender(self, path): return doRender(self,'index.htm') class calculationHandler(webapp.RequestHandler): def post(self): doRender(self, 'Diagnostic_stats.htm', {'mgs' : "refreshed.", }) def get(self): doRender(self, 'Diagnostic_stats.htm') class meanHandler(webapp.RequestHandler): def get(self): global GL index = self.request.get('meanselect'.value) if (index == 10): allData = GL.exampleData dataString = ','.join(map(str, allData)) dataMean = (str)(stats.lmean(allData)) doRender(self, 'Result.htm', { 'dataIn' : dataString, 'MEAN' : "Example Mean is: " + dataMean, }) return else: allData = GL.exerciseData dataString = ','.join(map(str, allData)) dataMean = (str)(stats.lmean(allData)) doRender(self, 'Result.htm', { 'dataIn' : dataString, 'MEAN' : "Exercise Mean is: " + dataMean, }) def main(): global GL GL = GlobalVariables() application = webapp.WSGIApplication( [('/calculation', calculationHandler), ('/meanCal', meanHandler), ('.*', MainHandler), ], debug=True) wsgiref.handlers.CGIHandler().run(application) if __name__ == '__main__': main()

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  • When connecting SAP Business One to SQL Server 2005, what is the

    - by Nick
    we have SAP Business One - Fourth Shift Edition running here at a small manufacturing company. The consulting company that has come in to do the installation/implementation uses the "sa" id/pass to initially connect to the database to get the list of companies. From then on, I have to assume that its the sa id/pass that is being used to connect the client software to the database. Is this appropriate? I dont know where this data is being stored... as an ODBC connection? directly in the registry somewhere? Is it secure? Would it be better to set the users network ID in the database security and then use the "trusted connection" setting instead? Or do most people create a separate login in the database for each user and use that in the client settings? seems like the easiest way would be to add the users network login to the sql server security so they can use the "trusted connection"... but then wouldn't that allow ANY software to connect to the database from that machine? So anyways: what are the best-practices for setting this up?

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  • positioning text/image with a border

    - by user167487
    Learning html/css, having trouble with positioning text and or images within a border on a page exactly where i want them. I'm first trying to stack them underneath each other vertically, but i dont know how to move each box underneath, at the moment they are stacking horizontally until they go over the max width, what do i do? HTML: <div id="column1"> <p>blah blah blah</p> </div> <div id="column2"> <p>blah blah blah</p> </div> <div id="column3"> <p>blah blah blah</p> </div> CSS: p { font-family: Tahoma; font-size: 14px; margin: 1px; padding: 10px; text-align: left; background-color: white; width: 800px; } #column1 {float: left; position: relative; width: 200px; padding: 3px; background: gray ; top: 10px;margin: 1px; } #column2 {float: left; position: relative; width: 200px; padding: 3px; background: orange; top:50px;margin: 1px; } #column3 {float: left; position: relative; width: 200px; padding: 3px; background: gray; top: 100px;margin: 1px; }

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  • Updating nullability of columns in SQL 2008

    - by Shaul
    I have a very wide table, containing lots and lots of bit fields. These bit fields were originally set up as nullable. Now we've just made a decision that it doesn't make sense to have them nullable; the value is either Yes or No, default No. In other words, the schema should change from: create table MyTable( ID bigint not null, Name varchar(100) not null, BitField1 bit null, BitField2 bit null, ... BitFieldN bit null ) to create table MyTable( ID bigint not null, Name varchar(100) not null, BitField1 bit not null, BitField2 bit not null, ... BitFieldN bit not null ) alter table MyTable add constraint DF_BitField1 default 0 for BitField1 alter table MyTable add constraint DF_BitField2 default 0 for BitField2 alter table MyTable add constraint DF_BitField3 default 0 for BitField3 So I've just gone in through the SQL Management Studio, updating all these fields to non-nullable, default value 0. And guess what - when I try to update it, SQL Mgmt studio internally recreates the table and then tries to reinsert all the data into the new table... including the null values! Which of course generates an error, because it's explicitly trying to insert a null value into a non-nullable column. Aaargh! Obviously I could run N update statements of the form: update MyTable set BitField1 = 0 where BitField1 is null update MyTable set BitField2 = 0 where BitField2 is null but as I said before, there are n fields out there, and what's more, this change has to propagate out to several identical databases. Very painful to implement manually. Is there any way to make the table modification just ignore the null values and allow the default rule to kick in when you attempt to insert a null value?

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  • FormMethod.Get and query string parameters

    - by parminder
    Hi Experts, I am working on a website in asp.net mvc. I have to show a view where user put some search values like tags and titles to search. I want to use the same Index method for that. I have make my form to use formMethod.Get to send the parameters as querystring. so here is the method [HttpGet] public ActionResult Index(string title, string tags, int? page) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(title) return View(null); var list = GetSomeData(); return View(list); } here is my view <div id="searchBox"> <% using (Html.BeginForm(null, null, FormMethod.Get)) { %> <table> <tr> <td> <input type="hidden" id="isPosted" name="isPosted" value="1" /> I am looking for <%=Html.TextBox("Title")%> Tags: <%=Html.TextBox("Tags")%> <input id="search" type="submit" value="Search" /> </td> </tr> </table> <% } %> So when the user first visit the page, he will see only two text boxs and a button. but when he types something in the title and tags and click the search button i will load the view with some data. Now the problem is when i type something in title and tags box and click search, they are received in the method, but are not visible in the url. Is there anything i m doing wrong. help will be appreciated. Regards Parminder

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  • asp.net calendar control appears below textfield

    - by user279521
    I ma using an image button to display an asp.net calendar control (this control comes with VS 2008). However, when I click the image button, the calendar controls is displayed "below" the textfield that it is suppoed to populate. How can I get the control to appear on the right side of the textfield? My code is: <asp:ImageButton ID="imgCalendar" runat="server" Height="17px" ImageUrl="~/Images/CAL.gif" onclick="imgCalendar_Click1" Width="19px" Visible="true" ImageAlign="Middle" /> <asp:Panel ID="Panel1" runat="server"> <asp:Calendar ID="calStartDate" runat="server" BackColor="Transparent" BorderColor="#FFCC66" BorderWidth="1px" DayHeaderStyle-BackColor="gainsboro" DayNameFormat="Shortest" FirstDayOfWeek="Monday" Font-Bold="True" Font-Names="Verdana" Font-Size="8pt" ForeColor="Gray" Height="102px" OnSelectionChanged="calStartDate_SelectionChanged" OtherMonthDayStyle-ForeColor="gray" SelectedDayStyle-BackColor="Navy" SelectedDayStyle-Font-Bold="True" SelectorStyle-BackColor="gainsboro" ShowGridLines="True" TitleStyle-BackColor="gray" TitleStyle-Font-Bold="True" TitleStyle-Font-Size="12px" TodayDayStyle-BackColor="gainsboro" Visible="False" Width="62px"> <SelectedDayStyle BackColor="#404040" Font-Bold="True" /> <TodayDayStyle BackColor="#3A080B" ForeColor="White" /> <SelectorStyle BackColor="#FFCC66" /> <OtherMonthDayStyle ForeColor="#CC9966" /> <NextPrevStyle Font-Size="9pt" ForeColor="#3A080B" /> <DayHeaderStyle BackColor="#3A080B" Font-Bold="True" Height="1px" ForeColor="White" /> <TitleStyle BackColor="#E0C16B" Font-Bold="True" Font-Size="9pt" ForeColor="#3A080B" /> </asp:Calendar> </asp:Panel>

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  • Fixed div background

    - by Fahad
    I want to create a layout where I want to display an image to the left and content on the right. The image should stay constant when the content scrolls. The css I'm using: <style type="text/css"> html, body { margin:0; padding:0; } #page-container { margin:auto; width:900px; background-color:Black; background-image:url('images/desired_layout.png'); background-attachment: fixed; background-repeat:no-repeat; } #main-image { float:left; width:250px; height:687px; background-image:url('images/desired_layout.png'); background-attachment:fixed; background-repeat:no-repeat; } #content { margin-left:250px; background-color:Olive; height:800px; width:650px; } </style> The HTML: <div id="page-container"> <div id="main-image"></div> <div id="content"></div> </div> Alot of time on this site and I have understood that background-attachment:fixed positions the image in the entire viewport and not the element it is applied to. My question is how do I go about creating that kind of layout? I do not want to give that image as a background image, as if the window is resized, it might get hidden. I want scrollbars to appear if the window size is less than 900px( my page width) so that the image can be viewed at all times. That happens with this code, however I would like the image to start at my element instead. How do I go about doing this?? Thanks in Advance :)

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  • Spring MVC: How to resolve the path to subdirectories of the root 'JSP' folder in a web application

    - by chrisjleu
    What is a simple way to resolve the path to a JSP file that is not located in the root JSP directory of a web application using SpringMVCs viewResolvers? For example, suppose we have the following web application structure: web-app |-WEB-INF |-jsp |-secure |-admin.jsp |-admin2.jsp index.jsp login.jsp I would like to use some out-of-the-box components to resolve the JSP files within the jsp root folder and the secure subdirectory. I have a *-servlet.xml file that defines: an out-of-the-box, InternalResourceViewResolver: <bean id="jspViewResolver" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.InternalResourceViewResolver"> <property name="viewClass" value="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.JstlView"></property> <property name="prefix" value="/WEB-INF/jsp/"></property> <property name="suffix" value=".jsp"></property> </bean> a handler mapping: <bean id="handlerMapping" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.handler.SimpleUrlHandlerMapping"> <property name="mappings"> <props> <prop key="/index.htm">urlFilenameViewController</prop> <prop key="/login.htm">urlFilenameViewController</prop> <prop key="/secure/**">urlFilenameViewController</prop> </props> </property> </bean> an out-of-the-box UrlFilenameViewController controller: <bean id="urlFilenameViewController" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.UrlFilenameViewController"> </bean> The problem I have is that requests to the JSPs in the secure directory cannot be resolved, as the jspViewResolver only has a prefix defined as /jsp/ and not /jsp/secure/. Is there a way to handle subdirectories like this? I would prefer to keep this structure because I'm also trying to make use of Spring Security and having all secure pages in a subdirectory is a nice way to do this. There's probably a simple way to acheive this but I'm new to Spring and the Spring MVC framework so any pointers would be appreciated.

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  • When developing a Microsoft Office Add-In (for Word), is it possible to store hidden metadata inform

    - by leftend
    I am trying to store metadata (basically a unique id) along with each cell of a table in a Word document. Currently, for the add-in I'm developing, I am querying the database, and building a table inside the Word document using the data that is retrieved. I want to be able to save any of the user's edits to the document, and persist it back to the database. My initial thought was to store a unique id along with each cell in the table so that I would be able to tell which records to update. I would also like to store some sort of "isChanged" flag within each cell so that I could tell which cells were changed. I found that I could add the needed information into the "ID" property of the cell - however, that information was not retained if the user saved the document, closed it, and re-opened it. I then tried storing the data by adding a data to the "Fields" collection - but that did not work and threw a runtime error. Here is the code that I tried: object t1 = Word.WdFieldType.wdFieldEmpty; object val = "myValue: " + counter; object preserveFormatting = true; tbl.Cell(i, j).Range.Fields.Add(tbl.Cell(i, j).Range, ref t1, ref val, ref preserveFormatting); This compiles fine, but throws this runtime error "This command is not available". So, is this possible at all? Or am I headed in the wrong direction? Thanks in advance.

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  • Issue editing class style properties using js - issue is with IE

    - by Nick
    I have a function to edit the style properties of a class Unfortunately IE does not seem to like it but it does not give me an error. Does anyone know what the issue is? Thanks in advance function myRemoveElement(id) { var Node = document.getElementById(id); Node.parentNode.removeChild(Node); } function boolyChangeFoo(width1, width2, width3, width4) { if(typeof style == 'undefined') { var append = true; myStyle = document.createElement('style'); } else { while (myStyle.hasChildNodes()) { myStyle.removeChild(myStyle.firstChild); } } if (document.getElementById('my_custom_styles')) { myRemoveElement('my_custom_styles'); } var head = document.getElementById('myltd_popup_1'); var rules = document.createTextNode('.my_price_comp_inner { width: ' + width1 + '}' + '.merch_coupons_summary { width: ' + width2 + '}' + '.merch_coupons_data { width: ' + width3 + '}' + '.my_coupon_prod_item { width: ' + width4 + '}' ); myStyle.setAttribute('type','text/css'); myStyle.setAttribute('id', 'my_custom_styles'); if(myStyle.styleSheet) { myStyle.styleSheet.cssText = rules.nodeValue; } else { myStyle.appendChild(rules); } //alert(myStyle); if(append === true) head.appendChild(myStyle); }

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  • jquery validate not submitting after modal close bootstrap

    - by Mariana Hernandez
    I have a modal where i insert some data, but when i open the modal, close it, and the click the modal show button again, it doesnt submit of course because the validate is "acting" in the modal, but i closed it so its not showing... how can i prevent this? thanks it is similar to this jquery functions within modal only work on first open, after close and re-open they stop working but my functions are <script> $(document).ready(function() { $("#myModal").modal('show'); }); </script> and the validation one <script> $(document).ready(function(){ $('#form1').validate( { ignore: "", rules: { usu_login: { required: true }, usu_password: { required: true }, usu_email: { required: true }, usu_nombre1: { required: true }, usu_apellido1: { required: true }, usu_fecha_nac: { required: true }, usu_cedula: { required: true }, usu_telefono1: { required: true }, rol_id: { required: true }, dependencia_id: { required: true }, }, highlight: function(element) { $(element).closest('.grupo').addClass('has-error'); if($(".tab-content").find("div.tab-pane.active:has(div.has-error)").length == 0) { $(".tab-content").find("div.tab-pane:hidden:has(div.has-error)").each(function(index, tab) { var id = $(tab).attr("id"); $('a[href="#' + id + '"]').tab('show'); }); } }, unhighlight: function(element) { $(element).closest('.grupo').removeClass('has-error'); } }); }); </script> So i dont know how to apply the answer of the above =(

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  • Translating CURL to FLEX HTTPRequests

    - by Joshua
    I am trying to convert from some CURL code to FLEX/ActionScript. Since I am 100% ignorant about CURL and 50% ignorant about Flex and 90% ignorant on HTTP in general... I'm having some significant difficulty. The following CURL code is from http://code.google.com/p/ga-api-http-samples/source/browse/trunk/src/v2/accountFeed.sh I have every reason to believe that it's working correctly. USER_EMAIL="[email protected]" #Insert your Google Account email here USER_PASS="secretpass" #Insert your password here googleAuth="$(curl https://www.google.com/accounts/ClientLogin -s \ -d Email=$USER_EMAIL \ -d Passwd=$USER_PASS \ -d accountType=GOOGLE \ -d source=curl-accountFeed-v2 \ -d service=analytics \ | awk /Auth=.*/)" feedUri="https://www.google.com/analytics/feeds/accounts/default\ ?prettyprint=true" curl $feedUri --silent \ --header "Authorization: GoogleLogin $googleAuth" \ --header "GData-Version: 2" The following is my abortive attempt to translate the above CURL to AS3 var request:URLRequest=new URLRequest("https://www.google.com/analytics/feeds/accounts/default"); request.method=URLRequestMethod.POST; var GoogleAuth:String="$(curl https://www.google.com/accounts/ClientLogin -s " + "-d [email protected] " + "-d Passwd=secretpass " + "-d accountType=GOOGLE " + "-d source=curl-accountFeed-v2" + "-d service=analytics " + "| awk /Auth=.*/)"; request.requestHeaders.push(new URLRequestHeader("Authorization", "GoogleLogin " + GoogleAuth)); request.requestHeaders.push(new URLRequestHeader("GData-Version", "2")); var loader:URLLoader=new URLLoader(); loader.dataFormat=URLLoaderDataFormat.BINARY; loader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, GACompleteHandler); loader.addEventListener(IOErrorEvent.IO_ERROR, GAErrorHandler); loader.addEventListener(SecurityErrorEvent.SECURITY_ERROR, GAErrorHandler); loader.load(request); This probably provides you all with a good laugh, and that's okay, but if you can find any pity on me, please let me know what I'm missing. I readily admit functional ineptitude, therefore letting me know how stupid I am is optional.

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  • QUnit Unit Testing: Test Mouse Click

    - by Ngu Soon Hui
    I have the following HTML code: <div id="main"> <form Id="search-form" action="/ViewRecord/AllRecord" method="post"> <div> <fieldset> <legend>Search</legend> <p> <label for="username">Staff name</label> <input id="username" name="username" type="text" value="" /> <label for="softype"> software type</label> <input type="submit" value="Search" /> </p> </fieldset> </div> </form> </div> And the following Javascript code ( with JQuery as the library): $(function() { $("#username").click(function() { $.getJSON("ViewRecord/GetSoftwareChoice", {}, function(data) { // use data to manipulate other controls }); }); }); Now, how to test $("#username").click so that for a given input, it calls the correct url ( in this case, its ViewRecord/GetSoftwareChoice) And, the output is expected (in this case, function(data)) behaves correctly? Any idea how to do this with QUnit? Edit: I read the QUnit examples, but they seem to be dealing with a simple scenario with no AJAX interaction. And although there are ASP.NET MVC examples, but I think they are really testing the output of the server to an AJAX call, i.e., it's still testing the server response, not the AJAX response. What I want is how to test the client side response.

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  • jquery-sortable using behavior of a linkedlist

    - by BabaBooey
    I suspect I'm not looking at this issue in the right way so here goes. I have essentially a LinkedList of data on a web page (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Linked_list) that I'd like to manipulate using traditional Linked List behavior (i.e. just updating the reference/id of the "next" object) for performance reasons. Where this gets a bit tricky is I'd ideally like to use Jquery's sortable to do this. Like the user would drag something up/down and I could just do an Ajax call to the server with the id of the object that moved and the new parent id of that object (and then behind the scenes I could figure out how to reconnect things..maybe need more data than that...). But every example I've seen where sortable is used they were sending the whole re-indexed list to the database to update which seems unnecessary to me. With a linked list to change an element's "index" I only need to make 3 updates which depending on the size of the list could be a big performance savings. Anyone have an example of what I'm trying to do...am I too far in left field?

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  • Generic object to object mapping with parametrized constructor

    - by Rody van Sambeek
    I have a data access layer which returns an IDataRecord. I have a WCF service that serves DataContracts (dto's). These DataContracts are initiated by a parametrized constructor containing the IDataRecord as follows: [DataContract] public class DataContractItem { [DataMember] public int ID; [DataMember] public string Title; public DataContractItem(IDataRecord record) { this.ID = Convert.ToInt32(record["ID"]); this.Title = record["title"].ToString(); } } Unfortanately I can't change the DAL, so I'm obliged to work with the IDataRecord as input. But in generat this works very well. The mappings are pretty simple most of the time, sometimes they are a bit more complex, but no rocket science. However, now I'd like to be able to use generics to instantiate the different DataContracts to simplify the WCF service methods. I want to be able to do something like: public T DoSomething<T>(IDataRecord record) { ... return new T(record); } So I'd tried to following solutions: Use a generic typed interface with a constructor. doesn't work: ofcourse we can't define a constructor in an interface Use a static method to instantiate the DataContract and create a typed interface containing this static method. doesn't work: ofcourse we can't define a static method in an interface Use a generic typed interface containing the new() constraint doesn't work: new() constraint cannot contain a parameter (the IDataRecord) Using a factory object to perform the mapping based on the DataContract Type. does work, but: not very clean, because I now have a switch statement with all mappings in one file. I can't find a real clean solution for this. Can somebody shed a light on this for me? The project is too small for any complex mapping techniques and too large for a "switch-based" factory implementation.

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  • How to access "Custom" or non-System TFS workitem fields using PowerShell?

    - by DaBozUK
    When using PowerShell to extract information from TFS, I find that I can get at the standard fields but not "Custom" fields. I'm not sure custom is the correct term, but for example if I look at the Process Editor in VS2008 and edit the Work Item type, there are fields such as listed below, with Name, Type and RefName: Title String System.Title State String System.State Rev Integer System.Rev Changed By String System.ChangedBy I can access these with Get-TfsItemHistory: Get-TfsItemHistory "$/path" -Version "D01/12/10~" -R | Select -exp WorkItems | Format-Table Title, State, Rev, ChangedBy -Auto So far so good. However, there are also some other fields in the WorkItem type, which I'm calling "Custom" or non-System fields, e.g.: Activated By String Microsoft.VSTS.Common.ActivatedBy Resolved By String Microsoft.VSTS.Common.ResolvedBy And the following command does not retrieve the data, just spaces. Get-TfsItemHistory "$/path" -Version "D01/12/10~" -R | Select -exp WorkItems | Format-Table ActivatedBy, ResolvedBy -Auto I've also tried the names in quotes, the fully qualified refname, but no luck. How do you access these "non-System" fields? Thanks Boz UPDATE: From Keith's answer I can get the fields I need: Get-TfsItemHistory "$/Hermes/Main" -Version "D01/12/10~" -Recurse ` | Select ChangeSetId, Comment -exp WorkItems ` | Select ChangeSetId, Comment, @{n='WI-Id'; e={$_.Id}}, Title -exp Fields ` | Where {$_.ReferenceName -eq 'Microsoft.VSTS.Common.ResolvedBy'} ` | Format-Table ChangesetId, Comment, WI-Id, Title, @{n='Resolved By'; e={$_.Value}} -Auto

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  • How to run javascript on an ajax output?

    - by WAC0020
    I am using jquery-ui tabs and ajax to load the content of the tabs. Here is my javascript: $(document).ready(function() { $("#tabs").tabs({ fx: { opacity: 'toggle' } }); $('.hd_item').hover(function() { //Display the caption $(this).find('span.hd_caption').stop(false,true).fadeIn(600); }, function() { //Hide the caption $(this).find('span.hd_caption').stop(false,true).fadeOut(400); }); }); When the user clicks on the tab is will load the content.php via ajax. The output of the ajax is: <li class="hd_item"> <img title="Backyard Brawl" alt="Backyard Brawl" src="games/normal_icons/1844.png" id="hd_icon"> <span class="hd_caption"> <h1>Backyard Brawl</h1> <p id="hd_description">In this game you pick a player and beat each other up with ...</p> <p id="hd_stat">Added: <br>2009-12-14</p><a href="/dirtpilegames/index.php?ground=games&amp;action=play&amp;dig=backyard-brawl">PLAY</a> </span> </li> The problem that I am having is the javascript is not working on the ajax output. How to I get it to work on it?

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  • django+mod_wsgi on virtualenv not working

    - by jwesonga
    I've just finished setting up a django app on virtualenv, deployment went smoothly using a fabric script, but now the .wsgi is not working, I've tried every variation on the internet but no luck. My .wsgi file is: import os import sys import django.core.handlers.wsgi # put the Django project on sys.path root_path = os.path.abspath(os.path.dirname(__file__) + '../') sys.path.insert(0, os.path.join(root_path, 'kcdf')) sys.path.insert(0, root_path) os.environ['DJANGO_SETTINGS_MODULE'] = 'kcdf.settings' application = django.core.handlers.wsgi.WSGIHandler() I keep getting the same error: [Sun Apr 18 12:44:30 2010] [error] [client 41.215.123.159] mod_wsgi (pid=16938): Exception occurred processing WSGI script '/home/kcdfweb/webapps/kcdf.web/releases/current/kcdf/apache/kcdf.wsgi'. [Sun Apr 18 12:44:30 2010] [error] [client 41.215.123.159] Traceback (most recent call last): [Sun Apr 18 12:44:30 2010] [error] [client 41.215.123.159] File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/core/handlers/wsgi.py", line 230, in __call__ [Sun Apr 18 12:44:30 2010] [error] [client 41.215.123.159] self.load_middleware() [Sun Apr 18 12:44:30 2010] [error] [client 41.215.123.159] File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/core/handlers/base.py", line 33, in load_middleware [Sun Apr 18 12:44:30 2010] [error] [client 41.215.123.159] for middleware_path in settings.MIDDLEWARE_CLASSES: [Sun Apr 18 12:44:30 2010] [error] [client 41.215.123.159] File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/utils/functional.py", line 269, in __getattr__ [Sun Apr 18 12:44:30 2010] [error] [client 41.215.123.159] self._setup() [Sun Apr 18 12:44:30 2010] [error] [client 41.215.123.159] File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/conf/__init__.py", line 40, in _setup [Sun Apr 18 12:44:30 2010] [error] [client 41.215.123.159] self._wrapped = Settings(settings_module) [Sun Apr 18 12:44:30 2010] [error] [client 41.215.123.159] File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/conf/__init__.py", line 75, in __init__ [Sun Apr 18 12:44:30 2010] [error] [client 41.215.123.159] raise ImportError, "Could not import settings '%s' (Is it on sys.path? Does it have syntax errors?): %s" % (self.SETTINGS_MODULE, e) [Sun Apr 18 12:44:30 2010] [error] [client 41.215.123.159] ImportError: Could not import settings 'kcdf.settings' (Is it on sys.path? Does it have syntax errors?): No module named kcdf.settings my virtual environment is on /home/user/webapps/kcdfweb my app is /home/user/webapps/kcdf.web/releases/current/project_name my wsgi file home/user/webapps/kcdf.web/releases/current/project_name/apache/project_name.wsgi

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  • Parsing email with Python

    - by Manuel Ceron
    I'm writing a Python script to process emails returned from Procmail. As suggested in this question, I'm using the following Procmail config: :0: |$HOME/process_mail.py My process_mail.py script is receiving an email via stdin like this: From hostname Tue Jun 15 21:43:30 2010 Received: (qmail 8580 invoked from network); 15 Jun 2010 21:43:22 -0400 Received: from mail-fx0-f44.google.com (209.85.161.44) by ip-73-187-35-131.ip.secureserver.net with SMTP; 15 Jun 2010 21:43:22 -0400 Received: by fxm19 with SMTP id 19so170709fxm.3 for <[email protected]>; Tue, 15 Jun 2010 18:47:33 -0700 (PDT) MIME-Version: 1.0 Received: by 10.103.84.1 with SMTP id m1mr2774225mul.26.1276652853684; Tue, 15 Jun 2010 18:47:33 -0700 (PDT) Received: by 10.123.143.4 with HTTP; Tue, 15 Jun 2010 18:47:33 -0700 (PDT) Date: Tue, 15 Jun 2010 20:47:33 -0500 Message-ID: <[email protected]> Subject: TEST 12 From: Full Name <[email protected]> To: [email protected] Content-Type: text/plain; charset=ISO-8859-1 ONE TWO THREE I'm trying to parse the message in this way: >>> import email >>> msg = email.message_from_string(full_message) I want to get message fields like 'From', 'To' and 'Subject'. However, the message object does not contain any of these fields. What am I doing wrong?

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  • PHP - fgetcsv - Delimiter being ignored?

    - by KnockKnockWhosThere
    I'm trying to output each line in a csv file, and it seems like the delimiter is being ignored... I'm sure my syntax is wrong somewhere, but can't seem to pinpoint it... The CSV file looks like this: ID,Code,Count TM768889,02001,10 TM768889,02002,10 TM768889,02003,10 TM768889,02004,10 TM768889,02005,10 I'm trying to output: 0 - ID,Code,Count 1 - TM768889,02001,10 2 - TM768889,02002,10 3 - TM768889,02003,10 4 - TM768889,02004,10 5 - TM768889,02005,10 But instead, it's outputting this: 0 - ID 1 - Code 2 - Count TM768889 3 - 02001 4 - 10 TM768889 5 - 02002 6 - 10 TM768889 7 - 02003 8 - 10 TM768889 9 - 02004 10 - 10 TM768889 11 - 02005 12 - 10 Here's my code: $row = 0; if(($handle = fopen($_FILES["Filedata"]["tmp_name"], "r")) !== FALSE) { $string = ''; while(($line = fgetcsv($handle,1000,",")) !== FALSE) { $num = count($line); $row++; for($c=0; $c < $num; $c++) { $string .= $c.' - '.$line[$c].'<br />'; } } fclose($handle); echo $string; }

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  • How to build a JSON response by combining @foo.to_json(options) and @bars.to_json(options) in Rails

    - by smotchkkiss
    First, the desired result I have User and Item models. I'd like to build a JSON response that looks like this: { "user": {"username":"Bob!","foo":"whatever","bar":"hello!"}, "items": [ {"id":1, "name":"one", "zim":"planet", "gir":"earth"}, {"id":2, "name":"two", "zim":"planet", "gir":"mars"} ] } However, my User and Item model have more attributes than just those. I found a way to get this to work, but beware, it's not pretty... Please help... My hacks home_controller.rb class HomeController < ApplicationController def observe respond_to do |format| format.js { render :json => Observation.new(current_user, @items).to_json } end end end observation.rb # NOTE: this is not a subclass of ActiveRecord::Base # this class just serves as a container to aggregate all "observable" objects class Observation attr_accessor :user, :items def initialize(user, items) self.user = user self.items = items end # The JSON needs to be decoded before it's sent to the `to_json` method in the home_controller otherwise the JSON will be escaped... # What a mess! def to_json { :user => ActiveSupport::JSON.decode(user.to_json(:only => :username, :methods => [:foo, :bar])), :items => ActiveSupport::JSON.decode(auctions.to_json(:only => [:id, :name], :methods => [:zim, :gir])) } end end

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  • How do I forward `<Ctrl>-<Tab>` in Konsole?

    - by M. Tibbits
    I want to use intelligent tabbing in Emacs in C++ mode, but I also want to be able to insert a tab character when necessary. From other posts, I gather that the easiest way is to bind <Ctrl>-<Tab> to indent. However, it appears that Konsole in KUbuntu won't forward the <Ctrl>? My current .emacs file contains: (defun my-c-mode-common-hook () (setq c++-tab-always-indent t) (setq tab-width 4) (setq indent-tabs-mode t) ) (add-hook 'c-mode-common-hook 'my-c-mode-common-hook) (global-set-key [C-tab] 'self-insert-command) So I believe that this will bind <Ctrl>-<Tab> to inserting a tab character. However, when I run: <Ctrl>-h k <Ctrl>-<Tab> Emacs only reports that I pressed the tab key. Is there some option to Konsole (which I have searched through to no avail) or global preferences in KUbuntu that I need to set so that the <Ctrl>- is also forwarded? (It certainly forwards all of the other <Ctrl>-blah commands.)

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  • Rails: Oracle constraint violation

    - by justinbach
    I'm doing maintenance work on a Rails site that I inherited; it's driven by an Oracle database, and I've got access to both development and production installations of the site (each with its own Oracle DB). I'm running into an Oracle error when trying to insert data on the production site, but not the dev site: ActiveRecord::StatementInvalid (OCIError: ORA-00001: unique constraint (DATABASE_NAME.PK_REGISTRATION_OWNERSHIP) violated: INSERT INTO registration_ownerships (updated_at, company_ownership_id, created_by, updated_by, registration_id, created_at) VALUES ('2006-05-04 16:30:47', 3, NULL, NULL, 2920, '2006-05-04 16:30:47')): /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-oracle-adapter-1.0.0.9250/lib/active_record/connection_adapters/oracle_adapter.rb:221:in `execute' app/controllers/vendors_controller.rb:94:in `create' As far as I can tell (I'm using Navicat as an Oracle client), the DB schema for the dev site is identical to that of the live site. I'm not an Oracle expert; can anyone shed light on why I'd be getting the error in one installation and not the other? Incidentally, both dev and production registration_ownerships tables are populated with lots of data, including duplicate entries for country_ownership_id (driven by index PK_REGISTRATION_OWNERSHIP). Please let me know if you need more information to troubleshoot. I'm sorry I haven't given more already, but I just wasn't sure which details would be helpful.

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