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  • Why can't I set boolean columns with update?

    - by Benjamin Oakes
    I'm making a user administration page. For the system I'm creating, users need to be approved. Sometimes, there will be many users to approve, so I'd like to make that easy. I'm storing this as a boolean column called approved. I remembered the Edit Multiple Individually Railscast and thought it would be a great fit. However, I'm running into problems which I traced back to ActiveRecord::Base#update. update works fine in this example: >> User.all.map(&:username) => ["ben", "fred"] >> h = {"1"=>{'username'=>'benjamin'}, "2"=>{"username"=>'frederick'}} => {"1"=>{"username"=>"benjamin"}, "2"=>{"username"=>"frederick"}} >> User.update(h.keys, h.values) => ... >> User.all.map(&:username) => ["benjamin", "frederick"] But not this one: >> User.all.map(&:approved) => [true, nil] >> h = {"1"=>{'approved'=>'1'}, "2"=>{'approved'=>'1'}} >> User.update(h.keys, h.values) => ... >> User.all.map(&:approved) => [true, nil] Chaging from '1' to true didn't make a difference when I tested. What am I doing wrong?

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  • please clarify some aspects of AJAX with ASP.NET web forms for a beginner

    - by citrus
    Im familiar with asp.net web forms. I would now like to move on to writing web applications that use AJAX. I would like to get to the stage where I can create an app: that has "edit in place" (no page reload) where i can reorder images using drag and drop (also saves the order to DB) that has google like search suggestions while typing on the fly 1)So do I need to learn how to use AJAX.net and Jquery(my JS library of choice)? Can I make do using only AJAX.net or only Jquery? 2)As far a I know, Jquery will allow me to perform client side manipulations/actions and AJAX.net is the part that will allow me to connect some of my actions to the Server. EG. if I wanted to re-order elements using drag and drop, I would use Jquery, but in order to save the result of the re-order to the DB I would have to use AJAX.net correct? 2a)So In order to learn how to do the above Im thinking I should first learn Jquery so I know how to manipulate/ select elements, and then I can lean how to save these changes to the DB. 3)I searched the books titled "ASP.net AJAX in action" and ASP.net 3.5 AJAX, both of these books did not contain any references to "Jquery". Is this because they may be using a different JS library, or perhaps the book focuses on the AJAX user controls? I just found it confusing that 2 popular AJAX books dont make any reference to Jquery. Thanks for any help.

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  • Java Collections and Garbage Collector

    - by Anth0
    A little question regarding performance in a Java web app. Let's assume I have a List<Rubrique> listRubriques with ten Rubrique objects. A Rubrique contains one list of products (List<product> listProducts) and one list of clients (List<Client> listClients). What exactly happens in memory if I do this: listRubriques.clear(); listRubriques = null; My point of view would be that, since listRubriques is empty, all my objects previously referenced by this list (including listProducts and listClients) will be garbage collected pretty soon. But since Collection in Java are a little bit tricky and since I have quite performance issues with my app i'm asking the question :) edit : let's assume now that my Client object contains a List<Client>. Therefore, I have kind of a circular reference between my objects. What would happen then if my listRubrique is set to null? This time, my point of view would be that my Client objects will become "unreachable" and might create a memory leak?

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  • Scrolling down to next element via keypress & scrollTo plugin - jQuery

    - by lyrae
    I am using jQuery's scrollTo plugin to scroll up and down my page, using UP arrow and DOWN arrow. i have a bunch of div with class "screen", as so: <div class="screen-wrapper">...</div> What I am trying to do is, when i press UP or DOWN, the window scrolls to the next, or previous div with class of "screen". I have the keypresses taken care of. According to the plugin docs, to scroll a window, you use $.scrollTo(...); Here's the code I have: $(document).keypress(function(e){ switch (e.keyCode) { case 40: // down n = $('.screen-wrapper').next() $.scrollTo( n, 800 ); break; case 38: // up break; case 37: // left break; case 39: // right break; } }); And if it helps, here's the HTML div. I have a few of these on the page, and essentially, am trying to scroll to next one by pressing down arrow: <div class='screen-wrapper'> <div class='screen'> <div class="sections"> <ul> <li><img src="images/portfolio/sushii-1.png " /></li> <li><img src="images/portfolio/sushii-2.png" /></li> <li><img src="images/portfolio/sushii-3.png" /></li> </ul> </div> <div class="next"></div> <div class="prev"></div> </div> And also if it needed, I can provide a link where this is being used if it'll help someone get a better idea. edit And, i forgot to mention what the real question here is. The question/problem is that it won't scroll down past the first element, as seth mentioned.

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  • Dashcode code translation

    - by Alex Mcp
    Hi, a quick, probably easy question whose answer is probably "best practice" I'm following a tutorial for a custom-template mobile Safari webapp, and to change views around this code is used: function btnSave_ClickHandler(event) { var views = document.getElementById('stackLayout'); var front = document.getElementById('mainScreen'); if (views && views.object && front) { views.object.setCurrentView(front, true); } } My question is just about the if conditional statement. What is this triplet saying, and why do each of those things need to be verified before the view can be changed? Does views.object just test to see if the views variable responds to the object method? Why is this important? EDIT - This is/was the main point of this question, and it regards not Javascript as a language and how if loops work, but rather WHY these 3 things specifically need to be checked: Under what scenarios might views and front not exist? I don't typically write my code so redundantly. If the name of my MySQL table isn't changing, I'll just say UPDATE 'mytable' WHERE... instead of the much more verbose (and in my view, redundant) $mytable = "TheSQLTableName"; if ($mytable == an actual table && $mytable exists && entries can be updated){ UPDATE $mytable; } Whereas if the table's name (or in the JS example, the view's names) ARE NOT "hard coded" but are instead a user input or otherwise mutable, I might right my code as the DashCode example has it. So tell me, can these values "go wrong" anyhow? Thanks!

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  • How to force c# binary int division to return a double?

    - by Wayne
    How to force double x = 3 / 2; to return 1.5 in x without the D suffix or casting? Is there any kind of operator overload that can be done? Or some compiler option? Amazingly, it's not so simple to add the casting or suffix for the following reason: Business users need to write and debug their own formulas. Presently C# is getting used like a DSL (domain specific language) in that these users aren't computer science engineers. So all they know is how to edit and create a few types of classes to hold their "business rules" which are generally just math formulas. But they always assume that double x = 3 / 2; will return x = 1.5 however in C# that returns 1. A. they always forget this, waste time debugging, call me for support and we fix it. B. they think it's very ugly and hurts the readability of their business rules. As you know, DSL's need to be more like natural language. Yes. We are planning to move to Boo and build a DSL based on it but that's down the road. Is there a simple solution to make double x = 3 / 2; return 1.5 by something external to the class so it's invisible to the users? Thanks! Wayne

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  • How to force c# binary int division to return a double?

    - by Wayne
    How to force double x = 3 / 2; to return 1.5 in x without the D suffix or casting? Is there any kind of operator overload that can be done? Or some compiler option? Amazingly, it's not so simple to add the casting or suffix for the following reason: Business users need to write and debug their own formulas. Presently C# is getting used like a DSL (domain specific language) in that these users aren't computer science engineers. So all they know is how to edit and create a few types of classes to hold their "business rules" which are generally just math formulas. But they always assume that double x = 3 / 2; will return x = 1.5 however in C# that returns 1. A. they always forget this, waste time debugging, call me for support and we fix it. B. they think it's very ugly and hurts the readability of their business rules. As you know, DSL's need to be more like natural language. Yes. We are planning to move to Boo and build a DSL based on it but that's down the road. Is there a simple solution to make double x = 3 / 2; return 1.5 by something external to the class so it's invisible to the users? Thanks! Wayne

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  • Where to find algorithms for standard math functions?

    - by dsimcha
    I'm looking to submit a patch to the D programming language standard library that will allow much of std.math to be evaluated at compile time using the compile-time function evaluation facilities of the language. Compile-time function evaluation has several limitations, the most important ones being: You can't use assembly language. You can't call C code or code for which the source is otherwise unavailable. Several std.math functions violate these and compile-time versions need to be written. Where can I get information on good algorithms for computing things such as logarithms, exponents, powers, and trig functions? I prefer just high level descriptions of algorithms to actual code, for two reasons: To avoid legal ambiguity and the need to make my code look "different enough" from the source to make sure I own the copyright. I want simple, portable algorithms. I don't care about micro-optimization as long as they're at least asymptotically efficient. Edit: D's compile time function evaluation model allows floating point results computed at compile time to differ from those computed at runtime anyhow, so I don't care if my compile-time algorithms don't give exactly the same result as the runtime version as long as they aren't less accurate to a practically significant extent.

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  • Replace image in word doc using OpenXML

    - by fearofawhackplanet
    Following on from my last question here OpenXML looks like it probably does exactly what I want, but the documentation is terrible. An hour of googling hasn't got me any closer to figuring out what I need to do. I have a word document. I want to add an image to that word document (using word) in such a way that I can then open the document in OpenXML and replace that image. Should be simple enough, yes? I'm assuming I should be able to give my image 'placeholder' an id of some sort and then use GetPartById to locate the image and replace it. Would this be the correct method? What is this Id? How do you add it using Word? Every example I can find which does anything remotely similar starts by building the whole word document from scratch in ML, which really isn't a lot of use. EDIT: it occured to me that it would be easier to just replace the image in the media folder with the new image, but again can't find any indication of how to do this.

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  • using alias parameters in window command prompt

    - by freshWoWer
    Source:http://jpsoft.com/help/index.htm?alias.htm Aliases can use command line parameters or parameters like those in batch files. The command line parameters are numbered from %0 to %511. (%0 contains the alias name.) For example, the following alias will change directories, perform a command, and return to the original directory: alias in pushd %1 & %2$ & popd when i run the above, my command prompt gives error saying %1 * Unable to read value of alias * '%2' is not recognized as an internal or external command, operable program or batch file. 'popd`' is not recognized as an internal or external command, operable program or batch file. if you use double quote instead, alias in "pushd %1 & dir & popd" it doesn't interprets the %1 when you execute the alias C:\abc\defalias Dumping all defined aliases for CMD.EXE. in =pushd %1 & dir & popd alias def wont work ---------EDIT------------ let me try some sample output with a simple echo alias D:\abc\defalias /? Usage: ALIAS [-v] [-p programName] [-f filespec] [ ] [-v] means verbose output. [-d] means delete aliases. [-p programName] specifies which image file name these alias definitions are for. Default is CMD.EXE [-f filespec] specifies a file which contains the alises. C:\Office\dev15alias out 'echo %1' %1' * Unable to read value of alias * C:\Office\dev15alias out backtick echo %1 backtick %1` * Unable to read value of alias * C:\Office\dev15alias out "echo %1" C:\Office\dev15alias Dumping all defined aliases for CMD.EXE. out =echo %1 C:\Office\dev15out abc %1 C:\Office\dev15alias out echo %1 %1 * Unable to read value of alias * C:\Office\dev15out abc ECHO is on. Problem is, both single quote and back tick produces error, while double quote wont treat %1 as variable parameter

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  • WPF TexBox TwoWay Binding Problem when ValidationRules used

    - by ignis
    I seem to have a problem with TwoWay DataBinding - my application has a window with a bunch of textboxes that allow to edit values of the properties they are bound to. Everything works well except for textboxes that also have a validation rule defined, in which case no text is displayed in the textbox when the window opens (binding back-to-source still works fine for those). If I remove Validation rule, everything's back to normal. I searched for an answer to this for a few hours now, but somehow did not even find anyone else complaining of the same issue. I am completely new to WPF, and I am sure it is just a silly mistake I have somewhere in my code... I will greatly appreciate any feedback... <TextBox Margin="40,2,20,0" Grid.Column="0" Grid.Row="1" Background="#99FFFFFF" > <Binding Path="LastName" Mode="TwoWay" ValidatesOnDataErrors="true" UpdateSourceTrigger="LostFocus" > <Binding.ValidationRules> <validation:StringNameValidationRule /> </Binding.ValidationRules> </Binding> </TextBox>

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  • cl.exe Difference in object files when /E output is the same and flags are the same

    - by madiyaan damha
    Hello: I am using Visual Studio 2005's cl.exe compiler. I call it with a bunch of /I /D and some compilation/optimization flags (example: /Ehsc). I have two compilation scripts, and both differ only in the /I flags (include directories are different). All other flags are the same. These scripts produce different object files (and not just a timestamp difference as noted below). The strange thing is that the /E output of both scripts is the same. That means that the include files are not causing the difference in object files, but then again, where is the difference coming from? Can anyone elucidate on how I am seeing two different object files in my situation. If the include files are causing the difference, how come I see identical /E output? PS. The object files are different not only in the timestamp, but in the code sections also. In fact the behavior of my final executable is different in both cases. Edit: PSS: I even looked at the /includeFiles output of cl.exe and that output is identical. The object files, however, differ in more than just the timestamp (in fact, one is 1KB bigger than another!)

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  • Hidden controls, iframes or divs

    - by user287745
    What happens to the controls or the iframe or the div, which are hidden? Do they get transferred to the user side? Disabled: does it get transferred to the user side? What I want is, an aspx page will be having many iframes to display different pages. There will be many div tags to display CSS formatted information. To understand what I mean by many:- I have to transfer a complete website with 30 aspx pages into one single page! I have simply combined everything resulting in one extremely huge page. My concern is that on local host it loads fast, but when on online server accessed by numerous people for education purposes, the site (ONE PAGE) WILL SLOW DOWN terribly. To overcome this I thought of using hidden and disable options. What is an improved way of achieving the above? Yes, it sounds silly but this is the requirement. Edit: Yes, I know id and server tag must be set, but what I am asking will the div tag be sent to the user's browser? One answer is no. So can I enable them using JavaScript? Like document.getElementById(id).style.visibility="visible" What if I disable them, and from coding of JavaScript enable them? Will they be loaded at the time of enabling?

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  • Connecting to a network drive programmatically and caching credentials

    - by Chris Doggett
    I'm finally set up to be able to work from home via VPN (using Shrew as a client), and I only have one annoyance. We use some batch files to upload config files to a network drive. Works fine from work, and from my team lead's laptop, but both of those machines are on the domain. My home system is not, and won't be, so when I run the batch file, I get a ton of "invalid drive" errors because I'm not a domain user. The solution I've found so far is to make a batch file with the following: explorer \\MACHINE1 explorer \\MACHINE2 explorer \\MACHINE3 Then manually login to each machine using my domain credentials as they pop up. Unfortunately, there are around 10 machines I may need to use, and it's a pain to keep entering the password if I missed one that a batch file requires. I'm looking into using the answer to this question to make a little C# app that'll take the login info once and login programmatically. Will the authentication be shared automatically with Explorer, or is there anything special I need to do? If it does work, how long are the credentials cached? Is there an app that does something like this automatically? Unfortunately, domain authentication via the VPN isn't an option, according to our admin. EDIT: If there's a way to pass login info to Explorer via the command line, that would be even easier using Ruby and highline.

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  • HOWTO - Compare a date string to datetime in SQL Server?

    - by Guy
    In SQL Server I have a DATETIME column which includes a time element. Example: '14 AUG 2008 14:23:019' What is the best method to only select the records for a particular day, ignoring the time part? Example: (Not safe, as it does not match the time part and returns no rows) DECLARE @p_date DATETIME SET @p_date = CONVERT( DATETIME, '14 AUG 2008', 106 ) SELECT * FROM table1 WHERE column_datetime = @p_date Note: Given this site is also about jotting down notes and techniques you pick up and then forget, I'm going to post my own answer to this question as DATETIME stuff in MSSQL is probably the topic I lookup most in SQLBOL. Update Clarified example to be more specific. Edit Sorry, But I've had to down-mod WRONG answers (answers that return wrong results). @Jorrit: WHERE (date>'20080813' AND date<'20080815') will return the 13th and the 14th. @wearejimbo: Close, but no cigar! badge awarded to you. You missed out records written at 14/08/2008 23:59:001 to 23:59:999 (i.e. Less than 1 second before midnight.)

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  • Lua Operator Overloading

    - by Pessimist
    I've found some places on the web saying that operators in Lua are overloadable but I can't seem to find any example. Can someone provide an example of, say, overloading the + operator to work like the .. operator works for string concatenation? EDIT 1: to Alexander Gladysh and RBerteig: If operator overloading only works when both operands are the same type and changing this behavior wouldn't be easy, then how come the following code works? (I don't mean any offense, I just started learning this language): printf = function(fmt, ...) io.write(string.format(fmt, ...)) end Set = {} Set.mt = {} -- metatable for sets function Set.new (t) local set = {} setmetatable(set, Set.mt) for _, l in ipairs(t) do set[l] = true end return set end function Set.union (a,b) -- THIS IS THE PART THAT MANAGES OPERATOR OVERLOADING WITH OPERANDS OF DIFFERENT TYPES -- if user built new set using: new_set = some_set + some_number if type(a) == "table" and type(b) == "number" then print("building set...") local mixedset = Set.new{} for k in pairs(a) do mixedset[k] = true end mixedset[b] = true return mixedset -- elseif user built new set using: new_set = some_number + some_set elseif type(b) == "table" and type(a) == "number" then print("building set...") local mixedset = Set.new{} for k in pairs(b) do mixedset[k] = true end mixedset[a] = true return mixedset end if getmetatable(a) ~= Set.mt or getmetatable(b) ~= Set.mt then error("attempt to 'add' a set with a non-set value that is also not a number", 2) end local res = Set.new{} for k in pairs(a) do res[k] = true end for k in pairs(b) do res[k] = true end return res end function Set.tostring (set) local s = "{" local sep = "" for e in pairs(set) do s = s .. sep .. e sep = ", " end return s .. "}" end function Set.print (s) print(Set.tostring(s)) end s1 = Set.new{10, 20, 30, 50} s2 = Set.new{30, 1} Set.mt.__add = Set.union -- now try to make a new set by unioning a set plus a number: s3 = s1 + 8 Set.print(s3) --> {1, 10, 20, 30, 50}

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  • Change Data Capture or Change Tracking - Same as Traditional Audit Trail Table?

    - by HardCode
    Before I delve into the abyss of Microsoft documentation any deeper, I'd like to know if someone experienced with Change Data Capture and Change Tracking know if one or both of these can be used to replace the traditional ... "Audit trail table copy of the 'real table' (all of the fields of the original table, plus date/time, user ID, and DML action field) inserted into by Triggers" ... setup for a database table audit trail, where the trigger populates the audit trail table (which is all manual work). The MSDN overview documentation explains at a high level what Change Data Capture and Change Tracking are, but it isn't clear enough to me, and doesn't state outright, that these tools can be used to replace the traditional audit trail tables we've made so often. Can someone with any experience using Change Data Capture and Change Tracking save me a lot of time, or confirm that I am spending time looking at the right tool? The critical part of our audit trail is capturing all changes to a table's fields (on INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE), when it happened, and who did it. These changes are commonly provided to an end user chronologically via an audit trail report. Which is another question ... Change Data Capture or Change Tracking is the solution, I'd assume that this data can be queried just like data from a normal table? EDIT: I need a permanent audit trail, irregardless of time. I see that Change Data Capture has to do with the transaction logs, so this sounds finite to me.

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  • Extending ASP.NET role providers

    - by Quick Joe Smith
    Because the RoleProvider interface seems to treat roles as nothing more than simple strings, I'm wondering if there is any non-hacky way to apply an optional value for a role on a per-user basis. Our current login management system implements roles as key-value pairs, where the value part is optional and usually used to clarify or limit the permissions granted by a role. For example, a role 'editor' might contain a user 'barry', but for 'barry' it will have an optional value 'raptors', which the system would interpret to mean that Barry can only edit articles filed under the 'raptors' category. I have seen elsewhere a suggestion to simply create additional delimited roles, such as 'editor.raptors' or somesuch. That's not really going to be ideal because it would bloat the number of roles greatly, and I can tell it's going to be a very hard sell to replace our current implementation (which is also very less than ideal, but has the advantage of being custom made to work with our user database). I can tell already that the concatenation method mentioned above is going to involve a lot of tedious string-splitting and partial matching. Is there a better way?

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  • IIS7 GrantByDefault

    - by jonot
    I have an application (written in c#) that allow me to set IIS to allow or deny access to a website from all ip addresses. The application works fine for IIS6 however it does not work with IIS 7 (even with IIS 6 WMI Compatibility installed). heres the code (basically) Type typ = this.Entry.Properties[IIsWebDirectoryProperty.IPSecurity][0].GetType(); var securityProp = this.Entry.Properties[IIsWebDirectoryProperty.IPSecurity][0]; typ.InvokeMember("GrantByDefault", BindingFlags.DeclaredOnly | BindingFlags.Public | BindingFlags.NonPublic | BindingFlags.Instance | BindingFlags.SetProperty, null, securityProp, new object[] { IPSecurity.GrantByDefault }); this.Entry.CommitChanges(); I have checked the metabase for both IIS6 and IIS7 using the metabase explorer and the only diffecnce I can see is that the "IPSecurity" property does not appear in IIS7 until you also add a an allow or deny IP address, through IIS Manager. Whats really got me stumped is that even when I edit the feature setting to Deny access in the IIS Manager there is no change to the metabase or to the web.config in the site root! So how/where is this property being set and read from? And how can I set and read value of this property programmatically?

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  • xVal and Regular Expression Match

    - by gmcalab
    I am using xVal to validate my forms in asp.net MVC 1.0 Not sure why my regular expression isn't validating correctly. It validates with the value of "12345" It validates with the value of "12345 " It validates with the value of "12345 -" It validates with the value of "12345 -1" It validates with the value of "12345 -12" ... etc For a zip code I expect one of the two patterns: 12345 or 12345 -1234 Here are the two regex I tried: (\d{5})((( -)(\d{4}))?) (\d{5})|(\d{5} -\d{4}) Here is my MetaData class for xVal [MetadataType(typeof(TIDServiceMetadata))] public class TIDServiceStep : TIDDetail { public class TIDServiceMetadata { [Required(ErrorMessage = " [Required] ")] [RegularExpression(@"(\d{5})|(\d{5} -\d{4})", ErrorMessage = " Invalid Zip ")] public string Zip { get; set; } } } Here is my aspx page: <% Html.BeginForm("Edit", "Profile", FormMethod.Post); %> <table border="0" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0"> <tr> <td> <h6>Zip:</h6> </td> <td> <%= Html.TextBox("Profile.Zip")%> </td> </tr> <tr> <td> <input type="submit"/> </td> </tr> </table> <% Html.EndForm(); %> <% Html.Telerik().ScriptRegistrar() .OnDocumentReady(() => { %> <%= Html.ClientSideValidation<TIDProfileStep>("Profile").SuppressScriptTags() %> <% }); %>

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  • Instantiate type variable in Haskell

    - by danportin
    EDIT: Solved. I was unware that enabling a language extension in the source file did not enable the language extension in GHCi. The solution was to :set FlexibleContexts in GHCi. I recently discovered that type declarations in classes and instances in Haskell are Horn clauses. So I encoded the arithmetic operations from The Art of Prolog, Chapter 3, into Haskell. For instance: fac(0,s(0)). fac(s(N),F) :- fac(N,X), mult(s(N),X,F). class Fac x y | x -> y instance Fac Z (S Z) instance (Fac n x, Mult (S n) x f) => Fac (S n) f pow(s(X),0,0) :- nat(X). pow(0,s(X),s(0)) :- nat(X). pow(s(N),X,Y) :- pow(N,X,Z), mult(Z,X,Y). class Pow x y z | x y -> z instance (N n) => Pow (S n) Z Z instance (N n) => Pow Z (S n) (S Z) instance (Pow n x z, Mult z x y) => Pow (S n) x y In Prolog, values are insantiated for (logic) variable in a proof. However, I don't understand how to instantiate type variables in Haskell. That is, I don't understand what the Haskell equivalent of a Prolog query ?-f(X1,X2,...,Xn) is. I assume that :t undefined :: (f x1 x2 ... xn) => xi would cause Haskell to instantiate xi, but this gives a Non type-variable argument in the constraint error, even with FlexibleContexts enabled.

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  • Why does my Workflow Service (4.0) variable go null in a DoWhile Activity?

    - by jlafay
    I have a WF service that I'm trying to setup receive activities to "Subscribe" and "Unsubscribe". I'm using This WF Durable Duplex Tutorial as a basis because my service performs callbacks to clients. Basically, think of it as a chat service. I can make client calls to the two receive activities just fine. What happens is the callback address of the client is passed in to Subscribe() on the service. The address is stored as a variable in the WF service and everything looks like it would work as to be expected. When a client calls Unsubscribe(), my watch I have set on the address var during debugging shows it as null. So what gives? Here's the basic setup of my WF service layout... Everything is enveloped in a DoWhile activity. Inside of that is a Pick activity and two Pick branches. The first branch is for subscribing activities. It has a receive-sendreply activity that assigns the string passed by the client to the WF address var. The second branch handles unsubscribing. The trigger is the Request activity and the client address is again passed in. From there it goes into a sequence, starting with an If. It checks to see if the unsubscribeAddress equals the address already subscribed. If it does, then it sets the address to String.Empty and sends a success message back to the client. Why would a variable that's scoped to the enveloping DoWhile activity be implicitly assigned to null? I'm trying to get this to work so I can implement multiple client subscribers from there and work on triggers that invoke callbacks to multiple clients. CONCAT EDIT: I set a breakpoint at the DoWhile level and my var is null once Unsubscribe() is called. When Subscribe() is invoked, the watch shows a value in the var all the way through. Until I Unsubscribe() with a client. Should I be using a While Activity instead?

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  • get cells odf a JTable

    - by tuxou
    hi how to display a row of a jtable in a from of JTextField when click on the row, ( I need this to edit the data base from the JTable ) My table model static class TableDataModel extends AbstractTableModel { private List nomColonnes; private List tableau; public TableDataModel(List nomColonnes, List tableau){ this.nomColonnes = nomColonnes; majDonnees(tableau); } public void majDonnees(List nouvellesDonnees){ this.tableau = nouvellesDonnees; fireTableDataChanged(); } public int getRowCount(){ return tableau.size(); } public int getColumnCount(){ return nomColonnes.size(); } public Object getValueAt(int row, int col){ return ((ArrayList)( tableau.get(row))).get(col); } public String getColumnName(int col){ return nomColonnes.get(col).toString(); } public Class getColumnClass(int c) { return getValueAt(0,c).getClass(); } public boolean isCellEditable(int row, int col){ return true; } public void setValueAt(Object value, int row, int col) { ((List)tableau.get(row)).set(col,value); fireTableCellUpdated(row, col); //i suppose i should update the database here } }

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  • HttpError 502 with Google Wave Active Robot API fetch_wavelet()

    - by Drew LeSueur
    I am trying to use the Google Wave Active Robot API fetch_wavelet() and I get an HTTP 502 error example: from waveapi import robot import passwords robot = robot.Robot('gae-run', 'http://images.com/fake-image.jpg') robot.setup_oauth(passwords.CONSUMER_KEY, passwords.CONSUMER_SECRET, server_rpc_base='http://www-opensocial.googleusercontent.com/api/rpc') wavelet = robot.fetch_wavelet('googlewave.com!w+dtuZi6t3C','googlewave.com!conv+root') robot.submit(wavelet) self.response.out.write(wavelet.creator) But the error I get is this: Traceback (most recent call last): File "/base/python_runtime/python_lib/versions/1/google/appengine/ext/webapp/__init__.py", line 511, in __call__ handler.get(*groups) File "/base/data/home/apps/clstff/gae-run.342467577023864664/main.py", line 23, in get robot.submit(wavelet) File "/base/data/home/apps/clstff/gae-run.342467577023864664/waveapi/robot.py", line 486, in submit res = self.make_rpc(pending) File "/base/data/home/apps/clstff/gae-run.342467577023864664/waveapi/robot.py", line 251, in make_rpc raise IOError('HttpError ' + str(code)) IOError: HttpError 502 Any ideas? Edit: When [email protected] is not a member of the wave I get the correct error message Error: RPC Error500: internalError: [email protected] is not a participant of wave id: [WaveId:googlewave.com!w+Pq1HgvssD] wavelet id: [WaveletId:googlewave.com!conv+root]. Unable to apply operation: {'method':'robot.fetchWave','id':'655720','waveId':'googlewave.com!w+Pq1HgvssD','waveletId':'googlewave.com!conv+root','blipId':'null','parameters':{}} But when [email protected] is a member of the wave I get the http 502 error. IOError: HttpError 502

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  • How do I do nested transactions in NHibernate?

    - by Gavin Schultz-Ohkubo
    Can I do nested transactions in NHibernate, and how do I implement them? I'm using SQL Server 2008, so support is definitely in the DBMS. I find that if I try something like this: using (var outerTX = UnitOfWork.Current.BeginTransaction()) { using (var nestedTX = UnitOfWork.Current.BeginTransaction()) { ... do stuff nestedTX.Commit(); } outerTX.Commit(); } then by the time it comes to outerTX.Commit() the transaction has become inactive, and results in a ObjectDisposedException on the session AdoTransaction. Are we therefore supposed to create nested NHibernate sessions instead? Or is there some other class we should use to wrap around the transactions (I've heard of TransactionScope, but I'm not sure what that is)? I'm now using Ayende's UnitOfWork implementation (thanks Sneal). Forgive any naivety in this question, I'm still new to NHibernate. Thanks! EDIT: I've discovered that you can use TransactionScope, such as: using (var transactionScope = new TransactionScope()) { using (var tx = UnitOfWork.Current.BeginTransaction()) { ... do stuff tx.Commit(); } using (var tx = UnitOfWork.Current.BeginTransaction()) { ... do stuff tx.Commit(); } transactionScope.Commit(); } However I'm not all that excited about this, as it locks us in to using SQL Server, and also I've found that if the database is remote then you have to worry about having MSDTC enabled... one more component to go wrong. Nested transactions are so useful and easy to do in SQL that I kind of assumed NHibernate would have some way of emulating the same...

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