Search Results

Search found 18729 results on 750 pages for 'edit'.

Page 577/750 | < Previous Page | 573 574 575 576 577 578 579 580 581 582 583 584  | Next Page >

  • Scrolling down to next element via keypress & scrollTo plugin - jQuery

    - by lyrae
    I am using jQuery's scrollTo plugin to scroll up and down my page, using UP arrow and DOWN arrow. i have a bunch of div with class "screen", as so: <div class="screen-wrapper">...</div> What I am trying to do is, when i press UP or DOWN, the window scrolls to the next, or previous div with class of "screen". I have the keypresses taken care of. According to the plugin docs, to scroll a window, you use $.scrollTo(...); Here's the code I have: $(document).keypress(function(e){ switch (e.keyCode) { case 40: // down n = $('.screen-wrapper').next() $.scrollTo( n, 800 ); break; case 38: // up break; case 37: // left break; case 39: // right break; } }); And if it helps, here's the HTML div. I have a few of these on the page, and essentially, am trying to scroll to next one by pressing down arrow: <div class='screen-wrapper'> <div class='screen'> <div class="sections"> <ul> <li><img src="images/portfolio/sushii-1.png " /></li> <li><img src="images/portfolio/sushii-2.png" /></li> <li><img src="images/portfolio/sushii-3.png" /></li> </ul> </div> <div class="next"></div> <div class="prev"></div> </div> And also if it needed, I can provide a link where this is being used if it'll help someone get a better idea. edit And, i forgot to mention what the real question here is. The question/problem is that it won't scroll down past the first element, as seth mentioned.

    Read the article

  • Hidden controls, iframes or divs

    - by user287745
    What happens to the controls or the iframe or the div, which are hidden? Do they get transferred to the user side? Disabled: does it get transferred to the user side? What I want is, an aspx page will be having many iframes to display different pages. There will be many div tags to display CSS formatted information. To understand what I mean by many:- I have to transfer a complete website with 30 aspx pages into one single page! I have simply combined everything resulting in one extremely huge page. My concern is that on local host it loads fast, but when on online server accessed by numerous people for education purposes, the site (ONE PAGE) WILL SLOW DOWN terribly. To overcome this I thought of using hidden and disable options. What is an improved way of achieving the above? Yes, it sounds silly but this is the requirement. Edit: Yes, I know id and server tag must be set, but what I am asking will the div tag be sent to the user's browser? One answer is no. So can I enable them using JavaScript? Like document.getElementById(id).style.visibility="visible" What if I disable them, and from coding of JavaScript enable them? Will they be loaded at the time of enabling?

    Read the article

  • Java Collections and Garbage Collector

    - by Anth0
    A little question regarding performance in a Java web app. Let's assume I have a List<Rubrique> listRubriques with ten Rubrique objects. A Rubrique contains one list of products (List<product> listProducts) and one list of clients (List<Client> listClients). What exactly happens in memory if I do this: listRubriques.clear(); listRubriques = null; My point of view would be that, since listRubriques is empty, all my objects previously referenced by this list (including listProducts and listClients) will be garbage collected pretty soon. But since Collection in Java are a little bit tricky and since I have quite performance issues with my app i'm asking the question :) edit : let's assume now that my Client object contains a List<Client>. Therefore, I have kind of a circular reference between my objects. What would happen then if my listRubrique is set to null? This time, my point of view would be that my Client objects will become "unreachable" and might create a memory leak?

    Read the article

  • Why can't I set boolean columns with update?

    - by Benjamin Oakes
    I'm making a user administration page. For the system I'm creating, users need to be approved. Sometimes, there will be many users to approve, so I'd like to make that easy. I'm storing this as a boolean column called approved. I remembered the Edit Multiple Individually Railscast and thought it would be a great fit. However, I'm running into problems which I traced back to ActiveRecord::Base#update. update works fine in this example: >> User.all.map(&:username) => ["ben", "fred"] >> h = {"1"=>{'username'=>'benjamin'}, "2"=>{"username"=>'frederick'}} => {"1"=>{"username"=>"benjamin"}, "2"=>{"username"=>"frederick"}} >> User.update(h.keys, h.values) => ... >> User.all.map(&:username) => ["benjamin", "frederick"] But not this one: >> User.all.map(&:approved) => [true, nil] >> h = {"1"=>{'approved'=>'1'}, "2"=>{'approved'=>'1'}} >> User.update(h.keys, h.values) => ... >> User.all.map(&:approved) => [true, nil] Chaging from '1' to true didn't make a difference when I tested. What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • Force Oracle error on fetch

    - by Dan
    I am trying to debug a strange behavior in my application. In order to do so, I need to reproduce a scenario where an SQL SELECT query will throw an error, but only while actually fetching from the cursor, not while executing the query itself. Can this be done? Any error will do, but ORA-01722: invalid number seems like the obvious one to try. I created a table with the follwing: KEYCOL INTEGER PRIMARY KEY OTHERCOL VARCHAR2(100) I then created a few hundred rows with unique values for the primary key and the value l for the othercol. I then ran a SELECT * query, picked a row somewhere in the middle, and updated it to the string abcd. I ran the query SELECT KEYCOL, TO_NUMBER(OTHERCOL) FROM SOMETABLE hoping to get some rows of good data an then an error later. But I keep getting ORA-01722: invalid number on the execute step itself. I have gotten this behavior programmatically using ADO (with server-side cursor) and JDBC, as well as from PL/SQL Developer. How can I get the result I'm looking for? thanks Edit - meant to add, when using ADO, I am only calling Command.Execute. I am not creating or opening a Recordset.

    Read the article

  • SQL Server Search Proper Names Full Text Index vs LIKE + SOUNDEX

    - by Matthew Talbert
    I have a database of names of people that has (currently) 35 million rows. I need to know what is the best method for quickly searching these names. The current system (not designed by me), simply has the first and last name columns indexed and uses "LIKE" queries with the additional option of using SOUNDEX (though I'm not sure this is actually used much). Performance has always been a problem with this system, and so currently the searches are limited to 200 results (which still takes too long to run). So, I have a few questions: Does full text index work well for proper names? If so, what is the best way to query proper names? (CONTAINS, FREETEXT, etc) Is there some other system (like Lucene.net) that would be better? Just for reference, I'm using Fluent NHibernate for data access, so methods that work will with that will be preferred. I'm using SQL Server 2008 currently. EDIT I want to add that I'm very interested in solutions that will deal with things like commonly misspelled names, eg 'smythe', 'smith', as well as first names, eg 'tomas', 'thomas'. Query Plan |--Parallelism(Gather Streams) |--Nested Loops(Inner Join, OUTER REFERENCES:([testdb].[dbo].[Test].[Id], [Expr1004]) OPTIMIZED WITH UNORDERED PREFETCH) |--Hash Match(Inner Join, HASH:([testdb].[dbo].[Test].[Id])=([testdb].[dbo].[Test].[Id])) | |--Bitmap(HASH:([testdb].[dbo].[Test].[Id]), DEFINE:([Bitmap1003])) | | |--Parallelism(Repartition Streams, Hash Partitioning, PARTITION COLUMNS:([testdb].[dbo].[Test].[Id])) | | |--Index Seek(OBJECT:([testdb].[dbo].[Test].[IX_Test_LastName]), SEEK:([testdb].[dbo].[Test].[LastName] >= 'WHITDþ' AND [testdb].[dbo].[Test].[LastName] < 'WHITF'), WHERE:([testdb].[dbo].[Test].[LastName] like 'WHITE%') ORDERED FORWARD) | |--Parallelism(Repartition Streams, Hash Partitioning, PARTITION COLUMNS:([testdb].[dbo].[Test].[Id])) | |--Index Seek(OBJECT:([testdb].[dbo].[Test].[IX_Test_FirstName]), SEEK:([testdb].[dbo].[Test].[FirstName] >= 'THOMARþ' AND [testdb].[dbo].[Test].[FirstName] < 'THOMAT'), WHERE:([testdb].[dbo].[Test].[FirstName] like 'THOMAS%' AND PROBE([Bitmap1003],[testdb].[dbo].[Test].[Id],N'[IN ROW]')) ORDERED FORWARD) |--Clustered Index Seek(OBJECT:([testdb].[dbo].[Test].[PK__TEST__3214EC073B95D2F1]), SEEK:([testdb].[dbo].[Test].[Id]=[testdb].[dbo].[Test].[Id]) LOOKUP ORDERED FORWARD) SQL for above: SELECT * FROM testdb.dbo.Test WHERE LastName LIKE 'WHITE%' AND FirstName LIKE 'THOMAS%' Based on advice from Mitch, I created an index like this: CREATE INDEX IX_Test_Name_DOB ON Test (LastName ASC, FirstName ASC, BirthDate ASC) INCLUDE (and here I list the other columns) My searches are now incredibly fast for my typical search (last, first, and birth date).

    Read the article

  • Replace image in word doc using OpenXML

    - by fearofawhackplanet
    Following on from my last question here OpenXML looks like it probably does exactly what I want, but the documentation is terrible. An hour of googling hasn't got me any closer to figuring out what I need to do. I have a word document. I want to add an image to that word document (using word) in such a way that I can then open the document in OpenXML and replace that image. Should be simple enough, yes? I'm assuming I should be able to give my image 'placeholder' an id of some sort and then use GetPartById to locate the image and replace it. Would this be the correct method? What is this Id? How do you add it using Word? Every example I can find which does anything remotely similar starts by building the whole word document from scratch in ML, which really isn't a lot of use. EDIT: it occured to me that it would be easier to just replace the image in the media folder with the new image, but again can't find any indication of how to do this.

    Read the article

  • using alias parameters in window command prompt

    - by freshWoWer
    Source:http://jpsoft.com/help/index.htm?alias.htm Aliases can use command line parameters or parameters like those in batch files. The command line parameters are numbered from %0 to %511. (%0 contains the alias name.) For example, the following alias will change directories, perform a command, and return to the original directory: alias in pushd %1 & %2$ & popd when i run the above, my command prompt gives error saying %1 * Unable to read value of alias * '%2' is not recognized as an internal or external command, operable program or batch file. 'popd`' is not recognized as an internal or external command, operable program or batch file. if you use double quote instead, alias in "pushd %1 & dir & popd" it doesn't interprets the %1 when you execute the alias C:\abc\defalias Dumping all defined aliases for CMD.EXE. in =pushd %1 & dir & popd alias def wont work ---------EDIT------------ let me try some sample output with a simple echo alias D:\abc\defalias /? Usage: ALIAS [-v] [-p programName] [-f filespec] [ ] [-v] means verbose output. [-d] means delete aliases. [-p programName] specifies which image file name these alias definitions are for. Default is CMD.EXE [-f filespec] specifies a file which contains the alises. C:\Office\dev15alias out 'echo %1' %1' * Unable to read value of alias * C:\Office\dev15alias out backtick echo %1 backtick %1` * Unable to read value of alias * C:\Office\dev15alias out "echo %1" C:\Office\dev15alias Dumping all defined aliases for CMD.EXE. out =echo %1 C:\Office\dev15out abc %1 C:\Office\dev15alias out echo %1 %1 * Unable to read value of alias * C:\Office\dev15out abc ECHO is on. Problem is, both single quote and back tick produces error, while double quote wont treat %1 as variable parameter

    Read the article

  • Extending ASP.NET role providers

    - by Quick Joe Smith
    Because the RoleProvider interface seems to treat roles as nothing more than simple strings, I'm wondering if there is any non-hacky way to apply an optional value for a role on a per-user basis. Our current login management system implements roles as key-value pairs, where the value part is optional and usually used to clarify or limit the permissions granted by a role. For example, a role 'editor' might contain a user 'barry', but for 'barry' it will have an optional value 'raptors', which the system would interpret to mean that Barry can only edit articles filed under the 'raptors' category. I have seen elsewhere a suggestion to simply create additional delimited roles, such as 'editor.raptors' or somesuch. That's not really going to be ideal because it would bloat the number of roles greatly, and I can tell it's going to be a very hard sell to replace our current implementation (which is also very less than ideal, but has the advantage of being custom made to work with our user database). I can tell already that the concatenation method mentioned above is going to involve a lot of tedious string-splitting and partial matching. Is there a better way?

    Read the article

  • cl.exe Difference in object files when /E output is the same and flags are the same

    - by madiyaan damha
    Hello: I am using Visual Studio 2005's cl.exe compiler. I call it with a bunch of /I /D and some compilation/optimization flags (example: /Ehsc). I have two compilation scripts, and both differ only in the /I flags (include directories are different). All other flags are the same. These scripts produce different object files (and not just a timestamp difference as noted below). The strange thing is that the /E output of both scripts is the same. That means that the include files are not causing the difference in object files, but then again, where is the difference coming from? Can anyone elucidate on how I am seeing two different object files in my situation. If the include files are causing the difference, how come I see identical /E output? PS. The object files are different not only in the timestamp, but in the code sections also. In fact the behavior of my final executable is different in both cases. Edit: PSS: I even looked at the /includeFiles output of cl.exe and that output is identical. The object files, however, differ in more than just the timestamp (in fact, one is 1KB bigger than another!)

    Read the article

  • get cells odf a JTable

    - by tuxou
    hi how to display a row of a jtable in a from of JTextField when click on the row, ( I need this to edit the data base from the JTable ) My table model static class TableDataModel extends AbstractTableModel { private List nomColonnes; private List tableau; public TableDataModel(List nomColonnes, List tableau){ this.nomColonnes = nomColonnes; majDonnees(tableau); } public void majDonnees(List nouvellesDonnees){ this.tableau = nouvellesDonnees; fireTableDataChanged(); } public int getRowCount(){ return tableau.size(); } public int getColumnCount(){ return nomColonnes.size(); } public Object getValueAt(int row, int col){ return ((ArrayList)( tableau.get(row))).get(col); } public String getColumnName(int col){ return nomColonnes.get(col).toString(); } public Class getColumnClass(int c) { return getValueAt(0,c).getClass(); } public boolean isCellEditable(int row, int col){ return true; } public void setValueAt(Object value, int row, int col) { ((List)tableau.get(row)).set(col,value); fireTableCellUpdated(row, col); //i suppose i should update the database here } }

    Read the article

  • WPF TexBox TwoWay Binding Problem when ValidationRules used

    - by ignis
    I seem to have a problem with TwoWay DataBinding - my application has a window with a bunch of textboxes that allow to edit values of the properties they are bound to. Everything works well except for textboxes that also have a validation rule defined, in which case no text is displayed in the textbox when the window opens (binding back-to-source still works fine for those). If I remove Validation rule, everything's back to normal. I searched for an answer to this for a few hours now, but somehow did not even find anyone else complaining of the same issue. I am completely new to WPF, and I am sure it is just a silly mistake I have somewhere in my code... I will greatly appreciate any feedback... <TextBox Margin="40,2,20,0" Grid.Column="0" Grid.Row="1" Background="#99FFFFFF" > <Binding Path="LastName" Mode="TwoWay" ValidatesOnDataErrors="true" UpdateSourceTrigger="LostFocus" > <Binding.ValidationRules> <validation:StringNameValidationRule /> </Binding.ValidationRules> </Binding> </TextBox>

    Read the article

  • Lua Operator Overloading

    - by Pessimist
    I've found some places on the web saying that operators in Lua are overloadable but I can't seem to find any example. Can someone provide an example of, say, overloading the + operator to work like the .. operator works for string concatenation? EDIT 1: to Alexander Gladysh and RBerteig: If operator overloading only works when both operands are the same type and changing this behavior wouldn't be easy, then how come the following code works? (I don't mean any offense, I just started learning this language): printf = function(fmt, ...) io.write(string.format(fmt, ...)) end Set = {} Set.mt = {} -- metatable for sets function Set.new (t) local set = {} setmetatable(set, Set.mt) for _, l in ipairs(t) do set[l] = true end return set end function Set.union (a,b) -- THIS IS THE PART THAT MANAGES OPERATOR OVERLOADING WITH OPERANDS OF DIFFERENT TYPES -- if user built new set using: new_set = some_set + some_number if type(a) == "table" and type(b) == "number" then print("building set...") local mixedset = Set.new{} for k in pairs(a) do mixedset[k] = true end mixedset[b] = true return mixedset -- elseif user built new set using: new_set = some_number + some_set elseif type(b) == "table" and type(a) == "number" then print("building set...") local mixedset = Set.new{} for k in pairs(b) do mixedset[k] = true end mixedset[a] = true return mixedset end if getmetatable(a) ~= Set.mt or getmetatable(b) ~= Set.mt then error("attempt to 'add' a set with a non-set value that is also not a number", 2) end local res = Set.new{} for k in pairs(a) do res[k] = true end for k in pairs(b) do res[k] = true end return res end function Set.tostring (set) local s = "{" local sep = "" for e in pairs(set) do s = s .. sep .. e sep = ", " end return s .. "}" end function Set.print (s) print(Set.tostring(s)) end s1 = Set.new{10, 20, 30, 50} s2 = Set.new{30, 1} Set.mt.__add = Set.union -- now try to make a new set by unioning a set plus a number: s3 = s1 + 8 Set.print(s3) --> {1, 10, 20, 30, 50}

    Read the article

  • Change Data Capture or Change Tracking - Same as Traditional Audit Trail Table?

    - by HardCode
    Before I delve into the abyss of Microsoft documentation any deeper, I'd like to know if someone experienced with Change Data Capture and Change Tracking know if one or both of these can be used to replace the traditional ... "Audit trail table copy of the 'real table' (all of the fields of the original table, plus date/time, user ID, and DML action field) inserted into by Triggers" ... setup for a database table audit trail, where the trigger populates the audit trail table (which is all manual work). The MSDN overview documentation explains at a high level what Change Data Capture and Change Tracking are, but it isn't clear enough to me, and doesn't state outright, that these tools can be used to replace the traditional audit trail tables we've made so often. Can someone with any experience using Change Data Capture and Change Tracking save me a lot of time, or confirm that I am spending time looking at the right tool? The critical part of our audit trail is capturing all changes to a table's fields (on INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE), when it happened, and who did it. These changes are commonly provided to an end user chronologically via an audit trail report. Which is another question ... Change Data Capture or Change Tracking is the solution, I'd assume that this data can be queried just like data from a normal table? EDIT: I need a permanent audit trail, irregardless of time. I see that Change Data Capture has to do with the transaction logs, so this sounds finite to me.

    Read the article

  • HttpError 502 with Google Wave Active Robot API fetch_wavelet()

    - by Drew LeSueur
    I am trying to use the Google Wave Active Robot API fetch_wavelet() and I get an HTTP 502 error example: from waveapi import robot import passwords robot = robot.Robot('gae-run', 'http://images.com/fake-image.jpg') robot.setup_oauth(passwords.CONSUMER_KEY, passwords.CONSUMER_SECRET, server_rpc_base='http://www-opensocial.googleusercontent.com/api/rpc') wavelet = robot.fetch_wavelet('googlewave.com!w+dtuZi6t3C','googlewave.com!conv+root') robot.submit(wavelet) self.response.out.write(wavelet.creator) But the error I get is this: Traceback (most recent call last): File "/base/python_runtime/python_lib/versions/1/google/appengine/ext/webapp/__init__.py", line 511, in __call__ handler.get(*groups) File "/base/data/home/apps/clstff/gae-run.342467577023864664/main.py", line 23, in get robot.submit(wavelet) File "/base/data/home/apps/clstff/gae-run.342467577023864664/waveapi/robot.py", line 486, in submit res = self.make_rpc(pending) File "/base/data/home/apps/clstff/gae-run.342467577023864664/waveapi/robot.py", line 251, in make_rpc raise IOError('HttpError ' + str(code)) IOError: HttpError 502 Any ideas? Edit: When [email protected] is not a member of the wave I get the correct error message Error: RPC Error500: internalError: [email protected] is not a participant of wave id: [WaveId:googlewave.com!w+Pq1HgvssD] wavelet id: [WaveletId:googlewave.com!conv+root]. Unable to apply operation: {'method':'robot.fetchWave','id':'655720','waveId':'googlewave.com!w+Pq1HgvssD','waveletId':'googlewave.com!conv+root','blipId':'null','parameters':{}} But when [email protected] is a member of the wave I get the http 502 error. IOError: HttpError 502

    Read the article

  • onLoad focus() event within jquerytools overlay effect

    - by tomcritchlow
    Hi, I'm using the overlay jquery from here: http://flowplayer.org/tools/overlay/index.html Within my overlay I have a search box like this: <div class="simple_overlay" id="asearch"> <div id="searchbox"> <form id="amazonsearch" style='float:left;'> <input class="title" id="amazon-terms" style="width:400px;font-size:2em;"> <button class="sexybutton sexysimple sexygreen">Search</button> </form> <div id="amazon-results"></div> </div><!--seachbox--> </div><!--Overlay--> What I want to happen is when you load the overlay the search box within the overlay gains focus so you can start typing into it. I thought that this would work: $("a[rel]").overlay({ onLoad: function() { $('#amazon-terms').focus(); } }); But that doesn't seem to do anything. I know the event is firing because this works: $("a[rel]").overlay({ onLoad: function() { alert('popup opened') } }); However, when this alert fires the overlay has not yet appeared on the screen so I wonder if that is part of the problem? According to the docs onLoad should fire "when the overlay has completely been displayed" (ref) Any help appreciated! :) Thanks Tom EDIT This code does what I want it to but I'm none the wiser as to why this works when the code above doesn't.... var triggers = $("a[rel]").overlay({ closeOnClick: false, onLoad: function() { $('input').focus(); } });

    Read the article

  • please clarify some aspects of AJAX with ASP.NET web forms for a beginner

    - by citrus
    Im familiar with asp.net web forms. I would now like to move on to writing web applications that use AJAX. I would like to get to the stage where I can create an app: that has "edit in place" (no page reload) where i can reorder images using drag and drop (also saves the order to DB) that has google like search suggestions while typing on the fly 1)So do I need to learn how to use AJAX.net and Jquery(my JS library of choice)? Can I make do using only AJAX.net or only Jquery? 2)As far a I know, Jquery will allow me to perform client side manipulations/actions and AJAX.net is the part that will allow me to connect some of my actions to the Server. EG. if I wanted to re-order elements using drag and drop, I would use Jquery, but in order to save the result of the re-order to the DB I would have to use AJAX.net correct? 2a)So In order to learn how to do the above Im thinking I should first learn Jquery so I know how to manipulate/ select elements, and then I can lean how to save these changes to the DB. 3)I searched the books titled "ASP.net AJAX in action" and ASP.net 3.5 AJAX, both of these books did not contain any references to "Jquery". Is this because they may be using a different JS library, or perhaps the book focuses on the AJAX user controls? I just found it confusing that 2 popular AJAX books dont make any reference to Jquery. Thanks for any help.

    Read the article

  • How do I do nested transactions in NHibernate?

    - by Gavin Schultz-Ohkubo
    Can I do nested transactions in NHibernate, and how do I implement them? I'm using SQL Server 2008, so support is definitely in the DBMS. I find that if I try something like this: using (var outerTX = UnitOfWork.Current.BeginTransaction()) { using (var nestedTX = UnitOfWork.Current.BeginTransaction()) { ... do stuff nestedTX.Commit(); } outerTX.Commit(); } then by the time it comes to outerTX.Commit() the transaction has become inactive, and results in a ObjectDisposedException on the session AdoTransaction. Are we therefore supposed to create nested NHibernate sessions instead? Or is there some other class we should use to wrap around the transactions (I've heard of TransactionScope, but I'm not sure what that is)? I'm now using Ayende's UnitOfWork implementation (thanks Sneal). Forgive any naivety in this question, I'm still new to NHibernate. Thanks! EDIT: I've discovered that you can use TransactionScope, such as: using (var transactionScope = new TransactionScope()) { using (var tx = UnitOfWork.Current.BeginTransaction()) { ... do stuff tx.Commit(); } using (var tx = UnitOfWork.Current.BeginTransaction()) { ... do stuff tx.Commit(); } transactionScope.Commit(); } However I'm not all that excited about this, as it locks us in to using SQL Server, and also I've found that if the database is remote then you have to worry about having MSDTC enabled... one more component to go wrong. Nested transactions are so useful and easy to do in SQL that I kind of assumed NHibernate would have some way of emulating the same...

    Read the article

  • How to make CFileDialog synchronize the displayed filename with the selected extension?

    - by RobH
    We have a class that derives from CFileDialog that overrides the OnTypeChange() method to allow it to change the filename to keep it in synch with the selected extension whenever the user selects a new extension from the filter combobox. (Our filters are set to contain only one extension per filter entry.) Unfortunately, the way we are doing this seems to have been broken by the Vista style dialogue. (We were using SetControlText() to set the filename edit box to the filename with the newly selected extension, but the control ID seems to be different for the Vista style dialogue, and the one that I found using Spy++ works just as well as the old ID (i.e., it doesn't)..) Is there a better way to tell the CFileDialog object to update the filename field to use the new extension when the user selects a new filter? It has to work with the old XP style dialogue as well. Failing that, how to I force the use of the XP style dialogue so that I get my functionality back without the dialogue crashing on me? (I'd rather not go that route if at all possible.) I've found a way to get it to fall back to the XP style. I still want to get the new style dialogue to do what I want though.

    Read the article

  • xVal and Regular Expression Match

    - by gmcalab
    I am using xVal to validate my forms in asp.net MVC 1.0 Not sure why my regular expression isn't validating correctly. It validates with the value of "12345" It validates with the value of "12345 " It validates with the value of "12345 -" It validates with the value of "12345 -1" It validates with the value of "12345 -12" ... etc For a zip code I expect one of the two patterns: 12345 or 12345 -1234 Here are the two regex I tried: (\d{5})((( -)(\d{4}))?) (\d{5})|(\d{5} -\d{4}) Here is my MetaData class for xVal [MetadataType(typeof(TIDServiceMetadata))] public class TIDServiceStep : TIDDetail { public class TIDServiceMetadata { [Required(ErrorMessage = " [Required] ")] [RegularExpression(@"(\d{5})|(\d{5} -\d{4})", ErrorMessage = " Invalid Zip ")] public string Zip { get; set; } } } Here is my aspx page: <% Html.BeginForm("Edit", "Profile", FormMethod.Post); %> <table border="0" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0"> <tr> <td> <h6>Zip:</h6> </td> <td> <%= Html.TextBox("Profile.Zip")%> </td> </tr> <tr> <td> <input type="submit"/> </td> </tr> </table> <% Html.EndForm(); %> <% Html.Telerik().ScriptRegistrar() .OnDocumentReady(() => { %> <%= Html.ClientSideValidation<TIDProfileStep>("Profile").SuppressScriptTags() %> <% }); %>

    Read the article

  • Database not completely updated in rails migration

    - by Aatish Sai
    I am new to Ruby on Rails. I have a migration called create user class CreateUsers < ActiveRecord::Migration def change create_table :users do |t| t.column :username, :string, :limit => 25, :default => "", :null => false t.column :hashed_password, :string, :limit => 40, :default => "", :null => false t.column :first_name, :string, :limit => 25, :default => "", :null => false t.column :last_name, :string, :limit => 40, :default => "", :null => false t.column :email, :string, :limit => 50, :default => "", :null => false t.column :display_name, :string, :limit => 25, :default => "", :null => false t.column :user_level, :integer, :limit => 3, :default => 0, :null => false end User.create(:username=>'test',:hashed_password=>'test',:first_name=>'test',:last_name=>'test',:email=>'[email protected]',:display_name=> 'test',:user_level=>9) end end When I run rake db:migrate the table is created with the columns as mentioned above but the test data are not there mysql>select * from users; Empty set (0.00 sec) EDIT I just dropped the whole database and restarted the migration and now it is showing the following error. rake aborted! An error has occurred, all later migrations canceled: Can't mass-assign protected attributes: username, hashed_password, first_name, last_name, email, display_name, user_level What am I doing wrong please help? Thank you.

    Read the article

  • How to force c# binary int division to return a double?

    - by Wayne
    How to force double x = 3 / 2; to return 1.5 in x without the D suffix or casting? Is there any kind of operator overload that can be done? Or some compiler option? Amazingly, it's not so simple to add the casting or suffix for the following reason: Business users need to write and debug their own formulas. Presently C# is getting used like a DSL (domain specific language) in that these users aren't computer science engineers. So all they know is how to edit and create a few types of classes to hold their "business rules" which are generally just math formulas. But they always assume that double x = 3 / 2; will return x = 1.5 however in C# that returns 1. A. they always forget this, waste time debugging, call me for support and we fix it. B. they think it's very ugly and hurts the readability of their business rules. As you know, DSL's need to be more like natural language. Yes. We are planning to move to Boo and build a DSL based on it but that's down the road. Is there a simple solution to make double x = 3 / 2; return 1.5 by something external to the class so it's invisible to the users? Thanks! Wayne

    Read the article

  • How to force c# binary int division to return a double?

    - by Wayne
    How to force double x = 3 / 2; to return 1.5 in x without the D suffix or casting? Is there any kind of operator overload that can be done? Or some compiler option? Amazingly, it's not so simple to add the casting or suffix for the following reason: Business users need to write and debug their own formulas. Presently C# is getting used like a DSL (domain specific language) in that these users aren't computer science engineers. So all they know is how to edit and create a few types of classes to hold their "business rules" which are generally just math formulas. But they always assume that double x = 3 / 2; will return x = 1.5 however in C# that returns 1. A. they always forget this, waste time debugging, call me for support and we fix it. B. they think it's very ugly and hurts the readability of their business rules. As you know, DSL's need to be more like natural language. Yes. We are planning to move to Boo and build a DSL based on it but that's down the road. Is there a simple solution to make double x = 3 / 2; return 1.5 by something external to the class so it's invisible to the users? Thanks! Wayne

    Read the article

  • Instantiate type variable in Haskell

    - by danportin
    EDIT: Solved. I was unware that enabling a language extension in the source file did not enable the language extension in GHCi. The solution was to :set FlexibleContexts in GHCi. I recently discovered that type declarations in classes and instances in Haskell are Horn clauses. So I encoded the arithmetic operations from The Art of Prolog, Chapter 3, into Haskell. For instance: fac(0,s(0)). fac(s(N),F) :- fac(N,X), mult(s(N),X,F). class Fac x y | x -> y instance Fac Z (S Z) instance (Fac n x, Mult (S n) x f) => Fac (S n) f pow(s(X),0,0) :- nat(X). pow(0,s(X),s(0)) :- nat(X). pow(s(N),X,Y) :- pow(N,X,Z), mult(Z,X,Y). class Pow x y z | x y -> z instance (N n) => Pow (S n) Z Z instance (N n) => Pow Z (S n) (S Z) instance (Pow n x z, Mult z x y) => Pow (S n) x y In Prolog, values are insantiated for (logic) variable in a proof. However, I don't understand how to instantiate type variables in Haskell. That is, I don't understand what the Haskell equivalent of a Prolog query ?-f(X1,X2,...,Xn) is. I assume that :t undefined :: (f x1 x2 ... xn) => xi would cause Haskell to instantiate xi, but this gives a Non type-variable argument in the constraint error, even with FlexibleContexts enabled.

    Read the article

  • iPhone Debugging: How to resolve 'failed to get the task for process'?

    - by unforgiven
    I have just added a provisioning profile to XCode (needed to support notifications and in app purchase), setup as needed the build configuration for ad hoc distribution, and tried to run the app on the device (I have done this several times in the past, without any problem). The app is installed, but it does not start. On the console, I see the following message: Error launching remote program: failed to get the task for process 82. Error launching remote program: failed to get the task for process 82. The program being debugged is not being run. The program being debugged is not being run. However, if I start the application on the device manually, it works as expected. I have recently installed the latest XCode 3.2 for Snow Leopard. Is this a known bug of this version of XCode or am I doing something wrong? EDIT: It works fine with release distribution using the development provisioning profile. I have checked again the ad hoc provisioning profile to make sure it includes the device I am using.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 573 574 575 576 577 578 579 580 581 582 583 584  | Next Page >