Search Results

Search found 18749 results on 750 pages for 'komodo edit'.

Page 577/750 | < Previous Page | 573 574 575 576 577 578 579 580 581 582 583 584  | Next Page >

  • When and how should independent hierarchies be used in clojure?

    - by Rob Lachlan
    Clojure's system for creating an ad hoc hierarchy of keywords is familiar to most people who have spent a bit of time with the language. For example, most demos and presentations of the language include examples such as (derive ::child ::parent) and they go on to show how this can be used for multi-method dispatch. In all of the slides and presentations that I've seen, they use the global hierarchy. But it is possible to put keyword relationships in independent hierarchies, by using (derive h ::child ::parent), where h is created by (make-hierarchy). Some questions, therefore: Are there any guidelines on when this is useful or necessary? Are there any functions for manipulating hierarchies? Merging is particularly useful, so I do this: (defn merge-h [& hierarchies] (apply merge-with (cons #(merge-with clojure.set/union %1 %2) hierarchies)) But I was wondering if such functions already exist somewhere. EDIT: Changed "custom" hierarchy to "independent" hierarchy, since that term better describes this animal. Also, I've done some research and included my own answer below. Further comments are welcome.

    Read the article

  • xVal and Regular Expression Match

    - by gmcalab
    I am using xVal to validate my forms in asp.net MVC 1.0 Not sure why my regular expression isn't validating correctly. It validates with the value of "12345" It validates with the value of "12345 " It validates with the value of "12345 -" It validates with the value of "12345 -1" It validates with the value of "12345 -12" ... etc For a zip code I expect one of the two patterns: 12345 or 12345 -1234 Here are the two regex I tried: (\d{5})((( -)(\d{4}))?) (\d{5})|(\d{5} -\d{4}) Here is my MetaData class for xVal [MetadataType(typeof(TIDServiceMetadata))] public class TIDServiceStep : TIDDetail { public class TIDServiceMetadata { [Required(ErrorMessage = " [Required] ")] [RegularExpression(@"(\d{5})|(\d{5} -\d{4})", ErrorMessage = " Invalid Zip ")] public string Zip { get; set; } } } Here is my aspx page: <% Html.BeginForm("Edit", "Profile", FormMethod.Post); %> <table border="0" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0"> <tr> <td> <h6>Zip:</h6> </td> <td> <%= Html.TextBox("Profile.Zip")%> </td> </tr> <tr> <td> <input type="submit"/> </td> </tr> </table> <% Html.EndForm(); %> <% Html.Telerik().ScriptRegistrar() .OnDocumentReady(() => { %> <%= Html.ClientSideValidation<TIDProfileStep>("Profile").SuppressScriptTags() %> <% }); %>

    Read the article

  • jQuery eval of ajax inline script not throwing errors

    - by Josh
    http://stackoverflow.com/questions/606794/debugging-ajax-code-with-firebug This question is quite similar, though old and without real answers. I'm currently putting together an app that has scripts that get loaded in with an ajax request. An example: var main = _main.get(); main.load( someurl ); Where someurl is a page that contains an inline script element: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready( function(){ var activities = new activities(); activities.init(); }); </script> jQuery will do a line by line eval of js that lives in inline script tags. The problem is, I get no errors or any information whatsoever in firebug when something goes awry. Does anyone have a good solution for this? Or a better practice for loading pages which contain javascript functionality? Edit: A little progress... so at the top of the page that is being loaded in via ajax, I have another script that was being included like this: <script type="text/javascript" src="javascript/pages/activities.js"></script> When I moved the inline $(document).ready() code in the page to the end of this included file, instead, syntax errors were now properly getting thrown. As an aside, I threw a console.log() into the inline script tag, and it was being logged just fine. I also tried removing the $(document).ready() altogether, and also switching it out for a $(window).load() event. No difference. May have something to do with the inline scripts dependency on the included activities.js, I guess. :: shakes head :: javascript can be a nightmare.

    Read the article

  • Scrolling down to next element via keypress & scrollTo plugin - jQuery

    - by lyrae
    I am using jQuery's scrollTo plugin to scroll up and down my page, using UP arrow and DOWN arrow. i have a bunch of div with class "screen", as so: <div class="screen-wrapper">...</div> What I am trying to do is, when i press UP or DOWN, the window scrolls to the next, or previous div with class of "screen". I have the keypresses taken care of. According to the plugin docs, to scroll a window, you use $.scrollTo(...); Here's the code I have: $(document).keypress(function(e){ switch (e.keyCode) { case 40: // down n = $('.screen-wrapper').next() $.scrollTo( n, 800 ); break; case 38: // up break; case 37: // left break; case 39: // right break; } }); And if it helps, here's the HTML div. I have a few of these on the page, and essentially, am trying to scroll to next one by pressing down arrow: <div class='screen-wrapper'> <div class='screen'> <div class="sections"> <ul> <li><img src="images/portfolio/sushii-1.png " /></li> <li><img src="images/portfolio/sushii-2.png" /></li> <li><img src="images/portfolio/sushii-3.png" /></li> </ul> </div> <div class="next"></div> <div class="prev"></div> </div> And also if it needed, I can provide a link where this is being used if it'll help someone get a better idea. edit And, i forgot to mention what the real question here is. The question/problem is that it won't scroll down past the first element, as seth mentioned.

    Read the article

  • IIS7 GrantByDefault

    - by jonot
    I have an application (written in c#) that allow me to set IIS to allow or deny access to a website from all ip addresses. The application works fine for IIS6 however it does not work with IIS 7 (even with IIS 6 WMI Compatibility installed). heres the code (basically) Type typ = this.Entry.Properties[IIsWebDirectoryProperty.IPSecurity][0].GetType(); var securityProp = this.Entry.Properties[IIsWebDirectoryProperty.IPSecurity][0]; typ.InvokeMember("GrantByDefault", BindingFlags.DeclaredOnly | BindingFlags.Public | BindingFlags.NonPublic | BindingFlags.Instance | BindingFlags.SetProperty, null, securityProp, new object[] { IPSecurity.GrantByDefault }); this.Entry.CommitChanges(); I have checked the metabase for both IIS6 and IIS7 using the metabase explorer and the only diffecnce I can see is that the "IPSecurity" property does not appear in IIS7 until you also add a an allow or deny IP address, through IIS Manager. Whats really got me stumped is that even when I edit the feature setting to Deny access in the IIS Manager there is no change to the metabase or to the web.config in the site root! So how/where is this property being set and read from? And how can I set and read value of this property programmatically?

    Read the article

  • Invalid iPhone Application Binary

    - by Kristopher Johnson
    I'm trying to upload an application to the iPhone App Store, but I get this error message from iTunes Connect: The binary you uploaded was invalid. The signature was invalid, or it was not signed with an Apple submission certificate. My guess is that it is not properly signed. I have downloaded my App Store distribution certficate, but I can't figure out how to "sign" my application with it. The SDK's documentation about code signing is not very helpful. (FWIW, I can install the app on my iPhone just fine using the development provisioning profile.) However, it is possible that I screwed things up on a more basic level. Here's what I did to try to prepare it for upload: In Xcode, select the Device|Release target Select the target and click the Info button. Change "Code Signing Identity" to "iPhone Distribution", and change "Code Signing Provisioning Profile" to my App Store distribution profile. Build Go to the directory where the built MyApp.app bundle is, control-click and choose "Compress" to create MyApp.zip Upload MyApp.zip to the App Store via iTunes Connect (which resulted in the above error message). Can anybody give me any hints? Edit: Found someone with the same problem. Unfortunately, he won't tell us how he fixed it. http://www.rhonabwy.com/wp/2008/07/18/seattlebus-diary-ongoing-update-saga/#comments http://www.rhonabwy.com/wp/2008/07/22/seattlebus-diary-update-is-pending-review/ (Note: For general information on submitting iPhone applications to the App Store, see Steps to upload an iPhone application to the AppStore.)

    Read the article

  • How to speed up marching cubes?

    - by Dan Vinton
    I'm using this marching cube algorithm to draw 3D isosurfaces (ported into C#, outputting MeshGeomtry3Ds, but otherwise the same). The resulting surfaces look great, but are taking a long time to calculate. Are there any ways to speed up marching cubes? The most obvious one is to simply reduce the spatial sampling rate, but this reduces the quality of the resulting mesh. I'd like to avoid this. I'm considering a two-pass system, where the first pass samples space much more coarsely, eliminating volumes where the field strength is well below my isolevel. Is this wise? What are the pitfalls? Edit: the code has been profiled, and the bulk of CPU time is split between the marching cubes routine itself and the field strength calculation for each grid cell corner. The field calculations are beyond my control, so speeding up the cubes routine is my only option... I'm still drawn to the idea of trying to eliminate dead space, since this would reduce the number of calls to both systems considerably.

    Read the article

  • Change Data Capture or Change Tracking - Same as Traditional Audit Trail Table?

    - by HardCode
    Before I delve into the abyss of Microsoft documentation any deeper, I'd like to know if someone experienced with Change Data Capture and Change Tracking know if one or both of these can be used to replace the traditional ... "Audit trail table copy of the 'real table' (all of the fields of the original table, plus date/time, user ID, and DML action field) inserted into by Triggers" ... setup for a database table audit trail, where the trigger populates the audit trail table (which is all manual work). The MSDN overview documentation explains at a high level what Change Data Capture and Change Tracking are, but it isn't clear enough to me, and doesn't state outright, that these tools can be used to replace the traditional audit trail tables we've made so often. Can someone with any experience using Change Data Capture and Change Tracking save me a lot of time, or confirm that I am spending time looking at the right tool? The critical part of our audit trail is capturing all changes to a table's fields (on INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE), when it happened, and who did it. These changes are commonly provided to an end user chronologically via an audit trail report. Which is another question ... Change Data Capture or Change Tracking is the solution, I'd assume that this data can be queried just like data from a normal table? EDIT: I need a permanent audit trail, irregardless of time. I see that Change Data Capture has to do with the transaction logs, so this sounds finite to me.

    Read the article

  • Java Collections and Garbage Collector

    - by Anth0
    A little question regarding performance in a Java web app. Let's assume I have a List<Rubrique> listRubriques with ten Rubrique objects. A Rubrique contains one list of products (List<product> listProducts) and one list of clients (List<Client> listClients). What exactly happens in memory if I do this: listRubriques.clear(); listRubriques = null; My point of view would be that, since listRubriques is empty, all my objects previously referenced by this list (including listProducts and listClients) will be garbage collected pretty soon. But since Collection in Java are a little bit tricky and since I have quite performance issues with my app i'm asking the question :) edit : let's assume now that my Client object contains a List<Client>. Therefore, I have kind of a circular reference between my objects. What would happen then if my listRubrique is set to null? This time, my point of view would be that my Client objects will become "unreachable" and might create a memory leak?

    Read the article

  • HttpWebRequest Timeouts After Ten Consecutive Requests

    - by Bob Mc
    I'm writing a web crawler for a specific site. The application is a VB.Net Windows Forms application that is not using multiple threads - each web request is consecutive. However, after ten successful page retrievals every successive request times out. I have reviewed the similar questions already posted here on SO, and have implemented the recommended techniques into my GetPage routine, shown below: Public Function GetPage(ByVal url As String) As String Dim result As String = String.Empty Dim uri As New Uri(url) Dim sp As ServicePoint = ServicePointManager.FindServicePoint(uri) sp.ConnectionLimit = 100 Dim request As HttpWebRequest = WebRequest.Create(uri) request.KeepAlive = False request.Timeout = 15000 Try Using response As HttpWebResponse = DirectCast(request.GetResponse, HttpWebResponse) Using dataStream As Stream = response.GetResponseStream() Using reader As New StreamReader(dataStream) If response.StatusCode <> HttpStatusCode.OK Then Throw New Exception("Got response status code: " + response.StatusCode) End If result = reader.ReadToEnd() End Using End Using response.Close() End Using Catch ex As Exception Dim msg As String = "Error reading page """ & url & """. " & ex.Message Logger.LogMessage(msg, LogOutputLevel.Diagnostics) End Try Return result End Function Have I missed something? Am I not closing or disposing of an object that should be? It seems strange that it always happens after ten consecutive requests. Notes: In the constructor for the class in which this method resides I have the following: ServicePointManager.DefaultConnectionLimit = 100 If I set KeepAlive to true, the timeouts begin after five requests. All the requests are for pages in the same domain. EDIT I added a delay between each web request of between two and seven seconds so that I do not appear to be "hammering" the site or attempting a DOS attack. However, the problem still occurs.

    Read the article

  • Hidden controls, iframes or divs

    - by user287745
    What happens to the controls or the iframe or the div, which are hidden? Do they get transferred to the user side? Disabled: does it get transferred to the user side? What I want is, an aspx page will be having many iframes to display different pages. There will be many div tags to display CSS formatted information. To understand what I mean by many:- I have to transfer a complete website with 30 aspx pages into one single page! I have simply combined everything resulting in one extremely huge page. My concern is that on local host it loads fast, but when on online server accessed by numerous people for education purposes, the site (ONE PAGE) WILL SLOW DOWN terribly. To overcome this I thought of using hidden and disable options. What is an improved way of achieving the above? Yes, it sounds silly but this is the requirement. Edit: Yes, I know id and server tag must be set, but what I am asking will the div tag be sent to the user's browser? One answer is no. So can I enable them using JavaScript? Like document.getElementById(id).style.visibility="visible" What if I disable them, and from coding of JavaScript enable them? Will they be loaded at the time of enabling?

    Read the article

  • How to force c# binary int division to return a double?

    - by Wayne
    How to force double x = 3 / 2; to return 1.5 in x without the D suffix or casting? Is there any kind of operator overload that can be done? Or some compiler option? Amazingly, it's not so simple to add the casting or suffix for the following reason: Business users need to write and debug their own formulas. Presently C# is getting used like a DSL (domain specific language) in that these users aren't computer science engineers. So all they know is how to edit and create a few types of classes to hold their "business rules" which are generally just math formulas. But they always assume that double x = 3 / 2; will return x = 1.5 however in C# that returns 1. A. they always forget this, waste time debugging, call me for support and we fix it. B. they think it's very ugly and hurts the readability of their business rules. As you know, DSL's need to be more like natural language. Yes. We are planning to move to Boo and build a DSL based on it but that's down the road. Is there a simple solution to make double x = 3 / 2; return 1.5 by something external to the class so it's invisible to the users? Thanks! Wayne

    Read the article

  • How to force c# binary int division to return a double?

    - by Wayne
    How to force double x = 3 / 2; to return 1.5 in x without the D suffix or casting? Is there any kind of operator overload that can be done? Or some compiler option? Amazingly, it's not so simple to add the casting or suffix for the following reason: Business users need to write and debug their own formulas. Presently C# is getting used like a DSL (domain specific language) in that these users aren't computer science engineers. So all they know is how to edit and create a few types of classes to hold their "business rules" which are generally just math formulas. But they always assume that double x = 3 / 2; will return x = 1.5 however in C# that returns 1. A. they always forget this, waste time debugging, call me for support and we fix it. B. they think it's very ugly and hurts the readability of their business rules. As you know, DSL's need to be more like natural language. Yes. We are planning to move to Boo and build a DSL based on it but that's down the road. Is there a simple solution to make double x = 3 / 2; return 1.5 by something external to the class so it's invisible to the users? Thanks! Wayne

    Read the article

  • install linux guest on windows host using a .iso file on vmserver 2.0

    - by Bob
    I have done this in vmserver 1.0. I set the Cd to point to the .iso file. Then I start the vm and it starts to install. I am on the summary screen. I have created a VM. I go to CD/DVD - edit I change the radio button to Host Medio Then I select ISO Image and Browse. Here is the problem: Then in my browser I get Inventory - Virtual Machine (directory) I don't know where that directory is. I have my ISO's in a folder on my desktop. I can't browse to my desktop. When I try to just put in a path such as c:\mydesktop\mylinuxdirectory\linux1.iso The following problems have been found:OKThe ISO Image File Path must be a valid file path in the format: "[datastore] /path/to/isoimage.iso". so how do I browse to an ISO? I can add the iso after I start the VM, but by then its too late and the VM says no Operating System installed.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET dynamically reassign controls in the control tree

    - by pbz
    Let's say I have a custom control that looks like this <cc:MyControl runat="server" ID="myc" LinkControlID="NewParent" /> and, on the same page: <asp:TextBox runat="server" ID="NewParent" /> What I would like to do is, from MyControl, change NewParent's parent so that it would be part of MyControl's Controls collection. When I try to do this, from OnInit, I get: The control collection cannot be modified during DataBind, Init, Load, PreRender or Unload phases. Which makes sense, but is there a way around this? I'm OK if NewParent remains the child of the Page as long as from MyControl I can somehow redirect the rendering to MyControl's control. Can this be done? Thanks. EDIT: To clarify here's a mockup of MyControl: public class MyControl : Panel { protected override void OnInit(System.EventArgs e) { base.OnInit(e); if (!String.IsNullOrEmpty(LinkControlID)) { Control link = Parent.FindControl(LinkControlID); if (link != null) { Controls.Add(link); } } } public string LinkControlID { get; set; } } This assumes that MyControl and LinkControlID are placed on the same level in the tree hierarchy, which is OK in my case.

    Read the article

  • My OpenCL kernel is slower on faster hardware.. But why?

    - by matdumsa
    Hi folks, As I was finishing coding my project for a multicore programming class I came up upon something really weird I wanted to discuss with you. We were asked to create any program that would show significant improvement in being programmed for a multi-core platform. I’ve decided to try and code something on the GPU to try out OpenCL. I’ve chosen the matrix convolution problem since I’m quite familiar with it (I’ve parallelized it before with open_mpi with great speedup for large images). So here it is, I select a large GIF file (2.5 MB) [2816X2112] and I run the sequential version (original code) and I get an average of 15.3 seconds. I then run the new OpenCL version I just wrote on my MBP integrated GeForce 9400M and I get timings of 1.26s in average.. So far so good, it’s a speedup of 12X!! But now I go in my energy saver panel to turn on the “Graphic Performance Mode” That mode turns off the GeForce 9400M and turns on the Geforce 9600M GT my system has. Apple says this card is twice as fast as the integrated one. Guess what, my timing using the kick-ass graphic card are 3.2 seconds in average… My 9600M GT seems to be more than two times slower than the 9400M.. For those of you that are OpenCL inclined, I copy all data to remote buffers before starting, so the actual computation doesn’t require roundtrip to main ram. Also, I let OpenCL determine the optimal local-worksize as I’ve read they’ve done a pretty good implementation at figuring that parameter out.. Anyone has a clue? edit: full source code with makefiles here http://www.mathieusavard.info/convolution.zip cd gimage make cd ../clconvolute make put a large input.gif in clconvolute and run it to see results

    Read the article

  • Force Oracle error on fetch

    - by Dan
    I am trying to debug a strange behavior in my application. In order to do so, I need to reproduce a scenario where an SQL SELECT query will throw an error, but only while actually fetching from the cursor, not while executing the query itself. Can this be done? Any error will do, but ORA-01722: invalid number seems like the obvious one to try. I created a table with the follwing: KEYCOL INTEGER PRIMARY KEY OTHERCOL VARCHAR2(100) I then created a few hundred rows with unique values for the primary key and the value l for the othercol. I then ran a SELECT * query, picked a row somewhere in the middle, and updated it to the string abcd. I ran the query SELECT KEYCOL, TO_NUMBER(OTHERCOL) FROM SOMETABLE hoping to get some rows of good data an then an error later. But I keep getting ORA-01722: invalid number on the execute step itself. I have gotten this behavior programmatically using ADO (with server-side cursor) and JDBC, as well as from PL/SQL Developer. How can I get the result I'm looking for? thanks Edit - meant to add, when using ADO, I am only calling Command.Execute. I am not creating or opening a Recordset.

    Read the article

  • text-overflow:ellipsis in Firefox 4?

    - by Spudley
    The text-overflow:ellipsis; CSS property must be one of the few things that Microsoft has done right for the web. All the other browsers now support it... except Firefox. The Firefox developers have been arguing over it since 2005 but despite the obvious demand for it, they can't seem to actually bring themselves to implement it (even an experimental -moz- implementation would be sufficient). A few years ago, someone worked out a way to hack Firefox 3 to make it support an ellipsis. The hack uses the -moz-binding feature to implement it using XUL. Quite a number of sites are now using this hack. The bad news? Firefox 4 is removing the -moz-binding feature, which means this hack won't work any more. So as soon as Firefox 4 is released (later this month, I hear), we're going to be back to the problem of having it not being able to support this feature. So my question is: Is there any other way around this? (I'm trying to avoid falling back to a Javascript solution if at all possible) [EDIT] Lots of up-votes, so I'm obviously not the only one who wants to know, but I've got one answer so far which basically says 'use javascript'. I'm still hoping for a solution that will either not need JS at all, or at worst only use it as a fall-back where the CSS feature doesn't work. So I'm going to post a bounty on the question, on the off chance that someone, somewhere has found an answer.

    Read the article

  • Instantiate type variable in Haskell

    - by danportin
    EDIT: Solved. I was unware that enabling a language extension in the source file did not enable the language extension in GHCi. The solution was to :set FlexibleContexts in GHCi. I recently discovered that type declarations in classes and instances in Haskell are Horn clauses. So I encoded the arithmetic operations from The Art of Prolog, Chapter 3, into Haskell. For instance: fac(0,s(0)). fac(s(N),F) :- fac(N,X), mult(s(N),X,F). class Fac x y | x -> y instance Fac Z (S Z) instance (Fac n x, Mult (S n) x f) => Fac (S n) f pow(s(X),0,0) :- nat(X). pow(0,s(X),s(0)) :- nat(X). pow(s(N),X,Y) :- pow(N,X,Z), mult(Z,X,Y). class Pow x y z | x y -> z instance (N n) => Pow (S n) Z Z instance (N n) => Pow Z (S n) (S Z) instance (Pow n x z, Mult z x y) => Pow (S n) x y In Prolog, values are insantiated for (logic) variable in a proof. However, I don't understand how to instantiate type variables in Haskell. That is, I don't understand what the Haskell equivalent of a Prolog query ?-f(X1,X2,...,Xn) is. I assume that :t undefined :: (f x1 x2 ... xn) => xi would cause Haskell to instantiate xi, but this gives a Non type-variable argument in the constraint error, even with FlexibleContexts enabled.

    Read the article

  • Finding subsets that can be completed to tuples without duplicates

    - by Jules
    We have a collection of sets A_1,..,A_n. The goal is to find new sets for each of the old sets. newA_i = {a_i in A_i such that there exist (a_1,..,a_n) in (A1,..,An) with no a_k = a_j for all k and j} So in words this says that we remove all the elements from A_i that can't be used to form a tuple (a_1,..a_n) from the sets (A_1,..,A_n) such that the tuple doesn't contain duplicates. My question is how to compute these new sets quickly. If you just implement this definition by generating all possible v's this will take exponential time. Do you know a better algorithm? Edit: here's an example. Take A_1 = {1,2,3,4} A_2 = {2}. Now the new sets look like this: newA_1 = {1,3,4} newA_2 = {2} The 2 has been removed from A_1 because if you choose it the tuple will always be (2,2) which is invalid because it contains duplicates. On the other hand 1,3,4 are valid because (1,2), (3,2) and (4,2) are valid tuples. Another example: A_1 = {1,2,3} A_2 = {1,4,5} A_3 = {2,4,5} A_4 = {1,2,3} A_5 = {1,2,3} Now the new sets are: newA_1 = {1,2,3} newA_2 = {4,5} newA_3 = {4,5} newA_4 = {1,2,3} newA_5 = {1,2,3} The 1 and 2 are removed from sets 2 and 3 because if you choose the 1 or 2 from these sets you'll only have 2 values left for sets 1, 4 and 5, so you will always have duplicates in tuples that look like (_,1,_,_,_) or like (_,_,2,_,_).

    Read the article

  • Why can't I set boolean columns with update?

    - by Benjamin Oakes
    I'm making a user administration page. For the system I'm creating, users need to be approved. Sometimes, there will be many users to approve, so I'd like to make that easy. I'm storing this as a boolean column called approved. I remembered the Edit Multiple Individually Railscast and thought it would be a great fit. However, I'm running into problems which I traced back to ActiveRecord::Base#update. update works fine in this example: >> User.all.map(&:username) => ["ben", "fred"] >> h = {"1"=>{'username'=>'benjamin'}, "2"=>{"username"=>'frederick'}} => {"1"=>{"username"=>"benjamin"}, "2"=>{"username"=>"frederick"}} >> User.update(h.keys, h.values) => ... >> User.all.map(&:username) => ["benjamin", "frederick"] But not this one: >> User.all.map(&:approved) => [true, nil] >> h = {"1"=>{'approved'=>'1'}, "2"=>{'approved'=>'1'}} >> User.update(h.keys, h.values) => ... >> User.all.map(&:approved) => [true, nil] Chaging from '1' to true didn't make a difference when I tested. What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • Adding a guideline to the editor in Visual Studio

    - by xsl
    Introduction I've always been searching for a way to make Visual Studio draw a line after a certain amount of characters: Below is a guide to enable these so called guidelines for various versions of Visual Studio. Visual Studio 2010 Install Paul Harrington's Editor Guidelines extension. Open the registry at HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Microsoft\VisualStudio\10.0\Text Editor and add a new string called Guides with the value RGB(100,100,100), 80. The first part specifies the color, while the other one (80) is the column the line will be displayed. Or install the Guidelines UI extension, which will add entries to the editor's context menu for adding/removing the entries without needing to edit the registry directly. The current disadvantage of this method is that you can't specify the column directly. Visual Studio 2008 and Other Versions If you are using Visual Studio 2008 open the registry at HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Microsoft\VisualStudio\9.0\Text Editor and add a new string called Guides with the value RGB(100,100,100), 80. The first part specifies the color, while the other one (80) is the column the line will be displayed. The vertical line will appear, when you restart Visual Studio. This trick also works for various other version of Visual Studio, as long as you use the correct path: 2003: HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Microsoft\VisualStudio\7.1\Text Editor 2005: HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Microsoft\VisualStudio\8.0\Text Editor 2008: HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Microsoft\VisualStudio\9.0\Text Editor 2008 Express: HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Microsoft\VCExpress\9.0\Text Editor This also works in SQL Server 2005 and probably other versions.

    Read the article

  • WPF TexBox TwoWay Binding Problem when ValidationRules used

    - by ignis
    I seem to have a problem with TwoWay DataBinding - my application has a window with a bunch of textboxes that allow to edit values of the properties they are bound to. Everything works well except for textboxes that also have a validation rule defined, in which case no text is displayed in the textbox when the window opens (binding back-to-source still works fine for those). If I remove Validation rule, everything's back to normal. I searched for an answer to this for a few hours now, but somehow did not even find anyone else complaining of the same issue. I am completely new to WPF, and I am sure it is just a silly mistake I have somewhere in my code... I will greatly appreciate any feedback... <TextBox Margin="40,2,20,0" Grid.Column="0" Grid.Row="1" Background="#99FFFFFF" > <Binding Path="LastName" Mode="TwoWay" ValidatesOnDataErrors="true" UpdateSourceTrigger="LostFocus" > <Binding.ValidationRules> <validation:StringNameValidationRule /> </Binding.ValidationRules> </Binding> </TextBox>

    Read the article

  • how to combine widget webapp framework with SEO-friendly CSS and JS files

    - by Ali
    Hi guys, I'm writing a webapp using Zend framework and a homebrew widget system. Every widget has a controller and can choose to render one of many views if it chooses. This really helps us modularize and reconfigure and reuse the widgets anywhere on the site. The Problem is that the views of each widget contain their own JS and CSS code, which leads to very messy HTML code when the whole page is put together. You get pockets of style and script tags everywhere. This is bad for a lot of different reasons as I'm sure you know, but it has a profound effect on our SEO as well. Several solutions that I've been able to come up with: Separate the CSS and JS of every view of every widget into its own file - this has serious drawbacks for load times (many more resources have to be loaded separately) and it makes coding very difficult as now you have to have 3-4 files open just to edit a widget. combine the all the widget CSS into a single file (same with JS) - would also lead to a massive load when someone enters the site, mixes up the CSS and the JS for all widgets so it's harder to keep track of them, and other problems that I'm sure you can think of. Create a system that uses method 1 (separate CSS and JS for every widget), when delivering the page, stitches all CSS and JS together. This obviously needs more processing time and of course the creation of such a system, etc. My Question is what you guys think of these solutions or if there are pre-existing solutions that you know of (or any tech that might help) solve this problem. I really appreciate all of your thoughts and comments!! Thanks guys, Ali

    Read the article

  • [SOLVED]: Delegate OpenID to Google (NOT Google Apps)

    - by Rio
    OK, I searched this question on SO but no good answer. After spent some time I figured out how to do it. I'm going to answer this myself as a way to share it. Not sure if this is the correct way to use SO, but here it goes: Now it is possible delegate OpenID to your Google account (not Google Apps). No, this is not using the demo OpenID provider using App Engine. This is your REAL Google account! First you need to enable your Google Profiles. Try to view your profile and edit it, there should be an option to set your Profile URL. You have two choices there: either use your Gmail account name (without the @gmail.com part) as your profile id, or a random number assigned to you. It's up to you to decide which one to use. Either way, that id is your profile id below. Now add the following HTML code to your delegating page: <link rel="openid2.provider" href="https://www.google.com/accounts/o8/ud?source=profiles" > <link rel="openid2.local_id" href="http://www.google.com/profiles/[YOUR PROFILE ID]" > And it's done. Now try login SO with your custom url!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 573 574 575 576 577 578 579 580 581 582 583 584  | Next Page >