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  • Where to find algorithms for standard math functions?

    - by dsimcha
    I'm looking to submit a patch to the D programming language standard library that will allow much of std.math to be evaluated at compile time using the compile-time function evaluation facilities of the language. Compile-time function evaluation has several limitations, the most important ones being: You can't use assembly language. You can't call C code or code for which the source is otherwise unavailable. Several std.math functions violate these and compile-time versions need to be written. Where can I get information on good algorithms for computing things such as logarithms, exponents, powers, and trig functions? I prefer just high level descriptions of algorithms to actual code, for two reasons: To avoid legal ambiguity and the need to make my code look "different enough" from the source to make sure I own the copyright. I want simple, portable algorithms. I don't care about micro-optimization as long as they're at least asymptotically efficient. Edit: D's compile time function evaluation model allows floating point results computed at compile time to differ from those computed at runtime anyhow, so I don't care if my compile-time algorithms don't give exactly the same result as the runtime version as long as they aren't less accurate to a practically significant extent.

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  • Google Javascript v8 - multithreading

    - by willem
    Hi guys Suppose I have the following piece of code bool run (void) { HandleScope hande_scope; Handle<String> source; Local<Script> script; Persistent<Context> context; context = Context::New(); Context::Scope context_scope(context); script = Script::Compile("var a = 1; var b = 2;"); Local<Value> result = script->Run(); if (result.IsEmpty()) return false; else return true; } Is it true that one cannot execute this code using multiple threads? It seems like HandleScope is not designed to be used in multithreaded applications. I can use the v8::Locker and v8::Unlocker methodes but that would always give me execution traces as this: t1: a = 1 t1: b = 2 t2: a = 1 t2: b = 2 I hope someone can give me a hint on getting this code multithreaded so that a possible execution trace could like this: t1: a = 1 t2: a = 1 t1: b = 2 t2: b = 2 Thanks already in advance! Willem -- EDIT -- So I guess that this question has no answer :)

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  • Blob in Java/Hibernate/sql-server 2005

    - by Ramy
    Hi, I'm trying to insert an HTML blob into our sql-server2005 database. i've been using the data-type [text] for the field the blob will eventually live in. i've also put a '@Lob' annotation on the field in the domain model. The problem comes in when the HTML blob I'm attempting to store is larger than 65536 characters. Its seems that is the caracter-limit for a text data type when using the @Lob annotation. Ideally I'd like to keep the whole blob in tact rather than chunk it up into multiple rows in the database. I appreciate any help or insight that might be provided. Thanks! _Ramy Allow me to clarify annotation: @Lob @Column(length = Integer. MAX_VALUE) //per an answer on stackoverflow private String htmlBlob; database side (sql-server-2005): CREATE TABLE dbo.IndustrySectorTearSheetBlob( ... htmlBlob text NULL ... ) Still seeing truncation after 65536 characters... EDIT: i've printed out the contents of all possible strings (only 10 right now) that would be inserted into the Database. Each string seems to contain all cahracters, judging by the fact that the close html tag is present at the end of the string....

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  • Use iconv API in C

    - by Constantin
    I try to convert a sjis string to utf-8 using the iconv API. I compiled it already succesfully, but the output isn't what I expected. My code: void convertUtf8ToSjis(char* utf8, char* sjis){ iconv_t icd; int index = 0; char *p_src, *p_dst; size_t n_src, n_dst; icd = iconv_open("Shift_JIS", "UTF-8"); int c; p_src = utf8; p_dst = sjis; n_src = strlen(utf8); n_dst = 32; // my sjis string size iconv(icd, &p_src, &n_src, &p_dst, &n_dst); iconv_close(icd); } I got only random numbers. Any ideas? Edit: My input is char utf8[] = "\xe4\xba\x9c"; //? And output should be: 0x88 0x9F But is in fact: 0x30 0x00 0x00 0x31 0x00 ...

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  • Dashcode code translation

    - by Alex Mcp
    Hi, a quick, probably easy question whose answer is probably "best practice" I'm following a tutorial for a custom-template mobile Safari webapp, and to change views around this code is used: function btnSave_ClickHandler(event) { var views = document.getElementById('stackLayout'); var front = document.getElementById('mainScreen'); if (views && views.object && front) { views.object.setCurrentView(front, true); } } My question is just about the if conditional statement. What is this triplet saying, and why do each of those things need to be verified before the view can be changed? Does views.object just test to see if the views variable responds to the object method? Why is this important? EDIT - This is/was the main point of this question, and it regards not Javascript as a language and how if loops work, but rather WHY these 3 things specifically need to be checked: Under what scenarios might views and front not exist? I don't typically write my code so redundantly. If the name of my MySQL table isn't changing, I'll just say UPDATE 'mytable' WHERE... instead of the much more verbose (and in my view, redundant) $mytable = "TheSQLTableName"; if ($mytable == an actual table && $mytable exists && entries can be updated){ UPDATE $mytable; } Whereas if the table's name (or in the JS example, the view's names) ARE NOT "hard coded" but are instead a user input or otherwise mutable, I might right my code as the DashCode example has it. So tell me, can these values "go wrong" anyhow? Thanks!

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  • Why can't I get a TRUE return in this prepared statement?

    - by Cortopasta
    I can't seem to get this to do anything but return false. My best guess is that the prepared statement isn't executing, but I have no idea why. private function check_credentials($plain_username, $md5_password) { global $dbcon; $ac = new ac(); $ac->dbconnect(); $userid = $dbcon->prepare('SELECT id FROM users WHERE username = :username AND password = :password LIMIT 1'); $userid->bindParam(':username', $plain_username); $userid->bindParam(':password', $md5_password); $userid->execute(); $id = $userid->fetch(); Return $id; } *EDIT:*I've even tried hard coding the username and password into the function itself to try and isolate the problem like this: private function check_credentials($plain_username, $md5_password) { global $dbcon; $plain_username = "jim"; $md5_username = "waffles"; $ac = new ac(); $ac->dbconnect(); $userid = $dbcon->prepare('SELECT id FROM users WHERE username = :username AND password = :password LIMIT 1'); $userid->bindParam(':username', $plain_username); $userid->bindParam(':password', $md5_password); $userid->execute(); print_r($dbcon->errorInfo()); $id = $userid->fetch(); Return $id; } Still nothing :-/

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  • MD5 Hashing Given a Key in C#

    - by Jared
    I've been looking for a way to hash a given string in C# that uses a predetermined key. On my adventures through the internet trying to find an example i have seen lots of MD5CryptoServiceProvider examples which seem to use a default key for the machine, but none of them that apply a specific key. I need to have a specific key to encode data as to synchronize it to someone else's server. I hand them a hashed string and an ID number and they use that analyze the data and return a similar set to me. So is there anyway to get md5 to hash via a specific key that would be consistent to both. I would prefer this to be done in C#, but if its not possible with the libraries can you do so with some web languages like php or asp? Edit: Misunderstood the scenario I was thrown into and after a little sitting and thinking about why they would have me use a key it appears they want a key appended to the end of the string and hashed. That way the server can appended the key it has along with the data passed to ensure its a valid accessing computer. Anyways... thanks all ^_^ Edit2: As my comment below says, it was the term 'salting' I was oblivious to. Oh the joys of getting thrown into something new with no directions.

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  • Create Generic method constraining T to an Enum

    - by johnc
    I'm building a function to extend the Enum.Parse concept that allows a default value to be parsed in case that an Enum value is not found Is case insensitive So I wrote the following public static T GetEnumFromString<T>(string value, T defaultValue) where T : Enum { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(value)) return defaultValue; foreach (T item in Enum.GetValues(typeof(T))) { if (item.ToString().ToLower().Equals(value.Trim().ToLower())) return item; } return defaultValue; } I am getting a Error Constraint cannot be special class 'System.Enum' Fair enough, but is there a workaround to allow a Generic Enum, or am I going to have to mimic the Parse function and pass a type as an attribute, which forces the ugly boxing requirement to your code. EDIT All suggestions below have been greatly appreciated, thanks Have settled on (I've left the loop to maintain case insensitivity - I am usng this when parsing XML) public static class EnumUtils { public static T ParseEnum<T>(string value, T defaultValue) where T : struct, IConvertible { if (!typeof(T).IsEnum) throw new ArgumentException("T must be an enumerated type"); if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(value)) return defaultValue; foreach (T item in Enum.GetValues(typeof(T))) { if (item.ToString().ToLower().Equals(value.Trim().ToLower())) return item; } return defaultValue; } }

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  • Why does my DataTemplate break the WPF designer?

    - by PRINCESS FLUFF
    Why does the DataTemplate line break the WPF designer in Visual Studio 2008? The program compiles and runs properly. The DataTemplate is applied as it should. However the entire DataTemplate block of code is underlined in red, and when I simply "build" the program without running, I get the error "Type reference cannot find public type named 'Character'" How come it can't find it in the designer yet the program applies the template properly? <UserControl x:Class="WPF_Tests.Tests.TwoCollecViews.TwoViews" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:DetailsPane="clr-namespace:WPF_Tests.Tests.DetailsPane" > <UserControl.Resources> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type DetailsPane:Character}"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=Name}"></TextBlock> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </UserControl.Resources> <Grid> <ListBox ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Characters}" /> </Grid> </UserControl> EDIT: I am being told that this may be a bug in Visual Studio 2008, as it worked correctly in 2010. You can download the code here: http://www.mediafire.com/?z1myytvwm4n - The Test/TwoCollec xaml file's designer will break with this code.

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  • cl.exe Difference in object files when /E output is the same and flags are the same

    - by madiyaan damha
    Hello: I am using Visual Studio 2005's cl.exe compiler. I call it with a bunch of /I /D and some compilation/optimization flags (example: /Ehsc). I have two compilation scripts, and both differ only in the /I flags (include directories are different). All other flags are the same. These scripts produce different object files (and not just a timestamp difference as noted below). The strange thing is that the /E output of both scripts is the same. That means that the include files are not causing the difference in object files, but then again, where is the difference coming from? Can anyone elucidate on how I am seeing two different object files in my situation. If the include files are causing the difference, how come I see identical /E output? PS. The object files are different not only in the timestamp, but in the code sections also. In fact the behavior of my final executable is different in both cases. Edit: PSS: I even looked at the /includeFiles output of cl.exe and that output is identical. The object files, however, differ in more than just the timestamp (in fact, one is 1KB bigger than another!)

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  • How to get "AuthSub " token in C#? For google APPS Contacts ?

    - by Pari
    Hi, I fount this code on net : HttpWebRequest update = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(**editUrl** ); // editUrl is a string containing the contact's edit URL update.Method = "PUT"; update.ContentType = "application/atom+xml"; update.Headers.Add(HttpRequestHeader.Authorization, "GoogleLogin auth=" + **AuthToken**); update.Headers.Add(HttpRequestHeader.IfMatch, **etag**); // etag is a string containing the <entry> element's gd:etag attribute value update.Headers.Add("GData-Version", "3.0"); Stream streamRequest = update.GetRequestStream(); StreamWriter streamWriter = new StreamWriter(streamRequest, Encoding.UTF8); streamWriter.Write(entry); // entry is the string representation of the atom entry to update streamWriter.Close(); WebResponse response = update.GetResponse(); But here i am not getting what to put in " editurl" , "AuthToken" and "Etag". a) I studied abt "AuthToken" from this Link .But not getting how to create it? Can anyone help me out here? b) Also not getting " editurl" and "Etag". I am trying to use this method to Migrate my contacts to Google Apps. Thanx

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  • Sharepoint designer is replacing french characters with &#65533;

    - by chris
    First of all, I'm not a web designer, I'm a programmer, so I'm working a bit out of my knowledge area. However, as the person in my office who has some working knowledge of French, I'm stuck with this issue. The Problem: Sharepoint Designer is replacing all French accented characters with the &#65533; (square box or diamond-? �) character. It doesn't appear to matter if I enter the 'é' character as alt-130 (in either design or source or as &eacute; Everything works fine when editing, but when the file is saved and loaded into a browser, it replaces the characters. When reloading into designer, the file shows the 65533 symbol. EDIT: More info. I use &#233; and save, close SP designer, Reloading SP designer will show the é (instead of the code) in source. Next reload will have replaced it with &#65533; Question 1: (more important) HOW DO I STOP THIS!? Question 2: (more interesting) Why does this happen? Charset is iso-8859-1

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  • How do I do nested transactions in NHibernate?

    - by Gavin Schultz-Ohkubo
    Can I do nested transactions in NHibernate, and how do I implement them? I'm using SQL Server 2008, so support is definitely in the DBMS. I find that if I try something like this: using (var outerTX = UnitOfWork.Current.BeginTransaction()) { using (var nestedTX = UnitOfWork.Current.BeginTransaction()) { ... do stuff nestedTX.Commit(); } outerTX.Commit(); } then by the time it comes to outerTX.Commit() the transaction has become inactive, and results in a ObjectDisposedException on the session AdoTransaction. Are we therefore supposed to create nested NHibernate sessions instead? Or is there some other class we should use to wrap around the transactions (I've heard of TransactionScope, but I'm not sure what that is)? I'm now using Ayende's UnitOfWork implementation (thanks Sneal). Forgive any naivety in this question, I'm still new to NHibernate. Thanks! EDIT: I've discovered that you can use TransactionScope, such as: using (var transactionScope = new TransactionScope()) { using (var tx = UnitOfWork.Current.BeginTransaction()) { ... do stuff tx.Commit(); } using (var tx = UnitOfWork.Current.BeginTransaction()) { ... do stuff tx.Commit(); } transactionScope.Commit(); } However I'm not all that excited about this, as it locks us in to using SQL Server, and also I've found that if the database is remote then you have to worry about having MSDTC enabled... one more component to go wrong. Nested transactions are so useful and easy to do in SQL that I kind of assumed NHibernate would have some way of emulating the same...

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  • AVAudioPlayer working in Simulator, but not on device

    - by cannyboy
    My mp3 playing code is: NSError *error; soundObject = [[AVAudioPlayer alloc] initWithContentsOfURL:[NSURL fileURLWithPath:audioPathString] error:&error]; if (soundObject == nil) NSLog(@"%@", [error description]); soundObject.delegate = self; soundObject.numberOfLoops = 0; soundObject.volume = 1.0; NSLog(@"about to play"); [soundObject prepareToPlay]; [soundObject play]; NSLog(@"[soundObject play];"); The mp3 used to play fine, and it still does on the simulator. But not on the device. I've recently added some sound recording code (not mine) to the software. It uses AudioQueue stuff which is slightly beyond me. Does that conflict with AVAudioPlayer? Or what could be the problem? I've noticed that as soon as the audiorecording code starts working, I can't adjust the volume on the device anymore, so maybe it blocks the audio playback?. EDIT The solution seems to be to put this in my code. I put it in applicationDidFinishLaunching: [[AVAudioSession sharedInstance] setCategory: AVAudioSessionCategoryPlayAndRecord error: nil]; UInt32 audioRouteOverride = kAudioSessionOverrideAudioRoute_Speaker; AudioSessionSetProperty (kAudioSessionProperty_OverrideAudioRoute,sizeof (audioRouteOverride),&audioRouteOverride); The first line allows both play and record, whilst the other lines apparently reroute things to make the volume louder. All audio code is voodoo to me.

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  • Javascript - innerHTML not working with HTML select menus

    - by Deacon
    Hi guys, In my HTML page I have 2 select menus with IDs "month" and "day" - "day" is empty when the page loads, "month" has 12 options with values 1-12 corresponding to January - December. "month" has an onchange event which calls this function: function showOutboundDays(month) { if(month==4 || month==6 || month==9 || month==11) document.getElementById('day').innerHTML='<option value="1">1</option><option value="2">2</option>'; etc. up to 30 else if(month==2) document.getElementById('day').innerHTML='<option value="1">1</option>'; etc. up to 28 else document.getElementById('day').innerHTML='<option value="1">1</option>'; etc. up to 31 } (just imagine there are braces around the option tags to help you see...) I think it's pretty clear to see what I'm trying to achieve...and everything works fine apart from the innerHTML of the select with ID "day" doesn't get filled at all, regardless of what month you pick. And I know the problem is with this stage of the function because when I change the if, elseif and else code-to-be-executed to alerts or something similar, it works fine. Does anybody know what the problem with the innerHTML is? Thanks EDIT: Using Firefox 3.6

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  • Installing Silverstripe on 000webhost.com (free web host)

    - by benwad
    Hi I'm trying to learn how to work Silverstripe so I extracted the tar file to my free hosting account. I then went on install.php and edited the permissions to meet the requirements set out in install.php but I still get two warnings from the 'webserver configuration' section: I can't tell what webserver you are running. Without Apache I can't tell if mod_rewrite is enabled. I can't tell whether mod_rewrite is running. You may need to configure a rewriting rule yourself. I looked in phpinfo() and mod_rewrite appears to be installed. I contacted the web host and they said it was to do with virtual directory paths, and I should add 'RewriteBase /' to the top of my .htaccess file in the public_html directory. However I did this and still had the same problem. The install.php script says that I can install it even with these warnings but when I press 'install' it just refreshes the install.php page. It doesn't even overwrite the .htaccess file. 000webhost.com says they have successfully installed Silverstripe on their user accounts without much configuration but I can't seem to find out how. EDIT: I managed to get to the next page but now there is another warning which is stopping it installing: Friendly URLs are not working. This is most likely because mod_rewrite isn't configuredcorrectly on your site. Please check the following things in your Apache configuration; you may need to get your web host or server administrator to do this for you: * mod_rewrite is enabled * AllowOverride All is set for your directory I also get this error message from the server: Warning: unlink(mysite/_config.php) [function.unlink]: Permission denied in /home/a2716553/public_html/install.php on line 701

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  • thread reaches end but isn't removed

    - by pstanton
    I create a bunch of threads to do some processing: new Thread("upd-" + id){ @Override public void run(){ try{ doSomething(); } catch (Throwable e){ LOG.error("error", e); } finally{ LOG.debug("thread death"); } } }.start(); I know i should be using a threadPool but i need to understand the following problem before i change it: I'm using eclipse's debugger and looking at the threads in the debug pane which lists active threads. Many of them complete as you would expect, and are removed from the debug pane, however some seem to stay in the list of active threads even though the log shows the "thread death" entry for these. When i attempt to debug these threads, they either do not pause for debugging or show an error dialog: "A timeout occurred while retrieving stack frames for thread: upd-...". there is some synchronization going on within the doSomething() call but i'm fairly sure it's ok and since the "thread death" log is being called i'm assuming these threads aren't deadlocked in that method. i don't do any Thread.join()s, however i do call a third party API but doubt they do either. Can anyone think of another reason these threads are lingering? Thanks. EDIT: I created this test to check the Garbage Collection theory: Thread thread = new Thread("!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!") { @Override public void run() { System.out.println("running"); ThreadUs.sleepQuiet(5000); System.out.println("finished"); // <-- thread removed from list here } }; thread.start(); ThreadUs.sleepQuiet(10000); System.out.println(thread.isAlive()); // <-- thread already removed from list but hasn't been GC'd ThreadUs.sleepQuiet(10000); this proves that it is nothing to do with garbage collection as eclipse removes the thread from the thread list as soon as it completes and isn't waiting for the object to be de-referenced/GC'd.

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  • Extending ASP.NET role providers

    - by Quick Joe Smith
    Because the RoleProvider interface seems to treat roles as nothing more than simple strings, I'm wondering if there is any non-hacky way to apply an optional value for a role on a per-user basis. Our current login management system implements roles as key-value pairs, where the value part is optional and usually used to clarify or limit the permissions granted by a role. For example, a role 'editor' might contain a user 'barry', but for 'barry' it will have an optional value 'raptors', which the system would interpret to mean that Barry can only edit articles filed under the 'raptors' category. I have seen elsewhere a suggestion to simply create additional delimited roles, such as 'editor.raptors' or somesuch. That's not really going to be ideal because it would bloat the number of roles greatly, and I can tell it's going to be a very hard sell to replace our current implementation (which is also very less than ideal, but has the advantage of being custom made to work with our user database). I can tell already that the concatenation method mentioned above is going to involve a lot of tedious string-splitting and partial matching. Is there a better way?

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  • PHP Magento SOAP-ERROR: Parsing WSDL: Couldn't load from urlpath

    - by dan.codes
    I am trying to create a soap client by passing a url that is hosted on my local machine, my dev environment and I keep getting this error. I use to be able to make this call and it worked just fine. Basically all I am doing is this $client = new SoapClient('http://virtual.website.com:81/api/?wsdl'); If I go to the url in a browser it comes up, so I know it is the right location. On the Magento forums there are some similar posts but I don't know that this is a Magento specific problem. Everything they mention as a solution I already have. They say to edit the hosts file for example 127.0.0.1 website.com I already have this since it is setup as a virtual host. Here is the error in my error_log [Fri Jun 04 12:30:37 2010] [error] [client 127.0.0.1] PHP Fatal error: SOAP-ERROR: Parsing WSDL: Couldn't load from 'http://virtual.website.com:81/api/soap/?wsdl' : XML declaration allowed only at the start of the document\n in /usr/local/sites/virtual.website.com/www/CUSTOMSCRIPTS/removeProductImages.php on line 6 [Fri Jun 04 12:30:37 2010] [error] [client 127.0.0.1] PHP Stack trace: [Fri Jun 04 12:30:37 2010] [error] [client 127.0.0.1] PHP 1. {main}() /usr/local/sites/virtual.website.com/www/CUSTOMSCRIPTS/removeProductImages.php:0 [Fri Jun 04 12:30:37 2010] [error] [client 127.0.0.1] PHP 2. SoapClient->SoapClient(*uninitialized*) /usr/local/sites/virtual.website.com/www/CUSTOMSCRIPTS/removeProductImages.php:6

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  • Get a JQuery function to execute after and independently of onLoad

    - by lewicki
    Is is possible to execute a JQuery function by injecting it into the page? IT CAN'T be attached to the .ready function. The reason is that the user will be uploading an image via iframe. I need JCrop to execute after I display the uploaded image. echo "<script>$('#pictures_step1_right_bottom1', window.parent.document).html('<img id=\"cropbox\" src=\"../../box/" . 'THM' . $filenameAlt . '.jpg' . "\">');</script>"; echo "<script>jQuery(function(){jQuery('#cropbox').Jcrop();});</script>"; This is executed in the iframe that is processing the image. it then sends it to the main page. This does not work however. EDIT: Ended up running a timer: function checkPic() { if($('#cropbox1').length != 0) { jQuery(function() { jQuery('#cropbox1').Jcrop(); }); } timer(); // Check size again after 1 second } function timer(){ var myTimer = setTimeout('checkPic()', 3000); // Check size every 1 second}

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  • How to assign .net membership roles to individual database records

    - by mdresser
    I'm developing a system where we want to restrict the availability of information displayed to users based on their roles. e.g. I have a tabled called EventType (ID, EventTypeDescription) which contains the following records: 1, 'Basic Event' 2, 'Intermediate Event' 3, 'Admin Event' What I need to achieve is to filter the records returned based on the username (and hence role) of the logged-in user. e.g if an advanced user is logged in they will see all the event types, if the standard user is logged in they will only see the basic event type etc. Ideally id like to do this in a way which can be easily extended to other tables as necessary. So I'd like to avoid simply adding a 'Roles' field to each table where the data is user context sensitive. One idea I'm thinking of is to create some kind of permissions table like: PermissionsTable ( ID, Aspnet_RoleId, TableName, PrimaryKeyValue ) this has the drawback of using this is obviously having to use the table name to switch which table to join onto. Edit: In the absence of any better suggestions, I'm going to go with the last idea I mentioned, but instead of having a TableName field, I'm going to normalise the TableName out to it's own table as follows: TableNames ( ID, TableName ) UserPermissionsTable ( ID, Aspnet_UserId, TableID, PrimaryKeyValue )

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  • Anything speaking against the bitnami.org Ruby/Rails/Redmine Stack?

    - by Pekka
    I am looking to set up a Redmine server on a Windows virtual machine on my local workstation. (Background in this related question.) I have zero knowledge of Ruby nor Rails, and while Redmine may be the opportunity to dip into those platforms somewhat, my first goal is to get it running as quickly and easily as possible. For that, I am eyeing the Bitnami Redmine Package. It promises point-and-click install, and a self-contained environment with everything you need. Apart from the learning factor, are there any serious limitations this method implies? Any serious cutdowns in customizability? I will be wanting to customize the template right away, for example, and install plugins. The package looks o.k. to me but before I install it, I was curious to know whether anybody would advise against it and why. Edit: The first impression is great. From 0 to a working Redmine installation in twelve minutes! Wow.

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  • Should this even be a has_many :through association?

    - by GoodGets
    A Post belongs_to a User, and a User has_many Posts. A Post also belongs_to a Topic, and a Topic has_many Posts. class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :posts end class Topic < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :posts end class Post < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user belongs_to :topic end Well, that's pretty simple and very easy to set up, but when I display a Topic, I not only want all of the Posts for that Topic, but also the user_name and the user_photo of the User that made that Post. However, those attributes are stored in the User model and not tied to the Topic. So how would I go about setting that up? Maybe it can already be called since the Post model has two foreign keys, one for the User and one for the Topic? Or, maybe this is some sort of "one-way" has_many through assiociation. Like the Post would be the join model, and a Topic would has_many :users, :through = :posts. But the reverse of this is not true. Like a User does NOT has_many :topics. So would this even need to be has_many :though association? I guess I'm just a little confused on what the controller would look like to call both the Post and the User of that Post for a give Topic. Edit: Seriously, thank you to all that weighed in. I chose tal's answer because I used his code for my controller; however, I could have just as easily chosen either j.'s or tim's instead. Thank you both as well. This was so damn simple to implement, and I think today marks the day that I'm beginning to fall in love with rails.

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  • Help me create a Firefox extension (Javascript XPCOM Component)

    - by Johnny Grass
    I've been looking at different tutorials and I know I'm close but I'm getting lost in implementation details because some of them are a little bit dated and a few things have changed since Firefox 3. I have already written the javascript for the firefox extension, now I need to make it into an XPCOM component. This is the functionality that I need: My Javascript file is simple, I have two functions startServer() and stopServer. I need to run startServer() when the browser starts and stopServer() when firefox quits. Edit: I've updated my code with a working solution (thanks to Neil). The following is in MyExtension/components/myextension.js. Components.utils.import("resource://gre/modules/XPCOMUtils.jsm"); const CI = Components.interfaces, CC = Components.classes, CR = Components.results; // class declaration function MyExtension() {} MyExtension.prototype = { classDescription: "My Firefox Extension", classID: Components.ID("{xxxx-xxxx-xxx-xxxxx}"), contractID: "@example.com/MyExtension;1", QueryInterface: XPCOMUtils.generateQI([CI.nsIObserver]), // add to category manager _xpcom_categories: [{ category: "profile-after-change" }], // start socket server startServer: function () { /* socket initialization code */ }, // stop socket server stopServer: function () { /* stop server */ }, observe: function(aSubject, aTopic, aData) { var obs = CC["@mozilla.org/observer-service;1"].getService(CI.nsIObserverService); switch (aTopic) { case "quit-application": this.stopServer(); obs.removeObserver(this, "quit-application"); break; case "profile-after-change": this.startServer(); obs.addObserver(this, "quit-application", false); break; default: throw Components.Exception("Unknown topic: " + aTopic); } } }; var components = [MyExtension]; function NSGetModule(compMgr, fileSpec) { return XPCOMUtils.generateModule(components); }

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  • Is There a Time at which to ignore IDisposable.Dispose?

    - by Mystagogue
    Certainly we should call Dipose() on IDisposable objects as soon as we don't need them (which is often merely the scope of a "using" statement). If we don't take that precaution then bad things, from subtle to show-stopping, might happen. But what about "the last moment" before process termination? If your IDisposables have not been explicitly disposed by that point in time, isn't it true that it no longer matters? I ask because unmanaged resources, beneath the CLR, are represented by kernel objects - and the win32 process termination will free all unmanaged resources / kernel objects anyway. Said differently, no resources will remain "leaked" after the process terminates (regardless if Dispose() was called on lingering IDisposables). Can anyone think of a case where process termination would still leave a leaked resource, simply because Dispose() was not explicitly called on one or more IDisposables? Please do not misunderstand this question: I am not trying to justify ignoring IDisposables. The question is just technical-theoretical. EDIT: And what about mono running on Linux? Is process termination there just as "reliable" at cleaning up unmanaged "leaks?"

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