separate - Page 58 - Developer IT

Get :first-letter of :hover element with CSS

- by Rudie

Is it possible to get the first letter of an element while in 'hover mode'? This is how it would look - I think - but it's not working in Chrome 10: a:hover:first-letter or a:first-letter:hover Technically (imho) they're not the same. The first takes the first letter of the hovering element. The second takes the entire element if the first letter is hovering. I require the first. As you can see on http://css4.hotblocks.nl (if you have a 1900px screen and a dom inspector) if you uncomment the CSS, both don't work. I want only the first letter of the element to color red, when the entire element is in :hover mode. Is it possible without additional HTML tags? Thanks. -- edit I've changed my online example for the better. CSS is now divided in separate <style> blocks. Makes for easier turning on and off try-outs. Conclusion - so far!? - is this: In Firefox 3.6/4 a:first-letter:hover does nothing (good) and a:hover:first-letter works perfectly (good!). In Chrome 10 a:first-letter:hover does nothing (good) and a:first-letter:hover breaks the previous CSS 'statement'. (In my example it breaks nothing because it's in a separate <style> block.) Which brings us to: once again Google Chrome lags behind Firefox =( --edit

Read the article

.change(function) can control two command

- by klox

dear all..i've a textfield, it using barcode scanner for input data..after scan it shows KD-R411ED 105X0001... I'm successful separate them into two text field use ".change(function)" $("#tags1").change(function() { var barcode; barCode=$("#tags1").val(); var data=barCode.split(" "); $("#tags1").val(data[0]); $("#tags2").val(data[1]); }); what i want is beside make them separate after ".change(function)" another script can read two character behind "KD-R411ED"..that is "ED"..this character can make a radiobutton which id="check1" are checked.. what's code which can combine with code above? this my complete code.. $("#tags1").change(function() { var barcode; barCode=$("#tags1").val(); var data=barCode.split(" "); $("#tags1").val(data[0]); $("#tags2").val(data[1]); var code = data[0].substr(data[0].length - 2); // suggested by Jan Willem B if (code =='UD') $('#check1').attr('checked','checked'); } else { if (code == 'ED') { $('#check2').attr('checked','checked'); } } and this the form <input id="check1" type="radio" class="check" name="check" onclick="addtext()" value="U" />U <input id="check2" type="radio" class="check" name="check" onclick="addtext_1()" value="E" />E the radiobutton still not response

Read the article

Finding character in String in Vector.

- by SoulBeaver

Judging from the title, I kinda did my program in a fairly complicated way. BUT! I might as well ask anyway xD This is a simple program I did in response to question 3-3 of Accelerated C++, which is an awesome book in my opinion. I created a vector: vector<string> countEm; That accepts all valid strings. Therefore, I have a vector that contains elements of strings. Next, I created a function int toLowerWords( vector<string> &vec ) { for( int loop = 0; loop < vec.size(); loop++ ) transform( vec[loop].begin(), vec[loop].end(), vec[loop].begin(), ::tolower ); that splits the input into all lowercase characters for easier counting. So far, so good. I created a third and final function to actually count the words, and that's where I'm stuck. int counter( vector<string> &vec ) { for( int loop = 0; loop < vec.size(); loop++ ) for( int secLoop = 0; secLoop < vec[loop].size(); secLoop++ ) { if( vec[loop][secLoop] == ' ' ) That just looks ridiculous. Using a two-dimensional array to call on the characters of the vector until I find a space. Ridiculous. I don't believe that this is an elegant or even viable solution. If it was a viable solution, I would then backtrack from the space and copy all characters I've found in a separate vector and count those. My question then is. How can I dissect a vector of strings into separate words so that I can actually count them? I thought about using strchr, but it didn't give me any epiphanies.

Read the article

Handling user interface in a multi-threaded application (or being forced to have a UI-only main thre

- by Patrick

In my application, I have a 'logging' window, which shows all the logging, warnings, errors of the application. Last year my application was still single-threaded so this worked [quite] good. Now I am introducing multithreading. I quickly noticed that it's not a good idea to update the logging window from different threads. Reading some articles on keeping the UI in the main thread, I made a communication buffer, in which the other threads are adding their logging messages, and from which the main thread takes the messages and shows them in the logging window (this is done in the message loop). Now, in a part of my application, the memory usage increases dramatically, because the separate threads are generating lots of logging messages, and the main thread cannot empty the communication buffer quickly enough. After the while the memory decreases again (if the other threads have finished their work and the main thread gradually empties the communication buffer). I solved this problem by having a maximum size on the communication buffer, but then I run into a problem in the following situation: the main thread has to perform a complex action the main thread takes some parts of the action and let's separate threads execute this while the seperate threads are executing their logic, the main thread processes the results from the other threads and continues with its work if the other threads are finished Problem is that in this situation, if the other threads perform logging, there is no UI-message loop, and so the communication buffer is filled, but not emptied. I see two solutions in solving this problem: require the main thread to do regular polling of the communication buffer only performing user interface logic in the main thread (no other logic) I think the second solution seems the best, but this may not that easy to introduce in a big application (in my case it performs mathematical simulations). Are there any other solutions or tips? Or is one of the two proposed the best, easiest, most-pragmatic solution? Thanks, Patrick

Read the article

Conditionally Summing the same Column multiple times in a single select statement?

- by btollett

I have a single table that shows employee deployments, for various types of deployment, in a given location for each month: ID | Location_ID | Date | NumEmployees | DeploymentType_ID As an example, a few records might be: 1 | L1 | 12/2010 | 7 | 1 (=Permanent) 2 | L1 | 12/2010 | 2 | 2 (=Temp) 3 | L1 | 12/2010 | 1 | 3 (=Support) 4 | L1 | 01/2011 | 4 | 1 5 | L1 | 01/2011 | 2 | 2 6 | L1 | 01/2011 | 1 | 3 7 | L2 | 12/2010 | 6 | 1 8 | L2 | 01/2011 | 6 | 1 9 | L2 | 12/2010 | 3 | 2 What I need to do is sum the various types of people by date, such that the results look something like this: Date | Total Perm | Total Temp | Total Supp 12/2010 | 13 | 5 | 1 01/2011 | 10 | 2 | 1 Currently, I've created a separate query for each deployment type that looks like this: SELECT Date, SUM(NumEmployees) AS "Total Permanent" FROM tblDeployment WHERE DeploymentType_ID=1 GROUP BY Date; We'll call that query qSumPermDeployments. Then, I'm using a couple of joins to combine the queries: SELECT qSumPermDeployments.Date, qSumPermDeployments.["Total Permanent"] AS "Permanent" qSumTempDeployments.["Total Temp"] AS "Temp" qSumSupportDeployments.["Total Support"] AS Support FROM (qSumPermDeployments LEFT JOIN qSumTempDeployments ON qSumPermDeployments.Date = qSumTempDeployments.Date) LEFT JOIN qSumSupportDeployments ON qSumPermDeployments.Date = qSumSupportDeployments.Date; Note that I'm currently constructing that final query under the assumption that a location will only have temp or support employees if they also have permanent employees. Thus, I can create the joins using the permanent employee results as the base table. Given all of the data I currently have, that assumption holds up, but ideally I'd like to move away from that assumption. So finally, my question. Is there a way to simplify this down to a single query or is it best to separate it out into multiple queries - if for no other reason that readability.

Read the article

Managing multiple customer databases in ASP.NET MVC application

- by Robert Harvey

I am building an application that requires separate SQL Server databases for each customer. To achieve this, I need to be able to create a new customer folder, put a copy of a prototype database in the folder, change the name of the database, and attach it as a new "database instance" to SQL Server. The prototype database contains all of the required table, field and index definitions, but no data records. I will be using SMO to manage attaching, detaching and renaming the databases. In the process of creating the prototype database, I tried attaching a copy of the database (companion .MDF, .LDF pair) to SQL Server, using Sql Server Management Studio, and discovered that SSMS expects the database to reside in c:\program files\Microsoft SQL Server\MSSQL.1\MSSQL\DATA\MyDatabaseName.MDF Is this a "feature" of SQL Server? Is there a way to manage individual databases in separate directories? Or am I going to have to put all of the customer databases in the same directory? (I was hoping for a little better control than this). NOTE: I am currently using SQL Server Express, but for testing purposes only. The production database will be SQL Server 2008, Enterprise version. So "User Instances" are not an option.

Read the article

OO model for nsxmlparser when delegate is not self

- by richard

Hi, I am struggling with the correct design for the delegates of nsxmlparser. In order to build my table of Foos, I need to make two types of webservice calls; one for the whole table and one for each row. It's essentially a master-query then detail-query, except the master-query-result-xml doesn't return enough information so i then need to query the detail for each row. I'm not dealing with enormous amounts of data. Anyway - previously I've just used NSXMLParser *parser = [[NSXMLParser alloc]init]; [parser setDelegate:self]; [parser parse]; and implemented all the appropriate delegate methods in whatever class i'm in. In attempt at cleanliness, I've now created two separate delegate classes and done something like: NSXMLParser *xp = [[NSXMLParser alloc]init]; MyMasterXMLParserDelegate *masterParserDelegate = [[MyMasterXMLParser]alloc]init]; [xp setDelegate:masterParserDelegate]; [xp parse]; In addition to being cleaner (in my opinion, at least), it also means each of the -parser:didStartElement implementations don't spend most of the time trying to figure out which xml they're parsing. So now the real crux of the problem. Before i split out the delegates, i had in the main class that was also implementing the delegate methods, a class-level NSMutableArray that I would just put my objects-created-from-xml in when -parser:didEndElement found the 'end' of each record. Now the delegates are in separate classes, I can't figure out how to have the -parser:didEndElement in the 'detail' delegate class "return" the created object to the calling class. At least, not in a clean OO way. I'm sure i could do it with all sorts of nasty class methods. Does the question make sense? Thanks.

Read the article

Counting entries in a list of dictionaries: for loop vs. list comprehension with map(itemgetter)

- by Dennis Williamson

In a Python program I'm writing I've compared using a for loop and increment variables versus list comprehension with map(itemgetter) and len() when counting entries in dictionaries which are in a list. It takes the same time using a each method. Am I doing something wrong or is there a better approach? Here is a greatly simplified and shortened data structure: list = [ {'key1': True, 'dontcare': False, 'ignoreme': False, 'key2': True, 'filenotfound': 'biscuits and gravy'}, {'key1': False, 'dontcare': False, 'ignoreme': False, 'key2': True, 'filenotfound': 'peaches and cream'}, {'key1': True, 'dontcare': False, 'ignoreme': False, 'key2': False, 'filenotfound': 'Abbott and Costello'}, {'key1': False, 'dontcare': False, 'ignoreme': True, 'key2': False, 'filenotfound': 'over and under'}, {'key1': True, 'dontcare': True, 'ignoreme': False, 'key2': True, 'filenotfound': 'Scotch and... well... neat, thanks'} ] Here is the for loop version: #!/usr/bin/env python # Python 2.6 # count the entries where key1 is True # keep a separate count for the subset that also have key2 True key1 = key2 = 0 for dictionary in list: if dictionary["key1"]: key1 += 1 if dictionary["key2"]: key2 += 1 print "Counts: key1: " + str(key1) + ", subset key2: " + str(key2) Output for the data above: Counts: key1: 3, subset key2: 2 Here is the other, perhaps more Pythonic, version: #!/usr/bin/env python # Python 2.6 # count the entries where key1 is True # keep a separate count for the subset that also have key2 True from operator import itemgetter KEY1 = 0 KEY2 = 1 getentries = itemgetter("key1", "key2") entries = map(getentries, list) key1 = len([x for x in entries if x[KEY1]]) key2 = len([x for x in entries if x[KEY1] and x[KEY2]]) print "Counts: key1: " + str(key1) + ", subset key2: " + str(key2) Output for the data above (same as before): Counts: key1: 3, subset key2: 2 I'm a tiny bit surprised these take the same amount of time. I wonder if there's something faster. I'm sure I'm overlooking something simple. One alternative I've considered is loading the data into a database and doing SQL queries, but the data doesn't need to persist and I'd have to profile the overhead of the data transfer, etc., and a database may not always be available. I have no control over the original form of the data. The code above is not going for style points.

Read the article

Database localization

- by Don

Hi, I have a number of database tables that contain name and description columns which need to be localized. My initial attempt at designing a DB schema that would support this was something like: product ------- id name description local_product ------- id product_id local_name local_description locale_id locale ------ id locale However, this solution requires a new local_ table for every table that contains name and description columns that require localization. In an attempt to avoid this overhead I redesigned the schema so that only a single localization table is needed product ------- id localization_id localization ------- id local_name local_description locale_id locale ------ id locale Here's an example of the data which would be stored in this schema when there are 2 tables (product and country) requiring localization: country id, localization_id ----------------------- 1, 5 product id, localization_id ----------------------- 1, 2 localization id, local_name, local_description, locale_id ------------------------------------------------------ 2, apple, a delicious fruit, 2 2, pomme, un fruit délicieux, 3 2, apfel, ein köstliches Obst, 4 5, ireland, a small country, 2 5, irlande, un petite pay, 3 locale id, locale -------------- 2, en 3, fr 4, de Notice that the compound primary key of the localization table is (id, locale_id), but the foreign key in the product table only refers to the first element of this compound PK. This seems like 'a bad thing' from the POV of normalization. Is there any way I can fix this problem, or alternatively, is there a completely different schema that supports localization without creating a separate table for each localizable table? Update: A number of respondents have proposed a solution that requires creating a separate table for each localizable table. However, this is precisely what I'm trying to avoid. The schema I've proposed above almost solves the problem to my satisfaction, but I'm unhappy about the fact that the localization_id foreign keys only refer to part of the corresponding primary key in the localization table. Thanks, Don

Read the article

Java: How to make this main thread wait for the new thread to terminate

- by Jeff Bullard

I have a java class that creates a process, called child, using ProcessBuilder. The child process generates a lot of output that I am draining on a separate thread to keep the main thread from getting blocked. However, a little later on I need to wait for the output thread to complete/terminate before going on, and I'm not sure how to do that. I think that join() is the usual way to do this but I'm not sure how to do that in this case. Here is the relevant part of the java code. // Capture output from process called child on a separate thread final StringBuffer outtext = new StringBuffer(""); new Thread(new Runnable() { public void run() { InputStream in = null; in = child.getInputStream(); try { if (in != null) { BufferedReader reader = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(in)); String line = reader.readLine(); while ((line != null)) { outtext.append(line).append("\n"); ServerFile.appendUserOpTextFile(userName, opname, outfile, line+"\n"); line = reader.readLine(); } } } catch (IOException iox) { throw new RuntimeException(iox); } } }).start(); // Write input to for the child process on this main thread // String intext = ServerFile.readUserOpTextFile(userName, opname, infile); OutputStream out = child.getOutputStream(); try { out.write(intext.getBytes()); out.close(); } catch (IOException iox) { throw new RuntimeException(iox); } // ***HERE IS WHERE I NEED TO WAIT FOR THE THREAD TO FINISH *** // Other code goes here that needs to wait for outtext to get all // of the output from the process // Then, finally, when all the remaining code is finished, I return // the contents of outtext return outtext.toString();

Read the article

C# getpixels() gets the correct value on xp and vista but is slightly off when used on windows 7

- by user352288

I have a C# program that works correctly on xp and vista but it needs to be used on windows 7, I have not been able to come up with a solution, it appears that getpixels just doesn't work right on windows 7. I am getting one of the RGB values because I am dealing with tiff grayscale images. System.Drawing.Bitmap image;// this is in a separate class image = new Bitmap(destination);// this is in the constructor Color t = image.GetPixel(j, i); // this is in a separate function int s = t.R when I print s, for example, image(0,0), it is supposed to be 220, it will be 221 I am doing edge detection on an image and I have to go through the image pixel by pixel, I have run the exact same program on XP,Vista,windows7 and windows 7 got different values. It wouldn't let me post images at all and only one link. The first image is the original image, the second is the correct image, also the one I get with XP and Vista, the final image is the image when running the same program in Windows 7. There is not much of a visible difference but it matters for what I am doing. Thanks for the help, it seems that I am having a hard time explaining my problem.

Read the article

Better use a tuple or numpy array for storing coordinates

- by Ivan

Hi, I'm porting an C++ scientific application to python, and as I'm new to python, some problems come to my mind: 1) I'm defining a class that will contain the coordinates (x,y). These values will be accessed several times, but they only will be read after the class instantiation. Is it better to use an tuple or an numpy array, both in memory and access time wise? 2) In some cases, these coordinates will be used to build a complex number, evaluated on a complex function, and the real part of this function will be used. Assuming that there is no way to separate real and complex parts of this function, and the real part will have to be used on the end, maybe is better to use directly complex numbers to store (x,y)? How bad is the overhead with the transformation from complex to real in python? The code in c++ does a lot of these transformations, and this is a big slowdown in that code. 3) Also some coordinates transformations will have to be performed, and for the coordinates the x and y values will be accessed in separate, the transformation be done, and the result returned. The coordinate transformations are defined in the complex plane, so is still faster to use the components x and y directly than relying on the complex variables? Thank you

Read the article

(Oracle) How get total number of results when using a pagination query?

- by BestPractices

I am using Oracle 10g and the following paradigm to get a page of 15 results as a time (so that when the user is looking at page 2 of a search result, they see records 16-30). select * from ( select rownum rnum, a.* from (my_query) a where rownum <= 30 ) where rnum > 15; Right now I'm having to run a separate SQL statement to do a "select count" on "my_query" in order to get the total number of results for my_query (so that I can show it to the user and use it to figure out total number of pages, etc). Is there any way to get the total number of results without doing this via a second query, i.e. by getting it from above query? I've tried adding "max(rownum)", but it doesn't seem to work (I get an error [ORA-01747] that seems to indicate it doesnt like me having the keyword rownum in the group by). My rationale for wanting to get this from the original query rather than doing it in a separate SQL statement is that "my_query" is an expensive query so I'd rather not run it twice (once to get the count, and once to get the page of data) if I dont have to; but whatever solution I can come up with to get the number of results from within a single query (and at the same time get the page of data I need) should not add much if any additional overhead, if possible. Please advise. Here is exactly what I'm trying to do for which I receive an ORA-01747 error because I believe it doesnt like me having ROWNUM in the group by. Note, If there is another solution that doesnt use max(ROWNUM), but something else, that is perfectly fine too. This solution was my first thought as to what might work. SELECT * FROM (SELECT r.*, ROWNUM RNUM, max(ROWNUM) FROM (SELECT t0.ABC_SEQ_ID AS c0, t0.FIRST_NAME, t0.LAST_NAME, t1.SCORE FROM ABC t0, XYZ t1 WHERE (t0.XYZ_ID = 751) AND t0.XYZ_ID = t1.XYZ_ID ORDER BY t0.RANK ASC) r WHERE ROWNUM <= 30 GROUP BY r.*, ROWNUM) WHERE RNUM > 15

Read the article

SQL query to get latest record for all distinct items in a table

- by David Buckley

Read the article

Spawning a thread in python

- by morpheous

I have a series of 'tasks' that I would like to run in separate threads. The tasks are to be performed by separate modules. Each containing the business logic for processing their tasks. Given a tuple of tasks, I would like to be able to spawn a new thread for each module as follows. from foobar import alice, bob charles data = getWorkData() # these are enums (which I just found Python doesn't support natively) :( tasks = (alice, bob, charles) for task in tasks # Ok, just found out Python doesn't have a switch - @#$%! # yet another thing I'll need help with then ... switch case alice: #spawn thread here - how ? alice.spawnWorker(data) No prizes for guessing I am still thinking in C++. How can I write this in a Pythonic way using Pythonic 'enums' and 'switch'es, and be able to run a module in a new thread. Obviously, the modules will all have a class that is derived from a ABC (abstract base class) called Plugin. The spawnWorker() method will be declared on the Plugin interface and defined in the classes implemented in the various modules. Maybe, there is a better (i.e. Pythonic) way of doing all this?. I'd be interested in knowing

Read the article

Are bad data issues that common?

- by Water Cooler v2

I've worked for clients that had a large number of distinct, small to mid-sized projects, each interacting with each other via properly defined interfaces to share data, but not reading and writing to the same database. Each had their own separate database, their own cache, their own file servers/system that they had dedicated access to, and so they never caused any problems. One of these clients is a mobile content vendor, so they're lucky in a way that they do not have to face the same problems that everyday business applications do. They can create all those separate compartments where their components happily live in isolation of the others. However, for many business applications, this is not possible. I've worked with a few clients, one of whose applications I am doing the production support for, where there are "bad data issues" on an hourly basis. Yeah, it's that crazy. Some data records from one of the instances (lower than production, of course) would have been run a couple of weeks ago, and caused some other user's data to get corrupted. And then, a data script will have to be written to fix this issue. And I've seen this happening so much with this client that I have to ask. I've seen this happening at a moderate rate with other clients, but this one just seems to be out of order. If you're working with business applications that share a large amount of data by reading and writing to/from the same database, are "bad data issues" that common in your environment?

Read the article

Classes with the same name - is it restricted only within the same translation unit?

- by LeopardSkinPillBoxHat

Let's just I had the following code: foo.h class Foo { // ... }; foo.cpp #include "foo.h" // Functions for class Foo defined here... Let's say that Foo are built into a static library foo.lib. Now let's say I have the following: foo2.h class Foo { // ... }; foo2.cpp #include "foo2.h" // Functions for class Foo defined here... This is built into a separate static library foo2.lib. Now, if I re-link foo.lib and foo2.lib into an executable program foo.exe, should it be complaining that class Foo has been defined twice? In my experiences, neither the compiler or the linker are complaining. I wouldn't be expecting the compiler to complain, because they have been defined in separate translation units. But why doesn't the linker complain? How does the linker differentiate between the 2 versions of the Foo class? Does it work by decorating the symbols?

Read the article

Progressively stream the output of an ASP.NET page - or render a page outside of an HTTP request

- by Evgeny

I have an ASP.NET 2.0 page with many repeating blocks, including a third-party server-side control (so it's not just plain HTML). Each is quite expensive to generate, in terms of both CPU and RAM. I'm currently using a standard Repeater control for this. There are two problems with this simple approach: The entire page must be rendered before any of it is returned to the client, so the user must wait a long time before they see any data. (I write progress messages using Response.Write, so there is feedback, but no actual results.) The ASP.NET worker process must hold everything in memory at the same time. There is no inherent needs for this: once one block is processed it won't be changed, so it could be returned to the client and the memory could be freed. I would like to somehow return these blocks to the client one at a time, as each is generated. I'm thinking of extracting the stuff inside the Repeater into a separate page and getting it repeatedly using AJAX, but there are some complications involved in that and I wonder if there is some simper approach. Ideally I'd like to keep it as one page (from the client's point of view), but return it incrementally. Another way would be to do something similar, but on the server: still create a separate page, but have the server access it and then Response.Write() the HTML it gets to the response stream for the real client request. Is there a way to avoid an HTTP request here, though? Is there some ASP.NET method that would render a UserControl or a Page outside of an HTTP request and simply return the HTML to me as a string? I'm open to other ideas on how to do this as well.

Read the article

wpf command pattern

- by evan

I have a wpf gui which displays a list of information in separate window and in a separate thread from the main application. As the user performs actions in the main window the side window is updated. (For example if you clicked page down in the main window a listbox in the side window would page down). Right now the architecture for this application feels very messy and I'm sure there is a cleaner way to do it. It looks like this: Main Window contains a singleton SideWindowControl which communicates with an instance of the SideWindowDisplay using events - so, for example, the pagedown button would work like: 1) the event handler of the button on the main window calls SideWindowControl.PageDown() 2) in the PageDown() function a event is created and thrown. 3) finally the gui, ShowSideWindowDisplay is subscribing to the SideWindowControl.Actions event handles the event and actually scrolls the listbox down - note because it is in a different thread it has to do that by running the command via Dispatcher.Invoke() This just seems like a very messy way to this and there must be a clearer way (The only part that can't change is that the main window and the side window must be on different threads). Perhaps using WPF commands? I'd really appreciate any suggestions!! Thanks

Read the article

How to deploy a single webapp with multiple web-modules that may be removed or added individually

- by Daniel Bleisteiner

We currently run two separate webapps (WARs) deployed in one single EAR containing additional JARs and settings. To improve our deployment I want to split one of these webapps into different modules that may be build and packaged individually. But I've currently no clue on how to package these modules so that I'm able to add or remove them as desired - at best during runtime. The webapp is getting more and more complex and I'd like to separate some of the functionality into modules. These modules should be packaged as single archives. As long as they contain only classes and resources loaded through code I know how to do this (simple JARs). But how about JSPs? Normally a WAR file contains JSPs or HTML files. I my case it are JSF pages utilizing JBoss Seam and RichFaces. These modules will add classes, resources and JSF pages and other includes to the running webapplication. Is it somehow possible to deploy them as individual archives to serve the same running webapp? We are using Maven for our build and packaging and deploy into JBoss v4.

Read the article

What is a reasonable OSGi development workflow?

- by levand

I'm using OSGi for my latest project at work, and it's pretty beautiful as far as modularity and functionality. But I'm not happy with the development workflow. Eventually, I plan to have 30-50 separate bundles, arranged in a dependency graph - supposedly, this is what OSGi is designed for. But I can't figure out a clean way to manage dependencies at compile time. Example: You have bundles A and B. B depends on packages defined in A. Each bundle is developed as a separate Java project. In order to compile B, A has to be on the javac classpath. Do you: Reference the file system location of project A in B's build script? Build A and throw the jar into B's lib directory? Rely on Eclipse's "referenced projects" feature and always use Eclipse's classpath to build (ugh) Use a common "lib" directory for all projects and dump the bundle jars there after compilation? Set up a bundle repository, parse the manifest from the build script and pull down the required bundles from the repository? No. 5 sounds the cleanest, but also like a lot of overhead.

Read the article

How can I unit test a PHP class method that executes a command-line program?

- by acoulton

For a PHP application I'm developing, I need to read the current git revision SHA which of course I can get easily by using shell_exec or backticks to execute the git command line client. I have obviously put this call into a method of its very own, so that I can easily isolate and mock this for the rest of my unit tests. So my class looks a bit like this: class Task_Bundle { public function execute() { // Do things $revision = $this->git_sha(); // Do more things } protected function git_sha() { return `git rev-parse --short HEAD`; } } Of course, although I can test most of the class by mocking git_sha, I'm struggling to see how to test the actual git_sha() method because I don't see a way to create a known state for it. I don't think there's any real value in a unit test that also calls git rev-parse to compare the results? I was wondering about at least asserting that the command had been run, but I can't see any way to get a history of shell commands executed by PHP - even if I specify that PHP should use BASH rather than SH the history list comes up empty, I presume because the separate backticks executions are separate terminal sessions. I'd love to hear any suggestions for how I might test this, or is it OK to just leave that method untested and be careful with it when the app is being maintained in future?

Read the article

PEAR:DB connection parameters

- by Markus Ossi

I just finished my first PHP site and now I have a security-related question. I used PEAR:DB for the database connection and made a separate parameter file for it. How should I hide this parameter file? I found a guide (http://www.kitebird.com/articles/peardb.html) that says: Another way to specify connection parameters is to put them in a separate file that you reference from your main script. ... It also enables you to move the parameter file outside of the web server's document tree, which prevents its contents from being displayed literally if the server becomes misconfigured and starts serving PHP scripts as plain text. I have now put my file in a directory like this /include/db_parameters.inc However, if I go to this URL, the web server shows me the contents of the file including my database username and password. From what I've understood, I should protect this file so, that even though PHP would be served as text, nobody could read this. What does outside of web server's document tree mean here? Put the PHP file out of public_html directory altogether deeper into the server file system? Some CHMOD?

Read the article

How do I handle the messages for a simple web-based live chat, on the server side?

- by Carson Myers

I'm building a simple live chat into a web application running on Django, but one thing I'm confused about is how I should store the messages between users. The chat will support multiple users, and a chat "session" is composed of users connected to one user that is the "host." The application is a sort of online document collaboration thing, so user X has a document, and users Y and Z would connect to user X to talk about the document, and that would be one chat session. If user Y disconnected for five minutes, and then signed back in and reconnected to user X, he should not get any of the messages shared between users X and Z while he was away. if users X, Y, and Z can have a chat session about user X's document, then users X and Y can connect to a simultaneous, but separate discussion about user Z's document. How should I handle this? Should I keep each message in the database? Each message would have an owner user and a target user (the host), and a separate table would be used to connect users with messages (which messages are visible to what users). Or should I store each session as an HTML file on the server, which messages get appended to? The problem is, I can't just send messages directly between clients. They have to be sent to the server in a POST request, and then each client has to periodically check for the messages in a GET request. Except I can't just have each message cleared after a client fetches it, because there could be multiple clients. How should I set this up? Any suggestions?

Read the article

SQL Server error handling: exceptions and the database-client contract

- by gbn

We’re a team of SQL Servers database developers. Our clients are a mixed bag of C#/ASP.NET, C# and Java web services, Java/Unix services and some Excel. Our client developers only use stored procedures that we provide and we expect that (where sensible, of course) they treat them like web service methods. Some our client developers don’t like SQL exceptions. They understand them in their languages but they don’t appreciate that the SQL is limited in how we can communicate issues. I don’t just mean SQL errors, such as trying to insert “bob” into a int column. I also mean exceptions such as telling them that a reference value is wrong, or that data has already changed, or they can’t do this because his aggregate is not zero. They’d don’t really have any concrete alternatives: they’ve mentioned that we should output parameters, but we assume an exception means “processing stopped/rolled back. How do folks here handle the database-client contract? Either generally or where there is separation between the DB and client code monkeys. Edits: we use SQL Server 2005 TRY/CATCH exclusively we log all errors after the rollback to an exception table already we're concerned that some of our clients won't check output paramaters and assume everything is OK. We need errors flagged up for support to look at. everything is an exception... the clients are expected to do some message parsing to separate information vs errors. To separate our exceptions from DB engine and calling errors, they should use the error number (ours are all 50,000 of course)

Search Results

Search found 8190 results on 328 pages for 'separate'.

Page 58/328 | < Previous Page | 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 | Next Page >

- by Rudie

- by klox

- by SoulBeaver

- by Patrick

- by btollett

- by Robert Harvey

- by richard

- by Dennis Williamson

- by Don

- by Jeff Bullard

- by user352288

- by Ivan

- by BestPractices

- by David Buckley

- by morpheous

- by Water Cooler v2

- by LeopardSkinPillBoxHat

- by Evgeny

- by evan

- by Daniel Bleisteiner

- by levand

- by acoulton

- by Markus Ossi

- by Carson Myers

- by gbn

< Previous Page | 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 | Next Page >