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  • Separating Javascript and Html, when dynamically adding html via javascript

    - by optician
    I am currently building a very dynamic table for a list application, which will basically perform basic CRUD functions via AJAX. What I would like to do is separate the visual design and javascript to the point where I can change the design side without touching the JS side. This would only work where the design stays roughly the same(i would like to use it for rapid protyping) Here is an example. <table> <tr><td>record-123</td><td>I am line 123</td><td>delete row</td></tr> <tr><td>record-124</td><td>I am line 124</td><td>delete row</td></tr> <tr><td>record-125</td><td>I am line 125</td><td>delete row</td></tr> <tr><td>add new record</td></tr> </table> Now, when I add a new record, I would like to insert a new row of html, but I would rather not put this html into the javascript file. What I am considering is creating a row like this on the page, near the table. <tr style='visble:none;' id='template-row'><td>record-id</td><td>content-area</td><td>delete row</td></tr> And when I come to add the new row, I search the page for the tags with the id=template-row , and then grab it, do a string replace on it, and then put it in the right place in the page. As long as the design doesn't shift radically, and I keep the placeholder strings the same, it means designs can be quickly modified without touching the js. Can any give any advice on a methodology like this?

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  • How to set the tableview's top using contentinset property while being at the bottom of the table

    - by neha
    Hi all, I'm having a tableview with 20 rows and 250 as their rowheight. While I'm at the bottom of the tableview, I want to shift the tableview upwards by 65px. I tried doing self.tableView.contentInset = UIEdgeInsetsMake(-65.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f); Also self.tableView.contentInset = UIEdgeInsetsMake((4633.0f - 65.0f), 0.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f); where 4633.0f is my contentoffset.y, but with no success. When the last cell is pulled upwards, I'm showing a view below the last cell with an activity indicator on it to depict that more data is getting loaded. I need to keep that view visible for 2 seconds so I want to push the tableview cells up and after that I want to bring the tableview to its original position and reset the view below that. I'm doing this [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:NULL]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.2]; // self.tableView.contentInset = UIEdgeInsetsMake((4633.0f - 65.0f), 0.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f); self.tableView.contentInset = UIEdgeInsetsMake(- 65.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f); [UIView commitAnimations]; and then calling a function to reset it back as self.tableView.contentInset = UIEdgeInsetsMake(0.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f); Can anybody please suggest how to do it? Thanx in advance.

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  • How to explain to users the advantages of dumb primary key?

    - by Hao
    Primary key attractiveness I have a boss(and also users) that wants primary key to be sophisticated/smart/attractive control number(sort of like Social Security number, or credit card number format) I just padded the primary key(in Views) with zeroes to appease their desire to make the control number sophisticated,smart and attractive. But they wanted it as: first 2 digits as client code, then 4 digits as year year, then last 4 digits as transaction number on that client on a given year, then reset the transaction number of client to 1 when next year flows. Each client's transaction starts with 1. e.g. WM20090001, WM20090002, BB2009001, WM20100001, BB20100001 But as I wanted to make things as simple as possible, I forgo embedding their suggested smartness in primary key, I just keep the primary key auto increments regardless of client and year. But to make it not dull-looking(they really are adamant to make the primary key as smart control number), I made the primary key appears to them smart, on view query, I put the client code and four digit year code on front of the eight-zero padded autoincrement key, i.e. WM200900000001. Sort of slug-like information on autoincremented primary key. Keeping primary key autoincrement regardless of any other information, we are able keep other potential side effects problem when they edit a record, for example, if they made a mistake of entering the transaction on WM, then they edit the client code to BB, if we use smart primary key, the primary keys of WM customer will have gaps in their control number. Or worse yet, instead of letting the control numbers have gaps/holes, the user will request that subsequent records of that gap should shift up to that gap and have their subsequent primary keys re-adjust(decremented). How do you deal with these user requests(reasonable or otherwise)? Do you yield to their request? Or just continue using dumb primary key and explain them the repercussions of having a very smart/sophisticated primary key and educate them the significant advantages of having a dumb primary key? P.S. quotable quote(http://articles.techrepublic.com.com/5100-10878_11-1044961.html): "If you hold your tongue the first time users ask what is for them a reasonable request, things will work a lot better in the end."

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  • .NET custom property attribute?

    - by ropstah
    EDIT: I'd better rephrase: How can I shift the GET-implementation of a Class property to a / using a custom attribute? (I've added instantation vars (classname, propertyname) to the attribute, however I'd rather have these automatically fetched ofcourse.) Public Class CustomClass <CustomAttributeClass(ClassName:="CustomClass", PropertyName = "SomeProperty")> _ Public Property SomeProperty() as String Get() as String //This implementation should be handled by the attribute class End Get Set(Byval value as String) Me._someProperty = value End Set End Property End Class Old question: I want to create a custom property attribute for classes. I can create a class derived from Attribute, and 'mark' the property with the attribute, but where to go from here? I have a repository where I can quickly get data based on the attributes values. I would like to generalize the behaviour of the property in the attribute but I don't know how to go from here... Any help would be greatly accepted! Public Class CustomDataAttribute : Inherits Attribute Private _name As String Public Sub New(ByVal name As String) Me.Name = name End Sub Property Name() As String Get Return _name End Get Set(ByVal value As String) Me._name = value End Set End Property End Class Public Class CustomClass <CustomDataAttribute(Name:="CustomField")> _ Public Property CustomField() End Property End Class

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  • Advice moving from Eclipse to xCode

    - by Gloin the Dark
    To xCode xPerts: I have been doing Java in Eclipse for about 9 years now and I have really gotten used to the power of the refactoring tools. There are a few operations I do all the time. I am looking for equivalents in xCode since it has better support for objective-c than eclipse. (I'm not at my Mac as I write this. So some of this is from memory. I am still very new to xCode.) 1 "rename". It seems that the xCode equivalent for variables is "edit all in scope". Does this work for files/classes/methods too? 2 "extract local variable" select an expression it creates a local var initialized to that expression. It even creates a usable name for the variable. 3 "extract method" select some code and it will create a method with that code and appropriate parameters/return value. 4 "inline" (variable or method) opposite of extract, inlines all or just the selected occurrence of the selected var or method. 5 "find next" occurrence of selected text. In eclipse I can select some text and hit ctrl-k to go to the next occurrence of that in the file. likewise shift-ctrl-k finds backwards. IIRC the xCode "find next" ignores the selection and only uses what is in the find box. 6 "change method signature" This would be very useful with ocjective-c's named parameter messaging syntax. This is great for adding parameters to a method. 7 "pull-up/push-down" for moving methods up or down the class hierarchy. 8 "move" for moving elements around to other classes etc. Those are the ones that I use all of the time. I have estimated that these tools cut my coding time in half. Are any of these supported in xCode? Thanks in advance for any advice.

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  • How to Create PDF from HTML using perl

    - by Octopus
    I need to create a PDF file from the html I have created usign rrdcgi. This page contains the details and graphs in png format. I have written the below code using perl module HTML::HTMLDoc to create a pdf file using saved html file. The images are of size width 1048 and hight 266 but when creating a pdf file the images are not shown completly from the right side. #!/usr/bin/perl use strict; use warnings; use HTML::HTMLDoc; my $filename = shift; my $htmldoc = new HTML::HTMLDoc(); $htmldoc->set_input_file($filename); $htmldoc->no_links(); $htmldoc->landscape(); $htmldoc->set_jpeg_compression('50'); $htmldoc->best_image_quality(); $htmldoc->color_on(); $htmldoc->set_right_margin('1', 'mm'); $htmldoc->set_left_margin('1', 'mm'); $htmldoc->set_bodycolor('#FFFFFF'); $htmldoc->set_browserwidth('1000'); my $pdf = $htmldoc->generate_pdf(); print $pdf->to_string(); $pdf->to_file('foo.pdf'); I need help on following items: 1) How to display the complete image on page. 2) How to set a link on html page to create pdf file with the contents on the current page. Any help with the perl code would be really appreciated.

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  • Create ntp time stamp from gettimeofday

    - by krunk
    I need to calculate an ntp time stamp using gettimeofday. Below is how I've done it with comments on method. Look good to you guys? (minus error checking). Also, here's a codepad link. #include <unistd.h> #include <sys/time.h> const unsigned long EPOCH = 2208988800UL; // delta between epoch time and ntp time const double NTP_SCALE_FRAC = 4294967295.0; // maximum value of the ntp fractional part int main() { struct timeval tv; uint64_t ntp_time; uint64_t tv_ntp; double tv_usecs; gettimeofday(&tv, NULL); tv_ntp = tv.tv_sec + EPOCH; // convert tv_usec to a fraction of a second // next, we multiply this fraction times the NTP_SCALE_FRAC, which represents // the maximum value of the fraction until it rolls over to one. Thus, // .05 seconds is represented in NTP as (.05 * NTP_SCALE_FRAC) tv_usecs = (tv.tv_usec * 1e-6) * NTP_SCALE_FRAC; // next we take the tv_ntp seconds value and shift it 32 bits to the left. This puts the // seconds in the proper location for NTP time stamps. I recognize this method has an // overflow hazard if used after around the year 2106 // Next we do a bitwise AND with the tv_usecs cast as a uin32_t, dropping the fractional // part ntp_time = ((tv_ntp << 32) & (uint32_t)tv_usecs); }

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  • Custom UITableViewCell with 2 UILabel's resized

    - by petert
    I'm struggling to create a custom UITableViewCell (in IB) that has a UIImageView on the left, fixed to the top left corner, then 2 UILabel's adjacent to it, side by side. So the cell looks something like: +---------------------------+ | IMAGE LABEL1 LABEL2 > | +---------------------------+ What I cannot seem to do is to change the frame of LABEL1 so it fits the text is contains, then make sure LABEL2 moves to the left (or right) so it ends up directly adjacent to it, filling all the space for the rest of the cell. So, concentrating on the label text, I'd like cell to look like this: +---------------------------+ | IMAGE Call 123456 > | +---------------------------+ after I've set LABEL1 to "Call" and LABEL2 to "123456" in: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath Actually I can resize LABEL1 with this: CGSize sizeToMakeLabel = [label.text sizeWithFont:label.font]; label.frame = CGRectMake(label.frame.origin.x, label.frame.origin.y, sizeToMakeLabel.width + 3, sizeToMakeLabel.height); Now the frame for the text "Call" fits this text (confirmed by setting a background color), but the text "123456" doesn't seem to shift to the left, whatever autosizing I set in IB, or methods to resize the cells view? I seem to need the +3 to make sure "Call" didn't look like this "C…" also? I'm using 2 labels so LABEL1 can be in a bold font say.

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  • Bypass all cacheing on jQuery.autocomplete(1.02)

    - by technicalbloke
    I am using jQuery.autocomplete(1.02) on my search box and I want exact string and substring matching. I don't care (yet!) about the database load, I'm happy for it to fire off a query every keystroke and bypass the caching entirely - I just don't want anything missed. To this end I have tried setting cacheLength=1, the minimum permitted, but the autocomplete function refuses to fire off a GET request for each key up. searchbox GET_request 'a' -> http://localhost/service_search_request?q=a 'ar' -> http://localhost/service_search_request?q=ar 'ars' -> http://localhost/service_search_request?q=ars Instead, it sends the first and the third and misses the second, giving me the wrong results for 'ar' :-/ I've cleared my cache and sessions but it looks like some sort of caching is still going on. AFAIK I have no proxying going on and I'm shift-refreshing each time. It looks likely then that this behavior is from jQuery.autocomplete itself. So my questions are... A) Does this seem likely? i.e. is it a feature, or maybe a bug? B) If so is there a clean way around it?... C) If not, what autocomplete would you use instead? Naturally D) No you're just using it incorrectly you douche! is always a possibility, and indeed the one I'd prefer having spent time going down this road - assuming it comes with a link to the docs I've failed to find / read! Cheers, Roger :)

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  • Write asynchronously to file in perl

    - by Stefhen
    Basically I would like to: Read a large amount of data from the network into an array into memory. Asynchronously write this array data, running it thru bzip2 before it hits the disk. repeat.. Is this possible? If this is possible, I know that I will have to somehow read the next pass of data into a different array as the AIO docs say that this array must not be altered before the async write is complete. I would like to background all of my writes to disk in order as the bzip2 pass is going to take much longer than the network read. Is this doable? Below is a simple example of what I think is needed, but this just reads a file into array @a for testing. use warnings; use strict; use EV; use IO::AIO; use Compress::Bzip2; use FileHandle; use Fcntl; my @a; print "loading to array...\n"; while(<>) { $a[$. - 1] = $_; } print "array loaded...\n"; my $aio_w = EV::io IO::AIO::poll_fileno, EV::WRITE, \&IO::AIO::poll_cb; aio_open "./out", O_WRONLY || O_NONBLOCK, 0, sub { my $fh = shift or die "error while opening: $!\n"; aio_write $fh, undef, undef, $a, -1, sub { $_[0] > 0 or die "error: $!\n"; EV::unloop; }; }; EV::loop EV::LOOP_NONBLOCK;

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  • Adding AJAX call to function triggered popup blocker

    - by jerrygarciuh
    Hi folks, I have a client who wants to open variously sized images in a centered popup. I tried to get them to use FancyBox but they don't want interstitial presentation, so... I initially was opening a generic popup which resized and centered onload based on image size but they don't like the shift so I added a PHP script to echo the sizes and used jQuery to fetch the size info to feed into the pop up call. But it appears the delay this causes is setting off all popup blockers. Here is the JS $("#portfolioBigPic").click(function () { var src = $("#portfolioBigPic").attr('src'); var ar = src.split('/'); var fname = ar.pop(); fname = '/g/portfolio/clients/big/' + fname; $.get("imgsize.php", { i: fname}, function(data){ var dim = data.split(","); popit(fname,dim[0],dim[1]); }); }); function popit(img,w,h) { var features = 'width='+w+',height='+h+', toolbar=0, location=0, directories=0, status=0, menubar=0, scrollbars=0, resizable=1,'; var left = (screen.width/2)-(w/2); var top = 0; features += 'top='+top+',left='+left; bigpic = window.open('portfolioBigPic.php?img='+img, 'bigpic',features); bigpic.focus(); } The only difference between dodging the blockers and failing is that I added the AJAX .get and use it to specify w and h. Any thoughts on how to avoid this? Maybe I should use PHP to get widths and heights of all the big pics and write a JS array of them when this page loads? Am I right that the delay caused by fetching the data is tripping the blockers? Thoughts? Any advice much appreciated. JG

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  • Why don't the images fully display when I convert HTML to PDF with Perl's HTML::HTMLDoc?

    - by Octopus
    I need to create a PDF file from the HTML I have created usign rrdcgi. This page contains the details and graphs in PNG format. I have written the below code using Perl module HTML::HTMLDoc to create a PDF file using saved HTML file. The images are of size width 1048 and hight 266 but when creating a PDF file the images are not shown completly from the right side. #!/usr/bin/perl use strict; use warnings; use HTML::HTMLDoc; my $filename = shift; my $htmldoc = new HTML::HTMLDoc(); $htmldoc->set_input_file($filename); $htmldoc->no_links(); $htmldoc->landscape(); $htmldoc->set_jpeg_compression('50'); $htmldoc->best_image_quality(); $htmldoc->color_on(); $htmldoc->set_right_margin('1', 'mm'); $htmldoc->set_left_margin('1', 'mm'); $htmldoc->set_bodycolor('#FFFFFF'); $htmldoc->set_browserwidth('1000'); my $pdf = $htmldoc->generate_pdf(); $pdf->to_file('foo.pdf'); I need help on following items: 1) How do I display the complete image on page. 2) How do I set a link on HTML page to create PDF file with the contents on the current page. Any help with the Perl code would be really appreciated.

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  • Input boxes with transparent background are not clickable in IE8

    - by Viliam
    I have an absolutely positioned input box in a form. The input box has transparent background: .form-page input[type="text"] { border: none; background-color: transparent; /* Other stuff: font-weight, font-size */ } Surprisingly, I cannot select this input box by clicking on it in IE8. It works perfectly in Firefox however. The same happens for background: none. When I change the background color: background-color: red; It works fine, so this is issue associated with transparent background. Setting a border makes the input box selectable by clicking on its border only. Is there a workaround to have clickable input box with transparent background working in IE8? Update: Example. Uncomment background-color and the inputbox is selectable. You can also click on the select box, and focus the input box by pressing Shift+Tab. <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html><head></head><body> <style type="text/css"> input[type="text"] { border: none; background: transparent; /*background-color: blue;*/ } #elem528 { position:absolute; left:155px; top:164px; width:60px; height:20px; } #elem529 { position:absolute; left:218px; top:164px; width:40px; height:20px; } </style> <img src="xxx.png" alt="" width="1000" height="1000"> <input id="elem528" maxlength="7" type="text"> <select id="elem529"></select> </body></html>

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  • Get id when inserting new row using TableAdapter.Update on a file based database

    - by phq
    I have a database table with one field, called ID, being an auto increment integer. Using a TableAdapter I can read and modify existing rows as well as create new ones. However if I try to modify a newly inserted row I get an DBConcurrencyException: OleDbConnection conn = new OleDbConnection(@"Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;Data Source=Shift.mdb;Persist Security Info=True"); ShiftDataSetTableAdapters.ShiftTableAdapter shiftTA = new ShiftDataSetTableAdapters.ShiftTableAdapter(); shiftTA.Connection = conn; ShiftDataSet.ShiftDataTable table = new ShiftDataSet.ShiftDataTable(); ShiftDataSet.ShiftRow row = table.NewShiftRow(); row.Name = "life"; table.Rows.Add(row); shiftTA.Update(row); // row.ID == -1 row.Name = "answer"; // <-- all fine up to here shiftTA.Update(row); // DBConcurrencyException: 0 rows affected Separate question, is there any static type of the NewShiftRow() method I can use so that I don't have to create table everytime I want to insert a new row. I guess the problem in the code comes from row.ID that is still -1 after the first Update() call. The Insert is successful and in the database the row has a valid value of ID. How can I get that ID so that I can continue with the second Update call? Update: IT looks like this could have been done automatically using this setting. However according to the answer on msdn social, OLEDB drivers do not support this feature. Not sure where to go from here, use something else than oledb? Update: Tried SQLCompact but discovered that it had the same limitation, it does not support multiple statements. Final question: is there any simple(single file based) database that would allow you to get the values of a inserted row.

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  • Soft Paint Bucket Fill: Colour Equality

    - by Bart van Heukelom
    I'm making a small app where children can fill preset illustrations with colours. I've succesfully implemented an MS-paint style paint bucket using the flood fill argorithm. However, near the edges of image elements pixels are left unfilled, because the lines are anti-aliased. This is because the current condition on whether to fill is colourAtCurrentPixel == colourToReplace (the colours are RGB uints) I'd like to add a smoothing/treshold option like in Photoshop and other sophisticated tools, but what's the algorithm to determine the equality/distance between two colours? if (match(pixel(x,y), colourToReplace) setpixel(x,y,colourToReplaceWith) How to fill in match()? Here's my current full code: var b:BitmapData = settings.background; b.lock(); var from:uint = b.getPixel(x,y); var q:Array = []; var xx:int; var yy:int; var w:int = b.width; var h:int = b.height; q.push(y*w + x); while (q.length != 0) { var xy:int = q.shift(); xx = xy % w; yy = (xy - xx) / w; if (b.getPixel(xx,yy) == from) { b.setPixel(xx,yy,to); if (xx != 0) q.push(xy-1); if (xx != w-1) q.push(xy+1); if (yy != 0) q.push(xy-w); if (yy != h-1) q.push(xy+w); } } b.unlock(null);

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  • Numeric Data Entry in WPF

    - by Matt Hamilton
    How are you handling the entry of numeric values in WPF applications? Without a NumericUpDown control, I've been using a TextBox and handling its PreviewKeyDown event with the code below, but it's pretty ugly. Has anyone found a more graceful way to get numeric data from the user without relying on a third-party control?private void NumericEditPreviewKeyDown(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { bool isNumPadNumeric = (e.Key >= Key.NumPad0 && e.Key <= Key.NumPad9) || e.Key == Key.Decimal; bool isNumeric = (e.Key >= Key.D0 && e.Key <= Key.D9) || e.Key == Key.OemPeriod; if ((isNumeric || isNumPadNumeric) && Keyboard.Modifiers != ModifierKeys.None) { e.Handled = true; return; } bool isControl = ((Keyboard.Modifiers != ModifierKeys.None && Keyboard.Modifiers != ModifierKeys.Shift) || e.Key == Key.Back || e.Key == Key.Delete || e.Key == Key.Insert || e.Key == Key.Down || e.Key == Key.Left || e.Key == Key.Right || e.Key == Key.Up || e.Key == Key.Tab || e.Key == Key.PageDown || e.Key == Key.PageUp || e.Key == Key.Enter || e.Key == Key.Return || e.Key == Key.Escape || e.Key == Key.Home || e.Key == Key.End); e.Handled = !isControl && !isNumeric && !isNumPadNumeric; }

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  • Segment register, IP register and memory addressing issue!

    - by Zia ur Rahman
    In the following text I asked two questions and I also described that what I know about these question so that you can understand my thinking. Your precious comments about the below text are required. Below is the Detail of 1ST Question As we know that if we have one mega byte memory then we need 20 bits to address this memory. Another thing is each memory cell has a physical address which is of 20 bits in 1Mb memory. IP register in IAPX88 is of 16 bits. Now my point of view is, we can not access the memory at all by the IP register because the memory need 20 bit address to be addressed but the IP register is of 16 bits. If we have a memory of 64k then IP register can access this memory because this memory needs 16 bits to be addressed. But incase of 1mb memory IP can’t.tell me am i right or not if not why? Suppose physical address of memory is 11000000000000000101 Now how can we access this memory location by 16 bits. Below is the detail of Next Question: My next question is , suppose IP register is pointing to memory location, and the segment register is also pointing to a memory location (start of the segment), the memory is of 1MB, how we can access a memory location by these two 16 bit registers tell me the sequence of steps how the 20 bits addressable memory location is accessed . If your answer is, we take the segment value and we shift it left by 4 bits and then add the IP value into it to get the 20 bits address, then this raises another question that is the address bus (the address bus should be 20 bits wide), the registers both the segment register and the IP register are of 16 bits each , now if address bus is 20 bits wide then this means that the address bus is connected to both these registers. If its not the case then another thing that comes into my mind is that both these registers generate a 20 bit address and there would be a register which can store 20 bits and this register would be connected to both these register and the address bus as well.

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  • Bubble Breaker Game Solver better than greedy?

    - by Gregory
    For a mental exercise I decided to try and solve the bubble breaker game found on many cell phones as well as an example here:Bubble Break Game The random (N,M,C) board consists N rows x M columns with C colors The goal is to get the highest score by picking the sequence of bubble groups that ultimately leads to the highest score A bubble group is 2 or more bubbles of the same color that are adjacent to each other in either x or y direction. Diagonals do not count When a group is picked, the bubbles disappear, any holes are filled with bubbles from above first, ie shift down, then any holes are filled by shifting right A bubble group score = n * (n - 1) where n is the number of bubbles in the bubble group The first algorithm is a simple exhaustive recursive algorithm which explores going through the board row by row and column by column picking bubble groups. Once the bubble group is picked, we create a new board and try to solve that board, recursively descending down Some of the ideas I am using include normalized memoization. Once a board is solved we store the board and the best score in a memoization table. I create a prototype in python which shows a (2,15,5) board takes 8859 boards to solve in about 3 seconds. A (3,15,5) board takes 12,384,726 boards in 50 minutes on a server. The solver rate is ~3k-4k boards/sec and gradually decreases as the memoization search takes longer. Memoization table grows to 5,692,482 boards, and hits 6,713,566 times. What other approaches could yield high scores besides the exhaustive search? I don't seen any obvious way to divide and conquer. But trending towards larger and larger bubbles groups seems to be one approach Thanks to David Locke for posting the paper link which talks above a window solver which uses a constant-depth lookahead heuristic.

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  • Excel 2003 VBA - Method to duplicate this code that select and colors rows

    - by Justin
    so this is a fragment of a procedure that exports a dataset from access to excel Dim rs As Recordset Dim intMaxCol As Integer Dim intMaxRow As Integer Dim objxls As Excel.Application Dim objWkb As Excel.Workbook Dim objSht As Excel.Worksheet Set rs = CurrentDb.OpenRecordset("qryOutput", dbOpenSnapshot) intMaxCol = rs.Fields.Count If rs.RecordCount > 0 Then rs.MoveLast: rs.MoveFirst intMaxRow = rs.RecordCount Set objxls = New Excel.Application objxls.Visible = True With objxls Set objWkb = .Workbooks.Add Set objSht = objWkb.Worksheets(1) With objSht On Error Resume Next .Range(.Cells(1, 1), .Cells(intMaxRow, intMaxCol)).CopyFromRecordset rs .Name = conSHT_NAME .Cells.WrapText = False .Cells.EntireColumn.AutoFit .Cells.RowHeight = 17 .Cells.Select With Selection.Font .Name = "Calibri" .Size = 10 End With .Rows("1:1").Select With Selection .Insert Shift:=xlDown End With .Rows("1:1").Interior.ColorIndex = 15 .Rows("1:1").RowHeight = 30 .Rows("2:2").Select With Selection.Interior .ColorIndex = 40 .Pattern = xlSolid End With .Rows("4:4").Select With Selection.Interior .ColorIndex = 40 .Pattern = xlSolid End With .Rows("6:6").Select With Selection.Interior .ColorIndex = 40 .Pattern = xlSolid End With .Rows("1:1").Select With Selection.Borders(xlEdgeBottom) .LineStyle = xlContinuous .Weight = xlMedium .ColorIndex = xlAutomatic End With End With End With End If Set objSht = Nothing Set objWkb = Nothing Set objxls = Nothing Set rs = Nothing Set DB = Nothing End Sub see where I am looking at coloring the rows. I wanted to select and fill (with any color) every other row, kinda like some of those access reports. I can do it manually coding each and every row, but two problems: 1) its a pain 2) i don't know what the record count is before hand. How can I make the code more efficient in this respect while incorporating the recordcount to know how many rows to "loop through" EDIT: Another question I have is with the selection methods I am using in the module, is there a better excel syntax instead of these with selections.... .Cells.Select With Selection.Font .Name = "Calibri" .Size = 10 End With is the only way i figure out how to accomplish this piece, but literally every other time I run this code, it fails. It says there is no object and points to the .font ....every other time? is this because the code is poor, or that I am not closing the xls app in the code? if so how do i do that? Thanks as always!

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  • Multiplication algorithm for abritrary precision (bignum) integers.

    - by nn
    Hi, I'm writing a small bignum library for a homework project. I am to implement Karatsuba multiplication, but before that I would like to write a naive multiplication routine. I'm following a guide written by Paul Zimmerman titled "Modern Computer Arithmetic" which is freely available online. On page 4, there is a description of an algorithm titled BasecaseMultiply which performs gradeschool multiplication. I understand step 2, 3, where B^j is a digit shift of 1, j times. But I don't understand step 1 and 3, where we have A*b_j. How is this multiplication meant to be carried out if the bignum multiplication hasn't been defined yet? Would the operation "*" in this algorithm just be the repeated addition method? Here is the parts I have written thus far. I have unit tested them so they appear to be correct for the most part: The structure I use for my bignum is as follows: #define BIGNUM_DIGITS 2048 typedef uint32_t u_hw; // halfword typedef uint64_t u_w; // word typedef struct { unsigned int sign; // 0 or 1 unsigned int n_digits; u_hw digits[BIGNUM_DIGITS]; } bn; Currently available routines: bn *bn_add(bn *a, bn *b); // returns a+b as a newly allocated bn void bn_lshift(bn *b, int d); // shifts d digits to the left, retains sign int bn_cmp(bn *a, bn *b); // returns 1 if a>b, 0 if a=b, -1 if a<b

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  • Alternative to array_shift function

    - by SoLoGHoST
    Ok, I need keys to be preserved within this array and I just want to shift the 1st element from this array. Actually I know that the first key of this array will always be 1 when I do this: // Sort it by 1st group and 1st layout. ksort($disabled_sections); foreach($disabled_sections as &$grouplayout) ksort($grouplayout); Basically I'd rather not have to ksort it in order to grab this array where the key = 1. And, honestly, I'm not a big fan of array_shift, it just takes to long IMO. Is there another way. Perhaps a way to extract the entire array where $disabled_sections[1] is found without having to do a foreach and sorting it, and array_shift. I just wanna add $disabled[1] to a different array and remove it from this array altogether. While keeping both arrays keys structured the way they are. Technically, it would even be fine to do this: $array = array(); $array = $disabled_sections[1]; But it needs to remove it from $disabled_sections. Can I use something like this approach... $array = array(); $array = $disabled_sections[1]; $disabled_sections -= $disabled_sections[1]; Is something like the above even possible?? Thanks.

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  • How do I compose an existing Moose role into a class at runtime?

    - by Oesor
    Say I define an abstract My::Object and concrete role implementations My::Object::TypeA and My::Object::TypeB. For maintainability reasons, I'd like to not have a hardcoded table that looks at the object type and applies roles. As a DWIMmy example, I'm looking for something along these lines in My::Object: has => 'id' (isa => 'Str', required => 1); sub BUILD { my $self = shift; my $type = $self->lookup_type(); ## Returns 'TypeB' {"My::Object::$type"}->meta->apply($self); } Letting me get a My::Object with My::Object::TypeB role applied by doing the following: my $obj = My::Object(id = 'foo') Is this going to do what I want or am I on the entirely wrong track? Edit: I simplified this too much; I don't want to have to know the type when I instantiate the object, I want the object to determine its type and apply the correct role's methods appropriately. I've edited my question to make this clearer.

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  • C-macro: set a register field defined by a bit-mask to a given value

    - by geschema
    I've got 32-bit registers with field defined as bit-masks, e.g. #define BM_TEST_FIELD 0x000F0000 I need a macro that allows me to set a field (defined by its bit-mask) of a register (defined by its address) to a given value. Here's what I came up with: #include <stdio.h> #include <assert.h> typedef unsigned int u32; /* * Set a given field defined by a bit-mask MASK of a 32-bit register at address * ADDR to a value VALUE. */ #define SET_REGISTER_FIELD(ADDR, MASK, VALUE) \ { \ u32 mask=(MASK); u32 value=(VALUE); \ u32 mem_reg = *(volatile u32*)(ADDR); /* Get current register value */ \ assert((MASK) != 0); /* Null masks are not supported */ \ while(0 == (mask & 0x01)) /* Shift the value to the left until */ \ { /* it aligns with the bit field */ \ mask = mask >> 1; value = value << 1; \ } \ mem_reg &= ~(MASK); /* Clear previous register field value */ \ mem_reg |= value; /* Update register field with new value */ \ *(volatile u32*)(ADDR) = mem_reg; /* Update actual register */ \ } /* Test case */ #define BM_TEST_FIELD 0x000F0000 int main() { u32 reg = 0x12345678; printf("Register before: 0x%.8X\n", reg);/* should be 0x12345678 */ SET_REGISTER_FIELD(&reg, BM_TEST_FIELD, 0xA); printf("Register after: 0x%.8X\n", reg); /* should be 0x123A5678 */ return 0; } Is there a simpler way to do it?

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  • Executing bat file and returning the prompt

    - by Lieven Cardoen
    I have a problem with cruisecontrol where an ant scripts executes a bat file that doesn't give me the prompt back. As a result, the project in cruisecontrol keeps on bulding forever until I restart cruisecontrol. How can I resolve this? It's a startup.bat from wowza (Streaming Server) that I'm executing: @echo off call setenv.bat if not %WMSENVOK% == "true" goto end set _WINDOWNAME="Wowza Media Server 2" set _EXESERVER= if "%1"=="newwindow" ( set _EXESERVER=start %_WINDOWNAME% shift ) set CLASSPATH="%WMSAPP_HOME%\bin\wms-bootstrap.jar" rem cacls jmxremote.password /P username:R rem cacls jmxremote.access /P username:R rem NOTE: Here you can configure the JVM's built in JMX interface. rem See the "Server Management Console and Monitoring" chapter rem of the "User's Guide" for more information on how to configure the rem remote JMX interface in the [install-dir]/conf/Server.xml file. set JMXOPTIONS=-Dcom.sun.management.jmxremote=true rem set JMXOPTIONS=%JMXOPTIONS% -Djava.rmi.server.hostname=192.168.1.7 rem set JMXOPTIONS=%JMXOPTIONS% -Dcom.sun.management.jmxremote.port=1099 rem set JMXOPTIONS=%JMXOPTIONS% -Dcom.sun.management.jmxremote.authenticate=false rem set JMXOPTIONS=%JMXOPTIONS% -Dcom.sun.management.jmxremote.ssl=false rem set JMXOPTIONS=%JMXOPTIONS% -Dcom.sun.management.jmxremote.password.file= "%WMSCONFIG_HOME%/conf/jmxremote.password" rem set JMXOPTIONS=%JMXOPTIONS% -Dcom.sun.management.jmxremote.access.file= "%WMSCONFIG_HOME%/conf/jmxremote.access" rem log interceptor com.wowza.wms.logging.LogNotify - see Javadocs for ILogNotify %_EXESERVER% "%_EXECJAVA%" %JAVA_OPTS% %JMXOPTIONS% -Dcom.wowza.wms.AppHome="%WMSAPP_HOME%" -Dcom.wowza.wms.ConfigURL="%WMSCONFIG_URL%" -Dcom.wowza.wms.ConfigHome="%WMSCONFIG_HOME%" -cp %CLASSPATH% com.wowza.wms.bootstrap.Bootstrap start :end

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  • Better ways to implement a modulo operation (algorithm question)

    - by ryxxui
    I've been trying to implement a modular exponentiator recently. I'm writing the code in VHDL, but I'm looking for advice of a more algorithmic nature. The main component of the modular exponentiator is a modular multiplier which I also have to implement myself. I haven't had any problems with the multiplication algorithm- it's just adding and shifting and I've done a good job of figuring out what all of my variables mean so that I can multiply in a pretty reasonable amount of time. The problem that I'm having is with implementing the modulus operation in the multiplier. I know that performing repeated subtractions will work, but it will also be slow. I found out that I could shift the modulus to effectively subtract large multiples of the modulus but I think there might still be better ways to do this. The algorithm that I'm using works something like this (weird pseudocode follows): result,modulus : integer (n bits) (previously defined) shiftcount : integer (initialized to zero) while( (modulus<result) and (modulus(n-1) != 1) ){ modulus = modulus << 1 shiftcount++ } for(i=shiftcount;i>=0;i++){ if(modulus<result){result = result-modulus} if(i!=0){modulus = modulus << 1} } So...is this a good algorithm, or at least a good place to start? Wikipedia doesn't really discuss algorithms for implementing the modulo operation, and whenever I try to search elsewhere I find really interesting but incredibly complicated (and often unrelated) research papers and publications. If there's an obvious way to implement this that I'm not seeing, I'd really appreciate some feedback.

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