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  • Nginx not working properly on subdomains

    - by javipas
    I've been trying to setup a Sugar CRM instance. I've got a domain that has its main site on a server (www.domain.com) and I've created a subdomain (sugar.domain.com), but I wnat this subdomain to be hosted on another server. This second server has nginx installed, and there's a working WordPress blog there on a virtualhost, so I would need to setup a second site. To do this I've created the directory structure, and I've created a /etc/nginx/sites-enabled/sugar.domain.com configuration file that has the following: * server { listen 80; server_name sugar.domain.com *.domain.com; access_log /var/www/sugar/log/access.log; error_log /var/www/sugar/log/error.log info; location / { root /var/www/sugar; index index.php; } location ~ .php$ { fastcgi_split_path_info ^(.+\.php)(.*)$; fastcgi_pass backend; fastcgi_index index.php; fastcgi_param SCRIPT_FILENAME /var/www/sugar/$fastcgi_script_name; include fastcgi_params; fastcgi_param QUERY_STRING $query_string; fastcgi_param REQUEST_METHOD $request_method; fastcgi_param CONTENT_TYPE $content_type; fastcgi_param CONTENT_LENGTH $content_length; fastcgi_intercept_errors on; fastcgi_ignore_client_abort on; fastcgi_read_timeout 180; } ## Disable viewing .htaccess & .htpassword location ~ /\.ht { deny all; } } upstream backend { server 127.0.0.1:9000; } As far as I know, I need the *.domain.com parameter on the "server_name" flag, but something is crashing here: I get either a 403 Forbidden error, or I get PHP code (I can read the PHP file code in the browser, like normal text) that somehow is not executed. I've tried setting permissions to 755 inside the /var/www/sugar/ directory, and I've also set up the owner:group with a chown -R www-data:www-data /var/www/sugar/ The thing is, I don't now if my mistake is in the nginx site configuration, in my folder permissions, or in other place :( Could it be because of the main domain (www.domain.com) is hosted on other server? Do they have to be together necessarily?

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  • VPN Connection Causes Internal LAN Connection Loss with Server

    - by sleepisfortheweak
    I've tried configuring basic PPTP VPN at my small business using a number of different tutorials. As far as I can tell, the actual VPN connection worked fine, but upon connecting a client, the Server 'disappears' from the internal LAN. The RRAS service must be stopped before the connection is restored. My Setup: The network is simply a DSL Gateway/Router to the outside functioning as NAT/Firewall/DHCP. The server is a Win Server 2008 machine at fixed IP 192.168.1.200. The server has 1 NIC, so I used the 'custom' option when configuring RRAS. The RRAS settings should be default except that I've disabled ports for connection types I'm not using and reduced PPTP ports to 10. I've also created an address pool and disabled DHCP packet forwarding. The server only functions as a File Share and now a VPN Server. Local LAN computers all have mapped network shares to the server authenticated based on Local User/Group setup on the server. The Problem: The moment a client connects through VPN, the server 'disappears' from the local network. All mapped drives disconnect and there is no response to a ping 192.168.1.200. Even if the client disconnects, the server does not re-appear at that address until the RRAS service is stopped. I've Tried: Using an Address Pool inside and outside the local subnet. Using DCHP Relay Checking Inbound/Outbound filters (none enabled) The fact that nothing I've tried has had any effect, and that I can connect and successfully obtain an IP tells me that it's something more fundamental I'm missing. My gut tells me that it's something to do with the second IP address added by the VPN client somehow taking over the interface or traffic from the local LAN accidently getting routed to the VPN client instead of handled at the server once RRAS has become 'active' when a client connects. Hopefully this may be obvious to someone with real IT experience. I've been doing this a while and almost never been stumped. I'm starting to think it might actually be something tricky since my setup is pretty basic yet refuses to work. I'll be happy to include more info if this doesn't ring any bells right away for anyone. Thanks

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  • Load balancers, multiple data centers and url based routing

    - by kunkunur
    There is one data center - dc1. There is a business need to setup another data center - dc2 in another geography and there might be more in the future say dc3. Within the data center dc1: There are two web servers say WS1 and WS2. These two webservers do not share anything currently. There isnt any necessity foreseen to have more webservers within each dc. dc1 also has a local load balancer which has been setup with session stickiness. So if a user say u1 lands on dc1 and if the load balancer decides to route his first request to WS1 then from there on all u1's requests will get routed to WS1. Local load balancer and webservers are invisible to the user. Local load balancer listens to the traffic on a virtual ip which is assigned to the virtual cluster of webservers ws1 and ws2. Virtual ip is the ip to which the host name is resolved to in the DNS. There are no client specific subdomains as of now instead there is a client specific url(context). ex: www.example.com/client1 and www.example.com/client2. Given above when dc2 is onboarded I want to route the traffic between dc1 and dc2 based on the client. The options that I have found so far are. Have client specific subdomains e.g. client1.example.com and client2.example.com and assign each of them with the virtual ip of the data center to which I want to route them. or Assign www.example.com and www1.example.com to first dc i.e. dc1 and assign www2.example.com to dc2. All requests will first get routed to dc1 where WS1 and WS2 will redirect the user to www1.example.com or www2.example.com based on whether the url ends with /client1 or /client2. I need help in the following If I setup a global load balancer between dc1 and dc2 do I have any alternative solutions. That is, can a global load balancer route the traffic based on the url ? Are there drawbacks to subdomain based solutions compared to www1 solution? With www1 solution I am worried that it creates a dependency on dc1 atleast for the first request and the user will see that he is getting redirected to a different url.

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  • ZFS Recover from Faulted Pool State

    - by nickv2002
    I have a six disk ZFS raidz1 pool and had a recent failure requiring a disk replacement. No problem normally, but this time my server hardware died before I could do the replacement (but after and unrelated to the drive failure as far as I can tell). I was able to get another machine from a friend to rebuild the system, but in the process of moving my drives over I had to swap their cables around a bunch until I got the right configuration where the remaining 5 good disks were seen as online. This process seems to have generated some checksum errors for the pool/raidz. I have the 5 remaining drives set up now and a good drive installed and ready to take the place of the drive that died. However, since my pool state is FAULTED I'm unable to do the replacement. root@zfs:~# zpool replace tank 1298243857915644462 /dev/sdb cannot open 'tank': pool is unavailable Is there any way to recover from this error? I would think that having 5 of the 6 drives online would be enough to rebuild the right data, but that doesn't seem to be enough now. Here's the status log of my pool: root@zfs:~# zpool status tank pool: tank state: FAULTED status: One or more devices could not be used because the label is missing or invalid. There are insufficient replicas for the pool to continue functioning. action: Destroy and re-create the pool from a backup source. see: http://zfsonlinux.org/msg/ZFS-8000-5E scan: none requested config: NAME STATE READ WRITE CKSUM tank FAULTED 0 0 1 corrupted data raidz1-0 ONLINE 0 0 8 sdd ONLINE 0 0 0 sdf ONLINE 0 0 0 sdh ONLINE 0 0 0 1298243857915644462 UNAVAIL 0 0 0 was /dev/sdb1 sde ONLINE 0 0 0 sdg ONLINE 0 0 0 Update (10/31): I tried to export and re-import the array a few times over the past week and wasn't successful. First I tried: zpool import -f -R /tank -N -o readonly=on -F tank That produced this error immediately: cannot import 'tank': I/O error Destroy and re-create the pool from a backup source. I added the '-X' option to the above command to try to make it check the transaction log. I let that run for about 48 hours before giving up because it had completely locked up my machine (I was unable to log in locally or via the network). Now I'm trying a simple zpool import tank command and that seems to run for a while with no output. I'll leave it running overnight to see if it outputs anything.

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  • Why would a process monitoring script use exit 1; on finding no problems?

    - by user568458
    General question: On a Linux (Centos) server, if a process monitoring script run by cron is set to close with exit 1; rather than exit 0; on finding that everything is okay and that no action is needed, is that a mistake? Or are there legitimate reasons for calling exit 1; instead of exit 0; on the "Everything's fine, no action needed" condition? exit 0; on finding no problems seems to me to be more appropriate. But maybe there's something I'm not aware of. For example, maybe there's something specific to Cron? Or maybe there's a convention in process monitoring scripts that 'failure' means 'this script failed to need to fix a problem' (rather than what I would expect which is that exit 1; would mean 'the process being monitored has failed'?) My specific case: I'm looking at a process monitoring script written by my web hosting company. By process monitoring script, I mean a script executed by Cron on a regular basis that checks if an important system process is running, and if it isn't running, takes actions such as mailing an administrator or restarting the process. Here's the (generalised) structure of their script, for a service running on port 8080 (in this case, Apache Tomcat): SERVICE=$(/usr/sbin/lsof -i tcp:8080 | wc -l); if [ $SERVICE != 0 ]; then exit 1; else #take action fi Seems simple enough even for someone with limited knowledge like me, except the exit 1; part seems odd. As I understand it, exit 0; closes a program and signifies to the parent that executed the program that everything is fine, exit n; where n0 and n<127 signifies that there has been some kind of error or problem. Here, their script seems to go against that rule - it calls exit 1; in the condition where everything is fine, and doesn't exit after taking remedial action in the problem condition. To me, this looks like a mistake - but my experience in this area is limited. Are there cases where calling exit 1; in the "Everything's fine, no action needed" condition is more appropriate than calling exit 0;? Or is it a mistake? Wider context is pretty simple. It's a Centos VPS, running Plesk. The script is being called by Cron via Plesk's "Scheduled tasks" Cron manager. There's no custom layer between Cron and this script that would respond in an unusual way to the exit call. It's a fairly average, almost out-of-the box Plesk-managed Centos VPS (in so far as there is such a thing). The process being monitored by this script is Apache Tomcat.

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  • Cannot access boot menu with compaq 8510p

    - by pinouchon
    I have a problem with my HP compaq 8510p laptop: when I start it, the fan starts and the power light is on, but the screen displays nothing. When I insert a bootable hard drive, it activates the hard drive light (meaning that the CD is recognized) but it stops after a few seconds. Same thing with any hard drive: the drive is recognized but does not boot. What I've tried so far: Changing the hard drive or booting with no hard drive (same problem) Plugging anoher display via VGA : no display on the other screen Inserting a windows-7 CD (same problem) Booting only on battery, with battery and power cable, only with power cable (same problem) So it looks like something is preventing the laptop from booting and displaying the boot menu. Do you have experienced something similar with a laptop ? What could be wrong ? The laptop is out of warranty. The system used to be windows-7 x64. Edit: I went to the help desk of my university. A guy took a look (he also tried to plug an external screen) and said that the computer is dead: on the HP laptops eventually the GPU card dies and so does the motherboard because they are linked. He saw this many times, and even if I can fix the problem, the laptop would crash again after a while. Do you have similar experience with HP laptops ? (mine is 4 years old) Edit 2: Believe it or not, my laptop is magically working again. I have no clue about what is going on. Now it is like starting and old car: when you turn it on you secretly hope it will actually start... With that said, I expect my laptop to break again in the near future (its an HP after all) and I will accept an answer or add my own accordingly. Edit 3: As expected, the laptop is down again. This time, sometimes when I power it up, it shuts down automatically after 3 seconds, sometimes not at all. In addition, when it does not shut down on its own, the power button does not work : the only way to shut it down is by unplugging the battery. As before, the screen is black, and only the power and battery lights are on. (the other ones: hard drive and wifi are off). I have tried to plug in another power plug, removing the battery and removing the hard drive without success. I might buy another laptop. I've brought the laptop to a repair shop. The problem is indeed that the graphic card is down. It will be replaced by a new one.

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  • How to run a restricted set of programs with Administrator privileges without giving up Admin acces (Win7 Pro)

    - by frLich
    I have a shared system, running Windows7 X64, restricted to a 'standard user' with no password. Not everyone who has access to the system has the administrator password. This works rather well, except for some applications - specially the unlock-applications for encrypted hard drives/USB flash drives. The specific ones either require Administrator access (eg. Seagate Blackarmor) or simply fail without it -- since these programs are sending raw commands to a device, this is to be expected. I would like to be able to add the hashes of these particular programs to a whitelist, and have them run as administrator without needing any prompts. Since these are by definition on removable media, I can't simply use a filename or even a path. One of the users who shares the system can be considered 'crafty', so anything which temporarily grants administrator rights to an user account is certain to cause problems. What i'd like to be able to do: 1) Create an admin account that can only run programs from a whitelist (or, failing that, from a directory) I can't find a good way to do this: As far as I can tell, SRP applies equally to ALL users? Even if I put a "Deny" token on all directories on the system, such that new directories would inherit it, it could still potentially run things from the mounted USB devices. I also don't know whether it's possible to create a new directory that DOESN'T inherit from the parent, that would lake the deny token, and provide admin access. 2) Find a lightweight service that will run these programs in its local context Windows7 seems to block cross-privilege level communication by default, and I haven't found such for windows 7. One example seems to be "sudo" (http://pages.cpsc.ucalgary.ca/~nfriess/sudo/) but because it uses a WLNOTIFY hook, it won't work under Vista nor Windows7 Non-Solutions: - RunAs: Requires administrator password! (but everyone calls it "sudo" anyway) - RunAs /savecred: Nice idea, but appears to be completely insecure. - RUNASSPC - Same concept as RunAs, uses "encrypted" files with credentials, but checks in user-space. - Scheduled Tasks - "Fixed" permissions make this difficult, and doesn't support interactive processes even if it did. - SuRun: From Google: "Surun uses its own Windows service that adds the user to the group of administrators during program start and removes him automatically from that group again"

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  • Linux: find out what process is using all the RAM?

    - by Timur
    Before actually asking, just to be clear: yes, I know about disk cache, and no, it is not my case :) Sorry, for this preamble :) I'm using CentOS 5. Every application in the system is swapping heavily, and the system is very slow. When I do free -m, here is what I got: total used free shared buffers cached Mem: 3952 3929 22 0 1 18 -/+ buffers/cache: 3909 42 Swap: 16383 46 16337 So, I actually have only 42 Mb to use! As far as I understand, -/+ buffers/cache actually doesn't count the disk cache, so I indeed only have 42 Mb, right? I thought, I might be wrong, so I tried to switch off the disk caching and it had no effect - the picture remained the same. So, I decided to find out who is using all my RAM, and I used top for that. But, apparently, it reports that no process is using my RAM. The only process in my top is MySQL, but it is using 0.1% of RAM and 400Mb of swap. Same picture when I try to run other services or applications - all go in swap, top shows that MEM is not used (0.1% maximum for any process). top - 15:09:00 up 2:09, 2 users, load average: 0.02, 0.16, 0.11 Tasks: 112 total, 1 running, 111 sleeping, 0 stopped, 0 zombie Cpu(s): 0.0%us, 0.0%sy, 0.0%ni,100.0%id, 0.0%wa, 0.0%hi, 0.0%si, 0.0%st Mem: 4046868k total, 4001368k used, 45500k free, 748k buffers Swap: 16777208k total, 68840k used, 16708368k free, 16632k cached PID USER PR NI VIRT RES SHR S %CPU %MEM TIME+ SWAP COMMAND 3214 ntp 15 0 23412 5044 3916 S 0.0 0.1 0:00.00 17m ntpd 2319 root 5 -10 12648 4460 3184 S 0.0 0.1 0:00.00 8188 iscsid 2168 root RT 0 22120 3692 2848 S 0.0 0.1 0:00.00 17m multipathd 5113 mysql 18 0 474m 2356 856 S 0.0 0.1 0:00.11 472m mysqld 4106 root 34 19 251m 1944 1360 S 0.0 0.0 0:00.11 249m yum-updatesd 4109 root 15 0 90152 1904 1772 S 0.0 0.0 0:00.18 86m sshd 5175 root 15 0 90156 1896 1772 S 0.0 0.0 0:00.02 86m sshd Restart doesn't help, and, by they way is very slow, which I wouldn't normally expect on this machine (4 cores, 4Gb RAM, RAID1). So, with that - I'm pretty sure that this is not a disk cache, who is using the RAM, because normally it should have been reduced and let other processes to use RAM, rather then go to swap. So, finally, the question is - if someone has any ideas how to find out what process is actually using the memory so heavily?

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  • Cooling Server Rack with Water? Sensible? Reuse energy for small installation?

    - by TomTom
    First - this is not a shopping question, this is not so much about concrete prices but about general feasibility. Makes no sense to get looking fo ra manufacturer it the approach is bad. I am moving my company to new Offices in September, and among them we will expand and consolidate our number crunch cluster. It is so far in a data center. I have a nice room in the basement prepared now. I think about cooling. We will likely run up a power usage of around 10kw by end of the year. That is a LOT of stuff, and cooling will be expensive. I am located in south Poland, close to the German border. This is an area where water is available for relatively cheap price - "wasting water" is not a concern here. My situation is thus a lot different for example than in Spain ;) Physics tells me that to heat 1 liter of water by 1 degree I use 1 Calorie (1KCal), and a kwh power is (and we can assume 100% efficiency - water heaters are pretty efficient) 750 Calories. That means that 1 KWH is 750 liter by 1 degree. 10kw and a 20 degree heat would mean that per hour I need 375 liters. That is 6.25 liters per minute and not WHAT much ;) We talk 270 cubic meters here. Even in summer, the significant underground pipes really cool down the water a LOT more ;) Question: This such an approach feasible? Anyone done that? We talk of a 10kw installation for now. Is it feasible to reuse that heat? The alternative is a decent cooling system that WILL use around 2.5kwh for running. Dropping the water would basically (a) get me a quite cold input compared to the outside air even in summer (I.e. a lower temperature medium to drop the heat in) and (b) replace the need to actually have the outside cooling (which may b problematic - if the air is 22 degree, that is a LOT to fight off, but OTOH the water will be quite cold). I also would possibly save the investment for the outside part of the cooling circuit. Now, second question - is there a feasible way to heat a house with that? ;) After all, brutally speaking, it is a LOT of energy in that water ;) If it is a bad idea, I stop here - if it is not, I start looking for suppliers. Maybe my math is wrong?

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  • Hardware for multipurpose home server

    - by Michael Dmitry Azarkevich
    Hi guys, I'm looking to set up a multipurpose home server and hoped you could help me with the hardware selection. First of all, the services it will provide: Hosting a MySQL database (for training and testing purposes) FTP server Personal Mail Server Home media server So with this in mind I've done some research, and found some viable solutions: A standard PC with the appropriate software (Either second hand or new) A non-solid state mini-ITX system A solid state, fanless mini-ITX system I've also noted the pros and cons of each system: A standard second hand PC with old hardware would be the cheapest option. It could also have lacking processing power, not enough RAM and generally faulty hardware. Also, huge power consumption heat generation and noise levels. A standard new PC would have top-notch hardware and will stay that way for quite some time, so it's a good investment. But again, the main problem is power consumption, heat generation and noise levels. A non-solid state mini-ITX system would have the advantages of lower power consumption, lower cost (as far as I can see) and long lasting hardware. But it will generate noise and heat which will be even worse because of the size. A solid state, fanless mini-ITX system would have all the advantages of a non-solid state mini-ITX but with minimal noise and heat. The main disadvantage is the read\write problems of flash memory. All in all I'm leaning towards a non-solid state mini-ITX because of the read\write issues of flash memory. So, after this overview of what I do know, my questions are: Are all these services even providable from a single server? To my best understanding they are, but then again, I might be wrong. Is any of these solutions viable? If yes, which one is the best for my purposes? If not, what would you suggest? Also, on a more software oriented note: OS wise, I'm planning to run Linux. I'm currently thinking of four options I've been recommended: CentOS, Gentoo, DSL (Damn Small Linux) and LFS (Linux From Scratch). Any thoughts on this? Any other distro you would recomend? Regarding FTP services, I've herd good things about FileZila. Anyone has any experience with that? Do you recommend it? Do you recommend something else? Regarding the Mail service, I know nothing about this except that it exists. Any software you recommend for this task? Home media, same as mail service. Any recommended software? Thank you very much.

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  • nginx rewrite for wikkawiki

    - by Hans
    Just setup WikkaWiki on my server, I have been trying to have the links go from wiki.mysite.info/wikka.php?wakka=Start into wiki.mysite.info/DotMG. I tried following their guide at http://docs.wikkawiki.org/ModRewrite, however it seems incomplete and outdated. Furthermore, as of version 1.3.2 base_url isn't even manually configurable from the wikka.config.php file. I am using version 1.3.2 of WikkaWiki. My nginx virtual hosts file contains: server { listen 80; server_name wiki.mysite.info; root /usr/share/nginx/wikka/; access_log /usr/share/nginx/.access/wikka; error_log /usr/share/nginx/.error/wikka error; location / { index index.php; try_files $uri $uri/ @wikka; } location @wikka { rewrite ^(.*/[^\./]*[^/])$ $1/ last; rewrite ^(.*)$ /wikka.php?wakka=$1 last; } location ~* \.php$ { fastcgi_pass 127.0.0.1:9000; fastcgi_index index.php; include /etc/nginx/fastcgi_params; } } Thus far it works, I can go to wiki.mysite.info/APage and it'll display that page, however it doesn't work on all pages, sometime the browser simply downloads the page (For some reason it always downloads the Start page). Also when I go to wiki.mysite.info/ it downloads the wikka.php file... Furthermore, the links on the wiki have the wikka.php?wakka= so whenever I navigate around the wiki, it goes back to being wiki.mysite.info/wikka.php?wakka=APage. I think something is wrong with my rewrite but I can't say for sure. Contents of the fastcgi_params: fastcgi_param QUERY_STRING $query_string; fastcgi_param REQUEST_METHOD $request_method; fastcgi_param CONTENT_TYPE $content_type; fastcgi_param CONTENT_LENGTH $content_length; fastcgi_param SCRIPT_FILENAME $request_filename; fastcgi_param SCRIPT_NAME $fastcgi_script_name; fastcgi_param REQUEST_URI $request_uri; fastcgi_param DOCUMENT_URI $document_uri; fastcgi_param DOCUMENT_ROOT $document_root; fastcgi_param SERVER_PROTOCOL $server_protocol; fastcgi_param GATEWAY_INTERFACE CGI/1.1; fastcgi_param SERVER_SOFTWARE nginx/$nginx_version; fastcgi_param REMOTE_ADDR $remote_addr; fastcgi_param REMOTE_PORT $remote_port; fastcgi_param SERVER_ADDR $server_addr; fastcgi_param SERVER_PORT $server_port; fastcgi_param SERVER_NAME $server_name; fastcgi_param HTTPS $server_https; # PHP only, required if PHP was built with --enable-force-cgi-redirect fastcgi_param REDIRECT_STATUS 200;

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  • How to prevent dual booted OSes from damaging each other?

    - by user1252434
    For better compatibility and performance in games I'm thinking about installing Windows additionally to Linux. I have security concerns about this, though. Note: "Windows" in the remaining text includes not only the OS but also any software running on it. Regardless of whether it comes included or is additionally installed, whether it is started intentionally or unintentionally (virus, malware). Is there an easy way to achieve the following requirements: Windows MUST NOT be able to kill my linux partition or my data disk neither single files (virus infection) nor overwriting the whole disk Windows MUST NOT be able to read data disk (- extra protection against spyware) Linux may or may not have access to the windows partition both Linux and Windows should have full access to the graphics card this rules out desktop VM solutions for gaming I want the manufacturer's windows graphics card driver Regarding Windows to be unable to destroy my linux install: this is not just the usual paranoia, that has happened to me in the past. So I don't accept "no ext4 driver" as an argument. Once bitten, twice shy. And even if destruction targeted at specific (linux) files is nearly impossible, there should be no way to shred the whole partition. I may accept the risk of malware breaking out of a barrier (e.g. VM) around the whole windows box, though. Currently I have a system disk (SSD) and a data disk (HDD), both SATA. I expect I have to add another disk. If i don't: even better. My CPU is a Intel Core i5, with VT-x and VT-d available, though untested. Ideas I've had so far: deactivate or hide other HDs until reboot at low level possible? can the boot loader (grub) do this for me? tiny VM layer: load windows in a VM that provides access to almost all hardware, except the HDs any ready made software solution for this? Preferably free. as I said: the main problem seems to be to provide full access to the graphics card hardware switch to cut power to disks commercial products expensive and lots of warnings against cheap home built solutions preferably all three hard disks with one switch (one push) mobile racks - won't wear of daily swapping be a problem?

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  • Tips for maximizing Nginx requests/sec?

    - by linkedlinked
    I'm building an analytics package, and project requirements state that I need to support 1 billion hits per day. Yep, "billion". In other words, no less than 12,000 hits per second sustained, and preferably some room to burst. I know I'll need multiple servers for this, but I'm trying to get maximum performance out of each node before "throwing more hardware at it". Right now, I have the hits-tracking portion completed, and well optimized. I pretty much just save the requests straight into Redis (for later processing with Hadoop). The application is Python/Django with a gunicorn for the gateway. My 2GB Ubuntu 10.04 Rackspace server (not a production machine) can serve about 1200 static files per second (benchmarked using Apache AB against a single static asset). To compare, if I swap out the static file link with my tracking link, I still get about 600 requests per second -- I think this means my tracker is well optimized, because it's only a factor of 2 slower than serving static assets. However, when I benchmark with millions of hits, I notice a few things -- No disk usage -- this is expected, because I've turned off all Nginx logs, and my custom code doesn't do anything but save the request details into Redis. Non-constant memory usage -- Presumably due to Redis' memory managing, my memory usage will gradually climb up and then drop back down, but it's never once been my bottleneck. System load hovers around 2-4, the system is still responsive during even my heaviest benchmarks, and I can still manually view http://mysite.com/tracking/pixel with little visible delay while my (other) server performs 600 requests per second. If I run a short test, say 50,000 hits (takes about 2m), I get a steady, reliable 600 requests per second. If I run a longer test (tried up to 3.5m so far), my r/s degrades to about 250. My questions -- a. Does it look like I'm maxing out this server yet? Is 1,200/s static files nginx performance comparable to what others have experienced? b. Are there common nginx tunings for such high-volume applications? I have worker threads set to 64, and gunicorn worker threads set to 8, but tweaking these values doesn't seem to help or harm me much. c. Are there any linux-level settings that could be limiting my incoming connections? d. What could cause my performance to degrade to 250r/s on long-running tests? Again, the memory is not maxing out during these tests, and HDD use is nil. Thanks in advance, all :)

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  • How to stretch the image from one screen to two screens

    - by wxiiir
    I want to be able to stretch the image from one monitor to a second monitor even if i have to use some software to do it. For example i want the top half of the image that is now shown on my first monitor to occupy the whole second monitor and i want the bottom half to occupy the whole first monitor, or the other way around i don't really care as long as it works. I would be cool to know how to do the same stuff but to the left half and right half. I know that image pixels would have twice the lenght or height this way but i don't really care about it as long as it works so basically i want the stuff to show on both monitors but with the same pixels as before. I have a hd4870 and windows7 and hd4000 family doesnt support having two monitors behaving like a large one, only hd5000 upwards, this would solve my problems without any of the drawbacks but it just can't be done (or maybe it can via software but i'm just too tired of searching). A solution to make almost any graphic card have two monitors behaving like a large one is matrox dualhead2go but that's just as expensive as a good hd5000 card so it's not worth it. thanks in advance EDIT I guess that nobody so far was able to fully comprehend my problem that was very explicitly written but i will elaborate some more. My hd4870 can have 2 monitors working with it but some stuff like games won't run on both monitors, which sucks. There are some ways to circumvent this problem and two of them are perfect or almost perfect but expensive and the third would be a software solution that would make it possible. The first one is to have and hd5000 family video card which will work just fine with both monitors. The second is to have a matrox dualhead2go that will make my hd4870 detect my two monitors as a large monitor. The third is to have a software that makes my two displays be detected as a large display and then captures the output of the video card, splits the images and renders them as 2d images to both monitors OR a simpler one but that would make outputted pixels double the width or height would be to capture the output of the graphics card to one screen, split it in two and enlarge it to fit both monitors and then output it to the monitors. p.s. By capturing the output of the video card i mean just make the video card process the stuff in a certain way. Making the video card detect two monitors as a large one via software may be a bit impossible or impracticable but stretching the output as a 2d image from one to both monitors for some coders should be a walk in the park so it would be likely that such program would exist or that some widespread softwares for dual monitor would have such function in them.

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  • How to run a restricted set of programs with Administrator privileges without giving up Admin acces (Win7 Pro)

    - by frLich
    I have a shared system, running Windows7 X64, restricted to a 'standard user' with no password. Not everyone who has access to the system has the administrator password. This works rather well, except for some applications - specially the unlock-applications for encrypted hard drives/USB flash drives. The specific ones either require Administrator access (eg. Seagate Blackarmor) or simply fail without it -- since these programs are sending raw commands to a device, this is to be expected. I would like to be able to add the hashes of these particular programs to a whitelist, and have them run as administrator without needing any prompts. Since these are by definition on removable media, I can't simply use a filename or even a path. One of the users who shares the system can be considered 'crafty', so anything which temporarily grants administrator rights to an user account is certain to cause problems. What i'd like to be able to do: 1) Create an admin account that can only run programs from a whitelist (or, failing that, from a directory) I can't find a good way to do this: As far as I can tell, SRP applies equally to ALL users? Even if I put a "Deny" token on all directories on the system, such that new directories would inherit it, it could still potentially run things from the mounted USB devices. I also don't know whether it's possible to create a new directory that DOESN'T inherit from the parent, that would lake the deny token, and provide admin access. 2) Find a lightweight service that will run these programs in its local context Windows7 seems to block cross-privilege level communication by default, and I haven't found such for windows 7. One example seems to be "sudo" (http://pages.cpsc.ucalgary.ca/~nfriess/sudo/) but because it uses a WLNOTIFY hook, it won't work under Vista nor Windows7 Non-Solutions: - RunAs: Requires administrator password! (but everyone calls it "sudo" anyway) - RunAs /savecred: Nice idea, but appears to be completely insecure. - RUNASSPC - Same concept as RunAs, uses "encrypted" files with credentials, but checks in user-space. - Scheduled Tasks - "Fixed" permissions make this difficult, and doesn't support interactive processes even if it did. - SuRun: From Google: "Surun uses its own Windows service that adds the user to the group of administrators during program start and removes him automatically from that group again"

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  • debugging JBoss 100% CPU usage

    - by Nate
    We are using JBoss to run two of our WARs. One is our web app, the other is our web service. The web app accesses a database on another machine and makes requests to the web service. The web service makes JMS requests to other machines, aggregates the data, and returns it. At our biggest client, about once a month the JBoss Java process takes 100% of all CPUs. The machine running JBoss has 8 CPUs. Our web app is still accessible during this time, however pages take about 3 minutes to load. Restarting JBoss restores everything to normal. The database machine and all the other machines are fine, only the machine running JBoss is affected. Memory usage is normal. Network utilization is normal. There are no suspect error messages in the JBoss logs. I have set up a test environment as close as possible to the client's production environment and I've done load testing with as much as 2x the number of concurrent users. I have not gotten my test environment to replicate the problem. Where do we go from here? How can we narrow down the problem? Currently the only plan we have is to wait until the problem occurs in production on its own, then do some debugging to determine the cause. So far people have just restarted JBoss when the problem occurred to minimize down time. Next time it happens they will get a developer to take a look. The question is, next time it happens, what can be done to determine the cause? We could setup a separate JBoss instance on the same box and install the web app separately from the web service. This way when the problem next occurs we will know which WAR has the problem (assuming it is our code). This doesn't narrow it down much though. Should I enable JMX remote? This way the next time the problem occurs I can connect with VisualVM and see which threads are taking the CPU and what the hell they are doing. However, is there a significant down side to enabling JMX remote in a production environment? Is there another way to see what threads are eating the CPU and to get a stacktrace to see what they are doing? Any other ideas? Thanks!

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  • QNAP (469L) with Debian: can't connect to router

    - by agtoever
    I've been running my QNAP 469L with Debian (Wheezy deb7u3) for a few months. Yesterday I upgraded the memory to 4 GB. The system boots fine, but since the upgrade, I'm not able to connect the server to my router (a TP-Link WR941ND). My configuration: The router runs a DHCP server (192.168.67.100 and up), with a preconfigured ip address for the QNAP (192.168.67.10). The router is on 192.168.67.1. As said, Debian is installed on the QNAP (which can be regarded as a normal computer). Networking hardware on the QNAP: Intel PRO/1000 Network Connection using the e1000e kernel module. This is what I have tried so far: Replace the network cable (tried 3 different cables on different router ports). Check for messages from the kernel: dmesg | grep eth. Besides the normal hardware messages I get a ADDRCONF(NETDEV_UP): eth0: link is not ready for each call to ifup. Manually restart the network sudo server networking restart Check sudo ifconfig (eth0 is up, but no ip addresses). Check the /etc/network/interfaces which has (besides the loopback device) an allow-hotplug eth0 and iface eth0 inet dhcp, which is afaik the default Debian configuration. Since the server has two ethernet ports, I checked if I'm using the right port (checked the hardware address that ifconfig reports for eth0 is the same as the hardware address that is in the preconfigured ip address for the server in the router. Do a manual sudo ifdown eth0 && sudo ifup eth0 with no results (but an extra ADDRCONF(NETDEV_UP): eth0: link is not ready in the kernel log) Do a dhcp request dhclient -v eth0: for about a minute requests are send (according to the terminal) and at the end I get a No DHCPOFFERS received. No working leases in persistent database - sleeping.. Check the router system log if DHCP requests are received. I see them for some devices (my Mac, my iPhone) but not from the QNAP. The log entry looks like: DHCPS:Recv REQUEST from 84:85:06:07:75:6A and then a DHCPS:Send ACK to 192.168.67.101. There are no records from the QNAP's hardware address. So the two error messages that I do get are: ADDRCONF(NETDEV_UP): eth0: link is not ready for every ifup and No DHCPOFFERS received. No working leases in persistent database - sleeping. for every DHCP call.

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  • OpenVPN Chaining

    - by noderunner
    I'm trying to set up an OpenVPN "chain", similar to what is described here. I have two separate networks, A and B. Each network has an OpenVPN server using a standard "road warrior" or "client/server" approach. A client can connect to either one for access to the hosts/services on that respective network. But server A and B are also connected to each other. The servers on each network have a "site-to-site" connection between the two. What I'm trying to accomplish, is the ability to connect to network A as a client, and then make connections with hosts on network B. I'm using tun/routing for all of the VPN connections. The "chain" looks something like this: [Client] --- [Server A] --- [Server A] --- [Server B] --- [Server B] --- [Host B] (tun0) (tun0) (tun1) (tun0) (eth0) (eth0) The whole idea is that server A should route traffic destined to network B through the "site-to-site" VPN set up on tun1 when a client from tun0 tries to connect. I did this simply by setting up two connection profiles on server A. One profile is a standard server config running on tun0, defining a virtual client network, IP address pool, pushing routes, etc. The other is a client connection to Server B running on tun1. With ip_forwarding enabled, I then simply added a "push route" to the clients advertising a route to network B. On server A, this seems to work when I look at tcpdump output. If I connect as a client, and then ping a host on network B, I can see the traffic getting passed from tun0 to tun1 on Server A: tcpdump -nSi tun1 icmp The weird thing is that I don't see Server B receiving that traffic through the tunnel. It's as if Server A is sending it through the site-to-site connection like it should, but server B is completely ignoring it. When I look for the traffic on Server B, it simply isn't there. A ping from Server A -- Host B works fine. But a ping from a client connected to Server A to host B does not. I'm wondering if Server B is ignoring the traffic because the source IP does not match the client IP pool that it hands out to clients? Does anyone know if I need to do something on Server B in order for it to see the traffic? This is a complicated problem to explain, so thanks if you stuck with me this far.

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  • Router behind Router--second router (and its clients) cannot be "seen" even after both routers are D

    - by Trioke
    Couple of terminology I guess I should get out of the way for consistency's sake throughout the post: External Router/Modem - SMC 8014WG - External IP 173.32.144.134 - Internal IP 192.168.0.1 Internal Router - LinkSys WRT120N - "External" IP of 192.168.0.175 - Internal IP 192.168.1.1 - Connected via Ethernet Cable (a really long one, from the basement to the second floor) PC - IP 192.168.200 - Connected Wirelessly via WAP2 Personal. Laptop - Used to try and diagnose the problem, a 4th machine to the setup which won't be part of the final setup once everything works. The actual problem: I've tried setting the LinkySys router as a DMZ'd client on the SMC router, and then DMZ'd the actual PC on the LinkSys. So the DMZ looks like this: On the SMZ, client with IP 192.168.0.175 is DMZ'd. On the LinkSys, client with IP 192.168.1.200 is DMZ'd. No dice. I then tried port forwarding the necessary port on the SMC to the LinkSys (lets just say, port 80). Then port forwarded Port 80 on the LinkSys to the PC. Same as the DMZ scenario above, but change DMZ with port forwarding. No dice, still :(. Now here's where I went stupid--and tell me if one should never do this--I enabled both DMZ and port forwarding at the same time. I fired up Opera--my browser of choice ;)--typed in 173.32.144.134:6333 and... ... Third time is the charm they say? Well, clearly not. Otherwise I wouldn't be here ;). To diagnose the problem, I enabled "Allow remote access to the Admin panel" on the LinkSys router, and specified port 6333 as the port to use. I port forwarded port 6333 on the SMC to 192.168.0.175, and access my external IP of 173.32.144.134:6333 in hopes of seeing the Admin panel... No dice (I think I've ran out of dice by now ;)). So to see where the problem was, I connected a laptop to the SMC via LAN cable, and typed in 192.168.0.175:6333, and viola, Admin Panel access! So the problem looks like it lies with the SMC--But that's as far as I've got, I've done the port forwarding, the DMZ'ing, and I've even disabled the built-in firewall for safe measures, but nothing worked. So, here I am. Unable to connect to the PC behind the Internal router externally, and without anything to go on other than to come here and ask for the wisdom of the the superuser folks :). If any more detail is required, just ask. (Apologies in advance, if questions should never be this long winded!)

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  • Setting Up My Server to Do DNS On OpenSuse 11.3

    - by adaykin
    Hello, I am attempting to use my server to be a DNS server. I am having trouble getting the domain setup. Here is what I have so far: /var/lib/named/master/andydaykin.com: $TTL 2d @ IN SOA andydaykin.com. root.andydaykin.com. ( 2011011000 ; serial 0 ; refresh 0 ; retry 0 ; expiry 0 ) ; minimum andydaykin.com. IN NS ns1.andydaykin.com. andydaykin.com. IN SOA ns1.andydaykin.com. hostmaster.andydaykin.com. ( @.andydaykin.com. IN NS ns1.andydaykin.com. ns1.andydaykin.com. IN A 204.12.227.33 www.andydaykin.com. IN A 204.12.227.33 /etc/resolve.conf: search andydaykin.com nameserver 204.12.227.33 /etc/named.conf: options { # The directory statement defines the name server's working directory directory "/var/lib/named"; dump-file "/var/log/named_dump.db"; statistics-file "/var/log/named.stats"; listen-on port 53 { 127.0.0.1; }; listen-on-v6 { any; }; notify no; disable-empty-zone "1.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.IP6.ARPA"; include "/etc/named.d/forwarders.conf"; }; zone "." in { type hint; file "root.hint"; }; zone "localhost" in { type master; file "localhost.zone"; }; zone "0.0.127.in-addr.arpa" in { type master; file "127.0.0.zone"; }; Include the meta include file generated by createNamedConfInclude. This includes all files as configured in NAMED_CONF_INCLUDE_FILES from /etc/sysconfig/named include "/etc/named.conf.include"; zone "andydaykin.com" in { file "master/andydaykin.com"; type master; allow-transfer { any; }; }; logging { category default { log_syslog; }; channel log_syslog { syslog; }; }; What I am doing wrong?

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  • vBulletin 5 + lighthttpd url rewriting

    - by Boots
    I'm trying to get vBulletin 5 up and running under lighttpd but I'm having some problems with url rewriting. Here is the apache .htaccess provided by vBulletin. <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.php?routestring=$1 [L,QSA] #needed because admincp is an actual directory. RewriteRule ^(admincp/)$ index.php?routestring=$1 [L,QSA] </IfModule> If this helps, this is the IIS config provided by vBulletin <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <!-- This file is to support redirection in IIS. It is harmless if you are running under Apache --> <configuration> <system.webServer> <rewrite> <rules> <rule name="Main Redirect" stopProcessing="true"> <match url="^(.*)$" ignoreCase="false" /> <conditions logicalGrouping="MatchAll"> <add input="{REQUEST_FILENAME}" matchType="IsFile" ignoreCase="false" negate="true" /> <add input="{REQUEST_FILENAME}" matchType="IsDirectory" ignoreCase="false" negate="true" /> </conditions> <action type="Rewrite" url="index.php/{R:1}" /> </rule> <rule name="Admincp" stopProcessing="true"> <match url="^(admincp/)$" ignoreCase="false" /> <action type="Rewrite" url="index.php/{R:1}" /> </rule> </rules> </rewrite> </system.webServer> </configuration> Anyone have any suggestions as to the lighttpd url.rewrite equivalent? All my experiments have failed thus far. I'm running lighttpd-1.4.31-1 I tried this but it didn't work. I think it has something to do with me not properly emulating [QS] in the .htaccess url.rewrite-once = ("^(.*)$" => "index.php?routestring=$1", "^(admincp/)$)" => "index.php?routestring=$1") This has gotten me closer but not fully functional yet. url.rewrite-if-not-file = ("^(.*)$" => "index.php?routestring=$1", "^(admincp/)$)" => "index.php?routestring=$1")

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  • Computer randomly reboots during "intensive activity".

    - by Reznor
    My friend has been playing games on his new build for some time now. However, lately, his computer will randomly reboot out of nowhere, so far only happening in game, and presumably only to happen in game as it happens nowhere else. This can happen in game during play or even in the options. Note, it isn't a crash or blue screen. It's just a normal reboot. This started today, I believe, and has only occured in two games: Dead Space and Stalker: Shadow of Chernobyl. He has played a handful of games before these, for about a week or so, without this problem. We theorized on two possibilities: Maybe something is overheating? Maybe the power supply is inadequate? These two were quickly dismissed, as all his components were operating at normal temperatures when he got back to his desktop from the reboot, and we all know these parts don't exactly cool down quickly, especially if they get hot enough to trigger a reboot. Besides, I know at-least my motherboard reports processor overheating at start-up, and requests I press f1 to continue into boot. The PSU one was dismissed too. He has an 850w power supply on a rig that was estimated to take only 720 some watts, that's with some overcompensating to be safe. He opened up his case to make sure nothing was seated wrong or in the way. All was fine, but he did notice a sticker on his video card. It had a giant barcode on it and some numbers. Now, I'm used to seeing these stickers, they're the warranty stickers, right, and removal voids the warranty? Yeah, well, we find it odd because this sticker is slapped right over the circuits of the video card, not on a block or anything. Is this normal? Should he remove it? Right now, I am concerned with the memory. Could that be at fault? Here are his specs: Windows 7 Home Premium, 64-Bit Intel i7 950 EVGA GeForce 570 GTX 4 GB DDR3 PC10666 dual-channel Corsair RAM Corsair 850w PSU Gigabyte GA-X58A-UD3R Western Digital 1 TB WD1001FALS

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  • How do I configure Reverse Group Membership Maintenance on an openldap server? (memberOf)

    - by emills
    I am currently working on integrating LDAP authentication into a system and I would like to restrict access based on LDAP group. The only way to do this is via a search filter and therefore I believe my only option to be the use of the "memberOf" attribute in my search filter. It is my understanding that the "memberOf" attribute is an operational attribute which can be created by the server for me anytime a new "member" attribute is created for any "groupOfNames" entry on the server. My main goal is to be able to add a "member" attribute to an existing "groupOfNames" entry and have a matching "memberOf" attribute be added to the DN I provide. What I have managed to achieve so far: I'm still pretty new to LDAP administration but based on what I found in the openldap admin's guide, it looks like Reverse Group Membership Maintence aka "memberof overlay" would achieve exactly the effect I am looking for. My server is currently running a package installation (slapd on ubuntu) of openldap 2.4.15 which uses "cn=config" style runtime configuration. Most of the examples I have found still reference the older "slapd.conf" method of static configuration and I have tried my best to adapt the configurations to the new directory based model. I have added the following entries to enable the memberof overlay module: Enable the module with olcModuleLoad cn=config/cn\=module\{0\}.ldif dn: cn=module{0} objectClass: olcModuleList cn: module{0} olcModulePath: /usr/lib/ldap olcModuleLoad: {0}back_hdb olcModuleLoad: {1}memberof.la structuralObjectClass: olcModuleList entryUUID: a410ce98-3fdf-102e-82cf-59ccb6b4d60d creatorsName: cn=config createTimestamp: 20090927183056Z entryCSN: 20091009174548.503911Z#000000#000#000000 modifiersName: cn=admin,cn=config modifyTimestamp: 20091009174548Z Enabled the overlay for the database and allowed it to use it's default settings (groupOfNames,member,memberOf,etc) cn=config/olcDatabase={1}hdb/olcOverlay\=\{0\}memberof dn: olcOverlay={0}memberof objectClass: olcMemberOf objectClass: olcOverlayConfig objectClass: olcConfig objectClass: top olcOverlay: {0}memberof structuralObjectClass: olcMemberOf entryUUID: 6d599084-490c-102e-80f6-f1a5d50be388 creatorsName: cn=admin,cn=config createTimestamp: 20091009104412Z olcMemberOfRefInt: TRUE entryCSN: 20091009173500.139380Z#000000#000#000000 modifiersName: cn=admin,cn=config modifyTimestamp: 20091009173500Z My current result: By using the above configuration, I am able to add a NEW "groupOfNames" with any number of "member" entries and have all the involved DNs updated with a "memberOf" attribute. This is part of the behavior I would expect. While I believe the following should have been accomplished with the memberof overlay, I still do not know how to do the following and I would gladly welcome any advice: Add a "member" attribute to an EXISTING "groupOfNames" and have a corresponding "memberOf" attribute be created automatically. Remove a "member" attribute and have the corresponding "memberOf" attribute" be removed automatically.

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  • vBulletin 5 + lighttpd url rewriting

    - by Boots
    I'm trying to get vBulletin 5 up and running under lighttpd but I'm having some problems with url rewriting. Here is the apache .htaccess provided by vBulletin. <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.php?routestring=$1 [L,QSA] #needed because admincp is an actual directory. RewriteRule ^(admincp/)$ index.php?routestring=$1 [L,QSA] </IfModule> If this helps, this is the IIS config provided by vBulletin <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <!-- This file is to support redirection in IIS. It is harmless if you are running under Apache --> <configuration> <system.webServer> <rewrite> <rules> <rule name="Main Redirect" stopProcessing="true"> <match url="^(.*)$" ignoreCase="false" /> <conditions logicalGrouping="MatchAll"> <add input="{REQUEST_FILENAME}" matchType="IsFile" ignoreCase="false" negate="true" /> <add input="{REQUEST_FILENAME}" matchType="IsDirectory" ignoreCase="false" negate="true" /> </conditions> <action type="Rewrite" url="index.php/{R:1}" /> </rule> <rule name="Admincp" stopProcessing="true"> <match url="^(admincp/)$" ignoreCase="false" /> <action type="Rewrite" url="index.php/{R:1}" /> </rule> </rules> </rewrite> </system.webServer> </configuration> Anyone have any suggestions as to the lighttpd url.rewrite equivalent? All my experiments have failed thus far. I'm running lighttpd-1.4.31-1 I tried this but it didn't work. I think it has something to do with me not properly emulating [QS] in the .htaccess url.rewrite-once = ("^(.*)$" => "index.php?routestring=$1", "^(admincp/)$)" => "index.php?routestring=$1") This has gotten me closer but not fully functional yet. url.rewrite-if-not-file = ("^(.*)$" => "index.php?routestring=$1", "^(admincp/)$)" => "index.php?routestring=$1")

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  • Why Photoshop CS5's photomerge's result immediately disappear?

    - by koiyu
    I have a bunch of JPG-files which I want to stitch together with Photoshop's Photomerge function. I choose File → Automate → Photomerge... and browse for the files. Photoshop opens the files and starts analyzing. I see the process bar filling and different phases are mentioned on the process bar. Nothing weird there. When the merging is done (and if I don't blink my eyes), I can see layers-palette is populated with the chosen files and, by quickly judging from the layer thumbnails, they're properly aligned. Sometimes the image window itself can be seen, but not always. Problem is that the layers and the image disappear in a flash. There is no error message. Everything is like prior starting the photomerge. No file has been changed. I could continue to use Photoshop normally. This is what I've tried so far: Loaded folder which has 38 JPG images, 4272 x 2848 and ˜ 5 megabytes per file Loaded the same files, but chose Use Files instead of Use Folder in the photomerge's window Loaded 19 JPG images, 4272 x 2848 and ˜ 5 megabytes per file Loaded 10 JPG images, ⇑ see above Loaded 5 JPG images, see above Loaded 3 JPG images, see above Scaled the images to 2256 x 1504 and ˜< 1 megabytes per file Loaded in a set of 38, 19, 10, 5, 3 Following steps are tested with these smaller files and with a set of 5 images Read Adobe's forums and reduced the amount of RAM Photoshop uses gradually from ˜ 80 % to 50 % (though I didn't understand the logic behind this) Would've reduced cache tile size to 128K, but it was set so already Disabled OpenGL Scaled the images to 800 x 533 and ˜ 100 kilobytes per file, loaded a set of 5 Read more unanswered threads around the internet In between each test I closed and reopened Photoshop. This is the first time I've even tried using photomerge. Am I doing something wrong? How can I locate what is the problem? How do I fix this? Photoshop is 64 bit Extended CS5 version. I'm on a mid-2010 quad-core (i5) iMac with up-to-date Mac OS X 10.6.6. Edit: Weird. First loading the images into one file via File → Scripts → Load Files into Stack… and then using Edit → Auto-Align Layers…, which, effectively, is the same as photomerge (even the dialog looks kind of the same), works! Even with the original JPGs without any issues. This doesn't fix photomerge, though.

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