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  • Send document to printer from web page

    - by FiveTools
    I have a webpage that activates a print job on a printer. This works in the localhost environment but does not work when the application is deployed to the webserver. I'm using the PrintDocument class from the .net System.Drawing.Print namespace. I'm now assuming the printer has to be available to the application on the remote server? Any suggestions on how I would get this to work? PrintDocument pd = new PrintDocument(); PaperSource ps = new PaperSource(); pd.DefaultPageSettings.PaperSize = new System.Drawing.Printing.PaperSize("Custom", 1180, 850); pd.PrintPage += new PrintPageEventHandler (this.pd_PrintPage); // Set your printer's name. Obtain from // System's Printer Dialog Box. pd.PrinterSettings.PrinterName = "Okidata ML 321 Turbo/D (IBM)"; //PrintPreviewDialog dlgPrintPvw = new PrintPreviewDialog(); //dlgPrintPvw.Document = pd; //dlgPrintPvw.Focus(); //dlgPrintPvw.ShowDialog(); pd.Print();

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  • Controlling the scope of a document.write call coming from a third party

    - by pingrey
    Dear all, I'm writing a webpage that relies on an external javascript file (that I have no control of), which returns data by using document.write's. Is there any way to dynamically call the function without it overwriting the whole document? The most concise code I can think of is below: <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> function horriblefunction () { document.write("new text"); } </script> </head> <body> Starting Text... <div id="pleasewriteinme"></div> Other text... <button onclick="horriblefunction();">Click</button> </body> </html> The idea beginning that without altering "horriblefunction()" (as it's external) the new text could be placed in the div instead of overwriting the page. Is this possible or does the function have to be called inside the div as the page is created? Thanks for you help

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  • jQuery .attr() crashing Internet Explorer

    - by Sunyatasattva
    Hello everyone, This is my first time posting a question here, as I usually try to find solutions myself. This one, though, being an IE issue, just drives me crazy. I use jQuery cycle plug-in on a website I made and, to populate a caption div, I use a little function that is called after the image is loaded, which uses the "alt" attribute of the image. This seems to exasperate Internet Explorer, which, doesn't have the time to fulfill this apparently so-complicated task, and, as the slideshow cycles, it enters in an infinite loop and eventually crashes – the newer the version, the worse the crash: the older IEs just display an error message saying “The webpage cannot be displayed”, while the newer (7 and 8) completely crash the system. I have no idea on how to solve or work around this. Here is the problematic code. function changeCaption() { var caption = $("img", this).attr("alt"); $('#caption').fadeIn("slow").html(caption); } Thanks in advance for any pointer: I am amazed as how something so simple and globally recognized (didn't encounter any other browser who had problem with this), can cause a problem so big. I also read somewhere that being able to crash a browser remotely is a serious issue :) Lucio

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  • How can I create a WebBrowser control (ActiveX / IWebBrowser2) without a UI?

    - by wangminhere
    I cannot figure out how to use the WebBrowser control without having it create a window in the taskbar. I am using the IWebBrowser2 ActiveX control directly because I need to use some of the advanced features like blocking downloading JAVA/ActiveX/images etc. That apparently is not available in the WPF or winforms WebBrowser wrappers (but these wrappers do have the ability to create the control with no UI) Here is my code for creating the control: Type webbrowsertype = Type.GetTypeFromCLSID(Iid_Clsids.CLSID_WebBrowser, true); m_WBWebBrowser2 = (IWebBrowser2)System.Activator.CreateInstance(webbrowsertype); m_WBWebBrowser2.Visible = false; m_WBOleObject = (IOleObject)m_WBWebBrowser2; int iret = m_WBOleObject.SetClientSite(this); iret = m_WBOleObject.SetHostNames("me", string.Empty); tagRECT rect = new tagRECT(0, 0, 0, 0); tagMSG nullMsg = new tagMSG(); m_WBOleInPlaceObject = (IOleInPlaceObject)m_WBWebBrowser2; //INPLACEACTIVATE the WB iret = m_WBOleObject.DoVerb((int)OLEDOVERB.OLEIVERB_INPLACEACTIVATE, ref nullMsg, this, 0, IntPtr.Zero, ref rect); IConnectionPointContainer cpCont = (IConnectionPointContainer)m_WBWebBrowser2; Guid guid = typeof(DWebBrowserEvents2).GUID; IConnectionPoint m_WBConnectionPoint = null; cpCont.FindConnectionPoint(ref guid, out m_WBConnectionPoint); m_WBConnectionPoint.Advise(this, out m_dwCookie); This code works perfectly but it shows a window in the taskbar. If i omit the DoVerb(OLEDOVERB.OLEIVERB_INPLACEACTIVATE) call, then Navigating to a webpage is not working properly. Navigate() will not download everything on the page and it never fires the DocumentComplete event. If I add a DoVerb(OLEIVERB_HIDE) then I get the same behavior as if I omitted the DoVerb(OLEDOVERB.OLEIVERB_INPLACEACTIVATE) call. This seems like a pretty basic question but I couldn't find any examples anywhere.

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  • web.config + asp.net MVC + location > system.web > authorization + Integrated Security

    - by vdh_ant
    Hi guys I have an ASP.Net MVC app using Integrated Security that I need to be able grant open access to a specific route. The route in question is '~/Agreements/Upload' and the config I have setup looks like this: <configuration> ... <location path="~/Agreements/Upload"> <system.web> <authorization> <allow users="*"/> </authorization> </system.web> </location> ... </configuration> I have tried a few things and nothing has worked thus far. In IIS under Directory Security Authentication Methods I only have "Integrated Windows Authentication" selected. Now this could be part of my problem (as even though IIS allows the above IIS doesn't). But if that's the case how do I configure it so that Integrated Security works but allows people who aren't authenticated to access the given route. Cheers Anthony

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  • How to make a product catalog in C#?

    - by Ervin
    I need to develop a product catalog (about 4000 products) application, which would be given to clients on CD or DVD. The catalog exists in webpage format using PHP and MySQL. IMPORTANT: the application is given to clients who maight have old PC, old System. For minimal requirements I would put Windows XP and Internet Explorer 6 (if needed). I need the following features: 1 search option (after productID AND after keyword) 2 print option (by selecting multiple products) 3 shopping cart (making a list which will be sent to an email address if there is any Internet Connection on the computer) When I was asked to do it I had 2 days to realise a very basic version, so I took the whole website and exported it in HTML pages, and developed an application in C# which contains an embeded browser. So the whole website is now static and put on a CD. Everything fine so far. Now here are the problems: 1. the search option was realized by parsing the html files and reading the productID or looking for keywords inside of them. Put on a CD it was extremely slow (searching in 600MB of html files). FOR THIS I WOULD NEED A SOLUTION WITH A STATIC DATABASE (USING ACCESS OR SOMETHING) TO HAVE INDEXED ROWS, SO THE SEARCH COULD BE A VERY FAST ONE. 2. the printing option was a simply call of the embeded Internet Explorer print functions. Here are two problems: a) user needs IE7 for printing the website scaled (FIT TO PAGE), otherwise the edges of the page are cut down. b) users of this app does not have even the basic PC usage skills, so they can't set the printing settings, so there will appear in header and footer the page numbers and titles. QUESTION: can I set these settings from CSS for printing? 3. couldn't make a a shopping cart as I don't use a database, so I have static websites and content is inside the HTML. QUESTION: WHICH ARE THE BEST SOLUTIONS FOR THE PROBLEMS DESCRIBED ABOVE? PLEASE ANSWER EVEN IF YOUR ANSWER IS FOR ONE QUESTION ONLY. THANKS

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  • Dependency Injection Question - ASP.NET

    - by Paul
    I'm starting a web application that contains the following projects: Booking.Web Booking.Services Booking.DataObjects Booking.Data I'm using the repository pattern in my data project only. All services will be the same, no matter what happens. However, if a customer wants to use Access, it will use a different data repository than if the customer wants to use SQL Server. I have StructureMap, and want to be able to do the following: Web project is unaffected. It's a web forms application that will only know about the services project and the dataobjects project. When a service is called, it will use StructureMap (by looking up the bootstrapper.cs file) to see which data repository to use. An example of a services class is the error logging class: public class ErrorLog : IErrorLog { ILogging logger; public ErrorLog() { } public ErrorLog(ILogging logger) { this.logger = logger; } public void AddToLog(string errorMessage) { try { AddToDatabaseLog(errorMessage); } catch (Exception ex) { AddToFileLog(ex.Message); } finally { AddToFileLog(errorMessage); } } private void AddToDatabaseLog(string errorMessage) { ErrorObject error = new ErrorObject { ErrorDateTime = DateTime.Now, ErrorMessage = errorMessage }; logger.Insert(error); } private void AddToFileLog(string errorMessage) { // TODO: Take this value from the web.config instead of hard coding it TextWriter writer = new StreamWriter(@"E:\Work\Booking\Booking\Booking.Web\Logs\ErrorLog.txt", true); writer.WriteLine(DateTime.Now.ToString() + " ---------- " + errorMessage); writer.Close(); } } I want to be able to call this service from my web project, without defining which repository to use for the data access. My boostrapper.cs file in the services project is defined as: public class Bootstrapper { public static void ConfigureStructureMap() { ObjectFactory.Initialize(x => { x.AddRegistry(new ServiceRegistry()); } ); } public class ServiceRegistry : Registry { protected override void configure() { ForRequestedType<IErrorLog>().TheDefaultIsConcreteType<Booking.Services.Logging.ErrorLog>(); ForRequestedType<ILogging>().TheDefaultIsConcreteType<SqlServerLoggingProvider>(); } } } What else do I need to get this to work? When I defined a test, the ILogger object was null. Thanks,

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  • Need events to execute on timer events, metronome precision.

    - by user295734
    I setup a timer to call an event in my application. The problme is the event execution is being skewed by other windows operations. Ex. openning and window, loading a webpage. I need the event to excute exactly on time, every time. When i first set up the app, used a sound file, like a metronome to listen to the even firing, in a steady state, its firing right on, but as soon do something in the windows environment, the sound fires slower, then sort of sppeds up a bit to catch up. So i added a logging method to the event to ctahc the timer ticks. From that data, it appears that the timer is not being affected by the windows app, but my application event calls are being affected. I figured this out by checking the datetime.now in the event, and if i set it to 250 milliseconds, which is 4 clicks per second. You get data something like below. (sec):(ms) 1:000 1:250 1:500 1:750 2:000 2:250 2:500 2:750 3:000 3:250 3:500 3:750 (lets say i execute some windows event)(time will skew) 4:122 4:388 4:600 4:876 (stop doing what i was doing in windows) (going to shorten the data for simplicit, my list was 30sec long) 5:124 5:268 5:500 5:750 (you would se the time go back the same milliseconds it was at the begining) 6:000 6:250 6:500 6:750 7:000 7:250 7:500 7:750 So i'm thinking the timer continues to fire on the same millisecond every time, but its the event that is being skewed to fire off time by other windows operations. Its not a huge skew, but for what i need to accomplish, its unacceptable. Is there anyhting i can do in .NET, hoping to use XAML/WPF application, thats will correct the skewing of events? thx.

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  • What is the best way to auto-generate INSERT statements for a SQL Server table?

    - by JosephStyons
    We are writing a new application, and while testing, we will need a bunch of dummy data. I've added that data by using MS Access to dump excel files into the relevant tables. Every so often, we want to "refresh" the relevant tables, which means dropping them all, re-creating them, and running a saved MS Access append query. The first part (dropping & re-creating) is an easy sql script, but the last part makes me cringe. I want a single setup script that has a bunch of INSERTs to regenerate the dummy data. I have the data in the tables now. What is the best way to automatically generate a big list of INSERT statements from that dataset? I'm thinking of something like in TOAD (for Oracle) where you can right-click on a grid and click Save As-Insert Statements, and it will just dump a big sql script wherever you want. The only way I can think of doing it is to save the table to an excel sheet and then write an excel formula to create an INSERT for every row, which is surely not the best way. I'm using the 2008 Management Studio to connect to a SQL Server 2005 database.

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  • How do I get the inserted id (or object) after an insert with the FormView/ObjectDataSource controls

    - by drs9222
    I have a series of classes that loosely fit the following pattern: public class CustomerInfo { public int Id {get; set;} public string Name {get; set;} } public class CustomerTable { public bool Insert(CustomerInfo info) { /*...*/ } public bool Update(CustomerInfo info) { /*...*/ } public CustomerInfo Get(int id) { /*...*/ } /*...*/ } After a successful insert the Insert method will set the Id property of the CustomerInfo object that was passed in. I've used these classes in several places and would prefer to altering them. Now I'm experimenting with writing an ASP.NET page for inserting and updating the records. I'm currently using the ObjectDataSource and FormView controls: <asp:ObjectDataSource TypeName="CustomerTable" DataObjectTypeName="CustomerInfo" InsertMethod="Insert" UpdateMethod="Update" SelectMethod="Get" /> I can successfully Insert and Update records. I would like to switch the FormView's mode from Insert to Edit after a successful insert. My first attempt was to switch the mode in the ItemInserted event. This of course did not work. I was using a QueryStringParameter for the id which of course wan't set when inserting. So, I switched to manually populating the InputParameters during the ObjectDataSource's Selecting event. The problem with this is I need to know the id of the newly inserted record which I can't find a good way to get. I understand that I can access the Insert method's return value, and out parameters in the ItemInserted event of course my method doesn't return the id using any of these methods. I can't find anyway to access the id or the CustomerInfo object that was inserted after the insert completes. The best I've been able to do is to save the CustomerInfo object in the ObjectDataSource's Inserting event. This feels like an odd way to do this. I figure that there must be a better way to do this and I'll kick myself when I see it. Any ideas?

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  • Passing youtube video id from video feed to flash

    - by Grant Anderson
    I'm working on a flash web application (Actionscript 2.0) for my honours project but am having trouble embedding youtube videos. Basically the user selects symbols which queries the youtube api with certain tags depending on the symbols chosenand a random video is then picked from the first 30 videos. I have this working using the following code: on (release) { url="http://gdata.youtube.com/feeds/api/videos?q=danger+passion&orderby=published&start-index="+random(30)+"&max-results=1&v=2" getURL(url); } but this just displays a webpage with a link to the youtube video. This is the code I'll be using as the foundations for the player: // create a MovieClip to load the player into var ytplayer:MovieClip = _root.createEmptyMovieClip("ytplayer", 1); // create a listener object for the MovieClipLoader to use var ytPlayerLoaderListener:Object = { onLoadInit: function() { // When the player clip first loads, we start an interval to // check for when the player is ready loadInterval = setInterval(checkPlayerLoaded, 250); } }; var loadInterval:Number; function checkPlayerLoaded():Void { // once the player is ready, we can subscribe to events, or in the case of // the chromeless player, we could load videos if (ytplayer.isPlayerLoaded()) { ytplayer.addEventListener("onStateChange", onPlayerStateChange); ytplayer.addEventListener("onError", onPlayerError); clearInterval(loadInterval); } } function onPlayerStateChange(newState:Number) { trace("New player state: "+ newState); } function onPlayerError(errorCode:Number) { trace("An error occurred: "+ errorCode); } // create a MovieClipLoader to handle the loading of the player var ytPlayerLoader:MovieClipLoader = new MovieClipLoader(); ytPlayerLoader.addListener(ytPlayerLoaderListener); // load the player ytPlayerLoader.loadClip("http://www.youtube.com/v/pv5zWaTEVkI", ytplayer); can anyone help me on how to get the id of the video (for example: pv5zWaTEVkI) from the feed? Or how to send a query from flash which will return the video url/id as opposed to the url of a feed. Any help would be much appreciated as my hand in rather soon. Thanks

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  • multiple redirect??

    - by Ryan Pitts
    Ok, i won't go into the full details (too much to explain) but here is what i am trying to do. I have a button on a webpage (we'll call page-1) that links to a page (we'll call it page-2). This page opens in the same window. However, i need the page (page-2) that opens to open up a new window with another page (we'll call this one page-3) when it loads. So virtually when you click the initial button (on page-1) it will go to a new page (page-2) AND a window will open as well with a different page (page-3). This is where it gets tricky. I need page-2 to automatically redirect back to page-1 after it launches page-3. Is this possible and if so, how?? Could it be a JQuery thing? Please just give some answers...i know this is way crazy and a huge workaround - but this is my last resort for this particular website. I have to do it this way because of the lack of control over some of the code.

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  • 1 oracle schema support large reques per day , is this safe ?

    - by Hlex
    I 'm java system designer. As we have large project to do tightly, Those projects are java api without webpage. I design to create general flow engine to support all project. This idea use 1 oracle schema , having general transaction table . And others control routing table. They all nearly complete. But DBA Team concern that he is suffered to maintain very large request to 1 schema. 1 reason is if there are problem is some table. He must offline tablespace to fix. This is problem because all project will be affected. I try to convince by split data of each table to partition by project_code & "month number to delete" . Eaxmple partition: PROJ1_05 PROJ1_06 PROJ1_07 PROJ2_05 PROJ2_06 PROJ2_07 and all transaction table will store on its partition. So, If there are problem on any part of tablespace then he should offline some partition and another project with use same table should able to service Transaction per day should around 10Meg Record per day. Is this a good idea? If I must use 1 schema, what is strategy to do? Do you have any comment?

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  • Java: attributes order in .jsp getting inversed

    - by NoozNooz42
    Every single time I've read about the meta tags, the attribute where in this order for the description: <meta name="description" content="..." /> First name, then content. It's also like that in the Google Webmaster documentation. Basically, it's like that everywhere. Now in a .jsp (in XML notation) I've got the following: <meta name="description" content="${metadesc}"/> So it's name first, then content. Yet on the generated webpage, I get this: <meta content="...(200 chars or so here making it a very long line)..." name="description"/> Somehow the attributes have been inversed. Because the content follows the official W3C and Google recommendations, the content is a bit less than 200 characters long, which makes it a major pain to "visually verify" that the name attribute is correctly there (I've got to scroll). Anyway... Why are these attribute not appearing in the order defined in the .jsp? Can I force them to appear in the same order as I wrote them in my .jsp? I realize the resulting tag may be valid... But I can also imagine a lot of very creative ways to have valid tags which users would be very upset about. Does this make any sense to inverse these attributes? EDIT wow, just wow... If I invert the attributes in my .jsp (that is, writing them in the "wrong" order), then they appear as I want them to appear in the generated web page. (Tomcat 6.0.26 btw)

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  • Why does my call to Activator.CreateInstance intermittently fail?

    - by Daniel Stutzbach
    I'm using the following code to access the Windows Explorer Shell's band site service: Guid GUID_TrayBandSiteService = new Guid(0xF60AD0A0, 0xE5E1, 0x45cb, 0xB5, 0x1A, 0xE1, 0x5B, 0x9F, 0x8B, 0x29, 0x34); Type shellTrayBandSiteService = Type.GetTypeFromCLSID(GUID_TrayBandSiteService, true); site = Activator.CreateInstance(shellTrayBandSiteService) as IBandSite; Mostly, it works great. A very small percentage of the time (less than 1%), the call to Activator.CreateInstance throws the following exception: System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException (0x80040154): Retrieving the COM class factory for component with CLSID {F60AD0A0-E5E1-45CB-B51A-E15B9F8B2934} failed due to the following error: 80040154. at System.RuntimeTypeHandle.CreateInstance(RuntimeType type, Boolean publicOnly, Boolean noCheck, Boolean& canBeCached, RuntimeMethodHandle& ctor, Boolean& bNeedSecurityCheck) at System.RuntimeType.CreateInstanceSlow(Boolean publicOnly, Boolean fillCache) at System.RuntimeType.CreateInstanceImpl(Boolean publicOnly, Boolean skipVisibilityChecks, Boolean fillCache) at System.Activator.CreateInstance(Type type, Boolean nonPublic) I've looked up the error code, and it appears to indicate that the service isn't registered. That's nonsense in my case, since I'm trying to access a service provided by the operating system (explorer.exe, to be specific). I'm stumped. What might cause Activator.CreateInstance fail, but only rarely?

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  • SVN authz, path-based authentication woes

    - by Ronny
    [groups] developer = a,b,c doc = r,x [/doc] @doc = rw @developer = rw [/] @developer = rw * = If now a member of the group doc tries to check out the documentation, it does not work. I want members of doc just to be able to check out the sub-dir doc, anything else is forbidden. Any ideas howto achieve this? kind regards ronny [update] client: svn, version 1.5.4 (r33841) server: svn, Version 1.4.6 (r28521) access via svn+ssh:/user@host/fullpath-to-repos 1 perfectly works for two years 2 might be - see version numbers above (I'll contant our admin, immediatelly) 3 no? just ssh 4 nope 5 nope [update] using client version svn 1.4.6 (r28521) does not work either - same errors I use plain command line access. svn co svn+ssh://.... [update] server:Linux 2.6.16.60-0.39.3-default9 i686 athlon i386 GNU/Linux - suse 10? or something like that I think client: Kubuntu 9.04 connection via OpenSSH SSH client the server rejects svn:// connections from localhost - any connection --- gotta try it with a copy at home time soon [update 4] * this is not my own server, I cannot do what I want with it. It is a very old server 10 years at least running, with hundreds of users. Standard things should work. correct me if I am missing something. [update 5] believe it or not. I was using the wrong path and now everything works perfectly well, I am sorry to have wasted your time. I'll give the bounty to FoxyBOA for his efford.

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  • JMX - MBean automated registration on application deployment

    - by Gadi
    Hi All, I need some direction with JMX and J2EE. I am aware (after few weeks of research) that the JMX specification is missing as far as deployment is concerned. There are few vendor specific implementations for what I am looking for but none are cross vendor. I would like to automate the deployment of MBeans and registration with the Server. I need the server to load and register my MBeand when the application is deployed and remove when the application is un-deployed. I develop with: NetBean 6.7.1, GlassFish 2.1, J2EE5, EJB3 More specific, I need a way to manage timer service runs. My application need to run different archiving agents and batch reporting. I was hoping the JMX will give me remote access to create and manage the timer services and enable the user to create his own schedule. If the JMX is auto registered on application deployment the user can immediately connect and manage the schedule. On the other hand, how can an EJB connect/access an MBean? Many thanks in advance. Gadi.

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  • web development using google sites

    - by CHID
    Hi, I have hosted a website. But now my client asks to change it to http://sites.google.com. They hav registered their domain in google. I logged in the site and saw the procedures to create a website from scratch. But is there any way to directly replace the site into google sites. Like, in my site i hav included css files in a folder called stylesheets/css and access it through the link tag. And there are several folders lik that, viz images, scripts etc. 1.Now if i have to transfer it to google sites, where do i create the folders and stuff. I have the priviliges to login to the admin part of the site. 2.And also is there anyway to create database and access it in google sites? 3.Also i see that only html pages can be created. Is there a way to add php pages or other scripting languages? 4.Going forward will google sites be usefull for professional web designing. pls give ideas on whether or not google sites is a good idea to go with

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  • Use the output of logs in the execution of a program

    - by myle
    When I try to create a specific object, the program crashes. However, I use a module (mechanize) which logs useful information just before the crash. If I had somehow this information available I could avoid it. Is there any way to use the information which is logged (when I use the function set_debug_redirects) during the normal execution of the program? Just to be a bit more specific, I try to emulate the login behavior in a webpage. The program crashes because it can't handle a specific Following HTTP-EQUIV=REFRESH to <omitted_url>. Given this url, which is available in the logs but not as part of the exception which is thrown, I could visit this page and complete successfully the login process. Any other suggestions that may solve the problem are welcomed. It follows the code so far. SERVICE_LOGIN_BOX_URL = "https://www.google.com/accounts/ServiceLoginBox?service=adsense&ltmpl=login&ifr=true&rm=hide&fpui=3&nui=15&alwf=true&passive=true&continue=https%3A%2F%2Fwww.google.com%2Fadsense%2Flogin-box-gaiaauth&followup=https%3A%2F%2Fwww.google.com%2Fadsense%2Flogin-box-gaiaauth&hl=en_US" def init_browser(): # Browser br = mechanize.Browser() # Cookie Jar cj = cookielib.LWPCookieJar() br.set_cookiejar(cj) # Browser options br.set_handle_equiv(True) br.set_handle_gzip(False) br.set_handle_redirect(True) br.set_handle_referer(True) br.set_handle_robots(True) br.set_handle_refresh(mechanize._http.HTTPRefreshProcessor(), max_time=30.0, honor_time=False) # Want debugging messages? #br.set_debug_http(True) br.set_debug_redirects(True) #br.set_debug_responses(True) return br def adsense_login(login, password): br = init_browser() r = br.open(SERVICE_LOGIN_BOX_URL) html = r.read() # Select the first (index zero) form br.select_form(nr=0) br.form['Email'] = login br.form['Passwd'] = password br.submit() req = br.click_link(text='click here to continue') try: # this is where it crashes br.open(req) except HTTPError, e: sys.exit("post failed: %d: %s" % (e.code, e.msg)) return br

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  • Strange File Upload issue with asp.net site on a web farm

    - by Coov
    I have a basic asp.net file upload page. When I test file uploads from my local machine, it works fine. When I test file uploads from our dev machine, it works fine. When I deploy the site to our production webfarm, it behaves strangely. If I access the site from off the network, I can load file-after-file without issue. If I access the site from within our network, I can load the first file just fine but any subsequent files result it a bad sequence of commands error. I'm not sure if this is web farm issue, a network issue, or something else. It feels like a connection is not being disposed of properly but it doesn't make sense why everything works fine remotely. Markup: <asp:FileUpload ID="FileUpload1" runat="server" Width="350px" /> <asp:Button ID="btnSubmit" runat="server" Text="Upload" onclick="btnSubmit_Click" /> Code: if (FileUpload1.HasFile) { FtpWebRequest ftpRequest; FtpWebResponse ftpResponse; ftpRequest = (FtpWebRequest)FtpWebRequest.Create(new Uri("ftp://ftp.myftpsite.com/" + FileUpload1.FileName)); ftpRequest.Method = WebRequestMethods.Ftp.UploadFile; ftpRequest.Proxy = null; ftpRequest.UseBinary = true; ftpRequest.Credentials = new NetworkCredential("username", "password"); ftpRequest.KeepAlive = false; byte[] fileContents = new byte[FileUpload1.PostedFile.ContentLength]; using (Stream fr = FileUpload1.PostedFile.InputStream) { fr.Read(fileContents, 0, FileUpload1.PostedFile.ContentLength); } using (Stream writer = ftpRequest.GetRequestStream()) { writer.Write(fileContents, 0, fileContents.Length); } ftpResponse = (FtpWebResponse)ftpRequest.GetResponse(); Response.Write(ftpResponse.StatusDescription); }

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  • Altering lazy-loaded object's private variables

    - by Kevin Pang
    I'm running into an issue with private setters when using NHibernate and lazy-loading. Let's say I have a class that looks like this: public class User { public int Foo {get; private set;} public IList<User> Friends {get; set;} public void SetFirstFriendsFoo() { // This line works in a unit test but does nothing during a live run with // a lazy-loaded Friends list Users(0).Foo = 1; } } The SetFirstFriendsFoo call works perfectly inside a unit test (as it should since objects of the same type can access each others private properties). However, when running live with a lazy-loaded Friends list, the SetFirstFriendsFoo call silently fails. I'm guessing the reason for this is because at run-time, the Users(0).Foo object is no longer of type User, but of a proxy class that inherits from User since the Friends list was lazy-loaded. My question is this: shouldn't this generate a run-time exception? You get compile-time exceptions if you try to access another class's private properties, but when you run into a situation like this is looks like the app just ignores you and continues along its way.

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  • Java and .net interoperability

    - by dineshrekula
    I have a c# program through which i am opening cmd window as a a process. in this command window i am running a batch file. i am redirecting the output of that batch file commands to a Text File. When i run my application everything seems to be ok. But few times, Application is giving some error like "Can't access the file. it's being used by another application" at the same time cmd window is not getting closed. If we close the cmd process through the Task Manager, then it's writing the content to the file and getting closed. Even though i closed the cmd process, still file handle is not getting released. so that i am not able to run the application next time onwards.Always it's saying Can't access the file. Only after restarting the system, it's working. Here is my code: Process objProcess = new Process(); ProcessStartInfo objProInfo = new ProcessStartInfo(); objProInfo.WindowStyle = ProcessWindowStyle.Maximized; objProInfo.UseShellExecute = true; objProInfo.FileName = "Batch file path" objProInfo.Arguments = "Some Arguments"; if (Directory.Exists(strOutputPath) == false) { Directory.CreateDirectory(strOutputPath); } objProInfo.CreateNoWindow = false; objProcess.StartInfo = objProInfo; objProcess.Start(); objProcess.WaitForExit(); test.bat: java classname argument > output.txt Here is my question: I am not able to trace where the problem is.. How we can see the process which holding handle on ant file. Is there any suggestions for Java and .net interoperability

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  • Does Security Trimming work with Web Forms Routing?

    - by Slauma
    In my web.config I have configured a SiteMapProvider with securityTrimmingEnabled="true" and on my main master page is an asp:Menu control bound to an asp:SiteMapDataSource. In addition I have configured restricted access to all pages in a subfolder "Admin" (using another web.config in this subfolder). If I put a sitemapNode in Web.sitemap... <siteMapNode url="~/Admin/Default.aspx" title="Administration" description="" > ... only users in role "Admin" will have the menu item related to that siteMapNode. So this is working fine and as intended. Now I have defined a URL route in Global.asax to map the physical file to a new URL: System.Web.Routing.RouteTable.Routes.MapPageRoute("AdminHomeRoute", "Administration/Home", "~/Admin/Default.aspx"); But when I use this route-URL in the SiteMap file... <siteMapNode url="Administration/Home" title="Administration" description="" > ... it seems that security trimming does not work: The menu item is visible for all users. (Access to the page is still restricted though, so selecting the menu item by non-Admin users does not navigate to the restricted page.) Question: Is there any setting I've missed so far to make security trimming working with URL routing in ASP.NET 4.0 Web Forms? Did I do something wrong? Is there any work-around? Thank you for help!

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  • Follow the links of the tab in jquery ui tab

    - by Aakash Chakravarthy
    Hello, I have jquery tabs like <ul id="tabsList"> <li><a href="#tab-1">Name 1</a></li> <li><a href="#tab-2">Name 2</a></li> <li><a href="http://www.google.com/">Name 3</a></li> </ul> <div id="tab-1">content 1</div> <div id="tab-2">content 2</div> the first two tabs load the respective divs. But the third one should go to google.com, instead it does nothing. It just adds http://example.com/index.html#ui-tabs-[object Object] to the url. I am developing a wordpress plugin and the admin page needs a tab interface. I tested this in a local server and not working update: i don't want to load google.com inside the page. It should open the webpage in new tab/window like ordinary links do.

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  • Full Text Search in MSSQL2008 shows wrong display_item for Thai language

    - by ensecoz
    I am working with MSSQL2008. My task is to investigate the issue where FTS cannot find the right result for Thai. First, I have the table which enables the FTS on the column 'ItemName' which is nvarchar. The Catalog is created with the Thai Language. Note that the Thai language is one of the languages that doesn't separate the word by spaces, so '????' '???' '????' are written like this in a sentence: '???????????' In the table, there are many rows that include the word (????); for example row#1 (ItemName: '???????????') On the webpage, I try to search for '????' but SQLServer cannot find it. So I try to investigate it by trying the following query in SQLServer: select * from sys.dm_fts_parser(N'"???????????"', 1054, 0, 0) ...to see how the words are broken. The first one is the text to be broken. The second parameter is to specify that we're using Thai (WorkBreaker, so on). Here is the result: row#1 (display_item: '????', source_item: '???????????') row#2 (display_item: '????', source_item: '???????????') row#3 (display_item: '??', source_item: '???????????') Notice that the first and second row display the wrong display_item '?' in the '????' isn't even Thai characters. '?' in '????' is not a Thai character either. So the question is where did those alien characters come from? I guess this why I cannot search for '????' because the word breaker is broken and keeping the wrong character in the indexes. Please help!

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