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launch eclipse,and an error occurs.

- by chillwarmoon

environment: Ubuntu 9.10 Eclipse eclipse-jee-galileo-SR2-linux-gtk When I login the ubuntu,and run the eclipse, it works. but when I changed to root user and then launch eclipse,there is an error occurs: (eclipse:5632): GLib-GObject-WARNING **: invalid (NULL) pointer instance (eclipse:5632): GLib-GObject-CRITICAL **: g_signal_connect_data: assertion `G_TYPE_CHECK_INSTANCE (instance)' failed (eclipse:5632): Gtk-CRITICAL **: gtk_settings_get_for_screen: assertion `GDK_IS_SCREEN (screen)' failed (eclipse:5632): Gtk-WARNING **: Screen for GtkWindow not set; you must always set a screen for a GtkWindow before using the window (eclipse:5632): Gtk-WARNING **: Screen for GtkWindow not set; you must always set a screen for a GtkWindow before using the window (eclipse:5632): Gdk-CRITICAL **: gdk_screen_get_display: assertion `GDK_IS_SCREEN (screen)' failed (eclipse:5632): Gdk-CRITICAL **: gdk_display_get_pointer: assertion `GDK_IS_DISPLAY (display)' failed (eclipse:5632): Gtk-WARNING **: Screen for GtkWindow not set; you must always set a screen for a GtkWindow before using the window (eclipse:5632): Gdk-CRITICAL **: gdk_screen_get_n_monitors: assertion `GDK_IS_SCREEN (screen)' failed (eclipse:5632): Gtk-WARNING **: Screen for GtkWindow not set; you must always set a screen for a GtkWindow before using the window (eclipse:5632): Gdk-CRITICAL **: get_monitor: assertion `GDK_IS_SCREEN (screen)' failed Segmentation fault But when I login in Ubuntu as root, and run eclipse, it is ok. I changed to another non-root user,there is an error too. How to deal with this problem. I am looking forward to your reply. thanks.

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"User Friendly" .net compatible Regex/Text matching tools?

- by Binary Worrier

Currently in our software we provide a hook where we call a DLL built by our clients to parse information out of documents we are processing (the DLL takes in some text (or a file) and returns a list of name/value pairs). e.g. We're given a Word doc or Text file to Archive. We do various things to the file, and call a DLL that will return "pertinent" information about the file. Among other things we store that "pertinent" data for posterity. What is considered "pertinent" depends on the client and the type of the document, we don't care, we get it and store it. I've been asked to develop a user friendly "something" that will allow a non-programmer user to "configure" how to get this data from a plain text document (<humor>The user story ends with the helpful suggestion/query "We could use regex for this?"</humor>) It's safe to assume that a list of regex's isn't going to cut this, I've written some of these parsers for customers, the regex's to do these would be hedious and some of them can't be done by regex's. Also one of the requirements above is "user friendly" which negates anything that has users seeing or editing regex expressions. As you can guess, I don't have a fortune of time to do this, and am wondering is there anything out there that I can plug in to our app that has a nice front end and does exactly what I need? :) No? Whadda mean no! . . . sigh Ok then failing that, anything out there that "visually" builds regex's and/or other pattern matching expressions, and then allows one to run those expressions against some text? The MS BRE will do what I want, but I need something prettier that looks less like code. Thanks guys,

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C# Thread-safe Extension Method

- by Wonko the Sane

Hello All, I may be waaaay off, or else really close. Either way, I'm currently SOL. :) I want to be able to use an extension method to set properties on a class, but that class may (or may not) be updated on a non-UI thread, and derives from a class the enforces updates to be on the UI thread (which implements INotifyPropertyChanged, etc). I have a class defined something like this: public class ClassToUpdate : UIObservableItem { private readonly Dispatcher mDispatcher = Dispatcher.CurrentDispatcher; private Boolean mPropertyToUpdate = false; public ClassToUpdate() : base() { } public Dispatcher Dispatcher { get { return mDispatcher; } } public Boolean PropertyToUpdate { get { return mPropertyToUpdate; } set { SetValue("PropertyToUpdate", ref mPropertyToUpdate, value; } } } I have an extension method class defined something like this: static class ExtensionMethods { public static IEnumerable<T> SetMyProperty<T>(this IEnumerable<T> sourceList, Boolean newValue) { ClassToUpdate firstClass = sourceList.FirstOrDefault() as ClassToUpdate; if (firstClass.Dispatcher.Thread.ManagedThreadId != System.Threading.Thread.CurrentThread.ManagedThreadId) { // WHAT GOES HERE? } else { foreach (var classToUpdate in sourceList) { (classToUpdate as ClassToUpdate ).PropertyToUpdate = newValue; yield return classToUpdate; } } } } Obviously, I'm looking for the "WHAT GOES HERE" in the extension method. Thanks, wTs

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Dashcode code translation

- by Alex Mcp

Hi, a quick, probably easy question whose answer is probably "best practice" I'm following a tutorial for a custom-template mobile Safari webapp, and to change views around this code is used: function btnSave_ClickHandler(event) { var views = document.getElementById('stackLayout'); var front = document.getElementById('mainScreen'); if (views && views.object && front) { views.object.setCurrentView(front, true); } } My question is just about the if conditional statement. What is this triplet saying, and why do each of those things need to be verified before the view can be changed? Does views.object just test to see if the views variable responds to the object method? Why is this important? EDIT - This is/was the main point of this question, and it regards not Javascript as a language and how if loops work, but rather WHY these 3 things specifically need to be checked: Under what scenarios might views and front not exist? I don't typically write my code so redundantly. If the name of my MySQL table isn't changing, I'll just say UPDATE 'mytable' WHERE... instead of the much more verbose (and in my view, redundant) $mytable = "TheSQLTableName"; if ($mytable == an actual table && $mytable exists && entries can be updated){ UPDATE $mytable; } Whereas if the table's name (or in the JS example, the view's names) ARE NOT "hard coded" but are instead a user input or otherwise mutable, I might right my code as the DashCode example has it. So tell me, can these values "go wrong" anyhow? Thanks!

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How to implement Excel Solver functionality in C#?

- by Vic

Hi, I have an application in C#, I need to do some optimization calculations, like Excel Solver Add-in does, one option is certainly to write my own solver implementation, but I'm kind of short of time, so I'm looking into libraries that already exist that can help me with this. I've been trying the Microsoft Solver Foundation, which seems pretty neat and cool, the problem is that it doesn't seem to work with the kind of calculations that I need to do. At the end of this question I'm adding the information about the calculations I need to perform and optimize. So basically my question is if any of you know of any other library that I can use for this purpose, or any tutorial that can help to do my own solver, or any idea that gives me a lead to solve this issue. Thanks. Additional Info: This is the data I need to calculate: I have 7 variables, lets call them var1, var2,...,var7 The constraints for these variables are: All of them need to be 0 <= varn <= 0.5 (where n is the number of the variable) The sum of all the variables should be equal to 1 The objective is to maximize the target formula, which in Excel looks like this: (MMULT(TRANSPOSE(L26:L32),M14:M20)) / (SQRT(MMULT(MMULT(TRANSPOSE(L26:L32),M4:S10),L26:L32))) The range that you see in this formula, L26:L32, is actually the range with the variables from above, var1, var2,..., varn. M14:M20 and M4:S10 are ranges with data that I get from different sources, there are more likely decimal values. As I said before, I was using Microsoft Solver Foundation, I modeled pretty much everything with it, I created functions that handle the operations of the target formula, but when I tried to solve the model it always fail, I think it is because of the complexity of the operations. In any case, I just wanted to show these data so you can have an idea about the kind of calculations that I need to implement.

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Does this use of Monitor.Wait/Pulse have a race condition?

- by jw

I have a simple producer/consumer scenario, where there is only ever a single item being produced/consumed. Also, the producer waits for the worker thread to finish before continuing. I realize that kind of obviates the whole point of multithreading, but please just assume it really needs to be this way (: This code doesn't compile, but I hope you get the idea: // m_data is initially null // This could be called by any number of producer threads simultaneously void SetData(object foo) { lock(x) // Line A { assert(m_data == null); m_data = foo; Monitor.Pulse(x) // Line B while(m_data != null) Monitor.Wait(x) // Line C } } // This is only ever called by a single worker thread void UseData() { lock(x) // Line D { while(m_data == null) Monitor.Wait(x) // Line E // here, do something with m_data m_data = null; Monitor.Pulse(x) // Line F } } Here is the situation that I am not sure about: Suppose many threads call SetData() with different inputs. Only one of them will get inside the lock, and the rest will be blocked on Line A. Suppose the one that got inside the lock sets m_data and makes its way to Line C. Question: Could the Wait() on Line C allow another thread at Line A to obtain the lock and overwrite m_data before the worker thread even gets to it? Supposing that doesn't happen, and the worker thread processes the original m_data, and eventually makes its way to Line F, what happens when that Pulse() goes off? Will only the thread waiting on Line C be able to get the lock? Or will it be competing with all the other threads waiting on Line A as well? Essentially, I want to know if Pulse()/Wait() communicate with each other specially "under the hood" or if they are on the same level with lock(). The solution to these problems, if they exist, is obvious of course - just surround SetData() with another lock - say, lock(y). I'm just curious if it's even an issue to begin with.

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Method binding to base method in external library can't handle new virtual methods "between"

- by Berg

Lets say I have a library, version 1.0.0, with the following contents: public class Class1 { public virtual void Test() { Console.WriteLine( "Library:Class1 - Test" ); Console.WriteLine( "" ); } } public class Class2 : Class1 { } and I reference this library in a console application with the following contents: class Program { static void Main( string[] args ) { var c3 = new Class3(); c3.Test(); Console.ReadKey(); } } public class Class3 : ClassLibrary1.Class2 { public override void Test() { Console.WriteLine("Console:Class3 - Test"); base.Test(); } } Running the program will output the following: Console:Class3 - Test Library:Class1 - Test If I build a new version of the library, version 2.0.0, looking like this: public class Class1 { public virtual void Test() { Console.WriteLine( "Library:Class1 - Test V2" ); Console.WriteLine( "" ); } } public class Class2 : Class1 { public override void Test() { Console.WriteLine("Library:Class2 - Test V2"); base.Test(); } } and copy this version to the bin folder containing my console program and run it, the results are: Console:Class3 - Test Library:Class1 - Test V2 I.e, the Class2.Test method is never executed, the base.Test call in Class3.Test seems to be bound to Class1.Test since Class2.Test didn't exist when the console program was compiled. This was very surprising to me and could be a big problem in situations where you deploy new versions of a library without recompiling applications. Does anyone else have experience with this? Are there any good solutions? This makes it tempting to add empty overrides that just calls base in case I need to add some code at that level in the future...

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Log4j Relative Path to Tomcat7 Log Directory File Not Found

- by Nik

I have this log4j XML file: <log4j:configuration xmlns:log4j="http://jakarta.apache.org/log4j/"> <appender name="gemFile" class="org.apache.log4j.RollingFileAppender"> <param name="File" value="file:${catalina.home}/logs/GEM.log" /> <param name="MaxBackupIndex" value="5" /> <param name="MaxFileSize" value="3MB" /> <param name="Append" value="true" /> <layout class="org.apache.log4j.PatternLayout"> <param name="ConversionPattern" value="[%t] %d{yyyy-MM-dd HH:mm:ss.SSS} %-5p %c{1} - %m%n" /> </layout> </appender> <root> <priority value ="info" /> <appender-ref ref="gemFile" /> </root> </log4j:configuration> ${catalina.home} resolves to C:\Apps\Apache\Tomcat7. When I deploy my WAR file, I get log4j:ERROR setFile(null,true) call failed. java.io.FileNotFoundException: file:C:\Apps\Apache\Tomcat7\logs\GEM.log (The filename, directory name, or volume label syntax is incorrect) stack trace... It is true that the log file does not exist (the folder structure does), but if I set the file directly to that path (<param name="File" value="C:/Apps/Apache/Tomcat7/logs/GEM.log" />) it works fine. Why can't I use the replacement string?

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Why does Clojure hang after hacing performed my calculations?

- by Thomas

Hi all, I'm experimenting with filtering through elements in parallel. For each element, I need to perform a distance calculation to see if it is close enough to a target point. Never mind that data structures already exist for doing this, I'm just doing initial experiments for now. Anyway, I wanted to run some very basic experiments where I generate random vectors and filter them. Here's my implementation that does all of this (defn pfilter [pred coll] (map second (filter first (pmap (fn [item] [(pred item) item]) coll)))) (defn random-n-vector [n] (take n (repeatedly rand))) (defn distance [u v] (Math/sqrt (reduce + (map #(Math/pow (- %1 %2) 2) u v)))) (defn -main [& args] (let [[n-str vectors-str threshold-str] args n (Integer/parseInt n-str) vectors (Integer/parseInt vectors-str) threshold (Double/parseDouble threshold-str) random-vector (partial random-n-vector n) u (random-vector)] (time (println n vectors (count (pfilter (fn [v] (< (distance u v) threshold)) (take vectors (repeatedly random-vector)))))))) The code executes and returns what I expect, that is the parameter n (length of vectors), vectors (the number of vectors) and the number of vectors that are closer than a threshold to the target vector. What I don't understand is why the programs hangs for an additional minute before terminating. Here is the output of a run which demonstrates the error $ time lein run 10 100000 1.0 [null] 10 100000 12283 [null] "Elapsed time: 3300.856 msecs" real 1m6.336s user 0m7.204s sys 0m1.495s Any comments on how to filter in parallel in general are also more than welcome, as I haven't yet confirmed that pfilter actually works.

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Internet Explorer Warning when embedding Youtube on HTTPS site?

- by pellepim

Our application is run over HTTPS which rarely presents any problems for us. When it comes to youtube however, the fact that they do not present any content over SSL connections is giving us some head ache when trying to embed clips. Mostly because of Internet Explorers famous little warning message: "Do you want to view only the webpage content that was delivered securely? This page contains content that will not be delivered using a secure HTTPS ... etc" I've tried to solve this in several ways. The most promising one was to use the ProxyPass functionality in Apache to map to YouTube. Like this: ProxyPass: /youtube/ http://www.youtube.com ProxyPassReverse: /youtube/ http://www.youtube.com This gets rid of the annoying warning. However, the youtube SWF fails to start streaming The SWF i manage to load into the browser simply states : "An error occurred, please try again later". Potential solutions are perhaps: Download youtube FLV:s and serve them out of own domain (gah) Use custom FLV-player and stream only FLV:s from youtube over a https proxy? Update 10 March: I've tried to use Googles Youtube API for ActionScript to load a player. It looked promising at first and I was able to load a player through my https:// proxy. However, the SWF that is loaded contains loads of explicit calls to different non-ssl urls to create authentication links for the FLV-stream and for loading different crossdomain policies. It really seems like we're not supposed to access flv-streams directly. This makes it very hard to bypass the Internet Explorer warning, short of ripping out the FLV:s from youtube and serving them out of your own domain. There are solutions out there for downloading youtubes FLV:s. But that is not compliant with the Youtube terms of use and is really not an option for us.

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Extending ASP.NET role providers

- by Quick Joe Smith

Because the RoleProvider interface seems to treat roles as nothing more than simple strings, I'm wondering if there is any non-hacky way to apply an optional value for a role on a per-user basis. Our current login management system implements roles as key-value pairs, where the value part is optional and usually used to clarify or limit the permissions granted by a role. For example, a role 'editor' might contain a user 'barry', but for 'barry' it will have an optional value 'raptors', which the system would interpret to mean that Barry can only edit articles filed under the 'raptors' category. I have seen elsewhere a suggestion to simply create additional delimited roles, such as 'editor.raptors' or somesuch. That's not really going to be ideal because it would bloat the number of roles greatly, and I can tell it's going to be a very hard sell to replace our current implementation (which is also very less than ideal, but has the advantage of being custom made to work with our user database). I can tell already that the concatenation method mentioned above is going to involve a lot of tedious string-splitting and partial matching. Is there a better way?

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Jquery: Create hidden attributes? I need to reduce tag bulkyness.

- by Dan

I'm sure we've all done this before: <a id="232" rel="link_to_user" name="user_details" class="list hoverable clickable selectable"> USER #232 </a> But then we say, oh my, I need more ways to store tracking info about this div! <a id="232-343-22" rel="link_to_user:fotomeshed" name="user_details" class="groupcolor-45 elements-698 list hoverable clickable selectable"> User: John Doe </a> And the sickness keeps growing. We just keep on packing it inside that poor little element and it's attributes. All so we can keep track of who it is. So with my limited knowledge of JS, someone please tell me how to do something like this: <a id="33">USER #33</a> $(#33).attr({title:'User Record','username':'john', 'group_color':'green', 'element_num':78}); So here we just added what I would call invisible attributes, because we just played God and made those attributes up on the fly like it was no problem. The cool part is that these would be kept in their own little object somewhere in variable land. NOT in the tag itself. Then later on, in a code nested far far away, be able to say, oh, i wonder what group_color John is... user_group_color = $(table).find(a['username':'john']).attr('group_color'); THEN BAM!!!! POW!!!! alert(user_group_color + " is a bitchin color!"); You get to know his group color... all without adding a bunch of bloated element tracking nonsense into our tags. So does this sort of thing exist? If not, how do I make it?

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Problem using UnhandledException in Windows Mobile app

- by MusiGenesis

I have a Windows Mobile program that accesses an attached device through a third-party DLL. Each call to the device can take an unknown length of time, so each call includes a timeout property. If the call takes longer than the specified timeout to return, the DLL instead throws an exception which my app catches with no problem. The problem that I have is with closing the application. If my application has made a call to the DLL and is waiting for the timeout to occur, and I then close the application before the timeout occurs, my application locks up and requires the PDA to be rebooted. I can ensure that the application waits for the timeout before closing, under normal conditions. However, I am trying to use AppDomain.CurrentDomain.UnhandledException to catch any unhandled exceptions in the program and use the event to wait for this pending timeout to occur so the program can be closed finally. My problem is that this event doesn't seem to stick around long enough. If I put a MessageBox.Show("unhandled exception"); line in the event, and then throw a new unhandled exception from my application's main form, I see the message box for a split second but then it disappears without my having clicked the OK button. The documentation I've found on this event suggests that by the time it's called the application is fully committed to closing and the closing can't be stopped, but I didn't think it meant that the event method itself won't finish. What gives (I guess that's the question)? Update: In full windows (Vista) this works as expected, but only if I use the Application.ThreadException event, which doesn't exist in .Net CF 2.0.

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MVC view engine that can render classic ASP?

- by David Lively

I'm about to start integrating ASP.NET MVC into an existing 200k+ line classic ASP application. Rewriting the existing code (which runs an entire business, not just the public-facing website) is not an option. The existing ASP 3.0 pages are quite nicely structured (given what was available when this model was put into place nearly 15 years ago), like so:      <h1>page name</h1> <p>some content goes here</p> <p>some content goes here</p> <p>.....</p> <h2>Today's Top Forum Posts</h2> <%=forum_top_posts(1)%>  ... or somesuch. Some pages will include function and sub definitions, but for the most part these exist in include files. I'm wondering how difficult it would be to write an MVC view engine that could render classic ASP, preferably using the existing ASP.DLL. In that case, I could replace  with <%= Html.RenderPartial("lib/user"); %> as I gradually move existing pages from ASP to ASP.NET. Since the existing formatting and library includes are used very extensively, they must be maintained. I'd like to avoid having to maintain two separate versions. I know the ideal way to go about this would be to simply start a new app and say to hell with the ASP code, however, that simply ain't gonna happen. Ideas?

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Can I copy/clone a function in JavaScript?

- by Craig Stuntz

I'm using jQuery with the validators plugin. I would like to replace the "required" validator with one of my own. This is easy: jQuery.validator.addMethod("required", function(value, element, param) { return myRequired(value, element, param); }, jQuery.validator.messages.required); So far, so good. This works just fine. But what I really want to do is call my function in some cases, and the default validator for the rest. Unfortunately, this turns out to be recursive: jQuery.validator.addMethod("required", function(value, element, param) { // handle comboboxes with empty guids if (someTest(element)) { return myRequired(value, element, param); } return jQuery.validator.methods.required(value, element, param); }, jQuery.validator.messages.required); I looked at the source code for the validators, and the default implementation of "required" is defined as an anonymous method at jQuery.validator.messages.required. So there is no other (non-anonymous) reference to the function that I can use. Storing a reference to the function externally before calling addMethod and calling the default validator via that reference makes no difference. What I really need to do is to be able to copy the default required validator function by value instead of by reference. But after quite a bit of searching, I can't figure out how to do that. Is it possible? If it's impossible, then I can copy the source for the original function. But that creates a maintenance problem, and I would rather not do that unless there is no "better way."

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Impact of ordering of correlated subqueries within a projection

- by Michael Petito

I'm noticing something a bit unexpected with how SQL Server (SQL Server 2008 in this case) treats correlated subqueries within a select statement. My assumption was that a query plan should not be affected by the mere order in which subqueries (or columns, for that matter) are written within the projection clause of the select statement. However, this does not appear to be the case. Consider the following two queries, which are identical except for the ordering of the subqueries within the CTE: --query 1: subquery for Color is second WITH vw AS ( SELECT p.[ID], (SELECT TOP(1) [FirstName] FROM [Preference] WHERE p.ID = ID AND [FirstName] IS NOT NULL ORDER BY [LastModified] DESC) [FirstName], (SELECT TOP(1) [Color] FROM [Preference] WHERE p.ID = ID AND [Color] IS NOT NULL ORDER BY [LastModified] DESC) [Color] FROM Person p ) SELECT ID, Color, FirstName FROM vw WHERE Color = 'Gray'; --query 2: subquery for Color is first WITH vw AS ( SELECT p.[ID], (SELECT TOP(1) [Color] FROM [Preference] WHERE p.ID = ID AND [Color] IS NOT NULL ORDER BY [LastModified] DESC) [Color], (SELECT TOP(1) [FirstName] FROM [Preference] WHERE p.ID = ID AND [FirstName] IS NOT NULL ORDER BY [LastModified] DESC) [FirstName] FROM Person p ) SELECT ID, Color, FirstName FROM vw WHERE Color = 'Gray'; If you look at the two query plans, you'll see that an outer join is used for each subquery and that the order of the joins is the same as the order the subqueries are written. There is a filter applied to the result of the outer join for color, to filter out rows where the color is not 'Gray'. (It's odd to me that SQL would use an outer join for the color subquery since I have a non-null constraint on the result of the color subquery, but OK.) Most of the rows are removed by the color filter. The result is that query 2 is significantly cheaper than query 1 because fewer rows are involved with the second join. All reasons for constructing such a statement aside, is this an expected behavior? Shouldn't SQL server opt to move the filter as early as possible in the query plan, regardless of the order the subqueries are written?

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diffie-hellman ssh keyxchange

- by Chuck

Hi, I've set out to make a primitive SSH client in C#; you might remember me from posts such as http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2872279/c-primitive-ssh-connection-lowlevel hehe. Anyway, things are great up until the time when I initiate a DH key exchange. I've compared the traffic when I establish a ssh connection (from openssh client to openssh server), to the traffic when my client connects to the same openssh server. OpenSSH client - OpenSSH server (S for server, C for client): S: SSH-2.0-OpenSSH_5.1p1 Debian-6ubuntu2\r (saying hello) C: SSH-2.0-OpenSSH_5.2\r (introducing myself) C: Key Exchange Init (0x14 = 20) S: Key Exchange Init C: Diffie-Hellman GEX Request (0x22 = 34) (with DH GEX min, number of bits and max) S: Diffie-Hellman Key Exchange Reply (with P, G, etc.) C: Diffie-Hellman GEX Init S: Diffie-Hellman GEX Reply My client - OpenSSH server: S: SSH-2.0-OpenSSH_5.1p1 Debian-6ubuntu2\r (saying hello) C: SSH-2.0-Some_Name\r (introducing myself) C: Key Exchange Init (0x14 = 20) S: Key Exchange Init C: Diffie-Hellman GEX Request (0x22 = 34) (with DH GEX min, number of bits and max) and then a bogus TCP packet as reply (probably the server connection has been terminated after/upon GEX Request. I have yet to use AES128 (which I think is the encryption chosen, but I'm not sure how to verify this...), and I'm still sending in a non-compressed format, looking to get the P, G etc. values to make the DH calculations. So where I'm stranded is: RFC 4419 page 3 http://www.ietf.org/rfc/rfc4419.txt I've send SSH_MSG_KEY_DH_GEX_REQUEST, but the server does not respond SSH_MSG_KEX_DH_GEX_GROUP. Can anyone give me a little advice on what I'm not understanding here? Does the server not understand my GEX request (due to it expecting encryption, or?)? Any help is very much appreciated, thanks :)

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Rspec stubing view for anonymous controller

- by Colin G

I'm trying to test a method on the application controller that will be used as a before filter. To do this I have setup an anonymous controller in my test with the before filter applied to ensure that it functions correctly. The test currently looks like this: describe ApplicationController do controller do before_filter :authenticated def index end end describe "user authenticated" do let(:session_id){"session_id"} let(:user){OpenStruct.new(:email => "[email protected]", :name => "Colin Gemmell")} before do request.cookies[:session_id] = session_id UserSession.stub!(:find).with(session_id).and_return(user) get :index end it { should assign_to(:user){user} } end end And the application controller is like this: class ApplicationController < ActionController::Base protect_from_forgery def authenticated @user = nil end end My problem is when ever I run the test I'm getting the following error 1) ApplicationController user authenticated Failure/Error: get :index ActionView::MissingTemplate: Missing template stub_resources/index with {:handlers=>[:erb, :rjs, :builder, :rhtml, :rxml, :haml], :formats=>[:html], :locale=>[:en, :en]} in view paths "#<RSpec::Rails::ViewRendering::PathSetDelegatorResolver:0x984f310>" According to the docs the view is not rendered when running controller tests however this points to no stub existing for this action (which is understandable as the view doesn't exist) Anyone have a clue how to solve this problem or stub the view out. Cheers Colin G

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Are there size limitations to the .NET Assembly format?

- by McKAMEY

We ran into an interesting issue that I've not experienced before. We have a large scale production ASP.NET 3.5 SP1 Web App Project in Visual Studio 2008 SP1 which gets compiled and deployed using a Website Deployment Project. Everything has worked fine for the last year, until after a check-in yesterday the app started critically failing with BadImageFormatException. The check-in in question doesn't change anything particularly special and the errors are coming from areas of the app not even changed. Using Reflector we inspected the offending methods to find that there were garbage strings in the code (which .NET Reflector humorously interpreted as Chinese characters). We have consistently reproduced this on several machines so it does not appear to be hardware related. Further inspection showed that those garbage strings did not exist in the Assemblies used as inputs to aspnet_merge.exe during deployment. aspnet_merge.exe / Web Deployment Project Output Assemblies Properties: Merge all outputs to a single assembly Merge each individual folder output to its own assembly Merge all pages and control outputs to a single assembly Create a separate assembly for each page and control output In the web deployment project properties if we set the merge options to the first option ("Merge all outputs to a single assembly") we experience the issue, yet all of the other options work perfectly! My question: does anyone know why this is happening? Is there a size-limit to aspnet_merge.exe's capabilities (the resulting merged DLL is around 19.3 MB)? Are there any other known issues with merging the output of WAPs? I would love it if any Assembly format / aspnet_merge.exe gurus know about any such limitations like this. Seems to me like a 25MB Assembly, while big, isn't outrageous.

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Delphi 2009 dbExpress and Interbase: Unicode migration steps and risks?

- by mjustin

Currently, our database uses Win1252 as the only character encoding. We will have to support Unicode in the database tables soon, which means we have to perform this migration for four databases and around 80 Delphi applications which run in-house in a 24/7 environment. Are there recommendations for database migrations to UTF-8 (or UNICODE_FSS) for Delphi applications? Some questions listed below. Many thanks in advance for your answers! are there tools which help with the migration of the existing databases (sizes between 250 MB and 2 GB, no Blob fields), by dumping the data, recreating the database with UNICODE_FSS or UTF-8, and loading the data back? are there known problems with Delphi 2009, dbExpress and Interbase 7.5 related to Unicode character sets? would you recommend to upgrade the databases to Interbase 2009 first? (This upgrade is planned but does not have a high priority) can we simply migrate the database and Delphi will handle the Unicode character sets automatically, or will we have to change all character field types in every Datamodule (dfm and source code) too? which strategy would you recommend to work on the migration in parallel with the normal development and maintenance of the existing application? The application runs in-house so development and database administration is done internally. Update: one problem I found now is that there are two different persistent field types for Unicode and non Unicode character fields. For the existing database, dbExpress creates TStringField objects. For the Unicode database fields, dbExpress creates (or expects!) TWideStringField objects. This looks like a lot of work lies ahead. While we could try to avoid persistent fields (and add calculated fields at run time), Of course we would prefer a solution which does not require so many changes in existing units and DFM files.

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Aren't Information Expert / Tell Don't Ask at odds with Single Responsibility Principle?

- by moffdub

It is probably just me, which is why I'm asking the question. Information Expert, Tell Don't Ask, and SRP are often mentioned together as best practices. But I think they are at odds. Here is what I'm talking about: Code that favors SRP but violates Tell Don't Ask, Info Expert: Customer bob = ...; // TransferObjectFactory has to use Customer's accessors to do its work, // violates Tell Don't Ask CustomerDTO dto = TransferObjectFactory.createFrom(bob); Code that favors Tell Don't Ask / Info Expert but violates SRP: Customer bob = ...; // Now Customer is doing more than just representing the domain concept of Customer, // violates SRP CustomerDTO dto = bob.toDTO(); If they are indeed at odds, that's a vindication of my OCD. Otherwise, please fill me in on how these practices can co-exist peacefully. Thank you. Edit: someone wants a definition of the terms - Information Expert: objects that have the data needed for the operation should host the operation Tell Don't Ask: don't ask objects for data in order to do work; tell the objects to do the work Single Responsibility Principle: each object should have a narrowly defined responsibility

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Cascading persist and existing object

- by user322061

Hello, I am working with JPA and I would like to persist an object (Action) composed of an object (Domain). There is the Action class code: @Entity(name="action") @Table(name="action") public class Action { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy=GenerationType.IDENTITY) @Column(name="num") private int num; @OneToOne(cascade= { CascadeType.PERSIST, CascadeType.MERGE, CascadeType.REFRESH }) @JoinColumn(name="domain_num") private Domain domain; @Column(name="name") private String name; @Column(name="description") private String description; public Action() { } public Action(Domain domain, String name, String description) { super(); this.domain=domain; this.name=name; this.description=description; } public int getNum() { return num; } public Domain getDomain() { return domain; } public String getName() { return name; } public String getDescription() { return description; } } When I persist an action with a new Domain, it works. Action and Domain are persisted. But if I try to persist an Action with an existing Domain, I get this error: javax.persistence.EntityExistsException: Exception Description: Cannot persist detached object [isd.pacepersistence.common.Domain@1716286]. Class> isd.pacepersistence.common.Domain Primary Key> [8] How can I persist my Action and automatically persist a Domain if it does not exist? If it exists, how can I just persist the Action and link it with the existing Domain. Best Regards, FF

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How do we greatly optimize our MySQL database (or replace it) when using joins?

- by jkaz

Hi there, This is the first time I'm approaching an extremely high-volume situation. This is an ad server based on MySQL. However, the query that is used incorporates a lot of JOINs and is generally just slow. (This is Rails ActiveRecord, btw) sel = Ads.find(:all, :select = '*', :joins = "JOIN campaigns ON ads.campaign_id = campaigns.id JOIN users ON campaigns.user_id = users.id LEFT JOIN countries ON countries.campaign_id = campaigns.id LEFT JOIN keywords ON keywords.campaign_id = campaigns.id", :conditions = [flashstr + "keywords.word = ? AND ads.format = ? AND campaigns.cenabled = 1 AND (countries.country IS NULL OR countries.country = ?) AND ads.enabled = 1 AND campaigns.dailyenabled = 1 AND users.uenabled = 1", kw, format, viewer['country'][0]], :order = order, :limit = limit) My questions: Is there an alternative database like MySQL that has JOIN support, but is much faster? (I know there's Postgre, still evaluating it.) Otherwise, would firing up a MySQL instance, loading a local database into memory and re-loading that every 5 minutes help? Otherwise, is there any way I could switch this entire operation to Redis or Cassandra, and somehow change the JOIN behavior to match the (non-JOIN-able) nature of NoSQL? Thank you!

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Help with Exception Handling in ASP.NET C# Application

- by Shrewd Demon

hi, yesterday i posted a question regarding the Exception Handling technique, but i did'nt quite get a precise answer, partly because my question must not have been precise. So i will ask it more precisely. There is a method in my BLL for authenticating user. If a user is authenticated it returns me the instance of the User class which i store in the session object for further references. the method looks something like this... public static UsersEnt LoadUserInfo(string email) { SqlDataReader reader = null; UsersEnt user = null; using (ConnectionManager cm = new ConnectionManager()) { SqlParameter[] parameters = new SqlParameter[1]; parameters[0] = new SqlParameter("@Email", email); try { reader = SQLHelper.ExecuteReader(cm.Connection, "sp_LoadUserInfo", parameters); } catch (SqlException ex) { //this gives me a error object } if (reader.Read()) user = new UsersDF(reader); } return user; } now my problem is suppose if the SP does not exist, then it will throw me an error or any other SQLException for that matter. Since this method is being called from my aspx.cs page i want to return some meaning full message as to what could have gone wrong so that the user understands that there was some problem and that he/she should retry logging-in again. but i can't because the method returns an instance of the User class, so how can i return a message instead ?? i hope i made it clear ! thank you.

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Postgres update rule returning number of rows affected

- by Lithium

I have a view table which is a union of two seperate tables (say Table _A and Table _B). I need to be able to update a row in the view table, and it seems the way to do this was through a 'view rule'. All entries in the view table have seperate id's, so an id that exists in table _A won't exist in table _B. I created the following rule: CREATE OR REPLACE RULE view_update AS ON UPDATE TO viewtable DO INSTEAD ( UPDATE _A SET foo = false WHERE old.id = _A.id; UPDATE _B SET foo = false WHERE old.id = _B.id; ); If I do an update on table _B it returns the correct number of rows affected (1). However if I update table _A it returns (0) rows affected even though the data was changed. If I swap out the order of the updates then the same thing happens, but in reverse. How can I solve this problem so that it returns the correct number of rows affected. Thanks.

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