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  • Apache HttpClient CoreConnectionPNames.CONNECTION_TIMEOUT does nothing ?

    - by Maxim Veksler
    Hi, I'm testing some result from HttpClient that looks irrational. It seems that setting CoreConnectionPNames.CONNECTION_TIMEOUT = 1 has no effect because send request to different host return successfully with connect timeout 1 which IMHO can't be the case (1ms to setup TCP handshake???) Am I misunderstood something or is something very strange going on here? The httpclient version I'm using as can be seen in this pom.xml is <dependency> <groupId>org.apache.httpcomponents</groupId> <artifactId>httpclient</artifactId> <version>4.0.1</version> <type>jar</type> </dependency> Here is the code: import java.io.IOException; import java.util.Random; import org.apache.http.HttpEntity; import org.apache.http.HttpResponse; import org.apache.http.client.ClientProtocolException; import org.apache.http.client.HttpClient; import org.apache.http.client.methods.HttpGet; import org.apache.http.client.methods.HttpUriRequest; import org.apache.http.impl.client.DefaultHttpClient; import org.apache.http.params.CoreConnectionPNames; import org.apache.http.util.EntityUtils; import org.apache.log4j.Logger; public class TestNodeAliveness { private static Logger log = Logger.getLogger(TestNodeAliveness.class); public static boolean nodeBIT(String elasticIP) throws ClientProtocolException, IOException { try { HttpClient client = new DefaultHttpClient(); // The time it takes to open TCP connection. client.getParams().setParameter(CoreConnectionPNames.CONNECTION_TIMEOUT, 1); // Timeout when server does not send data. client.getParams().setParameter(CoreConnectionPNames.SO_TIMEOUT, 5000); // Some tuning that is not required for bit tests. client.getParams().setParameter(CoreConnectionPNames.STALE_CONNECTION_CHECK, false); client.getParams().setParameter(CoreConnectionPNames.TCP_NODELAY, true); HttpUriRequest request = new HttpGet("http://" + elasticIP); HttpResponse response = client.execute(request); HttpEntity entity = response.getEntity(); if(entity == null) { return false; } else { System.out.println(EntityUtils.toString(entity)); } // Close just in case. request.abort(); } catch (Throwable e) { log.warn("BIT Test failed for " + elasticIP); e.printStackTrace(); return false; } return true; } public static void main(String[] args) throws ClientProtocolException, IOException { nodeBIT("google.com?cant_cache_this=" + (new Random()).nextInt()); } } Thank you.

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  • Cant get flexigrid to work in Jquery Tools Tab

    - by John
    Im fairly new to jquery and Im using jquery tools for tabs. I am wanting in one of the tabs to show flexigrid, but when I try to do this flexigrid does not show up, its just blank. If I setup flexigrid in a stand alone page outside the tab it works just fine. Below is the code that isnt working. Again Im new so please go easy! <ul class="css-tabs"> <li><a href="#details">Account Details</a></li> <li><a href="#accounts">Sub Accounts</a></li> <li><a href="#groups">Groups</a></li> <li><a href="#support">Tickets</a></li> </ul> <div class="css-panes"> <div>Tab 1</div> <div><table id="flex1" style="display:none"></table></div> <div>Tab 3</div> <div>Tab 4</div> </div> <script> $(function() { $("ul.css-tabs").tabs("div.css-panes > div").history(); }); $('.flexme1').flexigrid(); $('.flexme2').flexigrid({height:'auto',striped:false}); $("#flex1").flexigrid ( { url: '/accounts_list.php', dataType: 'json', colModel : [ {display: 'ID', name : 'id', width : 45, sortable : true, align: 'center'}, {display: 'Username', name : 'username', width : 120, sortable : true, align: 'left'}, {display: 'Display Name', name : 'displayname', width : 150, sortable : true, align: 'left'}, {display: 'Limit', name : 'accounts', width : 50, sortable : true, align: 'center'}, {display: 'Rate', name : 'charge', width : 50, sortable : true, align: 'center'}, {display: 'Subs', name : 'subcount', width : 50, sortable : true, align: 'center'} ], searchitems : [ {display: 'ID', name : 'id'}, {display: 'Username', name : 'username', isdefault: true}, {display: 'Display Name', name : 'displayname'} ], sortname: "id", sortorder: "desc", usepager: true, singleSelect: true, title: 'Test', useRp: true, rp: 20, showTableToggleBtn: false, width: 500, height: 250 }); </script>

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  • Loading XML from Web Service

    - by Lukasz
    I am connecting to a web service to get some data back out as xml. The connection works fine and it returns the xml data from the service. var remoteURL = EveApiUrl; var postData = string.Format("userID={0}&apikey={1}&characterID={2}", UserId, ApiKey, CharacterId); var request = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(remoteURL); request.Method = "POST"; request.ContentLength = postData.Length; request.ContentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"; // Setup a stream to write the HTTP "POST" data var WebEncoding = new ASCIIEncoding(); var byte1 = WebEncoding.GetBytes(postData); var newStream = request.GetRequestStream(); newStream.Write(byte1, 0, byte1.Length); newStream.Close(); var response = (HttpWebResponse)request.GetResponse(); var receiveStream = response.GetResponseStream(); var readStream = new StreamReader(receiveStream, Encoding.UTF8); var webdata = readStream.ReadToEnd(); Console.WriteLine(webdata); This prints out the xml that comes from the service. I can also save the xml as an xml file like so; TextWriter writer = new StreamWriter(@"C:\Projects\TrainingSkills.xml"); writer.WriteLine(webdata); writer.Close(); Now I can load the file as an XDocument to perform queries on it like this; var data = XDocument.Load(@"C:\Projects\TrainingSkills.xml"); What my problem is that I don't want to save the file and then load it back again. When I try to load directly from the stream I get an exception, Illegal characters in path. I don't know what is going on, if I can load the same xml as a text file why can't I load it as a stream. The xml is like this; <?xml version='1.0' encoding='UTF-8'?> <eveapi version="2"> <currentTime>2010-04-28 17:58:27</currentTime> <result> <currentTQTime offset="1">2010-04-28 17:58:28</currentTQTime> <trainingEndTime>2010-04-29 02:48:59</trainingEndTime> <trainingStartTime>2010-04-28 00:56:42</trainingStartTime> <trainingTypeID>3386</trainingTypeID> <trainingStartSP>8000</trainingStartSP> <trainingDestinationSP>45255</trainingDestinationSP> <trainingToLevel>4</trainingToLevel> <skillInTraining>1</skillInTraining> </result> <cachedUntil>2010-04-28 18:58:27</cachedUntil> </eveapi> Thanks for your help!

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  • How to use AVCaptureSession to stream live preview video, then take a photo, then return to streaming

    - by Matthew
    I have an application that creates its own live preview prior to taking a still photo. The app needs to run some processing on the image data and thus is not able to rely on AVCaptureVideoPreviewLayer. Getting the initial stream to work is going quite well, using Apple's example code. The problem comes when I try to switch to the higher quality image to take the snapshot. In response to a button press I attempt to reconfigure the session for taking a full resolution photo. I've tried many variations but here is my latest example (which still does not work): - (void)sessionSetupForPhoto { [session beginConfiguration]; session.sessionPreset = AVCaptureSessionPresetPhoto; AVCaptureStillImageOutput *output = [[[AVCaptureStillImageOutput alloc] init] autorelease]; for (AVCaptureOutput *output in [session outputs]) { [session removeOutput:output]; } if ([session canAddOutput:output]){ [session addOutput:output]; } else { NSLog(@"Not able to add an AVCaptureStillImageOutput"); } [session commitConfiguration]; } I am consistently getting an error message just after the commitConfiguration line that looks like this: (that is to say, I am getting an AVCaptureSessionRuntimeErrorNotification sent to my registered observer) Received an error: NSConcreteNotification 0x19d870 {name = AVCaptureSessionRuntimeErrorNotification; object = ; userInfo = { AVCaptureSessionErrorKey = "Error Domain=AVFoundationErrorDomain Code=-11800 \"The operation couldn\U2019t be completed. (AVFoundationErrorDomain error -11800.)\" UserInfo=0x19d810 {}"; The documentation in XCode ostensibly provides more information for the error number (-11800), "AVErrorUnknown - Reason for the error is unknown."; Previously I had also tried calls to stopRunning and startRunning, but no longer do that after watching WWDC Session 409, where it is discouraged. When I was stopping and starting, I was getting a different error message -11819, which corresponds to "AVErrorMediaServicesWereReset - The operation could not be completed because media services became unavailable.", which is much nicer than simply "unknown", but not necessarily any more helpful. It successfully adds the AVCaptureStillImageOutput (i.e., does NOT emit the log message). I am testing on an iPhone 3g (w/4.1) and iPhone 4. This call is happening in the main thread, which is also where my original AVCaptureSession setup took place. How can I avoid the error? How can I switch to the higher resolution to take the photo? Thank you!

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  • RSpec mocking a nested model in Rails - ActionController problem

    - by emson
    Hi All I am having a problem in RSpec when my mock object is asked for a URL by the ActionController. The URL is a Mock one and not a correct resource URL. I am running RSpec 1.3.0 and Rails 2.3.5 Basically I have two models. Where a subject has many notes. class Subject < ActiveRecord::Base validates_presence_of :title has_many :notes end class Note < ActiveRecord::Base validates_presence_of :title belongs_to :subject end My routes.rb file nests these two resources as such: ActionController::Routing::Routes.draw do |map| map.resources :subjects, :has_many => :notes end The NotesController.rb file looks like this: class NotesController < ApplicationController # POST /notes # POST /notes.xml def create @subject = Subject.find(params[:subject_id]) @note = @subject.notes.create!(params[:note]) respond_to do |format| format.html { redirect_to(@subject) } end end end Finally this is my RSpec spec which should simply post my mocked objects to the NotesController and be executed... which it does: it "should create note and redirect to subject without javascript" do # usual rails controller test setup here subject = mock(Subject) Subject.stub(:find).and_return(subject) notes_proxy = mock('association proxy', { "create!" => Note.new }) subject.stub(:notes).and_return(notes_proxy) post :create, :subject_id => subject, :note => { :title => 'note title', :body => 'note body' } end The problem is that when the RSpec post method is called. The NotesController correctly handles the Mock Subject object, and create! the new Note object. However when the NoteController#Create method tries to redirect_to I get the following error: NoMethodError in 'NotesController should create note and redirect to subject without javascript' undefined method `spec_mocks_mock_url' for #<NotesController:0x1034495b8> Now this is caused by a bit of Rails trickery that passes an ActiveRecord object (@subject, in our case, which isn't ActiveRecord but a Mock object), eventually to url_for who passes all the options to the Rails' Routing, which then determines the URL. My question is how can I mock Subject so that the correct options are passed so that I my test passes. I've tried passing in :controller = 'subjects' options but no joy. Is there some other way of doing this? Thanks...

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  • Structure of NAnt build scripts and solution structure on build server

    - by llykke
    We're in the process of streamlining/automating build, integration and unit testing as well as deployment. Our software is developed in Visual Studio where we have use both C# and VB.NET in our projects. A single project can be contained within multiple solutions (i.e. Utils project is used in both ProductA and ProductB solutions) For historical reasons our code repository isn't as well structured as one could have hoped for. E.g. Utils project might be located under ProductA solution (because that's were it was first used) but it was later deemed useful for productB development and merely just included into the solution of productB (but still located in a subdirectory of productA). I would like to use continous integration testing and have setup a CC.NET build server where I intend to use NAnt for creating the actual builds. Question 1: How should I structure my builds on the buildserver? Should I instruct CC.NET to retrieve all the projects for productB into a single library e.g. a file structure similar to -ProductB --Utils --BetterUtils --Data or should I opt for a filestructure similar to this -ProductA --Utils -ProductB --BetterUtils --Data and then just have the NAnt build scripts handle the references? Our references in VS doesn't match the actual location in the code repository so it's not possible today to just check-out productB solution and build it straight away (unfortunately). I hope this question makes sense? Question 2: Is it better to check out all the source code located in different projects into a single file folder (whilst retaining some kind of structure) and then build every thing at once or have multiple projects in CC.NET and then let the CC.NET server handle dependencies? Example: Should I have a seperate project in CC.NET for monitoring the automated build/test of Utils project when it's never released on it's own? Or should I just build/test it whilst building it as part of ProductB? I hope the above makes sense and that you can provide me with some arguments for using either option. We're nowhere near an ideal source code repository structure and I would prefer if I can resolve the lack of repository structure on the build server instead of having to clean up the structure of our repository. Switching away from VSS is (unfortunately) not an option. Right now our build consists of either deploying via VS clickonce or pressing F5 so just getting the build automated would be a huge step up for us. Thanks

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  • Why do I get a NullPointerException when initializing Spring

    - by niklassaers
    Hi guys, I've got a problem running a batch job on my server, whereas it runs fine from Eclipse on my development workstation. I've got my Spring environment set up using Roo, made an entity, and make a batch that does some work, and test it well on my develompent box. I initialize my context and do the work, but when I run my batch on the server, the context isn't initialized properly. Here's the code: public class TestBatch { private static ApplicationContext context; @SuppressWarnings("unchecked") public static void main(final String[] args) { context = new ClassPathXmlApplicationContext("/META-INF/spring/applicationContext.xml"); try { @SuppressWarnings("unused") TestBatch app = new TestBatch(); } catch (Exception ex) { ex.printStackTrace(); } } public void TestBatch() { /** Do Something using the context **/ } } And here's the log and exception: 2010-02-16 11:54:16,072 [main] INFO org.springframework.context.support.ClassPathXmlApplicationContext - Refreshing org.springframework.context.support.ClassPathXmlApplicationContext@6037fb1e: startup date [Tue Feb 16 11:54:16 CET 2010]; root of context hierarchy Exception in thread "main" java.lang.ExceptionInInitializerError at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractRefreshableApplicationContext.createBeanFactory(AbstractRefreshableApplicationContext.java:194) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractRefreshableApplicationContext.refreshBeanFactory(AbstractRefreshableApplicationContext.java:127) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractApplicationContext.obtainFreshBeanFactory(AbstractApplicationContext.java:458) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractApplicationContext.refresh(AbstractApplicationContext.java:388) at org.springframework.context.support.ClassPathXmlApplicationContext.<init>(ClassPathXmlApplicationContext.java:139) at org.springframework.context.support.ClassPathXmlApplicationContext.<init>(ClassPathXmlApplicationContext.java:83) at tld.mydomain.myproject.batch.TestBatch.main(TestBatch.java:51) Caused by: java.lang.NullPointerException at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.DefaultListableBeanFactory.<clinit>(DefaultListableBeanFactory.java:103) ... 7 more Any idea or hints as to what's going on? My classpath is set to $PROJECTHOME/target/classes, and all my dependencies are in $PROJECTHOME/target/lib, and I execute using "export CLASSPATH=$PROJECTHOME/target/classes; java -Djava.endorsed.dirs=$PROJECTHOME/target/lib tld.mydomain.myproject.batch.TestBatch" Is there anything in my setup that looks very wrong? When I run this from Eclipse, no problems, but when I deploy it on the server where I want to run it and run it as described above, I get this problem. Because it runs from Eclipse, I believe my config files are all right, but how can I debug what's causing this? Perhaps I have some config errors or a mismatch between the server and the development workstation after all? Or is this a really weird way of saying file not found, and if so, how do I make sure it finds the correct file?? I'm really looking forward to hearing your suggestions as to how to tackle this problem. Cheers Nik

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  • Writing a Servlet that checks to see if JSP's exist and forwards to another JSP if they aren't

    - by Omar Kooheji
    I've beeb tasked with writing a servlet that intercepts a call to and JSP in a specific directoy, check that the file exists and if it does just forwarding to that file, if if doesn't I'm to forward to a default JSP. I've setup the web.xml as follows: <servlet> <description>This is the description of my J2EE component</description> <display-name>This is the display name of my J2EE component</display-name> <servlet-name>CustomJSPListener</servlet-name> <servlet-class> ... CustomJSPListener</servlet-class> <load-on-startup>1</load-on-startup> </servlet> ... <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>CustomJSPListener</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/custom/*</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> And the doGet method of the servlet is as follows: public void doPost(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException, IOException { logger.debug(String.format("Intercepted a request for an item in the custom directory [%s]",request.getRequestURL().toString())); String requestUri = request.getRequestURI(); // Check that the file name contains a text string if (requestUri.toLowerCase(Locale.UK).contains("someText")){ logger.debug(String.format("We are interested in this file [%s]",requestUri)); File file = new File(requestUri); boolean fileExists = file.exists(); logger.debug(String.format("Checking to see if file [%s] exists [%s].",requestUri,fileExists)); // if the file exists just forward it to the file if (fileExists){ getServletConfig().getServletContext().getRequestDispatcher( requestUri).forward(request,response); } else { // Otherwise redirect to default.jsp getServletConfig().getServletContext().getRequestDispatcher( "/custom/default.jsp").forward(request,response); } } else { // We aren't responsible for checking this file exists just pass it on to the requeseted jsp getServletConfig().getServletContext().getRequestDispatcher( requestUri).forward(request,response); } } This seems to result in an error 500 from tomcat, I think this is because the servlet is redirecting to the same folder which is then being intercepted again by the servlet, resulting in an infinite loop. Is there a better way to do this? I'm lead to believe that I could use filters to do this, but I don't know very much about them.

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  • Problem getting ar_mailer/ar_sendmail working on new server

    - by Max Williams
    Hey all. I've got a new app up and running on a new ubuntu server. It's working fine generally but i can't get ar_sendmail working. I'm following the instructions on this page: http://www.ameravant.com/posts/sending-tons-of-emails-in-ruby-on-rails-with-ar_mailer The setup is all done, ie i can "deliver mails" which just saves records in my Email table. Now i want to get the ar_sendmail daemon running to actually send them. (so i'm at 'Running ar_sendmail in daemon mode' in that web page). First thing: ar_sendmail --mailq >>ar_sendmail: command not found Ok...so, where is ar_sendmail? I have a look and there's an ar_sendmail file in the bin folder of the ar_mailer plugin, so i add the location of that to my path. I don't know if this was the right thing to do or not. Ok, so try again. ar_sendmail --mailq /var/www/apps/millionaire/vendor/plugins/ar_mailer/bin/ar_sendmail:3:in `require': no such file to load -- action_mailer/ar_sendmail (LoadError) from /var/www/apps/millionaire/vendor/plugins/ar_mailer/bin/ar_sendmail:3 hmm. Here's the offending file, there's not much there. #!/usr/bin/env ruby require 'action_mailer/ar_sendmail' ActionMailer::ARSendmail.run ok...so it literally is just trying to require this and can't find it. The file, action_mailer/ar_sendmail.rb is in the ar_mailer plugin, in it's lib folder. So, given that it's being called from inside the plugin, it should be able to see this right? I've got a feeling that i'm way off the track here and have missed something simple. Can anyone set me straight? I'm using rails 2.3.4 in case that's relevant. EDIT - i just realised something kind of dumb: when i call ar_sendmail from the command line like this, i'm just loading that one file, which doesn't know where it's supposed to look for the rest of the stuff, i think. Which really makes me think that i'm not trying to run the right thing. Is the ar_sendmail daemon a seperate program altogether, that i would get with apt_get or something? EDIT2 - i made some progress by installing the ar_mailer gem (which the guide said i shouldn't do) and that does seem to run. It's sending some mail request somewhere and clearing the Email table of pending emails. Running ar_sendmail in -ov (oneshot verbal) mode i see it report this for example: sent email 00000000019 from [email protected] to [email protected]: # So, it actually looks like it's working now and i just need to set up the ACTUAL THING WHICH SENDS EMAILS. sigh. still grateful for any advice. thanks, max

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  • How to write this Linq SQL as a Dynamic Query (using strings)?

    - by Dr. Zim
    Skip to the "specific question" as needed. Some background: The scenario: I have a set of products with a "drill down" filter (Query Object) populated with DDLs. Each progressive DDL selection will further limit the product list as well as what options are left for the DDLs. For example, selecting a hammer out of tools limits the Product Sizes to only show hammer sizes. Current setup: I created a query object, sent it to a repository, and fed each option to a SQL "table valued function" where null values represent "get all products". I consider this a good effort, but far from DDD acceptable. I want to avoid any "programming" in SQL, hopefully doing everything with a repository. Comments on this topic would be appreciated. Specific question: How would I rewrite this query as a Dynamic Query? A link to something like 101 Linq Examples would be fantastic, but with a Dynamic Query scope. I really want to pass to this method the field in quotes "" for which I want a list of options and how many products have that option. from p in db.Products group p by p.ProductSize into g select new Category { PropertyType = g.Key, Count = g.Count() } Each DDL option will have "The selection (21)" where the (21) is the quantity of products that have that attribute. Upon selecting an option, all other remaining DDLs will update with the remaining options and counts. Edit: Additional notes: .OrderBy("it.City") // "it" refers to the entire record .GroupBy("City", "new(City)") // This produces a unique list of City .Select("it.Count()") //This gives a list of counts... getting closer .Select("key") // Selects a list of unique City .Select("new (key, count() as string)") // +1 to me LOL. key is a row of group .GroupBy("new (City, Manufacturer)", "City") // New = list of fields to group by .GroupBy("City", "new (Manufacturer, Size)") // Second parameter is a projection Product .Where("ProductType == @0", "Maps") .GroupBy("new(City)", "new ( null as string)")// Projection not available later? .Select("new (key.City, it.count() as string)")// GroupBy new makes key an object Product .Where("ProductType == @0", "Maps") .GroupBy("new(City)", "new ( null as string)")// Projection not available later? .Select("new (key.City, it as object)")// the it object is the result of GroupBy var a = Product .Where("ProductType == @0", "Maps") .GroupBy("@0", "it", "City") // This fails to group Product at all .Select("new ( Key, it as Product )"); // "it" is property cast though What I have learned so far is LinqPad is fantastic, but still looking for an answer. Eventually, completely random research like this will prevail I guess. LOL. Edit:

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  • Trouble cross-referencing two XML child nodes in AS3

    - by Dwayne
    I am building a mini language translator out of XML nodes and Actionscript 3. I have my XML ready. It contains a series of nodes with two children in them. Here is a sample: <translations> <entry> <english>man</english> <cockney>geeza</cockney> </entry> <entry> <english>woman</english> <cockney>lily</cockney> </entry> </translations> The AS3 part consist of one input box named "textfield_txt" where the English word will be typed in. An output text field for the translation called "cockney_txt". Finally, one button to execute the translation called "generate_mc". The idea is to have actionscript look through the XML for key English words after the user types it in the "textfield", cross-freferences the children then returns the Cockney translation as a value. The trouble is, when I test it I get no response or error messages- it's completely silent. I'm not sure what I'm doing wrong. At present, I have setup a conditional statement to tell me whether the function works or not. The result is, no it's not! Here's the code below. I hope someone can help. Cheers! generate_mc.buttonMode=true; var English:String; var myXML:XML; var myLoader:URLLoader = new URLLoader(); myLoader.load(new URLRequest("Language.xml")); myLoader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, processXML); function processXML(e:Event):void { myXML = new XML(e.target.data); } generate_mc.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, onClick); function onClick(event:MouseEvent) { English = textfield.text; cockney_txt.text = myXML.translations.entry.cockney; if(textfield.text.toLowerCase() == myXML.translations.entry.english.toLowerCase){ //return myXML.translations.entry.cockney; trace("success"); }else{ trace("try again!"); // ***I get this as a result } }

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  • Is this a situation where Qt Model/View architecture is not useful?

    - by csmithmaui
    Hi, I am writing a GUI based application where I read a string of values from serial port every few seconds and I need to display most of the values in some type graphical indicator(I was thinking of QprogressBar maybe) that displays the range and the value. Some of the other data that I am parsing from the string are the date and fault codes. Also, the data is hierarchical. I wanted to use the model/view architecture of Qt because I have been interested in MVC stuff for a while but have never quite wrapped my brain around how to implement it very well. As of now, I have subclassed QAbstractItemModel and in the model I read the serial port and wrap the items parsed from the string in a Tree data structure. I can view all of the data in a QtreeView with no issues. I have also began to subclass QAbstractItemView to build my custom view with all of the Graphical Indicators and such. This is where I am getting stuck. It seems to me that in order for me to design a view that knows how to display my custom model the view needs to know exactly how all of the data in the model is organized. Doesn't that defeat the purpose of Model/View? The QTreeView I tested the model with is basically just displaying the model as it is setup in the Tree structure but I don't want to do that because the data is not all of the same type. Is the type of data or the way you would like to present it to the user a determining factor in whether or not you should use this architecture? I always assumed it was just always better to design in an MVC style. It seems to me like it might have been better to just subclass QWidget and then read in from the serial port and update all of subwidgets(graphical indicators, labels, etc...) from the subclass. Essentially, do everything in one class. Does anybody understand this issue that can explain to me either what I am missing or why I shouldn't be doing it this way. As of now I am a little confused. Thanks so much for any help!

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  • Map One-To-One Relationship Doesn't Allow Inserting

    - by nfplee
    Hi, I'm trying to setup a one-to-one mapping from my Users to the UserDetails table. Say I have the following tables in my database: Users: - UserID (PK, Identity) - UserName - Password UsersDetails: - UserID (PK, FK) - FirstName - LastName I have created the following poco classes: public class User { public virtual int UserID { get; set; } public virtual string UserName { get; set; } public virtual string Password { get; set; } public virtual UserDetails Details { get; set; } } public class UserDetails { public virtual int UserID { get; set; } public virtual User User { get; set; } public virtual string FirstName { get; set; } public virtual string LastName { get; set; } public UserDetails() { } public UserDetails(User user) { User = user; } } Which are fluently mapped (please note the xml mapping is very similar and if all you know is the xml mapping then I would still appreciate you guidance): public class UserMap : ClassMap<User> { public UserMap() { Table("Users"); Id(x => x.UserID); Map(x => x.UserName); Map(x => x.Password); HasOne(x => x.Details) .Constrained() .Cascade.All(); } } public class UserDetailsMap : ClassMap<UserDetails> { public UserDetailsMap() { Table("UsersDetails"); Id(x => x.UserID) .GeneratedBy.Foreign("User"); HasOne(x => x.User) .Constrained(); Map(x => x.FirstName); Map(x => x.LastName); } } Everything displays correctly but if I say: var user = new User() { UserName = "Test", Password = "Test" }; user.Details = new UserDetails(user) { FirstName = "Test", LastName = "Test" }; session.Save(user); I get the error: "NHibernate.Id.IdentifierGenerationException: null id generated for: UserDetails." I'd really appreciate it if someone could show me what I've done wrong. Thanks

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  • github like workflow on private server over ssh

    - by Jesse
    I have an server (available via ssh) on the internet that my friend and I use for working on projects together. We have started using git for source control. Our setup currently is as follows: Friend created repository on server with git init named project.friend.git I cloned project.friend.git on server to project.jesse.git I then cloned project.jesse.git on server to my local machine using git clone jesse@server:/git_repos/project.jesse.git I work on my local machine and commit to the local machine. When I want to push my changes to the project.jesse.git on server I use git push origin master. My friend is working on project.friend.git. When I want to get his changes I do pull jesse@server:/git_repos/project.friend.git. Everything seems to be working fine, however, I am now getting the following error when I do git push origin master: localpc:project.jesse jesse$ git push origin master Counting objects: 100, done. Delta compression using up to 2 threads. Compressing objects: 100% (76/76), done. Writing objects: 100% (76/76), 15.98 KiB, done. Total 76 (delta 50), reused 0 (delta 0) warning: updating the current branch warning: Updating the currently checked out branch may cause confusion, warning: as the index and work tree do not reflect changes that are in HEAD. warning: As a result, you may see the changes you just pushed into it warning: reverted when you run 'git diff' over there, and you may want warning: to run 'git reset --hard' before starting to work to recover. warning: warning: You can set 'receive.denyCurrentBranch' configuration variable to warning: 'refuse' in the remote repository to forbid pushing into its warning: current branch. warning: To allow pushing into the current branch, you can set it to 'ignore'; warning: but this is not recommended unless you arranged to update its work warning: tree to match what you pushed in some other way. warning: warning: To squelch this message, you can set it to 'warn'. warning: warning: Note that the default will change in a future version of git warning: to refuse updating the current branch unless you have the warning: configuration variable set to either 'ignore' or 'warn'. To jesse@server:/git_repos/project.jesse.git c455cb7..e9ec677 master -> master Is this warning anything I need to be worried about? Like I said, everything seems to be working. My friend is able to pull my changes in from my branch. I have the clone on the server so he can access it since he does not have access to my local machine. Is there something that could be done better? Thanks!

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  • Am I using EJBs properly?

    - by kgrad
    I am using a JEE6 stack including JPA 2.0, JSF 2.0, EJB 3.1 etc. The way my architecture is setup is the following: I have JPA annotated DAOs using hibernate as my JPA provider. I have JSF Managed beans which correspond to my facelet/xhtml pages. I have EJBs that handle all of my database requests. My XHTML pages have JSF EL which make calls to my Managed beans. My managed beans contain references to my DAO entities which are managed by EJBs. For example, I have a user entity which is mapped to a db table. I have a user EJB which handles all CRUD operations that return Users. I have a page that edits a user. The highlevel workflow would be: navigate to user edit page - EL calls a method located in the managed bean that loads a user. The method calls userEJB.loadUser(user) from the EJB to get the user from the database. The user is edited and submit - a function is called in the managed bean which calls a function in the EJB to save the user. etc. I am running into issues accessing my data within my JSF pages using EJBs. I am having a lot of problems with lazy initialization errors, which I believe is due to how I have set things up. For example, I have a Client entity that has a List of users which are lazily loaded. In order to get a client I call a method in my EJB which goes to the database, finds a client and returns it. Later on i wish to access this clients list of users, in order to do so i have to go back to the EJB by calling some sort of method in order to load those users (since they are lazily loaded). This means that I have to create a method such as public List<User> getUserListByClient(Client c) { c = em.merge(c); return c.getUserList(); } The only purpose of this method is to load the users (and I'm not even positive this approach is good or works). If i was doing session management myself, I would like just leave the session open for the entire request and access the property directly, this would be fine as the session would be open anyway, there seems to be this one extra layer of indirection in EJBs which is making things difficult for me. I do like EJBs as I like the fact that they are controlled by the container, pooled, offer transaction management for free etc. However, I get the feeling that I am using them incorrectly, or I have set up my JSF app incorrectly. Any feedback would be greatly appreciated. thanks,

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  • Hide button on first of two UIViews, but have it visible on second...

    - by Scott
    So I have a UIViewController (main application controller is a TabBarController). On this there is a UINavigationBar, and a UIBarButtonItem. I'm PRETTY sure I hooked up everything correctly in the Interface Builder and that the outlet in the code is connected to the button in the .xib. It should be because the method works correctly. Now I have another button on this view that brings up a second view, a UIWebView. I want this UIBarButtonItem, labeled "Back", to make the UIWebView dissapear, and bring back the first UIView, which it DOES DO correctly. However, when you are on the first UIView, there is no need to see the UIBarButtonItem, so how can I hide it but then bring it up for the UIWebView. By the way, both views use the same UINavigationBar, the UIWebView is brought up inside the tab bar and the nav bar. Here is my code: #import "WebViewController.h" @implementation WebViewController @synthesize webButton; @synthesize item; @synthesize infoView; UIWebView *webView; + (UIColor*)myColor1 { return [UIColor colorWithRed:0.0f/255.0f green:76.0f/255.0f blue:29.0f/255.0f alpha:1.0f]; } // Creates Nav Bar with default Green at top of screen with given String as title + (UINavigationBar*)myNavBar1: (NSString*)input { UIView *test = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:[[UIScreen mainScreen] applicationFrame]]; UINavigationBar *navBar = [[UINavigationBar alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0.0, 0.0, test.bounds.size.width, 45)]; navBar.tintColor = [WebViewController myColor1]; UINavigationItem *navItem; navItem = [UINavigationItem alloc]; navItem.title = input; [navBar pushNavigationItem:navItem animated:false]; return navBar; } - (IBAction) pushWebButton { self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = item; CGRect webFrame = CGRectMake(0.0, 45.0, 320.0, 365.0); webView = [[UIWebView alloc] initWithFrame:webFrame]; [webView setBackgroundColor:[UIColor whiteColor]]; NSString *urlAddress = @"http://www.independencenavigator.com"; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:urlAddress]; NSURLRequest *requestObj = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; webView.scalesPageToFit = YES; [webView loadRequest:requestObj]; [self.view addSubview:webView]; [webView release]; } - (void) pushBackButton { [webView removeFromSuperview]; } // Implement viewDidLoad to do additional setup after loading the view, typically from a nib. - (void)viewDidLoad { self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = nil; [super viewDidLoad]; } @end Anyone know?

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  • Speed Problem with Wireless Connectivity on Cisco 877w

    - by Carl Crawley
    Having a bit of a weird one with my local LAN setup. I recently installed a Cisco 877W router on my DSL2+ connection and all is working really well.. Upgraded the IOS to 12.4 and my wired clients are streaming connectivity superfast at 1.3mb/s. However, there seems to be an issue with my wireless clients - I can't seem to stream any data across the local wireless connection (LAN) and using the Internet, whilst responsive enough isn't really comparable with the wired connection speed. For example, all devices are connected to an 8 Port Gb switch on FE0 from the Router with a NAS disk and on my wired clients, I can transfer/stream etc absolutely fine - however, transferring a local 700Mb file on my local LAN estimates 7-8 hours to transfer :( The Wireless config is as follows : interface Dot11Radio0 description WIRELESS INTERFACE no ip address ! encryption mode ciphers tkip ! ssid [MySSID] ! speed basic-1.0 basic-2.0 basic-5.5 6.0 9.0 basic-11.0 channel 2462 station-role root rts threshold 2312 world-mode dot11d country GB indoor bridge-group 1 bridge-group 1 subscriber-loop-control bridge-group 1 spanning-disabled bridge-group 1 block-unknown-source no bridge-group 1 source-learning no bridge-group 1 unicast-flooding All devices are connected to the Gb Switch which is connected to FE0 with the following: Hardware is Fast Ethernet, address is 0021.a03e.6519 (bia 0021.a03e.6519) Description: Uplink to Switch MTU 1500 bytes, BW 100000 Kbit/sec, DLY 100 usec, reliability 255/255, txload 1/255, rxload 1/255 Encapsulation ARPA, loopback not set Keepalive set (10 sec) Full-duplex, 100Mb/s ARP type: ARPA, ARP Timeout 04:00:00 Last input never, output never, output hang never Last clearing of "show interface" counters never Input queue: 0/75/0/0 (size/max/drops/flushes); Total output drops: 0 Queueing strategy: fifo Output queue: 0/40 (size/max) 5 minute input rate 14000 bits/sec, 19 packets/sec 5 minute output rate 167000 bits/sec, 23 packets/sec 177365 packets input, 52089562 bytes, 0 no buffer Received 919 broadcasts, 0 runts, 0 giants, 0 throttles 260 input errors, 260 CRC, 0 frame, 0 overrun, 0 ignored 0 input packets with dribble condition detected 156673 packets output, 106218222 bytes, 0 underruns 0 output errors, 0 collisions, 2 interface resets 0 babbles, 0 late collision, 0 deferred 0 lost carrier, 0 no carrier 0 output buffer failures, 0 output buffers swapped out Not sure why I'm having problems on the wireless and I've reached the end of my Cisco knowledge... Thanks for any pointers! Carl

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  • Simple reminder for Android

    - by anta40
    I'm trying to make a simple timer. package com.anta40.reminder; import java.util.Timer; import java.util.TimerTask; import android.app.Activity; import android.os.Bundle; import android.widget.RadioGroup; import android.widget.TabHost; import android.widget.TextView; import android.widget.RadioGroup.OnCheckedChangeListener; import android.widget.TabHost.TabSpec; public class Reminder extends Activity{ public final int TIMER_DELAY = 1000; public final int TIMER_ONE_MINUTE = 60000; public final int TIMER_ONE_SECOND = 1000; Timer timer; TimerTask task; TextView tv; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle icicle) { super.onCreate(icicle); setContentView(R.layout.main); timer = new Timer(); task = new TimerTask() { @Override public void run() { tv = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.textview1); tv.setText("BOOM!!!!"); tv.setVisibility(TextView.VISIBLE); try { this.wait(TIMER_DELAY); } catch (InterruptedException e){ } tv.setVisibility(TextView.INVISIBLE); } }; TabHost tabs=(TabHost)findViewById(R.id.tabhost); tabs.setup(); TabSpec spec = tabs.newTabSpec("tag1"); spec.setContent(R.id.tab1); spec.setIndicator("Clock"); tabs.addTab(spec); spec=tabs.newTabSpec("tag2"); spec.setContent(R.id.tab2); spec.setIndicator("Settings"); tabs.addTab(spec); tabs.setCurrentTab(0); RadioGroup rgroup = (RadioGroup) findViewById(R.id.rgroup); rgroup.setOnCheckedChangeListener(new OnCheckedChangeListener() { @Override public void onCheckedChanged(RadioGroup group, int checkedId) { if (checkedId == R.id.om){ timer.schedule(task, TIMER_DELAY, 3*TIMER_ONE_SECOND); } else if (checkedId == R.id.twm){ timer.schedule(task, TIMER_DELAY, 6*TIMER_ONE_SECOND); } else if (checkedId == R.id.thm){ timer.schedule(task, TIMER_DELAY, 9*TIMER_ONE_SECOND); } } }); } } Each time I click a radio button, the timer should start, right? But why it doesn't start?

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  • iPhone: value of selectedIndex for tab should be consistent, but isn't

    - by Janine
    This should be so simple... but something screwy is happening. My setup looks like this: MainViewController Tab Bar Controller 4 tabs, each of which loads WebViewController My AppDelegate contains an ivar, tabBarController, which is connected to the tab bar controller (this was all set up in Interface Builder). The leftmost tab is marked "selected" in IB. Within the viewWillAppear method in WebViewController, I need to know which tab was just selected so I can load the correct URL. I do this by switching on appDelegate.tabBarController.selectedIndex. When the app first runs and the leftmost tab is selected, selectedIndex is a large garbage value. After that, I get values from 0 to 3, which is as it should be, but they are in random order. Not only that, but each tab I touch reports a different value each time. This app is extremely simple right now and I can't imagine what I could have done to make things go this wrong. Has anyone seen (and hopefully solved) this behavior? Update: we have a request for code. There's not much to see. The tab bar controller gets loaded in applicationDidFinishLaunching: [self.mainViewController view]; //force nib to load [self.window addSubview:self.mainViewController.tabBarController.view] There is currently no code whatsoever in MainViewController.m other than the synthesize and release for tabBarController. From WebVewController.m: - (void)viewWillAppear:(BOOL)_animation { [super viewWillAppear:_animation]; NSURL *url; switch([S_UIDelegate mainViewController].tabBarController.selectedIndex) { case 0: url = [NSURL URLWithString:@"http://www.cnn.com"]; break; case 1: url = [NSURL URLWithString:@"http://www.facebook.com"]; break; case 2: url = [NSURL URLWithString:@"http://www.twitter.com"]; break; case 3: url = [NSURL URLWithString:@"http://www.google.com"]; break; default: url = [NSURL URLWithString:@"http://www.msnbc.com"]; } NSURLRequest *request = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; [webView loadRequest:request]; } This is where I'm seeing the random values.

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  • How to get jQuery to work with Prototype

    - by thinkfuture
    Ok so here is the situation. Been pulling my hair out on this one. I'm a noob at this. Only been using rails for about 6 weeks. I'm using the standard setup package, and my code leverages prototype helpers heavily. Like I said, noob ;) So I'm trying to put in some jQuery effects, like PrettyPhoto. But what happens is that when the page is first loaded, PrettyPhoto works great. However, once someone uses a Prototype helper, like a link created with link_to_remote, Prettyphoto stops working. I've tried jRails, all of the fixes proposed on the JQuery site to stop conflicts... http://docs.jquery.com/Using_jQuery_with_Other_Libraries ...even done some crazy things likes renaming all of the $ in prototype.js to $$$ to no avail. Either the prototype helpers break, or jQuery breaks. Seems nothing I do can get these to work together. Any ideas? Here is part of my application.html.erb <%= javascript_include_tag 'application' %> <%= javascript_include_tag 'tooltip' %> <%= javascript_include_tag 'jquery' %> <%= javascript_include_tag 'jquery-ui' %> <%= javascript_include_tag "jquery.prettyPhoto" %> <%= javascript_include_tag 'prototype' %> <%= javascript_include_tag 'scriptalicious' %> </head> <body> <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> jQuery(document).ready( function() { jQuery("a[rel^='prettyPhoto']").prettyPhoto(); }); </script> If I put prototype before jquery, the prototype helpers don't work If I put the noconflict clause in, neither works. Thanks in advance! Chris BTW: when I try this, from the jQuery site: <script> jQuery.noConflict(); // Use jQuery via jQuery(...) jQuery(document).ready(function(){ jQuery("div").hide(); }); // Use Prototype with $(...), etc. $('someid').hide(); </script> my page disappears!

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  • Would Apache running on port 8080 prevent dynamically loaded scripts in JavaScript?

    - by editor
    Had a nice PHP/HTML/JS prototype working on my personal Linode, then tried to throw it into a work machine. The page adds a script tag dynamically with some JavaScript. It's a bunch of Google charts that update based on different timeslices. That code looks something like this: // jQuery $.post to send the beginning and end timestamps $.post("channel_functions.php", data_to_post, function(data){ // the data that's returned is the javascript I want to load var script = document.createElement('script'); var head= document.getElementsByTagName('head')[0]; var script= document.createElement('script'); var text = document.createTextNode(data); script.type= 'text/javascript'; script.id = 'chart_data'; script.appendChild(text); // Adding script tag to page head.appendChild(script); // Call the function I know were present in the script tag loadTheCharts(); }); function loadTheCharts() { // These are the functions that were loaded dynamically // By this point the script tag is supposed be loaded, added and eval'd function1(); function2(); } Function1() and function2() don't exist until they get added to the dom, but I don't call loadTheCharts() until after the $.post has run so this doesn't seem to be a problem. I'm one of those dirty PHP coders you mother warned you about, so I'm not well versed in JavaScript beyond what I've read in the typical go-to O'Reilly books. But this code worked fine on my personal dev server, so I'm wondering why it wouldn't work on this new machine. The only difference in setup, from what I can tell, is that the new machine is running on port 8080, so it's 192.168.blah.blah:8080/index.php instead of nicedomain.com/index.php. I see the code was indeed added to the dom when I use webmaster tools to "view generated source" but in Firebug I get an error like "function2() is undefined" even though my understanding was that all script tags are eval'ed when added to . My question: Given what I've laid out, and that the machine is running on :8080, is there a reason anyone can think of as to why a dynamically loaded function like function2() would be defined on the Linode and not on the machine running Apache on 8080?

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  • Creating same-width hit-zones on MenuItems in ASP.NET 2.0 Menus that include MenuItems added at runt

    - by Cary Jensen
    In an ASP.NET 2.0 application, I want to permit a user to select a MenuItem, even if the user does not click the actual text of the MenuItem, but instead only clicks the highlight area that ASP.NET places around the currently selected MenuItem (represented by the DynamicHoverStyle.BackColor property). Since the BackColor is displayed the same width for each MenuItem in a submenu, based on MenuItem with the longest text, I would like to make the hit-zone (clickable area) of each sub-MenuItem the same width (same at the BackColor area), regardless of how much text is displayed in the in each individual sub-MenuItem. Here's the setup. I am using a Menu on a MasterPage to display a similar menu on each of my pages. Some of the pages suppress this menu, and some of them add addition MenuItems, sometimes to the top level, sometimes adding sub-MenuItems to an existing top-level MenuItem, and sometimes both (adding a MenuItem to the top level and then additional MenuItems as submenuitems to that newly added top level. This menu has a horizontal orientation, and it is dynamic, in that only the top level is initially exposed, and the submenus are displayed when selected. During usability testing, we noticed that users would select a top-level menu item to expose the submenu, and then select a submenu item, but not by necessarily clicking on the submenu item text, but instead clicking on the BackColor area of the submenu item. Since the text of some MenuItems are longer than others, MenuItems with short Text have a rather large BackColor area. When the user clicks on the BackColor area, but not directly on the MenuItem Text, nothing happens, since the user didn't actually click on the submenu item hit zone. Although there are visual cues as to what part of the displayed MenuItem is clickable (the mouse pointer changes to a link cursor when the mouse is positioned on the MenuItem Text, but not when it is only hovering over the BackColor), this behavior confused the users. They highlighted a MenuItem, and clicked it, but nothing happened. I would to make clicking a MenuItem successful, even if the user did not click on the actual Text of the MenuItem, but simply click on the BackColor area. It seems like there should be a property somewhere to control the width of the active area of the displayed MenuItems, but I do not see it. Any suggestions, given that I am creating some of these MenuItems at runtime?

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  • compiling opencv 2.4 on a 64 bit mac in Xcode

    - by Walt
    I have an opencv project that I've been developing under ubuntu 12.04, on a parellels VM on a mac which has an x86_64 architecture. There have been many screen switching performance issues that I believe are due to the VM, where linux video modes flip around for a couple seconds while camera access is made by the opencv application. I decided to moved the project into Xcode on the mac side of the computer to continue the opencv development. However, I'm not that familiar with xcode and am having trouble getting the project to build correctly there. I have xcode installed. I downloaded and decompressed the latest version of opencv on the mac, and ran: ~/src/opencv/build/cmake-gui -G Xcode .. per the instructions from willowgarage and various other locations. This appeared to work fine (however I'm wondering now if I'm missing an architecture setting in here, although it is 64-bit intel in Xcode). I then setup an xcode project with the source files from the linux project and changed the include directories to use /opt/local/include/... rather than the /usr/local/include/... I switched xcode to use the LLVM GCC compiler in the build settings for the project then set the Apple LLVM Dialog for C++ to Language Dialect to GNU++11 (which seems possibly inconsistant with the line above) I'm not using a makefile in xcode, (that I'm aware of - it has its own project file...) I was also running into a linker issue that looked like they may be resolved with the addition of this linker flag: -lopencv_video based on a similar posting here: other thread however in that case the person was using a Makefile in their project. I've tried adding this linker flag under "Other Linker Flags" in xcode build settings but still get build errors. I think I may have two issues here, one with the architecture settings when building the opencv libraries with Cmake, and one with the linker flag settings in my project. Currently the build error list looks like this: Undefined symbols for architecture x86_64: "cv::_InputArray::_InputArray(cv::Mat const&)", referenced from: _main in main.o "cv::_OutputArray::_OutputArray(cv::Mat&)", referenced from: _main in main.o "cv::Mat::deallocate()", referenced from: cv::Mat::release() in main.o "cv::Mat::copySize(cv::Mat const&)", referenced from: cv::Mat::Mat(cv::Mat const&)in main.o cv::Mat::operator=(cv::Mat const&)in main.o "cv::Mat::Mat(_IplImage const*, bool)", referenced from: _main in main.o "cv::imread(std::basic_string<char, std::char_traits<char>, std::allocator<char> > const&, int)", referenced from: _main in main.o ---SNIP--- ld: symbol(s) not found for architecture x86_64 collect2: ld returned 1 exit status Can anyone provide some guidance on what to try next? Thanks, Walt

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  • Marshal.PtrToStructure (and back again) and generic solution for endianness swapping

    - by cgyDeveloper
    I have a system where a remote agent sends serialized structures (from and embedded C system) for me to read and store via IP/UDP. In some cases I need to send back the same structure types. I thought I had a nice setup using Marshal.PtrToStructure (receive) and Marshal.StructureToPtr (send). However, a small gotcha is that the network big endian integers need to be converted to my x86 little endian format to be used locally. When I'm sending them off again, big endian is the way to go. Here are the functions in question: private static T BytesToStruct<T>(ref byte[] rawData) where T: struct { T result = default(T); GCHandle handle = GCHandle.Alloc(rawData, GCHandleType.Pinned); try { IntPtr rawDataPtr = handle.AddrOfPinnedObject(); result = (T)Marshal.PtrToStructure(rawDataPtr, typeof(T)); } finally { handle.Free(); } return result; } private static byte[] StructToBytes<T>(T data) where T: struct { byte[] rawData = new byte[Marshal.SizeOf(data)]; GCHandle handle = GCHandle.Alloc(rawData, GCHandleType.Pinned); try { IntPtr rawDataPtr = handle.AddrOfPinnedObject(); Marshal.StructureToPtr(data, rawDataPtr, false); } finally { handle.Free(); } return rawData; } And a quick example structure that might be used like this: byte[] data = this.sock.Receive(ref this.ipep); Request request = BytesToStruct<Request>(ref data); Where the structure in question looks like: [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential, CharSet = CharSet.Ansi, Pack = 1)] private struct Request { public byte type; public short sequence; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.ByValArray, SizeConst = 5)] public byte[] address; } What (generic) way can I swap the endianness when marshalling the structures? My need is such that the locally stored 'public short sequence' in this example will be little-endian for displaying to the user. I don't want to have to swap the endianness on a structure-specific way. My first thought was to use Reflection, but I'm not very familiar with that feature. Also, I hoped that there would be a better solution out there that somebody could point me towards. Thanks in advance :)

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  • Flipping PDF pages in QuartzDemo application

    - by BittenApple
    I am working on modifying the quartzdemo application so that it can show another page from a multipage pdf on tap screen event. So far I have stripped it down to the point where it displays the PDF on any page as initial page, but I can't seem to get it figured out how to make the quartzview display anything else then the initial page. I'm guessing that the pushViewController has something to do with this. Anyway, here's my method that draws the initial page and in sits in QuartzImages.m file: -(void)drawNewPage:(CGContextRef)myContext { CGContextTranslateCTM(myContext, 0.0, self.bounds.size.height); CGContextScaleCTM(myContext, 1.0, -1.0); CGContextSetRGBFillColor(myContext, 255, 255, 255, 1); CGContextFillRect(myContext, CGRectMake(0, 0, 320, 412)); CGPDFPageRef page = CGPDFDocumentGetPage(pdfFajl, pageNumber); CGContextSaveGState(myContext); CGAffineTransform pdfTransform = CGPDFPageGetDrawingTransform(page, kCGPDFCropBox, self.bounds, 0, true); CGContextConcatCTM(myContext, pdfTransform); CGContextDrawPDFPage(myContext, page); CGContextRestoreGState(myContext); } This gets fired up in MainViewController.m so: - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { // ### DISPLAY DESIRED PAGE QuartzViewController *targetViewController = [self controllerAtIndexPath:indexPath]; if ([targetViewController.quartzView isKindOfClass:[QuartzPDFView1 class]]) { ((QuartzPDFView1 *)targetViewController.quartzView).pageNumber = 1; CFURLRef pdfURL = CFBundleCopyResourceURL(CFBundleGetMainBundle(), CFSTR("mypdftest.pdf"), NULL, NULL); ((QuartzPDFView1 *)targetViewController.quartzView).pdfFajl = CGPDFDocumentCreateWithURL((CFURLRef)pdfURL); CFRelease(pdfURL); } [[self navigationController] pushViewController:targetViewController animated:YES]; } Since I'm fairly new to the iPhone development (I'm currently only on page 123 in "beginning iphone 3 development" book) these controllers confuse me as hell. I have setup an event which gets fired up fine on screen tap. The event sits in QuartzView.m and I get a simple alert on screen tap showing that the tap was registered. I would like to use this method to draw a new page instead of showing the alert, page number doesn't matter, I'll work on incrementing (page flipping) later, I need an example of how to call these methods (if its even possible). These are defined in QuartzView.h and I planned on using them in the tap event method: CGPDFDocumentRef pdfFajl; int pageNumber; Thankful for any useful input from "the internets" :)

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