Search Results

Search found 16467 results on 659 pages for 'request filtering'.

Page 583/659 | < Previous Page | 579 580 581 582 583 584 585 586 587 588 589 590  | Next Page >

  • Cant seem to get CSS working on an appended table

    - by battlenub
    I have an ajax request to a php file returning me rows of 3 values each. I want to append these into a table. This works. I get my info in my table but I can't seem to add classes or id's and get some styling on it. http://jsfiddle.net/AKh4n/1/ success : function(data) { $('#lijstbeh').empty(); var data2 = jQuery.parseJSON(data); $('#lijstbeh').append('<table class="table">'); $('#lijstbeh').append('<tr>'); $('#lijstbeh').append('<th>Behandeling ID</th>'); $('#lijstbeh').append('<th>Behandeling kort</th>'); $('#lijstbeh').append('<th>Behandeling datum</th>'); $('#lijstbeh').append('</tr>'); $.each (data2,function (bb) { $('#lijstbeh').append('<tr class="tblbehandelingen">'); $('#lijstbeh').append('<td>' + data2[bb].BEH_ID + '</td>'); $('#lijstbeh').append('<td>' + data2[bb].BEH_behandelingkort + '</td>'); $('#lijstbeh').append('<td>' + data2[bb].BEH_datum + '</td>'); $('#lijstbeh').append('</tr>'); }); $('#lijstbeh').append('</table>'); }

    Read the article

  • When is a method eligible to be inlined by the CLR?

    - by Ani
    I've observed a lot of "stack-introspective" code in applications, which often implicitly rely on their containing methods not being inlined for their correctness. Such methods commonly involve calls to: MethodBase.GetCurrentMethod Assembly.GetCallingAssembly Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly Now, I find the information surrounding these methods to be very confusing. I've heard that the run-time will not inline a method that calls GetCurrentMethod, but I can't find any documentation to that effect. I've seen posts on StackOverflow on several occasions, such as this one, indicating the CLR does not inline cross-assembly calls, but the GetCallingAssembly documentation strongly indicates otherwise. There's also the much-maligned [MethodImpl(MethodImpOptions.NoInlining)], but I am unsure if the CLR considers this to be a "request" or a "command." Note that I am asking about inlining eligibility from the standpoint of contract, not about when current implementations of the JITter decline to consider methods because of implementation difficulties, or about when the JITter finally ends up choosing to inline an eligible method after assessing the trade-offs. I have read this and this, but they seem to be more focused on the last two points (there are passing mentions of MethodImpOptions.NoInlining and "exotic IL instructions", but these seem to be presented as heuristics rather than as obligations). When is the CLR allowed to inline?

    Read the article

  • Is it better to use a relational database or document-based database for an app like Wufoo?

    - by mboyle
    I'm working on an application that's similar to Wufoo in that it allows our users to create their own databases and collect/present records with auto generated forms and views. Since every user is creating a different schema (one user might have a database of their baseball card collection, another might have a database of their recipes) our current approach is using MySQL to create separate databases for every user with its own tables. So in other words, the databases our MySQL server contains look like: main-web-app-db (our web app containing tables for users account info, billing, etc) user_1_db (baseball_cards_table) user_2_db (recipes_table) .... And so on. If a user wants to set up a new database to keep track of their DVD collection, we'd do a "create database ..." with "create table ...". If they enter some data in and then decide they want to change a column we'd do an "alter table ....". Now, the further along I get with building this out the more it seems like MySQL is poorly suited to handling this. 1) My first concern is that switching databases every request, first to our main app's database for authentication etc, and then to the user's personal database, is going to be inefficient. 2) The second concern I have is that there's going to be a limit to the number of databases a single MySQL server can host. Pretending for a moment this application had 500,000 user databases, is MySQL designed to operate this way? What if it were a million, or more? 3) Lastly, is this method going to be a nightmare to support and scale? I've never heard of MySQL being used in this way so I do worry about how this affects things like replication and other methods of scaling. To me, it seems like MySQL wasn't built to be used in this way but what do I know. I've been looking at document-based databases like MongoDB, CouchDB, and Redis as alternatives because it seems like a schema-less approach to this particular problem makes a lot of sense. Can anyone offer some advice on this?

    Read the article

  • Syntax for documenting JSON structure

    - by Roman A. Taycher
    So I'm trying to document the format of the json returned by an api I am writing against and I'd like to know if there is any popular format for the documentation of json structure. Note I'm not trying to to test or validate anything, I'm just using this for documentation. Also some ways to add comments to non-constants(items always returned w/ the same value) would be nice. This the not totally thought out scheme I'm currently using: Plain names refer to identifiers or types. Some types have type-comment Strings that appear to be constant(always returned for that type of request) strings are "str" Constant Numbers would be just the number Constant null is null Booleans are true/false for constant booleans or Boolean otherwise [a,b,c] are lists with 3 items a,b,c [... ...] is a list of repeating elements of some types/constants/patterns {a:A,b:B,c:c} and {... ...} is the same for a dictionary. example: story := [header,footer] header := {"data":realHeader,"kind":"Listing"} realHeader := {"after": null, "before": null, "children": [{"data": realRealHeader, "kind": "t3"}], "modhash": ""} footer := {"data":AlmostComments,"kind":"Listing"} AlmostComments := {"data": {"after": null, "before": null, "children": comments, "modhash": ""}, "kind": "t1"} comments := [...{"data":comment, "kind":"t1"}...] realRealHeader := {"author": string, "clicked": boolean, "created": int, "created_utc": int, "domain": "code.reddit.com", "downs": int, "hidden": boolean, "id": string-id, "is_self": boolean, "levenshtein": null, "likes": null, "media": null, "media_embed": { }, "name": string-id, "num_comments": int, "over_18": false, "permalink": string-urlLinkToStoryStartingFrom/r, "saved": false, "score": int, "selftext": string, "selftext_html": string-html, "subreddit": string-subredditname, "subreddit_id": string-id, "thumbnail": "", "title": string, "ups": int, "url": "http://code.reddit.com/" } comments := { "author": string, "body": string-body_html-wout-html, "body_html": string-html-formated, "created": int, "created_utc": int, "downs": int, "id": string-id, "levenshtein": null, "likes": null, "link_id": string-id, "name": string-id", "parent_id": string-id, "replies": AlmostComments or null, "subreddit": string-subredditname, "subreddit_id": string-id, "ups": int }

    Read the article

  • Resource mapping in a Ruby on Rails URL (RESTful API)

    - by randombits
    I'm having a bit of difficulty coming up with the right answer to this, so I will solicit my problem here. I'm working on a RESTFul API. Naturally, I have multiple resources, some of which consist of parent to child relationships, some of which are stand alone resources. Where I'm having a bit of difficulty is figuring out how to make things easier for the folks who will be building clients against my API. The situation is this. Hypothetically I have a 'Street' resource. Each street has multiple homes. So Street :has_many to Homes and Homes :belongs_to Street. If a user wants to request an HTTP GET on a specific home resource, the following should work: http://mymap/streets/5/homes/10 That allows a user to get information for a home with the id 10. Straight forward. My question is, am I breaking the rules of the book by giving the user access to: http://mymap/homes/10 Technically that home resource exists on its own without the street. It makes sense that it exists as its own entity without an encapsulating street, even though business logic says otherwise. What's the best way to handle this?

    Read the article

  • Cookie blocked/not saved in IFRAME in Internet Explorer

    - by Piskvor
    I have two websites, let's say they're example.com and anotherexample.net. On anotherexample.net/page.html, I have an IFRAME SRC="http://example.com/someform.asp". That IFRAME displays a form for the user to fill out and submit to http://example.com/process.asp. When I open the form ("someform.asp") in its own browser window, all works well. However, when I load someform.asp as an IFRAME in IE 6 or IE 7, the cookies for example.com are not saved. In Firefox this problem doesn't appear. For testing purposes, I've created a similar setup on http://newmoon.wz.cz/test/page.php . example.com uses cookie-based sessions (and there's nothing I can do about that), so without cookies, process.asp won't execute. How do I force IE to save those cookies? Results of sniffing the HTTP traffic: on GET /someform.asp response, there's a valid per-session Set-Cookie header (e.g. Set-Cookie: ASPKSJIUIUGF=JKHJUHVGFYTTYFY), but on POST /process.asp request, there is no Cookie header at all. Edit3: some AJAX+serverside scripting is apparently capable to sidestep the problem, but that looks very much like a bug, plus it opens a whole new set of security holes. I don't want my applications to use a combination of bug+security hole just because it's easy. Edit: the P3P policy was the root cause, full explanation below.

    Read the article

  • Run Javascript on the body of a Gmail message

    - by saturn
    I want to display LaTeX math in the gmail messages that I receive, so that for example $\mathbb P^2$ would show as a nice formula. Now, there are several Javascripts available (for example, this one, or MathJax which would do the job, I just need to call them at the right time to manipulate the gmail message. I know that this is possible to do in "basic HTML" and "print" views. Is it possible to do in the standard Gmail view? I tried to insert a call to the javascript right before the "canvas_frame" iframe, but that did not work. My suspicion is that manipulating a Gmail message by any Javascript would be a major security flaw (think of all the malicious links one could insert) and that Google does everything to prevent this. And so the answer to my question is probably 'no'. Am I right in this? Of course, it would be very easy for Google to implement viewing of LaTeX and MathML math simply by using MathJax on their servers. I made the corresponding Gmail Lab request, but no answer, and no interest from Google apparently. So, again: is this possible to do without Google's cooperation, on the client side?

    Read the article

  • JQuery: how to store records id for data from ajax query in dynamicly created html elements

    - by grapkulec
    Probably question title is rather cryptic but I will try to explain myself here so please bare with me :) Let's assume this configuration: server-side is PHP application responding for requests with data (list of items, single item details, etc.) in json format client-side is JQuery application sending ajax request to that PHP app and creating html content corresponding with received data So, for example: client requests "list of all animals with names staring with 'A'", gets the json response from server, and for every "animal" creates some html gizmo like div with animal description or something like that. It doesn't really matter what html element it will be but it has to point exactly to specific record by "containing" id of that record. And here is my dilemma: is it good solution to use "id" property for that? So it would be like: <div id="10" class="animal"> <p> This is animal of very mysterious kind... </p> </div> <div id="11" class="animal"> <p> And this one is very common to our country... </p> </div> where id="10" is of course indication that this is representation of record with id = 10. Or maybe I should store this record id in some custom made tag like <record_id>10</record_id> and leave an "id" strictly for what it was meant to be (css selector)? I need that record id for further stuff like updating database with some user input or deleting some of "animals" or creating new ones or anything that will be needed. All manipulations will be done with JQuery and ajax requests and responses will be visualized also with dynamic creation of html interface. I'm sure that somebody had to deal with that kind of stuff before so I would be grateful for some tips on that topic.

    Read the article

  • application trying to connect to mirrored sql db

    - by hp
    Hello, We have 4 web servers that host our asp.net (3.5) application. Randomly, we get error messages like : 1) "Login failed for user 'userid'" 2) "A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: Named Pipes Provider, error: 40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server)" we are running sql2005 and have a principle and a mirror db (sync). When these exceptions are thrown, I look at the SQL error logs on the mirrored db and noticed the failed login messages in there. The principle db is running fine and the other web apps are working great. this will happen for maybe 10 min, then the app pool recycles and it starts hitting the principle db again. Is there a configuration I have incorrect? my theory is that our principle db is forwarding the request to the mirror, but that should never happen. any help??

    Read the article

  • Strange problems with the Spring RestTemplate in Android application

    - by HarryCater
    I begin to use RESTful api of the Spring Framework in my android client application. But I have encountered with problems when I tried to execute HTTP request via postForObject/postForEntity methods. Here is my code: public String _URL = "https://noticemed.com/app/mobile/login"; public void BeginAuthorization(View view) { HttpHeaders requestHeaders = new HttpHeaders(); requestHeaders.setContentType(MediaType.APPLICATION_JSON); HttpEntity<String> _entity = new HttpEntity<String>(requestHeaders); RestTemplate templ = new RestTemplate(); templ.setRequestFactory(new HttpComponentsClientHttpRequestFactory()); templ.getMessageConverters().add(new MappingJacksonHttpMessageConverter()); ResponseEntity<String> _response = templ.postForEntity(_URL,_entity,String.class); //HERE APP CRASHES String _body = _response.getBody(); And here is a stack trace in logcat after app crashing. As you see there is no definite error message. So the question what am I doing wrong? How to fix this? May there is other way to do it?I really need a help. Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Async WebRequest Timeout Windows Phone 7

    - by Tyler
    Hi All, I'm wondering what the "right" way of timing out an HttpWebRequest is on Windows Phone7? I've been reading about ThreadPool.RegisterWaitForSingleObject() but this can't be used as WaitHandles throw a Not implemented exception at run time. I've also been looking at ManualReset events but A) Don't understand them properly and B) Don't understand how blocking the calling thread is an acceptable way to implement a time out on an Async request. Here's my existing code sans timeout, can someone please show me how I would add a timeout to this? public static void Get(Uri requestUri, HttpResponseReceived httpResponseReceivedCallback, ICredentials credentials, object userState, bool getResponseAsString = true, bool getResponseAsBytes = false) { var httpWebRequest = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(requestUri); httpWebRequest.Method = "GET"; httpWebRequest.Credentials = credentials; var httpClientRequestState = new JsonHttpClientRequestState(null, userState, httpResponseReceivedCallback, httpWebRequest, getResponseAsString, getResponseAsBytes); httpWebRequest.BeginGetResponse(ResponseReceived, httpClientRequestState); } private static void ResponseReceived(IAsyncResult asyncResult) { var httpClientRequestState = asyncResult.AsyncState as JsonHttpClientRequestState; Debug.Assert(httpClientRequestState != null, "httpClientRequestState cannot be null. Fatal error."); try { var webResponse = (HttpWebResponse)httpClientRequestState.HttpWebRequest.EndGetResponse(asyncResult); } }

    Read the article

  • Silverlight ClientAccessPolicy issue...I think

    - by Terrence
    Fisrt of all I have my ClientAccessPolicy.xml file in the root of my website. If I access my website using the public domain name like this: h t t p://www.mydomain.com and then go to the page where my SL control is, I get the spinning % numbers up until about 98%, then it quits and my SL control does not appear on the page. If I access my website using the machine name (website is at datacenter, we have vpn setup) like this: h t t p://machinename and then go to the page where my SL control is everything works fine. this must be a ClientAccess Policy issue don't your think? Or what DO you thnik the issue is? Thanks in advance. Here is the contents of my ClientAccessPolicy.xml file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <access-policy> <cross-domain-access> <policy> <allow-from http-request-headers="*"> <domain uri="*" /> </allow-from> <grant-to> <resource path="/" include-subpaths="true" /> </grant-to> </policy> </cross-domain-access> </access-policy>

    Read the article

  • Where to prompt for required file location at start of Win Forms application

    - by Murph
    I have an application that uses a file to store its data. I store the location of the file in the app settings so have two tests at startup: Do I have a setting for the file and Does the file (if I have a setting) exist If I fail either test I want to prompt the user for the file location - the mechanics of the are not the problem, I can read and write the app settings, fire off dialogs and otherwise request the data. If the user refuses to choose a file (or at least a file location) I want to exit the app. My problem is where to do this i.e. at what point in the flow of code. In an ideal world you start the app, show a splash screen, load the main form and run from there... I'm looking for a general pattern that allows me to slot the test for parameters into the right place so that I can prompt the user for whatever (and allowing that I have to worry about the fact that my splash screen is currently topmost for my app). I appreciate that this is a bit vague so will update this with code as we go along.

    Read the article

  • Gathering entropy in web apps to create (more) secure random numbers

    - by H M
    after several days of research and discussion i came up with this method to gather entropy from visitors (u can see the history of my research here) when a user visits i run this code: $entropy=sha1(microtime().$pepper.$_SERVER['REMOTE_ADDR'].$_SERVER['REMOTE_PORT']. $_SERVER['HTTP_USER_AGENT'].serialize($_POST).serialize($_GET).serialize($_COOKIE)); note: pepper is a per site/setup random string set by hand. then i execute the following (My)SQL query: $query="update `crypto` set `value`=sha1(concat(`value`, '$entropy')) where name='entropy'"; that means we combine the entropy of the visitor's request with the others' gathered already. that's all. then when we want to generate random numbers we combine the gathered entropy with the output: $query="select `value` from `crypto` where `name`='entropy'"; //... extract(unpack('Nrandom', pack('H*', sha1(mt_rand(0, 0x7FFFFFFF).$entropy.microtime())))); note: the last line is a part of a modified version of the crypt_rand function of the phpseclib. please tell me your opinion about the scheme and other ideas/info regarding entropy gathering/random number generation. ps: i know about randomness sources like /dev/urandom. this system is just an auxiliary system or (when we don't have (access to) these sources) a fallback scheme.

    Read the article

  • What could cause xmlrpclib.ResponseError: ResponseError() ?

    - by Tom
    Hi, I am experimenting with XML-RPC. I have the following server script (python): from SimpleXMLRPCServer import SimpleXMLRPCServer server = SimpleXMLRPCServer(('localhost', 9000)) def return_input(someinput): return someinput server.register_function(return_input) try: print 'ctrl-c to stop server' server.serve_forever() except KeyboardInterrupt: print 'stopping' and the following client script: import xmlrpclib server = xmlrpclib.ServerProxy('http://www.example.com/pathto/xmlrpcTester2.py') print server.return_input('some input') I have tested this locally and it works fine. All it does it spit out the input fron the client script, which is right. However, when I try to do it on a remote server I get the following error: Traceback (most recent call last): File "client.py", line 4, in <module> print server.return_input('some input') File "/System/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/xmlrpclib.py", line 1199, in __call__ return self.__send(self.__name, args) File "/System/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/xmlrpclib.py", line 1489, in __request verbose=self.__verbose File "/System/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/xmlrpclib.py", line 1253, in request return self._parse_response(h.getfile(), sock) File "/System/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/xmlrpclib.py", line 1392, in _parse_response return u.close() File "/System/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/xmlrpclib.py", line 836, in close raise ResponseError() xmlrpclib.ResponseError: ResponseError() Any ideas what could cause this? Thanks in advance for your help.

    Read the article

  • How to check whether user is login in web application?

    - by Morgan Cheng
    I want to learn the whole details of web application authentication. So, I decided to write a CodeIgniter authentication library from scratch. Now, I have to make design decision about how to determine whether one user is login. Basically, after user input username & password pair. A cookie is set for this session, following navigations in the web application will not require username & password. The server side will check whether the session cookie is valid to determine whether current user is login. The question is: how to determine whether cookie is valid cookie issued from server side? I can image the most simple way is to have the cookie value stored in session status as well. For each HTTP request, compare the value from cookie and the value from server session. (Since CodeIgniter session library store session variables in cookies, it is not applicable without some tweak.) This method requires storage in server side. For huge web application that is deployed in multiple datacenters. It is possible that user input username & password when browsing in one datacenter, while he/she access the web application in another datacenter later. The expected behavior is that user just input username & password once. As a result, all datacenters should be able to access the session status. That is possible not applicable even the session status is stored in external storage such as database. I tried Google. I login Google with Asian proxy which is supposed to direct me to datacenters in Asian. Then I switch to North American proxy which should direct me to datacenters in North America. It recognize my login without asking username and password again. So, is there any way to determine whether user is login without server side session status?

    Read the article

  • List iterator not dereferencable?

    - by Roderick
    Hi All I get the error "list iterator not dereferencable" when using the following code: bool done = false; while (!_list_of_messages.empty() && !done) { // request the next message to create a frame // DEBUG ERROR WHEN NEXT LINE IS EXECUTED: Counted_message_reader reader = *(_list_of_messages.begin()); if (reader.has_more_data()) { _list_of_frames.push_back(new Dlp_data_frame(reader, _send_compressed_frames)); done = true; } else { _list_of_messages.pop_front(); } } (The line beginning with "Counted_message_reader..." is the one giving the problem) Note that the error doesn't always occur but seemingly at random times (usually when there's lots of buffered data). _list_of_messages is declared as follows: std::list<Counted_message_reader> _list_of_messages; In the surrounding code we could do pop_front, push_front and size, empty or end checks on _list_of_messages but no erase calls. I've studied the STL documentation and can't see any glaring problems. Is there something wrong with the above code or do I have a memory leak somewhere? Thanks! Appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Long running method causing race condition

    - by keeleyt83
    Hi, I'm relatively new with hibernate so please be gentle. I'm having an issue with a long running method (~2 min long) and changing the value of a status field on an object stored in the DB. The pseudo-code below should help explain my issue. public foo(thing) { if (thing.getStatus() == "ready") { thing.setStatus("finished"); doSomethingAndTakeALongTime(); } else { // Thing already has a status of finished. Send the user back a message. } } The pseudo-code shouldn't take much explanation. I want doSomethingAndTakeALongTime() to run, but only if it has a status of "ready". My issue arises whenever it takes 2 minutes for doSomethingAndTakeALongTime() to finish and the change to thing's status field doesn't get persisted to the database until it leaves foo(). So another user can put in a request during those 2 minutes and the if statement will evaluate to true. I've already tried updating the field and flushing the session manually, but it didn't seem to work. I'm not sure what to do from here and would appreciate any help. PS: My hibernate session is managed by spring.

    Read the article

  • Orbited exception Data must not be unicode.

    - by Sid
    I am working with orbited and once I switch on orbited in production mode it throws the following error on my screen -- <exception caught here> --- File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/web/server.py", line 150, in process self.render(resrc) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/web/server.py", line 157, in render body = resrc.render(self) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/orbited-0.7.10-py2.6.egg/orbited/transports/base.py", line 21, in render self.conn.transportOpened(self) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/orbited-0.7.10-py2.6.egg/orbited/cometsession.py", line 322, in transportOpened self.cometTransport.flush() File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/orbited-0.7.10-py2.6.egg/orbited/transports/base.py", line 45, in flush self.write(self.packets) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/orbited-0.7.10-py2.6.egg/orbited/transports/htmlfile.py", line 42, in write self.request.write(payload); File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/web/http.py", line 862, in write self.transport.write(data) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/tcp.py", line 420, in write abstract.FileDescriptor.write(self, bytes) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/abstract.py", line 170, in write raise TypeError("Data must not be unicode") exceptions.TypeError: Data must not be unicode I have absolutely no clue as to what could be the problem. Could anyone point me in the right direction.

    Read the article

  • JSF2.0: variable list of custom component

    - by rattaman
    Hello Is there any way of using JSF2.0 in connection with variable lists of components? For example, lets say I have list o people that I would like to edit. They are presented on the page as list of components PersonEditor, which allow changing person data. Each editor is associated with single Person element. In order for this to work I need to perform following steps: On initial request: Get list of people For each person create PersonEditor and associate it with Person object. Fill editor's data. On user action: When user changes values and presses Save, data is processed by backing bean. I can either fill editor with data from list of people or bind it to the backing bean, but not at the same time, so I am stuck. I tried people.xhtml <ui:render value="#{bean.people}" var="person"> <example:personEditor person="#{person}"/> </ui:render> where personEditor.xhtml: a) proper association with person object, but no connection to backing bean <h:form> <h:outputText value="#{cc.attr.person.name}"/> <h:commandButton name="Save" actionListener="editorBean.save"> <f:ajax execute="@form" render="@form"/> </h:commandButton> </h:form> b) no association with person object, but there is connection to backing bean - there is no way to pass that person to the backing bean <h:form> <h:outputText value="#{editorBean.name}"/> <h:commandButton name="Save" actionListener="editorBean.save"> <f:ajax execute="@form" render="@form"/> </h:commandButton> </h:form> If I had each editor on separate page, I could pass the person id as url parameter (either using f:param or f:attribute) and initialize it accordingly. Is there any solution to this problem?

    Read the article

  • Spring Form: Submitting extra parameter on submit buttons

    - by theringostarrs
    Hi, I am working on a form with a bunch of selection criteria that will generate a report when the form is submitted. I also have a number of different reports that can be generated form this same criteria, and want the type of report to be selectable by using a tab system where each tab clicked on submits the form and generates the correct report. I was to do this by passing an extra parameter into the form to switch onto the right form type I am new to Spring, and from the guidance of an elder was told to use an input button for each tab with the following approximate syntax: <input type="submit" name="${form.selectionValues.tabSelection}" value="1" /> tabSelection form property of the SelectionValues object is not being set. I wasn't surprised ;) DIdn't think this would work. So I am wondering how can I can submit a post back from a button in Spring containing the form values plus an extra tabSelection parameter and value? How should I mark up this mechanism? Will I have to do anything to the form controller to register this extra parameter? The original markup I was using to build this page, was using HTML anchor tags instead of buttons for the tab links, which would be much better for the CSS, is there any way to trigger a full form submit using an anchor href? I know this will be a GET request instead of a POST, and not associated with the form.. so I dont expect this to work.. just trying to think of solutions! I would prefer to use the priginal markup, as the styles are there. Any help would be appreciated

    Read the article

  • Routing redirection decision

    - by programming late night
    I have really no idea why I'm asking this as this a really completely irrelevant question for which I should have figured out an answer within milliseconds, yet I'm doing it. So in my project I have a Router class which splits up the request and selects the right page to be loaded. Fine so far. Now I have a page displayed when the user requests a page that doesn't exist, you know, 404. So theoretically, if the user entered mydomain.com/404 (I use mod_rewrite with a requests collector via index.php?req=*) the 404 error would be shown to him, but in fact there was no error - the 404 page would be displayed as a perfectly normal page. So if someone would try out requesting the 404 page via /404, he would be shown the page but he can't tell if the 404 page he requested doesn't exist and he is actually getting a, you guessed it, 404 error or if he actually found some flaw in the system that makes him able to see an error page when there is no error. I don't know how dumb this whole thing here is but I'm sure some of you have in fact ran into this problem already. Short version: If the user enters mydomain.com/404 the 404 page is shown even though there is no 404 error. I know this is a completely irrelevant question, please don't tell me, but I just spontaneously wanted to hear your thoughts on it. Strange eh? Should I redirect direct access to my 404-page to the home page? Should I do nothing? Should I just go to bed and stop asking irrelevant stuff?

    Read the article

  • JQuery Ajax Get passing parameters

    - by George
    Hi, I am working on my first MVC application and am running into a bit of a problem. I have a data table that when a row is clicked, I want to return the detail from that row. I have a function set up as: function rowClick(item) { $("#detailInfo").data("width.dialog", 800); $.ajax({ type: "GET", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", url: "<%= Url.Action("GetDetails", "WarningRecognition")%>", data: "", dataType: "json", success: function(data) {//do some stuff...and show results} } The problem I am running into is the passing of the "item". I calls the Controller function that looks like this: public JsonResult GetDetails(string sDetail) { Debug.WriteLine(Request.QueryString["sDetail"]); Debug.WriteLine("sDetail: " + sDetail); var myDetailsDao = new WarnRecogDetailsDao(); return new JsonResult { Data = myDetailsDao.SelectDetailedInfo(Convert.ToInt32(sDetail)) }; } But it never shows anything as the the "sDetail". It does hit the function but nothing is passed to it. So, I have read where you pass the parameter via the data but I have tried every combination I can think of and it never shows up. Tried: data: {"item"} data: {sDetail[item]} data: {sDetail[" + item + "]} Any help is greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance. Geo...

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC Form repopulation

    - by ListenToRick
    I have a controller with two actions: [AcceptVerbs("GET")] public ActionResult Add() { PrepareViewDataForAddAction(); return View(); } [AcceptVerbs("POST")] public ActionResult Add([GigBinderAttribute]Gig gig, FormCollection formCollection) { if (ViewData.ModelState.IsValid) { GigManager.Save(gig); return RedirectToAction("Index", gig.ID); } PrepareViewDataForAddAction(); return View(gig); } As you can see, when the form posts its data, the Add action uses a GigBinder (An implemenation of IModelBinder) In this binder I have: if (int.TryParse(bindingContext.HttpContext.Request.Form["StartDate.Hour"], out hour)) { gig.StartDate.Hour = hour; } else { bindingContext.ModelState.AddModelError("Doors", "You need to tell us when the doors open"); } The form contains a text box with id "StartDate.Hour". As you can see above, the GigBinder tests to see that the user has typed in an integer into the textbox with id "StartDate.Hour". If not, a model error is added to the modelstate using AddModelError. Since the gigs property gigs.StartDate.Hour is strongly typed, I cannot set its value to, for example, "TEST" if the user has typed this into the forms textbox. Hence, I cant set the value of gigs.StartDate.Hour since the user has entered a string rather than an integer. Since the Add Action returns the view and passes the model (return View(gig);) if the modelstate is invalid, when the form is re-displayed with validation mssages, the value "TEST" is not displayed in the textbox. Instead, it will be the default value of gig.StartDate.Hour. How do I get round this problem? I really stuck!

    Read the article

  • Google Chrome Extension : Port: Could not establish connection. Receiving end does not exist

    - by tcornelis
    I have been looking for an answer for almost a week now, but having read all the stackoverflow items i can't seem to find a solution that is working for me. The error that i'm having is : Port: Could not establish connection. Receiving end does not exist. lastError:30 set lastError:30 dispatchOnDisconnect messaging:277 folder layout : img developer_icon.png js sidebar.js main.js jquery-2.0.3.js manifest.json my the manifest.json file looks something like this (it is version 2) :` "browser_action": { "default_icon": "./img/developer_icon.png" }, "content_scripts": [ { "matches": ["*://*/*"], "js": ["./js/sidebar.js"], "run_at": "document_end" } ], "background" : { "scripts" : ["./js/main.js","./js/jquery-2.0.3.js"] }, I want to handle the user clicking the extension icon so i could inject a sidebar in the existing website (because the extension i would like to develop requires that amount of space). So in main.js : chrome.browserAction.onClicked.addListener(function(tab) { chrome.tabs.getSelected(null, function(tab){ chrome.tabs.sendMessage( //Selected tab id tab.id, //Params inside a object data {callFunction: "toggleSidebar"}, //Optional callback function function(response) { console.log(response); } ); }); }); and in sidebar.js : chrome.runtime.onMessage.addListener(function(req,sender,sendResponse){ console.log("sidebar handling request"); toggleSidebar(); }); but i'm never able to see the console.log in my console because of the error. Does someone know what i did wrong? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 579 580 581 582 583 584 585 586 587 588 589 590  | Next Page >