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  • Group and sort blog posts by date in Rails

    - by Senthil
    I've searched all over web and have not found the answer. I'm trying to have a very standard archive option for my blog based on date. A request to url blog.com/archive/2009 shows all posts in 2009, blog.com/archive/2009/11 shows all posts in November 2009 etc. I found two different of code but not very helpful to me. def display_by_date year = params[:year] month = params[:month] day = params[:day] day = '0'+day if day && day.size == 1 @day = day if (year && month && day) render(:template => "blog/#{year}/#{month}/#{date}") elsif year render(:template => "blog/#{year}/list") end end def archive year = params[:year] month = params[:month] day = params[:day] day = '0'+day if day && day.size == 1 if (year && month && day) @posts_by_month = Blog.find(:all, :conditions => ["year is?", year]) else @posts_by_month = Blog.find(:all).group_by { |post| post.created_at.strftime("%B") } end end Any help is appreciated.

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  • Codeigniter achor producing dodgy link in email inbox.. what could the problem be?

    - by Psychonetics
    My application is emailing out fine but the email I receive displays incorrectly. Rather than have text and a simple "click here to activate" link it doesn't. it shows this instead: Hi user1, please click the following link to activate your account <a href="http://mysite.com/activation/fzyZuyxVAzZS2koVg5UFjfVjlcLNcrzp">ssss</a> Here is the code from my model that sends email to user when they request activation email. $this->load->library('email'); $this->email->from('[email protected]', 'my site'); $this->email->to($result[0]->email); $this->email->subject('my site - Activate your account'); $this->email->message('Hi ' . $result[0]->first_name . ', please click the following link to activate your account ' . anchor('http://mysite.com/activation/' . $new_activation_code, 'click here to activate')); $this->email->send(); Also the mail always ends up in my spam folder.

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  • Cookie blocked/not saved in IFRAME in Internet Explorer

    - by Piskvor
    I have two websites, let's say they're example.com and anotherexample.net. On anotherexample.net/page.html, I have an IFRAME SRC="http://example.com/someform.asp". That IFRAME displays a form for the user to fill out and submit to http://example.com/process.asp. When I open the form ("someform.asp") in its own browser window, all works well. However, when I load someform.asp as an IFRAME in IE 6 or IE 7, the cookies for example.com are not saved. In Firefox this problem doesn't appear. For testing purposes, I've created a similar setup on http://newmoon.wz.cz/test/page.php . example.com uses cookie-based sessions (and there's nothing I can do about that), so without cookies, process.asp won't execute. How do I force IE to save those cookies? Results of sniffing the HTTP traffic: on GET /someform.asp response, there's a valid per-session Set-Cookie header (e.g. Set-Cookie: ASPKSJIUIUGF=JKHJUHVGFYTTYFY), but on POST /process.asp request, there is no Cookie header at all. Edit3: some AJAX+serverside scripting is apparently capable to sidestep the problem, but that looks very much like a bug, plus it opens a whole new set of security holes. I don't want my applications to use a combination of bug+security hole just because it's easy. Edit: the P3P policy was the root cause, full explanation below.

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  • Async task ASP.net HttpContext.Current.Items is empty - How do handle this?

    - by GuruC
    We are running a very large web application in asp.net MVC .NET 4.0. Recently we had an audit done and the performance team says that there were a lot of null reference exceptions. So I started investigating it from the dumps and event viewer. My understanding was as follows: We are using Asyn Tasks in our controllers. We rely on HttpContext.Current.Items hashtable to store a lot of Application level values. Task<Articles>.Factory.StartNew(() => { System.Web.HttpContext.Current = ControllerContext.HttpContext.ApplicationInstance.Context; var service = new ArticlesService(page); return service.GetArticles(); }).ContinueWith(t => SetResult(t, "articles")); So we are copying the context object onto the new thread that is spawned from Task factory. This context.Items is used again in the thread wherever necessary. Say for ex: public class SomeClass { internal static int StreamID { get { if (HttpContext.Current != null) { return (int)HttpContext.Current.Items["StreamID"]; } else { return DEFAULT_STREAM_ID; } } } This runs fine as long as number of parallel requests are optimal. My questions are as follows: 1. When the load is more and there are too many parallel requests, I notice that HttpContext.Current.Items is empty. I am not able to figure out a reason for this and this causes all the null reference exceptions. 2. How do we make sure it is not null ? Any workaround if present ? NOTE: I read through in StackOverflow and people have questions like HttpContext.Current is null - but in my case it is not null and its empty. I was reading one more article where the author says that sometimes request object is terminated and it may cause problems since dispose is already called on objects. I am doing a copy of Context object - its just a shallow copy and not a deep copy.

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  • Run Javascript on the body of a Gmail message

    - by saturn
    I want to display LaTeX math in the gmail messages that I receive, so that for example $\mathbb P^2$ would show as a nice formula. Now, there are several Javascripts available (for example, this one, or MathJax which would do the job, I just need to call them at the right time to manipulate the gmail message. I know that this is possible to do in "basic HTML" and "print" views. Is it possible to do in the standard Gmail view? I tried to insert a call to the javascript right before the "canvas_frame" iframe, but that did not work. My suspicion is that manipulating a Gmail message by any Javascript would be a major security flaw (think of all the malicious links one could insert) and that Google does everything to prevent this. And so the answer to my question is probably 'no'. Am I right in this? Of course, it would be very easy for Google to implement viewing of LaTeX and MathML math simply by using MathJax on their servers. I made the corresponding Gmail Lab request, but no answer, and no interest from Google apparently. So, again: is this possible to do without Google's cooperation, on the client side?

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  • Strange problems with the Spring RestTemplate in Android application

    - by HarryCater
    I begin to use RESTful api of the Spring Framework in my android client application. But I have encountered with problems when I tried to execute HTTP request via postForObject/postForEntity methods. Here is my code: public String _URL = "https://noticemed.com/app/mobile/login"; public void BeginAuthorization(View view) { HttpHeaders requestHeaders = new HttpHeaders(); requestHeaders.setContentType(MediaType.APPLICATION_JSON); HttpEntity<String> _entity = new HttpEntity<String>(requestHeaders); RestTemplate templ = new RestTemplate(); templ.setRequestFactory(new HttpComponentsClientHttpRequestFactory()); templ.getMessageConverters().add(new MappingJacksonHttpMessageConverter()); ResponseEntity<String> _response = templ.postForEntity(_URL,_entity,String.class); //HERE APP CRASHES String _body = _response.getBody(); And here is a stack trace in logcat after app crashing. As you see there is no definite error message. So the question what am I doing wrong? How to fix this? May there is other way to do it?I really need a help. Thanks in advance!

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  • Gathering entropy in web apps to create (more) secure random numbers

    - by H M
    after several days of research and discussion i came up with this method to gather entropy from visitors (u can see the history of my research here) when a user visits i run this code: $entropy=sha1(microtime().$pepper.$_SERVER['REMOTE_ADDR'].$_SERVER['REMOTE_PORT']. $_SERVER['HTTP_USER_AGENT'].serialize($_POST).serialize($_GET).serialize($_COOKIE)); note: pepper is a per site/setup random string set by hand. then i execute the following (My)SQL query: $query="update `crypto` set `value`=sha1(concat(`value`, '$entropy')) where name='entropy'"; that means we combine the entropy of the visitor's request with the others' gathered already. that's all. then when we want to generate random numbers we combine the gathered entropy with the output: $query="select `value` from `crypto` where `name`='entropy'"; //... extract(unpack('Nrandom', pack('H*', sha1(mt_rand(0, 0x7FFFFFFF).$entropy.microtime())))); note: the last line is a part of a modified version of the crypt_rand function of the phpseclib. please tell me your opinion about the scheme and other ideas/info regarding entropy gathering/random number generation. ps: i know about randomness sources like /dev/urandom. this system is just an auxiliary system or (when we don't have (access to) these sources) a fallback scheme.

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  • Linq2Sql: query - subquery optimisation

    - by Budda
    I have the following query: IList<InfrStadium> stadiums = (from sector in DbContext.sectors where sector.Type=typeValue select new InfrStadium(sector.TeamId) ).ToList(); and InfrStadium class constructor: private InfrStadium(int teamId) { IList<Sector> teamSectors = (from sector in DbContext.sectors where sector.TeamId==teamId select sector) .ToList<>(); ... work with data } Current implementation perform 1+n queries, where n - number of records fetched the 1st time. I want to optimize that. And another one I would love to do using 'group' operator in way like this: IList<InfrStadium> stadiums = (from sector in DbContext.sectors group sector by sector.TeamId into team_sectors select new InfrStadium(team_sectors.Key, team_sectors) ).ToList(); with appropriate constructor: private InfrStadium(int iTeamId, IEnumerable<InfrStadiumSector> eSectors) { IList<Sector> teamSectors = eSectors.ToList(); ... work with data } But attempt to launch query causes the following error: Expression of type 'System.Int32' cannot be used for constructor parameter of type 'System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable`1[InfrStadiumSector]' Question 1: Could you please explain, what is wrong here, I don't understand why 'team_sectors' is applied as 'System.Int32'? I've tried to change query a little (replace IEnumerable with IQueryeable): IList<InfrStadium> stadiums = (from sector in DbContext.sectors group sector by sector.TeamId into team_sectors select new InfrStadium(team_sectors.Key, team_sectors.AsQueryable()) ).ToList(); with appropriate constructor: private InfrStadium(int iTeamId, IQueryeable<InfrStadiumSector> eSectors) { IList<Sector> teamSectors = eSectors.ToList(); ... work with data } In this case I've received another but similar error: Expression of type 'System.Int32' cannot be used for parameter of type 'System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable1[InfrStadiumSector]' of method 'System.Linq.IQueryable1[InfrStadiumSector] AsQueryableInfrStadiumSector' Question 2: Actually, the same question: can't understand at all what is going on here... P.S. I have another to optimize query idea (describe here: Linq2Sql: query optimisation) but I would love to find a solution with 1 request to DB).

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  • When is a method eligible to be inlined by the CLR?

    - by Ani
    I've observed a lot of "stack-introspective" code in applications, which often implicitly rely on their containing methods not being inlined for their correctness. Such methods commonly involve calls to: MethodBase.GetCurrentMethod Assembly.GetCallingAssembly Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly Now, I find the information surrounding these methods to be very confusing. I've heard that the run-time will not inline a method that calls GetCurrentMethod, but I can't find any documentation to that effect. I've seen posts on StackOverflow on several occasions, such as this one, indicating the CLR does not inline cross-assembly calls, but the GetCallingAssembly documentation strongly indicates otherwise. There's also the much-maligned [MethodImpl(MethodImpOptions.NoInlining)], but I am unsure if the CLR considers this to be a "request" or a "command." Note that I am asking about inlining eligibility from the standpoint of contract, not about when current implementations of the JITter decline to consider methods because of implementation difficulties, or about when the JITter finally ends up choosing to inline an eligible method after assessing the trade-offs. I have read this and this, but they seem to be more focused on the last two points (there are passing mentions of MethodImpOptions.NoInlining and "exotic IL instructions", but these seem to be presented as heuristics rather than as obligations). When is the CLR allowed to inline?

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  • Why Firebug pretends that my stylesheet is calling my xmlrpc ?

    - by Rebol Tutorial
    Firebug shows a request which causes a huge delay to http://reboltutorial.com/wp-content/themes/minaflow/none Details below but I don't understand why it says it comes from xmlrpc and the stylesheet: Date Sun, 04 Apr 2010 16:10:02 GMT Server Apache X-Powered-By PHP/5.2.13 X-Pingback http://reboltutorial.com/xmlrpc.php Expires Wed, 11 Jan 1984 05:00:00 GMT Cache-Control no-cache, must-revalidate, max-age=0 Pragma no-cache Set-Cookie wordpress_test_cookie=WP+Cookie+check; path=/; domain=.reboltutorial.com Last-Modified Sun, 04 Apr 2010 16:10:03 GMT Vary Accept-Encoding Content-Encoding gzip Keep-Alive timeout=2, max=94 Connection Keep-Alive Transfer-Encoding chunked Content-Type text/html; charset=UTF-8 Requêtemise en page impression GET /wp-content/themes/minaflow/none HTTP/1.1 Host: reboltutorial.com User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; fr; rv:1.9.2) Gecko/20100115 Firefox/3.6 Accept: image/png,image/*;q=0.8,*/*;q=0.5 Accept-Language: fr,fr-fr;q=0.8,en-us;q=0.5,en;q=0.3 Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate Accept-Charset: ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive: 115 Connection: keep-alive Referer: http://reboltutorial.com/wp-content/themes/minaflow/style.css Cookie: _csoot=1267966575980; _csuid=4b6f27395991a2ff; wp-settings-1=editor%3Dhtml%26align%3Dleft%26m0%3Do%26m1%3Do%26m2%3Do%26m3%3Dc%26m4%3Do%26m5%3Dc%26m6%3Do%26m7%3Do%26m8%3Dc%26m9%3Dc%26m10%3Dc%26m11%3Do%26m12%3Dc%26m13%3Dc%26m14%3Dc%26m15%3Dc; wp-settings-time-1=1270384700; subscribe_checkbox_=unchecked; PHPSESSID=o70hjpjf7uj2hb4doe4k0o5co5; wordpress_test_cookie=WP+Cookie+check; xumgeqhxmhohxipF=Erjixxeeskfgnlba; SJECT=CKON; wordpress_=admin%7C1271592539%7C392c555d9051c6fa184074d8441cc472; wordpress_logged_in_=admin%7C1271592539%7C0e7a92bda53cc2f5afc32962237a1037; rcBDvgtspmuEsyzp=rmqjtFbCfheGCjBw; prli_click_15=creatingstandard; prli_visitor=m7928r

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  • How to pair users? (Like Omegle.com)

    - by Carlos Dubus
    Hi, I'm trying to do an Omegle.com clone script, basically for learning purposes. I'm doing it in PHP/MySQL/AJAX. I'm having problems finding two users and connecting them. The purpose of omegle is connecting two users "randomly". What I'm doing right now is the following: When a user enters the website a session is assigned. There are 3 states for each session/user (Normal,Waiting,Chatting) At first the user has state Normal and a field "connected_to" = NULL If the users clicks the START button, a state of "Waiting" is assigned. Then it looks for another user with state Waiting, if doesn't find one then it keeps looping, waiting for the "connected_to" to change. The "connected_to" will change when other user click START and then find another user waiting and updates the sessions accordingly. Now this have several problems, like: A user only can be connected to one user at a time. In omegle you can open more than one chat simultaneously. I don't know if this is the best way. About the chat, each user is polling the events from the server with AJAX calls, I saw that omegle, instead of several HTTP requests each second (let's say), does ONE request and wait for an answer, that means that the PHP script is looping indefinitely until gets an answer.I did this using set_time_limit(30) each time the loop is started. Then when the Ajax call is done start over again. Is this approach correct? I will appreciate a LOT your answers, Thank you, Carlos

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  • javascript :Object doesn't support this property or method

    - by Kaushik
    In my jsp page, I have in the tag, the following code: <script type="text/javascript" src="<%=request.getContextPath()%>/static/js/common/common.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> // Function for Suppressing the JS Error function silentErrorHandler() {return true;} window.onerror=silentErrorHandler; </script> If there is some javascript executing on the jsp page after this, then I guess silentErrorHandler() will have no effect. i.e. the error will still show on page. IS this correct? Because the error is showing and am not sure why. The second part of the question is this: The error is Webpage error details User Agent: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 8.0; Windows NT 6.1; Trident/4.0; SLCC2; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 3.5.30729; .NET CLR 3.0.30729; Media Center PC 6.0; InfoPath.2; AskTbFXTV5/5.9.1.14019) Timestamp: Fri, 7 Jan 2011 21:26:23 UTC Message: Object doesn't support this property or method Line: 613 Char: 1 Code: 0 URI: http://localhost:9080/Claris/static/js/common/common.js And finally, line 613 states document.captureEvents(Event.MOUSEUP); There is error on IE8. Runs fine on Mozilla and IE7. Any suggestions will be very helpful

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  • Is it better to use a relational database or document-based database for an app like Wufoo?

    - by mboyle
    I'm working on an application that's similar to Wufoo in that it allows our users to create their own databases and collect/present records with auto generated forms and views. Since every user is creating a different schema (one user might have a database of their baseball card collection, another might have a database of their recipes) our current approach is using MySQL to create separate databases for every user with its own tables. So in other words, the databases our MySQL server contains look like: main-web-app-db (our web app containing tables for users account info, billing, etc) user_1_db (baseball_cards_table) user_2_db (recipes_table) .... And so on. If a user wants to set up a new database to keep track of their DVD collection, we'd do a "create database ..." with "create table ...". If they enter some data in and then decide they want to change a column we'd do an "alter table ....". Now, the further along I get with building this out the more it seems like MySQL is poorly suited to handling this. 1) My first concern is that switching databases every request, first to our main app's database for authentication etc, and then to the user's personal database, is going to be inefficient. 2) The second concern I have is that there's going to be a limit to the number of databases a single MySQL server can host. Pretending for a moment this application had 500,000 user databases, is MySQL designed to operate this way? What if it were a million, or more? 3) Lastly, is this method going to be a nightmare to support and scale? I've never heard of MySQL being used in this way so I do worry about how this affects things like replication and other methods of scaling. To me, it seems like MySQL wasn't built to be used in this way but what do I know. I've been looking at document-based databases like MongoDB, CouchDB, and Redis as alternatives because it seems like a schema-less approach to this particular problem makes a lot of sense. Can anyone offer some advice on this?

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  • Is is possible to determine a password input string as plaintext or hashed?

    - by Godders
    I have a RESTful API containing a URI of /UserService/Register. /UserService/Register takes an XML request such as: <UserRegistrationRequest> <Password>password</Password> <Profile> <User> <UserName>username</UserName> </User> </Profile> </UserRegistrationRequest> I have the following questions given the above scenario: Is there a way (using C# and .Net 3.5+) of enforcing/validating that clients calling Register are passing a hashed password rather than plaintext? Is leaving the choice of hashing algorithm to be used to the client a good idea? We could provide a second URI of /UserService/ComputePasswordHash which the client would call before calling /UserService/Register. This has the benefit of ensuring that each password is hashed using the same algorithm. Is there a mechanism within REST to ensure that a client has called one URI before calling another? Hope I've explained myself ok. Many thanks in advance for any help.

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  • Compare values in serialized column in Doctrine with Query Builder

    - by ReynierPM
    I'm building a FormType for a Symfony2 project but I need some Query Builder on the field since I need to compare some values with the one stored on DB and show the results. This is what I have: .... ->add('servicio', 'entity', array( 'mapped' => false, 'class' => 'ComunBundle:TipoServicio', 'property' => 'nombre', 'required' => true, 'label' => false, 'expanded' => true, 'multiple' => true, 'query_builder' => function (EntityRepository $er) { return $er->createQueryBuilder('ts') ->where('ts.tipo_usuario = (:tipo)') ->setParameter('tipo', 1); } )) .... But tipo_usuario at DB table is stored as serialized text for example: record1: value1 | a:1:{i:0;s:1:"1";} record2: value2 | a:4:{i:0;s:1:"1";i:1;s:1:"2";i:2;s:1:"3";i:3;s:1:"4";} I'll have two different forms (I don't know how to pass the Request to a form) in the first one I'll only show the first record and for the second one the first and second record for example: First form will show: checkbox: value1 Second form will show: checkbox: value1 checkbox: value2 I achieve this? Any help?

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  • jquery checkbox and array help

    - by sea_1987
    Hi There I need to get the names and values of checkboxes that have been checked into an array name selected, I cannot for life of me get it working, below is my attempt, if someone could clrify what I am doing wrong that would be brilliant. //Location AJAX //var dataObject = new Object(); var selected = new Array(); $('#areas input.radio').change(function(){ // will trigger when the checked status changes var checked = $(this).attr("checked"); // will return "checked" or false I think. // Do whatever request you like with the checked status if(checked == true) { /*$("input:checked").each(function() { selected.push($(this).attr('name')+"="+$(this).val(); }); alert(selected)*/ getQuery = $(this).attr('name')+"="+$(this).val()+"&location_submit=Next"; $.ajax({ type:"POST", url:"/search/location", data: getQuery, success:function(data){ alert(getQuery); console.log(data); // $('body.secEmp').html(data); } }); } else { //do something to remove the content here alert("Remove"); } });

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  • ASP.NET MVC Form repopulation

    - by ListenToRick
    I have a controller with two actions: [AcceptVerbs("GET")] public ActionResult Add() { PrepareViewDataForAddAction(); return View(); } [AcceptVerbs("POST")] public ActionResult Add([GigBinderAttribute]Gig gig, FormCollection formCollection) { if (ViewData.ModelState.IsValid) { GigManager.Save(gig); return RedirectToAction("Index", gig.ID); } PrepareViewDataForAddAction(); return View(gig); } As you can see, when the form posts its data, the Add action uses a GigBinder (An implemenation of IModelBinder) In this binder I have: if (int.TryParse(bindingContext.HttpContext.Request.Form["StartDate.Hour"], out hour)) { gig.StartDate.Hour = hour; } else { bindingContext.ModelState.AddModelError("Doors", "You need to tell us when the doors open"); } The form contains a text box with id "StartDate.Hour". As you can see above, the GigBinder tests to see that the user has typed in an integer into the textbox with id "StartDate.Hour". If not, a model error is added to the modelstate using AddModelError. Since the gigs property gigs.StartDate.Hour is strongly typed, I cannot set its value to, for example, "TEST" if the user has typed this into the forms textbox. Hence, I cant set the value of gigs.StartDate.Hour since the user has entered a string rather than an integer. Since the Add Action returns the view and passes the model (return View(gig);) if the modelstate is invalid, when the form is re-displayed with validation mssages, the value "TEST" is not displayed in the textbox. Instead, it will be the default value of gig.StartDate.Hour. How do I get round this problem? I really stuck!

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  • MongoDB C# - Hide property from serializer

    - by ehftwelve
    This is what my user model looks like: namespace Api.Models { public class User { [BsonId(IdGenerator = typeof(StringObjectIdGenerator))] [BsonRequired] public string Id { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Username is required.")] [StringLength(20, MinimumLength=3, ErrorMessage="Username must be between 3 and 20 characters.")] [BsonRequired] public string Username { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage="Email is required.")] [EmailAddress(ErrorMessage="Valid email required.")] [BsonRequired] public string Email { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Password is required.")] [StringLength(50, MinimumLength=8, ErrorMessage="Password must be between 8 and 50 characters.")] [BsonRequired] public string Password { get; set; } [BsonRequired] public string Salt { get; set; } } } I want to write, and require, all of the properties into the MongoDB Database. What I don't want to do, is expose the Password and Salt properties when I send this through the request. Is there any sort of data attribute that I can set that will write it, but not expose it when displayed to any API user?

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  • Zend_Auth and database SaveHandler

    - by takeshin
    I have created Zend_Auth adapter implementing Zend_Auth_Adapter_Interface (similar to Pádraic's adapter) and created simple ACL plugin. Everything works fine with default session handler. So far, so good. As a next step I have created custom Session SaveHandler to persist session data in the database. My implementation is very similar to this one from parables-demo. Seems that everything is working fine. Session data are properly saved to the database, session objects are serialized, but authentication does not work when I enable this custom SaveHandler. I have debugged the authentication and all works fine up till the next request, when the authentication data are lost. I suspected, that is has something to do with the fact, that I use $adapter->write($object) instead $adapter->write($string), but the same happens with strings. I'm bootstrapping Zend_Application_Resource_Session in the first Bootstrap method, as early as possible. Does Zend_Auth need any extra configuration to persist data in the database? Why the authentity is being lost?

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  • .htacces Rewrite Rule to Keep .php File Extensions

    - by user2672112
    I'm upgrading my static website that had .php extensions on the content pages. I've created my own simple cms which will start retrieving data from mysql database from now on, keeping the url structure same as the old once. The cms has get function to retrieve url structure from the database. Overall it started working fine with .html when i tested. But when i change the .html extension to .php in my .htaccess code the content pages starts reflecting "Internal Server Error. The server encountered an internal error or misconfiguration and was unable to complete your request." Here is my .htaccess code which i've used: RewriteBase / Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^([^?]*).php$ content.php?pid=$1 Perhaps there is a conflict, here is the code with .html extension that actually works fine. RewriteBase / Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^([^?]*).html$ content.php?pid=$1 So basically, content pages with .html are working & .php are not working. But i need my content pages to be with .php Please help. Thanks in advance... :)

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  • Routing redirection decision

    - by programming late night
    I have really no idea why I'm asking this as this a really completely irrelevant question for which I should have figured out an answer within milliseconds, yet I'm doing it. So in my project I have a Router class which splits up the request and selects the right page to be loaded. Fine so far. Now I have a page displayed when the user requests a page that doesn't exist, you know, 404. So theoretically, if the user entered mydomain.com/404 (I use mod_rewrite with a requests collector via index.php?req=*) the 404 error would be shown to him, but in fact there was no error - the 404 page would be displayed as a perfectly normal page. So if someone would try out requesting the 404 page via /404, he would be shown the page but he can't tell if the 404 page he requested doesn't exist and he is actually getting a, you guessed it, 404 error or if he actually found some flaw in the system that makes him able to see an error page when there is no error. I don't know how dumb this whole thing here is but I'm sure some of you have in fact ran into this problem already. Short version: If the user enters mydomain.com/404 the 404 page is shown even though there is no 404 error. I know this is a completely irrelevant question, please don't tell me, but I just spontaneously wanted to hear your thoughts on it. Strange eh? Should I redirect direct access to my 404-page to the home page? Should I do nothing? Should I just go to bed and stop asking irrelevant stuff?

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  • Images from url to listview

    - by Andres
    I have a listview which I show video results from YouTube. Everything works fine but one thing I noticed is that the way it works seems to be a bit slow and it might be due to my code. Are there any suggestions on how I can make this better? Maybe loading the images directly from the url instead of using a webclient? I am adding the listview items in a loop from video feeds returned from a query using the YouTube API. The piece of code which I think is slowing it down is this: Feed<Video> videoFeed = request.Get<Video>(query); int i = 0; foreach (Video entry in videoFeed.Entries) { string[] info = printVideoEntry(entry).Split(','); WebClient wc = new WebClient(); wc.DownloadFile(@"http://img.youtube.com/vi/" + info[0].ToString() + "/hqdefault.jpg", info[0].ToString() + ".jpg"); string[] row1 = { "", info[0].ToString(), info[1].ToString() }; ListViewItem item = new ListViewItem(row1, i); YoutubeList.Items.Add(item); imageListSmall.Images.Add(Bitmap.FromFile(info[0].ToString() + @".jpg")); imageListLarge.Images.Add(Bitmap.FromFile(info[0].ToString() + @".jpg")); } public static string printVideoEntry(Video video) { return video.VideoId + "," + video.Title; } As you can see I use a Webclient which downloads the images so then I can use them as image in my listview. It works but what I'm concerned about is speed..any suggestions? maybe a different control all together?

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  • JQuery: how to store records id for data from ajax query in dynamicly created html elements

    - by grapkulec
    Probably question title is rather cryptic but I will try to explain myself here so please bare with me :) Let's assume this configuration: server-side is PHP application responding for requests with data (list of items, single item details, etc.) in json format client-side is JQuery application sending ajax request to that PHP app and creating html content corresponding with received data So, for example: client requests "list of all animals with names staring with 'A'", gets the json response from server, and for every "animal" creates some html gizmo like div with animal description or something like that. It doesn't really matter what html element it will be but it has to point exactly to specific record by "containing" id of that record. And here is my dilemma: is it good solution to use "id" property for that? So it would be like: <div id="10" class="animal"> <p> This is animal of very mysterious kind... </p> </div> <div id="11" class="animal"> <p> And this one is very common to our country... </p> </div> where id="10" is of course indication that this is representation of record with id = 10. Or maybe I should store this record id in some custom made tag like <record_id>10</record_id> and leave an "id" strictly for what it was meant to be (css selector)? I need that record id for further stuff like updating database with some user input or deleting some of "animals" or creating new ones or anything that will be needed. All manipulations will be done with JQuery and ajax requests and responses will be visualized also with dynamic creation of html interface. I'm sure that somebody had to deal with that kind of stuff before so I would be grateful for some tips on that topic.

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  • Orbited exception Data must not be unicode.

    - by Sid
    I am working with orbited and once I switch on orbited in production mode it throws the following error on my screen -- <exception caught here> --- File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/web/server.py", line 150, in process self.render(resrc) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/web/server.py", line 157, in render body = resrc.render(self) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/orbited-0.7.10-py2.6.egg/orbited/transports/base.py", line 21, in render self.conn.transportOpened(self) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/orbited-0.7.10-py2.6.egg/orbited/cometsession.py", line 322, in transportOpened self.cometTransport.flush() File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/orbited-0.7.10-py2.6.egg/orbited/transports/base.py", line 45, in flush self.write(self.packets) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/orbited-0.7.10-py2.6.egg/orbited/transports/htmlfile.py", line 42, in write self.request.write(payload); File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/web/http.py", line 862, in write self.transport.write(data) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/tcp.py", line 420, in write abstract.FileDescriptor.write(self, bytes) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/abstract.py", line 170, in write raise TypeError("Data must not be unicode") exceptions.TypeError: Data must not be unicode I have absolutely no clue as to what could be the problem. Could anyone point me in the right direction.

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  • Where to prompt for required file location at start of Win Forms application

    - by Murph
    I have an application that uses a file to store its data. I store the location of the file in the app settings so have two tests at startup: Do I have a setting for the file and Does the file (if I have a setting) exist If I fail either test I want to prompt the user for the file location - the mechanics of the are not the problem, I can read and write the app settings, fire off dialogs and otherwise request the data. If the user refuses to choose a file (or at least a file location) I want to exit the app. My problem is where to do this i.e. at what point in the flow of code. In an ideal world you start the app, show a splash screen, load the main form and run from there... I'm looking for a general pattern that allows me to slot the test for parameters into the right place so that I can prompt the user for whatever (and allowing that I have to worry about the fact that my splash screen is currently topmost for my app). I appreciate that this is a bit vague so will update this with code as we go along.

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