Search Results

Search found 19279 results on 772 pages for 'everything'.

Page 584/772 | < Previous Page | 580 581 582 583 584 585 586 587 588 589 590 591  | Next Page >

  • Slow MySQL Query Breaking my back!

    - by Chris n
    so, I have tried everything I can think of, and can't get this query to happen in less than 3 seconds on my local server. I know the problem has to do with the OR referencing both the owner_id and the person_id. if I run one or the other it happens instantly, but together with an or I can't seem to make it work - I looked into rewriting the code, but the way the app was designed it won't be easy. is there a way I can call an equivalent or that won't take so long? here is the sql: SELECT event_types.name as event_type_name,event_types.id as id, count(events.id) as count,sum(events.estimated_duration) as time_sum FROM events,event_types WHERE event_types.id = events.event_type_id AND events.event_type_id != '4' AND ( events.status!='cancelled') AND events.event_type_id != 64 AND ( events.owner_id = 161 OR events.person_id = 161 ) GROUP BY event_types.name ORDER BY event_types.name DESC; Here's the Explain soup, although I'm guessing it's unnecessary cause there is probably a better way to structure that or that is obvious: thanks so much! chris. +----+-------------+-------------+-------+---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------+-------------------------------+---------+-------------------------------------+------+----------------------------------------------+ | id | select_type | table | type | possible_keys | key | key_len | ref | rows | Extra | +----+-------------+-------------+-------+---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------+-------------------------------+-- | 1 | SIMPLE | event_types | range | PRIMARY | PRIMARY | 4 | NULL | 78 | Using where; Using temporary; Using filesort | | 1 | SIMPLE | events | ref | index_events_on_status,index_events_on_event_type_id,index_events_on_person_id,index_events_on_owner_id | index_events_on_event_type_id | 5 | thenumber_production.event_types.id | 907 | Using where | +----+-------------+-------------+-------+---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------+-------------------------------+---------+-------------------------------------+------+----------------------------------------------+

    Read the article

  • Game login authentication and security.

    - by Charles
    First off I will say I am completely new to security in coding. I am currently helping a friend develop a small game (in Python) which will have a login server. I don't have much knowledge regarding security, but I know many games do have issues with this. Everything from 3rd party applications (bots) to WPE packet manipulation. Considering how small this game will be and the limited user base, I doubt we will have serious issues, but would like to try our best to limit problems. I am not sure where to start or what methods I should use, or what's worth it. For example, sending data to the server such as login name and password. I was told his information should be encrypted when sending, so in-case someone was viewing it (with whatever means), that they couldn't get into the account. However, if someone is able to capture the encrypted string, wouldn't this string always work since it's decrypted server side? In other words, someone could just capture the packet, reuse it, and still gain access to the account? The main goal I am really looking for is to make sure the players are logging into the game with the client we provide, and to make sure it's 'secure' (broad, I know). I have looked around at different methods such as Public and Private Key encryption, which I am sure any hex editor could eventually find. There are many other methods that seem way over my head at the moment and leave the impression of overkill. I realize nothing is 100% secure. I am just looking for any input or reading material (links) to accomplish the main goal stated above. Would appreciate any help, thanks.

    Read the article

  • richfaces progressBar polling

    - by John
    Hi, I've got a progressBar component defined as the following on my webpage: <rich:modalPanel id="pb1Panel"> <rich:progressBar id="pb1" oncomplete="javascript:#{myBean.handleProgressEvent()} closeProgressModalPanel()" value="#{pb1Listener.percentageComplete}" label="#{pb1Listener.percentageComplete} %" minValue="1" maxValue="100" limitToList="true" timeout="3200" interval="1400" enabled="false"/> </rich:modalPanel> and a button: <a4j:commandButton id="actButton" value="action" action="#{myBean.performAction}" immediate="true" ajaxSingle="true" onclick="javascript:Richfaces.showModalPanel('pb1Panel');" reRender="pb1Panel"> <a4j:support event="onClick" value="#{rich:component('pb1')}.enable()" reRender="pb1" /> </a4j:commandButton> which doesn't work. However if I take out the .... enabled="false"/> .... from the progress bar, and the element from the button, everything seems to work just fine. Any suggestion why it's not working? I'm setting enabled="false" initially because I do not want the polling to start unless the button was clicked (to reduce unnecessary polling). The system is building on richfaces/seam. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Building a python module and linking it against a MacOSX framework

    - by madflo
    I'm trying to build a Python extension on MacOSX 10.6 and to link it against several frameworks (i386 only). I made a setup.py file, using distutils and the Extension object. I order to link against my frameworks, my LDFLAGS env var should look like : LDFLAGS = -lc -arch i386 -framework fwk1 -framework fwk2 As I did not find any 'framework' keyword in the Extension module documentation, I used the extra_link_args keyword instead. Extension('test', define_macros = [('MAJOR_VERSION', '1'), ,('MINOR_VERSION', '0')], include_dirs = ['/usr/local/include', 'include/', 'include/vitale'], extra_link_args = ['-arch i386', '-framework fwk1', '-framework fwk2'], sources = "testmodule.cpp", language = 'c++' ) Everything is compiling and linking fine. If I remove the -framework line from the extra_link_args, my linker fails, as expected. Here is the last two lines produced by a python setup.py build : /usr/bin/g++-4.2 -arch x86_64 -arch i386 -isysroot / -L/opt/local/lib -arch x86_64 -arch i386 -bundle -undefined dynamic_lookup build/temp.macosx-10.6-intel-2.6/testmodule.o -o build/lib.macosx-10.6-intel-2.6/test.so -arch i386 -framework sgdosx -framework srtosx -framework ssvosx -framework stsosx Unfortunately, the .so that I just produced is unable to find several symbols provided by this framework. I tried to check the linked framework with otool. None of them is appearing. $ otool -L test.so test.so: /usr/lib/libstdc++.6.dylib (compatibility version 7.0.0, current version 7.9.0) /usr/lib/libSystem.B.dylib (compatibility version 1.0.0, current version 125.0.1) There is the output of otool run on a test binary, made with g++ and ldd using the LDFLAGS described at the top of my post. On this example, the -framework did work. $ otool -L vitaosx vitaosx: /Library/Frameworks/sgdosx.framework/Versions/A/sgdosx (compatibility version 1.0.0, current version 1.0.0) /Library/Frameworks/ssvosx.framework/Versions/A/ssvosx (compatibility version 1.0.0, current version 1.0.0) /usr/lib/libstdc++.6.dylib (compatibility version 7.0.0, current version 7.9.0) /usr/lib/libSystem.B.dylib (compatibility version 1.0.0, current version 125.0.1) May this issue be linked to the "-undefined dynamic_lookup" flag on the linking step ? I'm a little bit confused by the few lines of documentation that I'm finding on Google. Cheers,

    Read the article

  • "Illegal characters in path." Visual Studio WinForm Design View

    - by jacksonakj
    I am putting together a lightweight MVP pattern for a WinForms project. Everything compiles and runs fine. However when I attempt to open the WinForm in design mode in Visual Studio I get a "Illegal characters in path" error. My WinForm is using generics and inheriting from a base Form class. Is there a problem with using generics in a WinForm? Here is the WinForm and base Form class. public partial class TapsForm : MvpForm<TapsPresenter, TapsFormModel>, ITapsView { public TapsForm() { InitializeComponent(); } public TapsForm(TapsPresenter presenter) :base(presenter) { InitializeComponent(); UpdateModel(); } public IList<Taps> Taps { set { gridTaps.DataSource = value; } } private void UpdateModel() { Model.RideId = Int32.Parse(cboRide.Text); Model.Latitude = Double.Parse(txtLatitude.Text); Model.Longitude = Double.Parse(txtLongitude.Text); } } Base form MvpForm: public class MvpForm<TPresenter, TModel> : Form, IView where TPresenter : class, IPresenter where TModel : class, new() { private readonly TPresenter presenter; private TModel model; public MvpForm() { } public MvpForm(TPresenter presenter) { this.presenter = presenter; this.presenter.RegisterView(this); } protected override void OnLoad(EventArgs e) { base.OnLoad(e); if (presenter != null) presenter.IntializeView(); } public TModel Model { get { if (model == null) throw new InvalidOperationException("The Model property is currently null, however it should have been automatically initialized by the presenter. This most likely indicates that no presenter was bound to the control. Check your presenter bindings."); return model; } set { model = value;} } }

    Read the article

  • Help with Perl persistent data storage using Data::Dumper

    - by stephenmm
    I have been trying to figure this out for way to long tonight. I have googled it to death and none of the examples or my hacks of the examples are getting it done. It seems like this should be pretty easy but I just cannot get it. Here is the code: #!/usr/bin/perl -w use strict; use Data::Dumper; my $complex_variable = {}; my $MEMORY = "$ENV{HOME}/data/memory-file"; $complex_variable->{ 'key' } = 'value'; $complex_variable->{ 'key1' } = 'value1'; $complex_variable->{ 'key2' } = 'value2'; $complex_variable->{ 'key3' } = 'value3'; print Dumper($complex_variable)."TEST001\n"; open M, ">$MEMORY" or die; print M Data::Dumper->Dump([$complex_variable], ['$complex_variable']); close M; $complex_variable = {}; print Dumper($complex_variable)."TEST002\n"; # Then later to restore the value, it's simply: do $MEMORY; #eval $MEMORY; print Dumper($complex_variable)."TEST003\n"; And here is my output: $VAR1 = { 'key2' => 'value2', 'key1' => 'value1', 'key3' => 'value3', 'key' => 'value' }; TEST001 $VAR1 = {}; TEST002 $VAR1 = {}; TEST003 Everything that I read says that the TEST003 output should look identical to the TEST001 output which is exactly what I am trying to achieve. What am I missing here? Should I be "do"ing differently or should I be "eval"ing instead and if so how? Thanks for any help...

    Read the article

  • Don't Allow link generates a 500 Internal Error

    - by jstawski
    I'm developing an application for Facebook using the iframe mode and ASP.NET. I'm able to use the new OAuth method that combines the allow and the extended permissions. When I click on the Allow everything works as expected, but when I click on the "Don't Allow" I get a 500 internal error. The Request For Permission url is: http://www.facebook.com/connect/uiserver.php?client_id=389845102120&scope=publish_stream%2Cuser_birthday%2Cemail&redirect_uri=http%3A%2F%2Fapps.facebook.com%2Fplumreward%2FDefault.aspx%3Fpid%3D124733857540930&display=page&next=http%3A%2F%2Fgraph.facebook.com%2Foauth%2Fauthorize_success%3Fclient_id%3D389845102120%26scope%3Dpublish_stream%252Cuser_birthday%252Cemail%26redirect_uri%3Dhttp%253A%252F%252Fapps.facebook.com%252Fplumreward%252FDefault.aspx%253Fpid%253D124733857540930%26type%3Dweb_server&cancel_url=http%3A%2F%2Fgraph.facebook.com%2Foauth%2Fauthorize_cancel%3Fclient_id%3D389845102120%26scope%3Dpublish_stream%252Cuser_birthday%252Cemail%26redirect_uri%3Dhttp%253A%252F%252Fapps.facebook.com%252Fplumreward%252FDefault.aspx%253Fpid%253D124733857540930%26type%3Dweb_server&app_id=389845102120&method=permissions.request&return_session=1&perms=publish_stream%2Cuser_birthday%2Cemail When I click don't allow it goes to http://www.facebook.com/connect/uiserver.php and then to http://graph.facebook.com/oauth/authorize_success?client_id=389845102120&scope=publish_stream%2Cuser_birthday%2Cemail&redirect_uri=http%3A%2F%2Fapps.facebook.com%2Fplumreward%2FDefault.aspx%3Fpid%3D124733857540930&type=web_server&perms&selected_profiles=567961887 with a HTTP 500 Internal Server Error. What am I doing wrong? Am I missing a setting, parameter? Is this a FB bug?

    Read the article

  • Can't log in a user in MVC!

    - by devlife
    I have been scratching my head on this for a while now but still can't get it. I'm trying to simply log in a user in an MVC2 application. I have tried everything that I know to try but still can't figure out what I'm doing wrong. Here are a few things that I have tried: FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie( emailAddress, rememberMe ); var cookie = FormsAuthentication.GetAuthCookie( emailAddress, rememberMe ); HttpContext.Response.Cookies.Add( cookie ); FormsAuthenticationTicket ticket = new FormsAuthenticationTicket( emailAddress, rememberMe, 15 ); FormsIdentity identity = new FormsIdentity( ticket ); GenericPrincipal principal = new GenericPrincipal(identity, new string[0]); HttpContext.User = principal; I'm not sure if any of this is the right thing to do (as it's not working). After setting HttpContext.User = principal then Request.IsAuthenticated == true. However, in Global.asax I have this: HttpCookie authenCookie = Context.Request.Cookies.Get( FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName ); The only cookie that ever is available is the aspnet session cookie. Any ideas at all would be much appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Strange ng-model behavior inside ng-repeat

    - by Mike Fisher
    I'm trying to build up a complex post request to run a report in my Angular app. I have a list of inputs all dynamically generated via an ng-repeat a simple version of my html looks like this. <div ng-repeat="filter in lists.filters"> <input type="checkbox" ng-model="report.options.filters[filter.value]['type']/> <input type="text" ng-model="report.options.filters[filter.value]['values']/> </div> ng-repeat is looping over this array [ {name: 'Advertisers', value: 'advertisers'}, {name: 'Sizes', value: 'sizes'}, {name: 'Campaign IDs', value: 'campaigns'}, {name: 'Creative IDs', value: 'creatives'}, {name: 'Publishers', value: 'publishers'}, {name: 'Placement IDs', value: 'placements'}, {name: 'Seller Types', value: 'seller_types'}, {name: 'Impression Types', value: 'impression_types'}, {name: 'Bid Types', value: 'bid_types'}, {name: 'Seller Members', value: 'seller_members'}, {name: 'Buyer Members', value: 'buyer_members'}, {name: 'Insertion Order Ids', value: 'insertion_orders'}, {name: 'Countries', value: 'countries'}, {name: 'Site Ids', value: 'sites'}, {name: 'Sources', value: 'sources'} ]; The JSON I'm sending back needs to be structured like this: "filters": { "state": "all", "campaigns": {type:"include", values":[1,2]}, "creatives": {type:"exclude","values":[1,2]}, "publishers": {"values":[1,2]}, "placements": {type:"exclude",values":[1,2]}, "advertisers": {"values":[1,2]}, "sizes": {"values":[1,2]}, "countries": {"values":[1,2]}, "insertion_orders": {"values":[1,2]}, "sites": {"values":[1,2]}, "bid_types": {"values":[1,2]}, "seller_types": {"values":[1,2]}, "impression_types": {"values":[1,2]}, "seller_members": {"values":[1,2]}, "buyer_members": {"values":[1,2]}, "sources": {"values":[1,2]} } When I do this Angular throws an error: 'Cannot set property 'values' of undefined' and 'Cannot set property 'type' of undefined' Yet if I do this (inside ng-repeat) <input type="text" ng-model="report.options.filters[filter.value]/> Or this outside of ng-repeat <input type="text" ng-model="report.options.filters[filter.value]['values']/> No errors are thrown and everything works fine. I'm positive that filter.value is defined and available on the scope even though Angular thinks it's not for some reason. I'm not quite sure what I'm doing wrong. Any help is much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • CKEditor instance in a jQuery dialog

    - by Gazillion
    Hey, I am using jQuery to open a dialog window with a textarea transformed into an instance of CKEditor. I'm using the jQuery adapter provided by the CKEditor team but when the dialog window opens up I cannot interact with the editor (it's created but "null" is written in the content space and I can't click on anything or modify the content). This bug report seems to say that by using a patch provided the issue is fixed but it doesn't seem to be working for me... Here's my code (maybe I did something wrong programmatically): HTML: <div id="ad_div" title="Analyse documentaire"> <textarea id="ad_content" name="ad_content"></textarea> </div> My includes (Everything is included correctly but maybe it's an including order issue?): <script type="text/javascript" src="includes/ckeditor/ckeditor.js"></script> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="includes/jquery/css/custom-theme/jquery-ui-1.7.2.custom.css" /> <script type="text/javascript" src="includes/jquery/js/jquery-1.3.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="includes/jquery/js/jquery-ui-1.7.2.custom.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="includes/jquery/plugins/dialog-patch.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="includes/ckeditor/adapters/jquery.js"></script> Javascript: $('#ad_content').ckeditor(); /* snip */ $('#ad_div').dialog( { modal: true, resizable: false, draggable: false, position: ['center','center'], width: 600, height: 500, hide: 'slide', show: 'slide', closeOnEscape: true, autoOpen: false }); $('.analyse_cell').click(function(){ $('#ad_div').dialog('open'); });

    Read the article

  • rails best practices where to place unobtrusive javascript

    - by nathanvda
    Hi there, my rails applications (all 2.3.5) use a total mix of inline javascript, rjs, prototype and jquery. Let's call it learning or growing pains. Lately i have been more and more infatuated with unobtrusive javascript. It makes your html clean, in the same way css cleaned it up. But most examples i have seen are small examples, and they put all javascript(jquery) inside application.js Now i have a pretty big application, and i am thinking up ways to structure my js. I like somehow that my script is still close to the view, so i am thinking something like orders.html.erb orders.js where orders.js contains the unobtrusive javascript specific to that view. But maybe that's just me being too conservative :) I have read some posts by Yehuda Katz about this very problem here and here, where he tackles this problem. It will go through your js-files and only load those relevant to your view. But alas i can't find a current implementation. So my questions: how do you best structure your unobtrusive javascript; manage your code, how do you make sure that it is obvious from the html what something is supposed to do. I guess good class names go a long way :) how do you arrange your files, load them all in? just a few? do you use content_for :script or javascript_include_tag in your view to load the relevant scripts. Or ... ? do you write very generic functions (like a delete), with parameters (add extra attributes?), or do you write very specific functions (DRY?). I know in Rails 3 there is a standard set, and everything is unobtrusive there. But how to start in Rails 2.3.5? In short: what are the best practices for doing unobtrusive javascript in rails? :)

    Read the article

  • Calling SubmitChanges on DataContext does not update database.

    - by drasto
    In C# ASP.NET MVC application I use Link to SQL to provide data for my application. I have got simple database schema like this: In my controller class I reference this data context called Model (as you can see on the right side of picture in properties) like this: private Model model = new Model(); I've got a table (List) of Series rendered on my page. It renders properly and I was able to add delete functionality to delete Series like this: public ActionResult Delete(int id) { model.Series.DeleteOnSubmit(model.Series.SingleOrDefault(s => s.ID == id)); model.SubmitChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } Where appropriate action link looks like this: <%: Html.ActionLink("Delete", "Delete", new { id=item.ID })%> Also create (implemented in similar way) works fine. However edit does not work. My edit looks like this: public ActionResult Edit(int id) { return View(model.Series.SingleOrDefault(s => s.ID == id)); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(Series series) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { UpdateModel(series); series.Title = series.Title + " some string to ensure title has changed"; model.SubmitChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } I have controlled that my database has a primary key set up correctly. I debugged my application and found out that everything works as expected until the line with model.SubmitChanges();. This command does not apply the changes of Title property(or any other) against the database. Please help.

    Read the article

  • Use localeURL middleware with apache prefix

    - by Olivier R.
    Good morning everyone, I Got a question about localeURL usage. Everything works great for me with url like this : www.mysite.com/ If I type www.mysite.com/ in adress bar, it turns correctly in www.mysite.com/en/ for example. If I use the view change_locale, it's also all right (ie change www.mysite.com/en/ in www.mysite.com/fr/). But my application use apache as server, and use a prefix for the site, that gives url like this : www.mysite.com/prefix/ If I type www.mysite.com/prefix/ in the adress bar, the adress turns into www.mysite.com/en/ without prefix (so 404) I change code of view to manage our settings.SERVER_PREFIX value : def change_locale(request) : """ Redirect to a given url while changing the locale in the path The url and the locale code need to be specified in the request parameters. O. Rochaix; Taken from localeURL view, and tuned to manage : - SERVER_PREFIX from settings.py """ next = request.REQUEST.get('next', None) if not next: next = request.META.get('HTTP_REFERER', None) if not next: next = settings.SERVER_PREFIX + '/' next = urlsplit(next).path prefix = False if settings.SERVER_PREFIX!="" and next.startswith(settings.SERVER_PREFIX) : prefix = True next = "/" + next.lstrip(settings.SERVER_PREFIX) _, path = utils.strip_path (next) if request.method == 'POST': locale = request.POST.get('locale', None) if locale and check_for_language(locale): path = utils.locale_path(path, locale) if prefix : path = settings.SERVER_PREFIX + path response = http.HttpResponseRedirect(path) return response with this customized view, i'm able to correctly change language, but i'm not sure that's the right way of doing stuff. Is there any option on localeURL to manage prefix of apache ?

    Read the article

  • Why `A & a = a` is valid?

    - by psaghelyi
    #include <iostream> #include <assert.h> using namespace std; struct Base { Base() : m_member1(1) {} Base(const Base & other) { assert(this != &other); // this should trigger m_member1 = other.m_member1; } int m_member1; }; struct Derived { Derived(Base & base) : m_base(m_base) {} // m_base(base) Base & m_base; }; void main() { Base base; Derived derived(base); cout << derived.m_base.m_member1 << endl; // crashes here } The above example is a synthesized version of a mistyped constructor. I used reference at the class member Derived::m_base because I wanted to make sure that the member will be initialized as the constructor had called. One problem is that nor GCC nor MSVC gives me a warning at m_base(m_base). But the more serious for me is that the assert finds everything fine and the application crashes later (sometimes far away from the mistake). Question: Is there any way to indicate such mistakes?

    Read the article

  • Dynamic Google Maps API InfoWindow HTML Content

    - by Peter Hanneman
    I am working in Flash Builder 4 with Google Map's ActionScript API. I have created a map, loaded some custom markers onto it and added some MouseEvent listeners to each marker. The trouble comes when I load an InfoWindow panel. I want to dynamically set the htmlContent based off of information stored in a database. The trouble is that this information can change every couple of seconds and each marker has a unique data set so I can not statically set it at the time I actually create the markers. I have a method that will every minute or so load all of the records from my database into an Object variable. Everything I need to display in the htmlContent is contained in this object under a unique identifier. The basic crux of the problem is that there is no way for me to uniquely identify an info window, so I can not determine what information to pull into the panel. marker.addEventListener(MapMouseEvent.ROLL_OVER, function(e:MapMouseEvent):void { showInfoWindow(e.latLng) }, false, 0, false); That is my mouse event listener. The function I call, "showInfowindow" looks like this: private function showInfoWindow(latlng:LatLng):void { var options:InfoWindowOptions = new InfoWindowOptions({title: appData[*I NEED A UNIQUE ID HERE!!!*].type + " Summary", contentHTML: appData[*I NEED A UNIQUE ID HERE!!!*].info}); this.map.openInfoWindow(latlng, options); } I thought I was onto something by being able to pass a variable in my event listener declaration, but it simply hates having a dynamic variable passed through, it only returns the last value use. Example: marker.addEventListener(MapMouseEvent.ROLL_OVER, function(e:MapMouseEvent):void { showInfoWindow(e.latLng, record.unit_id) }, false, 0, false); That solution is painfully close to working. I iterate through a loop to create my markers when I try the above solution and roll over a marker I get information, but every marker's information reflects whatever information the last marker created had. I apologize for the long explaination but I just wanted to make my question as clear as possible. Does anyone have any ideas about how to patch up my almost-there-solution that I posted at the bottom or any from the ground up solutions? Thanks in advance, Peter Hanneman

    Read the article

  • jquery ui-tabs widget , changing the color of the background with css causes problem with display

    - by Ronedog
    I'm using the jquery tabs plugin and want to have the background a light grey color. In the css section for tabs, I found this line of code where I manually added the background-color part: .ui-tabs .ui-tabs-panel { padding: 1em 1em; display: block; border-width: 0; background-color:#EEEEEE;} The problem comes as seen in the picture below, where the grey background is only extending down part of the way. I initially thought I could update the div container with the same background color, but it didn't work. It looks like that white portion below might be some kind of padding, so I looked for that in the css but everything I tried had the same effect. Anyone got some ideas? This is what the HTML looks like (Theoretically): <div id="tabs_here"> <ul> <li><a href="#" onclick="$('#T_1').html('Display the data');" >Item Groups</a> </li> </ul> <div id="T_1"></div> </div>

    Read the article

  • MSBuild "Wrapper" fails while VS2010 "Pure" compile succeeds for MFC application in CruiseControl.NE

    - by ee
    The Overview I am working on a Continuous Integration build of a MFC appliction via CruiseControl.net and VS2010. When building my .sln, a "Visual Studio" CCNet task (devenv) works, but a wrapper MSBuild script run via the CCNet MSBuild task fails with errors like: error RC1015: cannot open include file 'winres.h'.. error C1083: Cannot open include file: 'afxwin.h': No such file or directory error C1083: Cannot open include file: 'afx.h': No such file or directory The Question How can I adjust the build environment of my msbuild wrapper so that the application builds correctly? (Pretty clearly the MFC paths aren't right for the msbuild environment, but how do i fix it for MSBuild+VS2010+MFC+CCNet?) Background Details We have successfully upgraded an MFC application (.exe with some MFC extension .dlls) to Visual Studio 2010 and can compile the application without issue on developer machines. Now I am working on compiling the application on the CI server environment I did a full installation of VS2010 (Professional) on the build server. In this way, I knew everything I needed would be on the machine (one way or another) and that this would be consistent with developer machines. VS2010 is correctly installed on the CI server, and the devenv task works as expected I now have a wrapper MSBuild script that does some extended version processing and then builds the .sln for the application via an MSBuild task. This wrapper script is run via CCNet's MSBuild task and fails with the above mentioned errors My Assumptions This seems to be a missing/wrong configuration of include paths to standard header resources of the MFC persuasion I should be able to coerce the MSBuild environment to consider the relevant resource files from my VS2010 install and have this approach work. But how do I do that? Am I setting Environment variables? Registry settings? I can see how one can inject additional directories in some cases, but this seems to need a more systemic configuration at the compiler defaults level.

    Read the article

  • Cannot spawn an erlang supervisor from the shell.

    - by drfloob
    I've implemented a gen_server and supervisor: test_server and test_sup. I want to test them from the shell/CLI. I've written their start_link functions such that their names are registered locally. I've found that I can spawn the test_server from the command line just fine, but a spawned test_sup does nothing whatsoever. Why is this? For example, I can spawn a test_server by executing: 1> spawn(test_server, start_link, []). <0.39.0> 2> registered(). [...,test_server,...] I can interact with the server, and everything appears fine. However, if I try to do the same thing with test_sup, no new names/Pids are registered, and it looks like my test_server was not spawned at all. I'd assume I coded an error in my supervisor, but this method of starting my supervisor works perfectly fine: 1> {ok, Pid}= test_sup:start_link([]). {ok, <0.39.0>} 2> unlink(Pid). true 3> registered(). [...,test_server,test_sup,...] Why is it that I can spawn a gen_server but not a supervisor?

    Read the article

  • RMI no such object in table, Server communication error

    - by ben-casey
    My goal is to create a Distributed computing program that launches a server and client at the same time. I need it to be able to install on a couple of machines and have all the machines communicating with each other, i.e. Master node and 5 slave nodes all from one application. My problem is that I cannot properly use unicastRef, I'm thinking that it is a problem with launching everything on the same port, is there a better way I am overlooking? this is part of my code (the part that matters) try { RMIServer obj = new RMIServer(); obj.start(5225); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } try { System.out.println("We are slave's "); Registry rr = LocateRegistry.getRegistry("127.0.0.1", Store.PORT, new RClient()); Call ss = (Call) rr.lookup("FILLER"); System.out.println(ss.getHello()); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } this is my main class (above) this is the server class (below) public RMIServer() { } public void start(int port) throws Exception { try { Registry registry = LocateRegistry.createRegistry(port, new RClient(), new RServer()); Call stuff = new Call(); registry.bind("FILLER", stuff); System.out.println("Server ready"); } catch (Exception e) { System.err.println("Server exception: " + e.toString()); e.printStackTrace(); } } I don't know what I am missing or what I am overlooking but the output looks like this. Listen on 5225 Listen on 8776 Server ready We are slave's Listen on 8776 java.rmi.NoSuchObjectException: no such object in table at sun.rmi.transport.StreamRemoteCall.exceptionReceivedFromServer(StreamRemoteCall.java:255) at sun.rmi.transport.StreamRemoteCall.executeCall(StreamRemoteCall.java:233) at sun.rmi.server.UnicastRef.invoke(UnicastRef.java:359) at sun.rmi.registry.RegistryImpl_Stub.lookup(Unknown Source) at Main.main(Main.java:62) line 62 is this ::: Call ss = (Call) rr.lookup("FILLER");

    Read the article

  • QueryString malformed after URLDecode

    - by pdavis
    I'm trying to pass in a Base64 string into a C#.Net web application via the QueryString. When the string arrives the "+" (plus) sign is being replaced by a space. It appears that the automatic URLDecode process is doing this. I have no control over what is being passed via the QueryString. Is there any way to handle this server side? Example: http://localhost:3399/Base64.aspx?VLTrap=VkxUcmFwIHNldCB0byAiRkRTQT8+PE0iIHBsdXMgb3IgbWludXMgNSBwZXJjZW50Lg== Produces: VkxUcmFwIHNldCB0byAiRkRTQT8 PE0iIHBsdXMgb3IgbWludXMgNSBwZXJjZW50Lg== People have suggested URLEncoding the querystring: System.Web.HttpUtility.UrlEncode(yourString) I can't do that as I have no control over the calling routine (which is working fine with other languages). There was also the suggestion of replacing spaces with a plus sign: Request.QueryString["VLTrap"].Replace(" ", "+"); I had though of this but my concern with it, and I should have mentioned this to start, is that I don't know what other characters might be malformed in addition to the plus sign. My main goal is to intercept the QueryString before it is run through the decoder. To this end I tried looking at Request.QueryString.toString() but this contained the same malformed information. Is there any way to look at the raw QueryString before it is URLDecoded? After further testing it appears that .Net expects everything coming in from the QuerString to be URL encoded but the browser does not automatically URL encode GET requests.

    Read the article

  • Can SOTI's MobiControl software interfere with an ASP.Net web service?

    - by MusiGenesis
    We have a set of WinMo (5.0) devices running a .NET CF application that talks to an ASP.Net web service running on a server. The devices connect to the network either via ActiveSync through a networked PC or directly to the network via an Ethernet dongle. In our development environment, the communication between devices and web service is 100% reliable. In our production environment, the communications are failing erratically and unpredictably. Sometimes calls to the web service (even to a simple test call that just returns a boolean) begin failing every time on a particular device, with the error message "Could not establish connection to network." This is usually fixed by flip-flopping the selected combo box values on the SETTINGS | NETWORKS screen. Sometimes calls on a particular device begin failing with a generic "WebException" message. The fix for this problem (so far) is either to reset the device (i.e. reinstall the OS) or else it just can't be fixed on some devices. To the best of our knowledge, everything about the DEV and PROD systems are the same (same server and device specs). The most obvious difference to us is that the PROD devices are all controlled by SOTI's MobiControl (which is server-side software that communicates with a SOTI client application installed on each device), whereas our DEV environment does not have SOTI installed anywhere (obviously we should have it there as well - long story). Does anybody have any experience with SOTI MobiControl and/or know of any documented problems where SOTI interferes with other communication mechanisms on a device?

    Read the article

  • How does real-time collaboration with multiple clients work in a system using operation transformati

    - by Saikat Chakrabarti
    I just finished reading High-Latency, Low-Bandwidth Windowing in the Jupiter Collaboration System and I mostly followed everything until part 6: global consistency. This part describes how the system described in the paper can be extended to accomodate for multiple clients connected to the server. However, the explanation is very short and essentially says the system will work if the central server merely forwards client messages to all the other clients. I don't really understand how this works though. What state vector would be sent in the message that is sent to all the other clients? Does the server maintain separate state vectors for each client? Does it maintain a separate copy of the widgets locally for each client? The simple example I can think of is this setup: imagine client A, server, and client B with client A and client B both connected to the server. To start, all three have the state object "ABCD". Then, client A sends the message "insert character F at position 0" at the same time client B sends the message "insert character G at position 0" to the server. It seems like simply relaying client A's message to client B and vice versa doesn't actually handle this case. So what exactly does the server do?

    Read the article

  • Scrolling screen upward to expose TextView above keyboard

    - by Matt Winters
    I think I'm missing something obvious and would appreciate an answer. I have a view with a 2-section grouped tableView, each section having one row and a textView, the heights of the rows 335 and 140. This allows for a box with nicely rounded corners to type text into when the keyboard appears (140 height section) and when the keyboard is dismissed, a nice box to read more text (notes); most of the time, use is without the keyboard. I also added a toolbar at the bottom of the screen to scroll up above the keyboard. A button on the toolbar dismisses the keyboard. This last part works fine with the keyboard going up and down using a notification and the following code in a keyboardWillShow method: [UIView beginAnimations:@"showKeyboardAnimation" context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.50]; self.view.frame = CGRectMake(self.view.frame.origin.x, self.view.frame.origin.y, self.view.frame.size.width, self.view.frame.size.height - 216); [UIView commitAnimations]; But with the above code, the 2 sections of the tableView remain unscrolled, only the toolbar and the keyboard move. With the following code (found both in previous posts), both the toolbar and the tableView sections move. [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:NULL]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.50]; CGRect rect = self.view.frame; rect.origin.y -= 216; self.view.frame = rect; [UIView commitAnimations]; Now I know that I have to tweak the numbers to get the everything as I want it but my first question is what is substantively different between the 2 sets of code that the sections move in the 2nd but not in the 1st? The toolbar also moves with the 2nd code. The second question is, am I going to be able to scroll the smaller height section from off the screen to above the keyboard while at the same time moving the toolbar up just 216? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Duplicate entries on mysql on insert using doctrine

    - by Nikos Galis
    Hi all! I am facing a very weird problem with mysql and doctrine [with help of codeIgniter]. I am trying to make a simple migration script taking all records from one table and after a little process, saving them to another. However, on my laptop [running windows and wamp] I get double numbers of the original table records to have been copied to the destination table. In my colleagues' laptops, everything works fine! We are all using mysql 5.0.86 [plus windows plus wamp]. Here is the code : function buggy_function(){ $this->db(); //get db connection $q = Doctrine_Query::create()->from('Oldtable r'); $oldrecords = $q->fetchArray(); $count = 0; foreach ($oldrecords as $oldrecord){ $newrecord = new NewTableClass(); $newrecord->password = md5($oldrecord['password']); $newrecord->save(); echo $newrecord->id. ' Id -> saved.' } } Simple as that! I have 39 records on the Old table and I am getting 78 records in the new table, which are exactly the same records, except from the unique primary key. It seems as if the script runs twice. But the output of the script is the following : 1 Id -> saved. 2 Id -> saved. ... ... 39 Id -> saved. Do you have any idea why this is happening? Any known bug for mysql? Thank you in advanced!'

    Read the article

  • Linq to SQL Problem System.Data.Linq.IdentityManager.StandardIdentityManager.MultiKeyManager

    - by luckyluke
    I have a really tricky thing going up here. My project has around 100 tables and they are all mapped by LINQ. Everything works fine in a dev and test environment. These enviroments are MS Win 2008 r2 servers with SQL 2008 sp1 databases. IIS and SQL are on a different machines. Now on production enviroment which is MS Win 2003 x64 web farm + geoclustered SQL 2008 IT DOES not work. All I get is the exception System.IndexOutOfRangeException: Index was outside the bounds of the array. at System.Data.Linq.IdentityManager.StandardIdentityManager.MultiKeyManager3.TryCreateKeyFr>om Values(Object[] values, MultiKey& k) at System.Data.Linq.IdentityManager.StandardIdentityManager.IdentityCache2.Find(Object[] keyValues) at System.Data.Linq.ChangeProcessor.GetOtherItem(MetaAssociation assoc, Object instance) at System.Data.Linq.ChangeProcessor.BuildEdgeMaps() at System.Data.Linq.ChangeProcessor.SubmitChanges(ConflictMode failureMode) at System.Data.Linq.DataContext.SubmitChanges(ConflictMode failureMode) at ERS.IIMP.Services.ExposuresSrv.Update(Int32 ExpID, Int32 AssID) Services\ExposuresSrv.cs` My question is What the hell. They have precisely the same DBML, the DB has exactly THE SAME structure (when I get the DB from prod to TEST and mount it eveything works just great), the binaries on the WEB Server are the same. I seriously do not know what to do.... Did anyone found that Linq works on one env and does not on the second?? I mam really lost here. I really hope You can help me:)

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 580 581 582 583 584 585 586 587 588 589 590 591  | Next Page >