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  • Flush separate Castle ActiveRecord Transaction, and refresh object in another Transaction

    - by eanticev
    I've got all of my ASP.NET requests wrapped in a Session and a Transaction that gets commited only at the very end of the request. At some point during execution of the request, I would like to insert an object and make it visible to other potential threads - i.e. split the insertion into a new transaction, commit that transaction, and move on. The reason is that the request in question hits an API that then chain hits another one of my pages (near-synchronously) to let me know that it processed, and thus double submits a transaction record, because the original request had not yet finished, and thus not committed the transaction record. So I've tried wrapping the insertion code with a new SessionScope, TransactionScope(TransactionMode.New), combination of both, flushing everything manually, etc. However, when I call Refresh on the object I'm still getting the old object state. Here's some code sample for what I'm seeing: Post outsidePost = Post.Find(id); // status of this post is Status.Old using (TransactionScope transaction = new TransactionScope(TransactionMode.New)) { Post p = Post.Find(id); p.Status = Status.New; // new status set here p.Update(); SessionScope.Current.Flush(); transaction.Flush(); transaction.VoteCommit(); } outsidePost.Refresh(); // refresh doesn't get the new status, status is still Status.Old Any suggestions, ideas, and comments are appreciated!

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  • jQuery: Traversing AJAX response in Chrome/Safari

    - by jitzo
    I'm trying to traverse an AJAX response, which contains a remote web page (an HTML output). My goal is to iterate through the 'script', 'link', and 'title' elements of the remote page - load them if necessary, and embed its contents to the current page. Its working great in FF/IE, but for some reason - Chrome & Safari behaves differently: When I run a .each() loop on the response, Chrome/Safari seems to omit everything that is under the section of the page. Here's my current code: $.ajax({ url: 'remoteFile.php', cache: false, dataFilter: function(data) { console.log(data); /* The output seems to contain the entire response, including the <head> section - on all browsers, including Chrome/Safari */ $(data).filter("link, script, title").each(function(i) { console.log($(this)); /* IE/FF outputs all of the link/script/title elements, Chrome will output only those that are not in the <head> section */ }); console.log($(data)); /* This also outputs the incomplete structure on Chrome/Safari */ return data; }, success: function(response) {} }); I've been struggling with this problem for quite a while now, i've found some other similar cases on google searches, but no real solution. This happens on both jQuery 1.4.2, and jQuery 1.3.2. I really don't want to parse the response with .indexOf() and .substring() - it seems to me that it will be an overkill for the client. Many thanks in advance!

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  • Socket errors of 10048 on the client? Possible causes?

    - by Earlz
    Hello, I'm writing a custom TCP server and client and on doing a ton of requests (60,000 to be exact) I begin to get this socket error of 10048, which should mean "the address is already in use." The error keeps happening unless I pause the process for like 2 or 3 minutes and then begin it again, and then it begins to bring up the same error a short while after restarting it. If I pause the client process and restart the server process, I still get the same error on the client. So it is a complete client side problem. This does not make sense though, this error only usually occurs when binding and this error happens on the client and not the server. What could be the possible reasons for it? A small excerpt of my initialization: TcpClient client = new TcpClient(); client.Connect("XXXXX -- some ip", 25000); client.NoDelay = true; NetworkStream clientStream = client.GetStream(); Also, everything else seems to be working fine(including the amount of time it takes to send back and forth) and this works perfectly when using 127.0.0.1 but when putting it on another LAN computer I begin to get the 10048 error. Is there something wrong with how I initialize it? What else could cause this error on the client side?

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  • Flash video player doesn't play after rewriting a url

    - by Joel
    Hi! I recently started a new job working on a content management system. One of the jobs was to implement url rewriting, which i've done, but for some reason the URL rewriting has killed the ability to play flv files through FLVPlayer_Progressive. An example can be seen below: Working if you then follow the link on the menu and go to Campaigns It's a Living Thing you can see how it's not working when the url is being re-written. Below is the html for the object tag i'm setting within a gui editor on the admin side, everything on that end works also! <object height="160" width="284" classid="clsid:D27CDB6E-AE6D-11cf-96B8-444553540000" codebase="http://download.macromedia.com/pub/shockwave/cabs/flash/swflash.cab#version=8,0,0,0" id="FLVPlayer"> <param name="movie" value="/sitefiles/PeachSocial/flash/FLVPlayer_Progressive.swf"> <param name="salign" value="lt"> <param name="quality" value="high"> <param name="scale" value="noscale"> <param name="FlashVars" value="&amp;MM_ComponentVersion=1&amp;skinName=Clear_Skin_1&amp;autoPlay=true&amp;autoRewind=true&amp;streamName=/sitefiles/PeachSocial/flash/dept_envrnmnt"> <embed src="/sitefiles/PeachSocial/flash/FLVPlayer_Progressive.swf" flashvars="&amp;MM_ComponentVersion=1&amp;skinName=Clear_Skin_1&amp;autoPlay=true&amp;autoRewind=true&amp;streamName=/sitefiles/PeachSocial/flash/dept_envrnmnt" quality="high" scale="noscale" name="FLVPlayer" salign="LT" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" pluginspage="http://www.adobe.com/shockwave/download/download.cgi?P1_Prod_Version=ShockwaveFlash" width="284" height="160"> </object> I would have thought giving the path the way i am would have taken it back to the server root and gone from there, but it doesn't seem to like it once the url rewriting happens. Anyways i'm outta ideas after a pretty frustrating day of trying to pass the thing absolute urls, relative paths and the like and am hoping a fresh set of eyes may help.

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  • Why does VBA Find loop fail when called from Evaluate?

    - by Abiel
    I am having some problems running a find loop inside of a subroutine when the routine is called using the Application.Evaluate or ActiveSheet.Evaluate method. For example, in the code below, I define a subroutine FindSub() which searches the sheet for a string "xxx". The routine CallSub() calls the FindSub() routine using both a standard Call statement and Evaluate. When I run Call FindSub, everything will work as expected: each matching address gets printed out to the immediate window and we get a final message "Finished up" when the code is done. However, when I do Application.Evaluate "FindSub()", only the address of the first match gets printed out, and we never reach the "Finished up" message. In other words, an error is encountered after the Cells.FindNext line as the loop tries to evaluate whether it should continue, and program execution stops without any runtime error being printed. I would expect both Call FindSub and Application.Evaluate "FindSub()" to yield the same results in this case. Can someone explain why they do not, and if possible, a way to fix this? Thanks. Note: In this example I obviously do not need to use Evaluate. This version is simplified to just focus on the particular problem I am having in a more complex situation. Sub CallSub() Call FindSub Application.Evaluate "FindSub()" End Sub Sub FindSub() Dim rngFoundCell As Range Dim rngFirstCell As Range Set rngFoundCell = Cells.Find(What:="xxx", after:=ActiveCell, LookIn:=xlValues, _ LookAt:=xlPart, SearchOrder:=xlByRows, SearchDirection:=xlNext, _ MatchCase:=False, SearchFormat:=False) If Not rngFoundCell Is Nothing Then Set rngFirstCell = rngFoundCell Do Debug.Print rngFoundCell.Address Set rngFoundCell = Cells.FindNext(after:=rngFoundCell) Loop Until (rngFoundCell Is Nothing) Or (rngFoundCell.Address = rngFirstCell.Address) End If Debug.Print "Finished up" End Sub

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  • Mac OS X software always order files alphabetically rather than by type.

    - by george
    I have noticed many Mac applications sort the files alphabetically rather than by type. A good example would be Coda by panic.com. The files in the file menu are organized alphabetically. I requested for them to add the feature to organize files by type, and they've said that it's a Finder thing. So I looked at other applications to see if they were organizing by type. I noticed Dreamweaver CS4 had this same problem and now including Dreamweaver CS5. There has to be something in the Mac that does this and that I can modify. I played with Spotlight and it now displays its files by type (thinking that's what I can do) but it didn't take effect in other applications. What library are these applications using to display a file menu for their files? here is an example-- file menu layout of coda by panic.com. (i couldnt post another link because it wouldnt let me). can you see how everything is organised alphabetically rather than by folder? i just want the file menu to show all folders first then all the files. 1) http://www.iaddesign.com/coda.png there must be a way to modify mac to let me to do this.

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  • CKEditor instance in a jQuery dialog

    - by Gazillion
    Hey, I am using jQuery to open a dialog window with a textarea transformed into an instance of CKEditor. I'm using the jQuery adapter provided by the CKEditor team but when the dialog window opens up I cannot interact with the editor (it's created but "null" is written in the content space and I can't click on anything or modify the content). This bug report seems to say that by using a patch provided the issue is fixed but it doesn't seem to be working for me... Here's my code (maybe I did something wrong programmatically): HTML: <div id="ad_div" title="Analyse documentaire"> <textarea id="ad_content" name="ad_content"></textarea> </div> My includes (Everything is included correctly but maybe it's an including order issue?): <script type="text/javascript" src="includes/ckeditor/ckeditor.js"></script> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="includes/jquery/css/custom-theme/jquery-ui-1.7.2.custom.css" /> <script type="text/javascript" src="includes/jquery/js/jquery-1.3.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="includes/jquery/js/jquery-ui-1.7.2.custom.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="includes/jquery/plugins/dialog-patch.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="includes/ckeditor/adapters/jquery.js"></script> Javascript: $('#ad_content').ckeditor(); /* snip */ $('#ad_div').dialog( { modal: true, resizable: false, draggable: false, position: ['center','center'], width: 600, height: 500, hide: 'slide', show: 'slide', closeOnEscape: true, autoOpen: false }); $('.analyse_cell').click(function(){ $('#ad_div').dialog('open'); });

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  • richfaces progressBar polling

    - by John
    Hi, I've got a progressBar component defined as the following on my webpage: <rich:modalPanel id="pb1Panel"> <rich:progressBar id="pb1" oncomplete="javascript:#{myBean.handleProgressEvent()} closeProgressModalPanel()" value="#{pb1Listener.percentageComplete}" label="#{pb1Listener.percentageComplete} %" minValue="1" maxValue="100" limitToList="true" timeout="3200" interval="1400" enabled="false"/> </rich:modalPanel> and a button: <a4j:commandButton id="actButton" value="action" action="#{myBean.performAction}" immediate="true" ajaxSingle="true" onclick="javascript:Richfaces.showModalPanel('pb1Panel');" reRender="pb1Panel"> <a4j:support event="onClick" value="#{rich:component('pb1')}.enable()" reRender="pb1" /> </a4j:commandButton> which doesn't work. However if I take out the .... enabled="false"/> .... from the progress bar, and the element from the button, everything seems to work just fine. Any suggestion why it's not working? I'm setting enabled="false" initially because I do not want the polling to start unless the button was clicked (to reduce unnecessary polling). The system is building on richfaces/seam. Thanks!

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  • VMWare steals IP addresses [closed]

    - by Ishan Amin
    I'm having a peculiar problem, that I think I have narrowed down to VMware. For the past one year, every once in a while we lose internet connection and not all users (about 10 users) go down at the same time, its usually one-by-one. First someone will call me and say "Internet is down" and then we would go reset the router and modem and switch and it would be working again for a while, then go down again without any pattern or replicatable sequence. We'd go repeat the steps again to get everyone in the office running again. We called our Internet Service Provider and they constantly say, We see your modem and we see your router and from thier end everything is OK. we replaced our router and switch and modem, twice! Last friday, it dawned upon me, that everytime we turn on a VMware machine, this sequence of taking everyone down starts, which also explains the message that my users get for "IP Conflict Found" So we do alot of VMware testing and lo and behold, it takes my Internet down. My Yahoo and Gtalk would continue working but www is down when the VMware machines are started. I do use bridged networking to all the VMware machines, but I dont know what else to set it at. now, sorry for this long rambling but anyone have any clue on how to stop this? thanks IA

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  • structured vs. unstructured data in db

    - by Igor
    the question is one of design. i'm gathering a big chunk of performance data with lots of key-value pairs. pretty much everything in /proc/cpuinfo, /proc/meminfo/, /proc/loadavg, plus a bunch of other stuff, from several hundred hosts. right now, i just need to display the latest chunk of data in my UI. i will probably end up doing some analysis of the data gathered to figure out performance problems down the road, but this is a new application so i'm not sure what exactly i'm looking for performance-wise just yet. i could structure the data in the db -- have a column for each key i'm gathering. the table would end up being O(100) columns wide, it would be a pain to put into the db, i would have to add new columns if i start gathering a new stat. but it would be easy to sort/analyze the data just using SQL. or i could just dump my unstructured data blob into the table. maybe three columns -- host id, timestamp, and a serialized version of my array, probably using JSON in a TEXT field. which should I do? am i going to be sorry if i go with the unstructured approach? when doing analysis, should i just convert the fields i'm interested in and create a new, more structured table? what are the trade-offs i'm missing here?

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  • Workflow engine BPMN, Drools, etc or ESB?

    - by Tom
    We currently have an application that is based on an in-house developed workflow engine with YAML based DSL. We are looking to move parts of it to Java. I have discovered a number of java solutions like Intalio, JBPM, Drools Expert, Drools Flow etc. They appear to be aimed at businesses where the business analyst creates the workflows using a graphical editor and submits them to the workflow engine. They seem geared towards ease of use for non-technical people rather than for developers with a focus on human interaction. The workflows tend to look like. Discover-a-file -\ -> join -> process-file -> move-file -> register-file Discover-some-metadata -/ If any step fails we need to retry it X times. We also need to be able to stop the system and be able to restart it and have it continue from where it was (durable). Some of our workflows can be defined by a set of goals we need to achieve so Jess's backwards rule chaining sounds interesting but it is not open source. It might be that what we are after is a Finite State Machine engine or just an Enterprise Service Bus and do everything as JMS queues. Is there a good open source workflow engine that is both standards-based but also geared towards developers. We don't particular want to use a graphical workflow designer or write reams of XML and it should ideally be in Java or language agnostic (makes REST/Soap calls to external services). Thanks, Tom

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  • Don't Allow link generates a 500 Internal Error

    - by jstawski
    I'm developing an application for Facebook using the iframe mode and ASP.NET. I'm able to use the new OAuth method that combines the allow and the extended permissions. When I click on the Allow everything works as expected, but when I click on the "Don't Allow" I get a 500 internal error. The Request For Permission url is: http://www.facebook.com/connect/uiserver.php?client_id=389845102120&scope=publish_stream%2Cuser_birthday%2Cemail&redirect_uri=http%3A%2F%2Fapps.facebook.com%2Fplumreward%2FDefault.aspx%3Fpid%3D124733857540930&display=page&next=http%3A%2F%2Fgraph.facebook.com%2Foauth%2Fauthorize_success%3Fclient_id%3D389845102120%26scope%3Dpublish_stream%252Cuser_birthday%252Cemail%26redirect_uri%3Dhttp%253A%252F%252Fapps.facebook.com%252Fplumreward%252FDefault.aspx%253Fpid%253D124733857540930%26type%3Dweb_server&cancel_url=http%3A%2F%2Fgraph.facebook.com%2Foauth%2Fauthorize_cancel%3Fclient_id%3D389845102120%26scope%3Dpublish_stream%252Cuser_birthday%252Cemail%26redirect_uri%3Dhttp%253A%252F%252Fapps.facebook.com%252Fplumreward%252FDefault.aspx%253Fpid%253D124733857540930%26type%3Dweb_server&app_id=389845102120&method=permissions.request&return_session=1&perms=publish_stream%2Cuser_birthday%2Cemail When I click don't allow it goes to http://www.facebook.com/connect/uiserver.php and then to http://graph.facebook.com/oauth/authorize_success?client_id=389845102120&scope=publish_stream%2Cuser_birthday%2Cemail&redirect_uri=http%3A%2F%2Fapps.facebook.com%2Fplumreward%2FDefault.aspx%3Fpid%3D124733857540930&type=web_server&perms&selected_profiles=567961887 with a HTTP 500 Internal Server Error. What am I doing wrong? Am I missing a setting, parameter? Is this a FB bug?

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  • EJB3Unit testing no-tx-datasource

    - by justastefan
    Hello, I am doing tests on an ejb3-project using ejb3unit http://ejb3unit.sourceforge.net/Session-Bean.html for testing. All my Services long for @PersistenceContext (UnitName=bla). I set up the ejb3unit.properties like this: ejb3unit_jndi.1.isSessionBean=true ejb3unit_jndi.1.jndiName=ejb/MyServiceBean ejb3unit_jndi.1.className=com.company.project.MyServiceBean everything works with the in-memory-database. So now i want additionally test another servicebean with @PersistenceContext (UnitName=noTxDatasource) that goes for a defined in my datasources.xml: <datasources> <local-tx-datasource> ... </local-tx-datasource> <no-tx-datasource> <jndi-name>noTxDatasource</jndi-name> <connection-url>...</connection-url> <driver-class>oracle.jdbc.OracleDriver</driver-class> <user-name>bla</user-name> <password>bla</password> </no-tx-datasource> </datasources> How do I tell ejb3unit to make this work: Object object = InitialContext.doLookup("java:/noTxDatasource"); if (object instanceof DataSource) { return ((DataSource) object).getConnection(); } else { return null; } Currently it fails saying: javax.NamingException: Cannot find the name (noTxDataSource) in the JNDI tree Current bindings: (ejb/MyServiceBean=com.company.project.MyServiceBean) How can I add this no-tx-datasource to the jndi bindings?

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  • Optional route parameters in ASP.NET 4 RTM no longer work as before

    - by Simon_Weaver
    I upgraded my project to ASP.NET 4 RTM with ASP.NET MVC 2.0 RTM today. I was previously using ASP.NET 3.5 with ASP.NET MVC 2.0 RTM. Some of my routes don't work suddenly and I don't know why. I'm not sure if something changed between 3.5 and 4.0 - or if this was a regression type issue in the 4.0 RTM. (I never previously tested my app with 4.0). I like to use Url.RouteUrl("route-name", routeParams) to avoid ambiguity when generating URLs. Here's my route definition for a gallery page. I want imageID to be optional (you get a thumbnail page if you don't specify it). // gallery id routes.MapRoute( "gallery-route", "gallery/{galleryID}/{imageID}/{title}", new { controller = "Gallery", action = "Index", galleryID = (string) null, imageID = (string) null, title = (string) null} ); In .NET 3.5 / ASP.NET 2.0 RTM / IIS7 Url.RouteUrl("gallery-route", "cats") => /gallery/cats Url.RouteUrl("gallery-route", "cats", 4) => /gallery/cats/4 Url.RouteUrl("gallery-route", "cats", 4, "tiddles") => /gallery/cats/4/tiddles In .NET 4.0 RTM / ASP.NET 2.0 RTM / IIS7 Url.RouteUrl("gallery-route", "cats") => null Url.RouteUrl("gallery-route", "cats", 4) => /gallery/cats/4 Url.RouteUrl("gallery-route", "cats", 4, "tiddles") => /gallery/cats/4/tiddles Previously I could supply only the galleryID and everything else would be ignored in the generated URL. But now it's looking like I need to specify all the parameters up until title - or it gives up in determining the URL. Incoming URLs work fine for /gallery/cats and that is correctly mapped through this rule with imageID and title both being assigned null in my controller. I also tested the INCOMING routes with http://haacked.com/archive/2008/03/13/url-routing-debugger.aspx and they all work fine.

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  • Write a compiler for a language that looks ahead and multiple files?

    - by acidzombie24
    In my language I can use a class variable in my method when the definition appears below the method. It can also call methods below my method and etc. There are no 'headers'. Take this C# example. class A { public void callMethods() { print(); B b; b.notYetSeen(); public void print() { Console.Write("v = {0}", v); } int v=9; } class B { public void notYetSeen() { Console.Write("notYetSeen()\n"); } } How should I compile that? what i was thinking is: pass1: convert everything to an AST pass2: go through all classes and build a list of define classes/variable/etc pass3: go through code and check if there's any errors such as undefined variable, wrong use etc and create my output But it seems like for this to work I have to do pass 1 and 2 for ALL files before doing pass3. Also it feels like a lot of work to do until I find a syntax error (other than the obvious that can be done at parse time such as forgetting to close a brace or writing 0xLETTERS instead of a hex value). My gut says there is some other way. Note: I am using bison/flex to generate my compiler.

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  • Implementing IDisposable on a subclass when the parent also implements IDisposable

    - by Tanzelax
    I have a parent and child class that both need to implement IDisposable. Where should virtual (and base.Dispose()?) calls come into play? When I just override the Dispose(bool disposing) call, it feels really strange stating that I implement IDisposable without having an explicit Dispose() function (just utilizing the inherited one), but having everything else. What I had been doing (trivialized quite a bit): internal class FooBase : IDisposable { Socket baseSocket; private void SendNormalShutdown() { } public void Dispose() { Dispose(true); GC.SuppressFinalize(this); } private bool _disposed = false; protected virtual void Dispose(bool disposing) { if (!_disposed) { if (disposing) { SendNormalShutdown(); } baseSocket.Close(); } } ~FooBase() { Dispose(false); } } internal class Foo : FooBase, IDisposable { Socket extraSocket; private bool _disposed = false; protected override void Dispose(bool disposing) { if (!_disposed) { extraSocket.Close(); } base.Dispose(disposing); } ~Foo() { Dispose(false); } }

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  • Debugging strategy to find the cause of bad_alloc

    - by SalamiArmi
    I have a fairly serious bug in my program - occasional calls to new() throw a bad_alloc. From the documentation I can find on bad_alloc, it seems to be thrown for these reasons: When the computer runs out of memory (which definitely isn't happening, I have 4GB of RAM, program throws bad_alloc when using less than 5MB (checked in taskmanager) with nothing serious running in the background). If the memory becomes too fragmented to allocate new blocks (which, again, is unlikely - the largest sized block I ever allocate would be about 1KB, and that doesn't get done more than 100 times before the crash occurs). Based on these descriptions, I don't really have anywhere in which a bad_alloc could be thrown. However, the application I am running runs more than one thread, which could possibly be contributing to the problem. By testing all of the objects on a single thread, everything seems to be working smoothly. The only other thing that I can think of that is going on here could be some kind of race-condition caused by calling new() in more than one place at the same time, but I've tried adding mutexes to prevent that behaviour to no effect. Because the program is several hundred lines and I have no idea where the problem actually lies, I'm not sure of what, if any, code snippets to post. Instead, I was wondering if there were any tools that will help me test for this kind of thing, or if there are any general strategies that can help me with this problem. I'm using Microsoft Visual Studio 2008, with Poco for threading.

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  • Starting one BlackBerry screen from another.

    - by DanG
    I've recently run into a snag while putting on the finishing touches for my BlackBerry app. I'm building a login screen which, if the user is successful in logging in, goes to a data loading screen, and then to a home screen. From the home screen, you can use the app. Everything works great but one thing, I can't seamlessly move from the login screen to the loading screen, to the home screen. I can move from the login screen to the loading screen ok, because I'm doing that via a button click which is on the GUI thread, but then I have the login screen at the bottom of the stack and can't get it out using the dismiss method. Once in the loading screen, I can't push the home screen because I'm not doing it via the gui method, though I'm able to update the GUI via the following piece of code: private void checkData(){ Timer loadingTimer = new Timer(); TimerTask loadingTask = new TimerTask() { public void run() { // set the progress bar progressGaugeField.setValue(DataManager.getDataLoaded()); // for repainting the screen invalidate(); } }; loadingTimer.scheduleAtFixedRate(loadingTask, 500, 500); } Does anyone know how to solve my problem of moving seamlessly from the login screen to the loading screen to the home screen? Note: once I'm at the home screen I'd like to have it be the only screen on the stack. Thanks!

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  • Entity Framework Multiple associations to a table causes error 3033

    - by taylonr
    I'm using EF 3.5 SP1. I have 3 tables: Pendants PendantAccessories PartsData Basically #1 and 2 are used for product selection, so #1 has a "Number of Buttons" property and other options. #2 has fields like "Cable Type" etc. The third table contains property information for all of our parts, such as what plant it's manufactured in, it's weight etc. What I'm trying to do is set up an association between #1 and #3 and also between #2 and #3. The PK in all 3 tables is the PartNumber. I set it up between #2 and 3 by going into Mapping Details and adding a Maps to PartsData and mapping the columns. Everything worked good. I then tried the same thing between #1 and 3. However, now when I compile I get "Error 3033: Problem in Mapping Fragment starting at line 713: EntitySets 'pendants' and 'pendantAccessories' are both mapped to the table 'PartsData'. Their Primary Keys may collide." Does anyone know what I'm doing wrong here?

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  • Slow MySQL Query Breaking my back!

    - by Chris n
    so, I have tried everything I can think of, and can't get this query to happen in less than 3 seconds on my local server. I know the problem has to do with the OR referencing both the owner_id and the person_id. if I run one or the other it happens instantly, but together with an or I can't seem to make it work - I looked into rewriting the code, but the way the app was designed it won't be easy. is there a way I can call an equivalent or that won't take so long? here is the sql: SELECT event_types.name as event_type_name,event_types.id as id, count(events.id) as count,sum(events.estimated_duration) as time_sum FROM events,event_types WHERE event_types.id = events.event_type_id AND events.event_type_id != '4' AND ( events.status!='cancelled') AND events.event_type_id != 64 AND ( events.owner_id = 161 OR events.person_id = 161 ) GROUP BY event_types.name ORDER BY event_types.name DESC; Here's the Explain soup, although I'm guessing it's unnecessary cause there is probably a better way to structure that or that is obvious: thanks so much! chris. +----+-------------+-------------+-------+---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------+-------------------------------+---------+-------------------------------------+------+----------------------------------------------+ | id | select_type | table | type | possible_keys | key | key_len | ref | rows | Extra | +----+-------------+-------------+-------+---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------+-------------------------------+-- | 1 | SIMPLE | event_types | range | PRIMARY | PRIMARY | 4 | NULL | 78 | Using where; Using temporary; Using filesort | | 1 | SIMPLE | events | ref | index_events_on_status,index_events_on_event_type_id,index_events_on_person_id,index_events_on_owner_id | index_events_on_event_type_id | 5 | thenumber_production.event_types.id | 907 | Using where | +----+-------------+-------------+-------+---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------+-------------------------------+---------+-------------------------------------+------+----------------------------------------------+

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  • iPhone: addAnnotation not working when called from another view

    - by Nic Hubbard
    I have two views, the first view has an MKMapView on it named ridesMap. The second view is just a view with a UITableView in it. When you click the save button in the second view, it calls a method from the first view: // Get my first views class MyRidesMapViewController *rideMapView = [[MyRidesMapViewController alloc] init]; // Call the method from my first views class that removes an annotation [rideMapView addAnno:newRidePlacemark.coordinate withTitle:rideTitle.text withSubTitle:address]; This correctly calls the addAnno method, which looks like: - (void)addAnno:(CLLocationCoordinate2D)anno withTitle:(NSString *)annoTitle withSubTitle:(NSString *)subTitle { Annotation *ano = [[[Annotation alloc] init] autorelease]; ano.coordinate = anno; ano.title = annoTitle; ano.subtitle = subTitle; if ([ano conformsToProtocol:@protocol(MKAnnotation)]) { NSLog(@"YES IT DOES!!!"); } [ridesMap addAnnotation:ano]; }//end addAnno This method creates an annotation which does conform to MKAnnotation, and it suppose to add that annotation to the map using the addAnnotation method. But, the annotation never gets added. I NEVER get any errors when the annotation does not get added. But it never appears when the method is called. Why would this be? It seems that I have done everything correctly, and that I am passing a correct MKAnnotation to the addAnnotation method. So, I don't get why it never drops a pin? Could it be because I am calling this method from another view? Why would that matter?

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  • Calling SubmitChanges on DataContext does not update database.

    - by drasto
    In C# ASP.NET MVC application I use Link to SQL to provide data for my application. I have got simple database schema like this: In my controller class I reference this data context called Model (as you can see on the right side of picture in properties) like this: private Model model = new Model(); I've got a table (List) of Series rendered on my page. It renders properly and I was able to add delete functionality to delete Series like this: public ActionResult Delete(int id) { model.Series.DeleteOnSubmit(model.Series.SingleOrDefault(s => s.ID == id)); model.SubmitChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } Where appropriate action link looks like this: <%: Html.ActionLink("Delete", "Delete", new { id=item.ID })%> Also create (implemented in similar way) works fine. However edit does not work. My edit looks like this: public ActionResult Edit(int id) { return View(model.Series.SingleOrDefault(s => s.ID == id)); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(Series series) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { UpdateModel(series); series.Title = series.Title + " some string to ensure title has changed"; model.SubmitChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } I have controlled that my database has a primary key set up correctly. I debugged my application and found out that everything works as expected until the line with model.SubmitChanges();. This command does not apply the changes of Title property(or any other) against the database. Please help.

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  • rails best practices where to place unobtrusive javascript

    - by nathanvda
    Hi there, my rails applications (all 2.3.5) use a total mix of inline javascript, rjs, prototype and jquery. Let's call it learning or growing pains. Lately i have been more and more infatuated with unobtrusive javascript. It makes your html clean, in the same way css cleaned it up. But most examples i have seen are small examples, and they put all javascript(jquery) inside application.js Now i have a pretty big application, and i am thinking up ways to structure my js. I like somehow that my script is still close to the view, so i am thinking something like orders.html.erb orders.js where orders.js contains the unobtrusive javascript specific to that view. But maybe that's just me being too conservative :) I have read some posts by Yehuda Katz about this very problem here and here, where he tackles this problem. It will go through your js-files and only load those relevant to your view. But alas i can't find a current implementation. So my questions: how do you best structure your unobtrusive javascript; manage your code, how do you make sure that it is obvious from the html what something is supposed to do. I guess good class names go a long way :) how do you arrange your files, load them all in? just a few? do you use content_for :script or javascript_include_tag in your view to load the relevant scripts. Or ... ? do you write very generic functions (like a delete), with parameters (add extra attributes?), or do you write very specific functions (DRY?). I know in Rails 3 there is a standard set, and everything is unobtrusive there. But how to start in Rails 2.3.5? In short: what are the best practices for doing unobtrusive javascript in rails? :)

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  • Qmake does not specify a valid qt

    - by Comptrol
    After installing Qt SDK for Open Source C++ development on Mac OS by following the respective steps Note for the binary package: If you have the binary package, simply double-click on the Qt.mpkg and follow the instructions to install Qt. . Yes, that is all I have done to install Qt on MacOsX. Everything was going fine, until I run a sample application, of which compile output resulted in: No valid Qt version set. Set one in Preferences Error while building project qtilk When executing build step 'QMake' Canceled build. Then I tried to change the respective Qt version in Preferences and I hovered over the Path, I realized my mkspec isn't set: Then I tried querying qmake by qmake -query : QT_INSTALL_PREFIX:/ QT_INSTALL_DATA:/usr/local/Qt4.6 QT_INSTALL_DOCS:/Developer/Documentation/Qt QT_INSTALL_HEADERS:/usr/include QT_INSTALL_LIBS:/Library/Frameworks QT_INSTALL_BINS:/Developer/Tools/Qt QT_INSTALL_PLUGINS:/Developer/Applications/Qt/plugins QT_INSTALL_TRANSLATIONS:/Developer/Applications/Qt/translations QT_INSTALL_CONFIGURATION:/Library/Preferences/Qt QT_INSTALL_EXAMPLES:/Developer/Examples/Qt/ QT_INSTALL_DEMOS:/Developer/Examples/Qt/Demos QMAKE_MKSPECS:/usr/local/Qt4.6/mkspecs QMAKE_VERSION:2.01a QT_VERSION:4.6.2 QMAKE_MKSPECS seems to be set here?? Will setting my mkspec solve my building problem? I tried setting by typing export mkspec=macx-g++. Still, mkspec seems not to be set to anything. I am all ears waiting for your answers. Thanks in advance.

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  • Can SOTI's MobiControl software interfere with an ASP.Net web service?

    - by MusiGenesis
    We have a set of WinMo (5.0) devices running a .NET CF application that talks to an ASP.Net web service running on a server. The devices connect to the network either via ActiveSync through a networked PC or directly to the network via an Ethernet dongle. In our development environment, the communication between devices and web service is 100% reliable. In our production environment, the communications are failing erratically and unpredictably. Sometimes calls to the web service (even to a simple test call that just returns a boolean) begin failing every time on a particular device, with the error message "Could not establish connection to network." This is usually fixed by flip-flopping the selected combo box values on the SETTINGS | NETWORKS screen. Sometimes calls on a particular device begin failing with a generic "WebException" message. The fix for this problem (so far) is either to reset the device (i.e. reinstall the OS) or else it just can't be fixed on some devices. To the best of our knowledge, everything about the DEV and PROD systems are the same (same server and device specs). The most obvious difference to us is that the PROD devices are all controlled by SOTI's MobiControl (which is server-side software that communicates with a SOTI client application installed on each device), whereas our DEV environment does not have SOTI installed anywhere (obviously we should have it there as well - long story). Does anybody have any experience with SOTI MobiControl and/or know of any documented problems where SOTI interferes with other communication mechanisms on a device?

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