Search Results

Search found 17782 results on 712 pages for 'questions and answers'.

Page 588/712 | < Previous Page | 584 585 586 587 588 589 590 591 592 593 594 595  | Next Page >

  • Cocoa Virtual Keystrokes Pain

    - by bhargav
    I'm writing an application to respond on a hotkey by copying highlighted text into NSPasteboard's generalPasteboard. After looking around here for a solution for sending virtual keystrokes, I found this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1505933/how-to-send-a-cmd-c-keystroke-to-the-active-application-in-objective-c-or-tell I tried the applescript suggested with NSAppleScript: NSLog(@"Hotkey Pressed"); NSPasteboard *pasteboard = [NSPasteboard generalPasteboard]; NSAppleScript *playScript; playScript = [[NSAppleScript alloc] initWithSource:@"tell application \"System Events\" to keystroke \"c\" using command down"]; if([playScript isCompiled] == NO){ [playScript compileAndReturnError:nil]; } id exerror = [playScript executeAndReturnError:nil]; if(exerror == nil){ NSLog(@"Script Failed"); } It works, but only on the first time I hit the hotkey. Each subsequent hit will not to grab the highlighted text. The generalPasteboard still contains the same contents as before the script is run again. Clearing the generalPasteboard before I run the code is no use, because then the code fails when attempting to read the pasteboard contents. So I tried the next suggested solution: CFRelease(CGEventCreate(NULL)); CGEventRef event1, event2, event3, event4; event1 = CGEventCreateKeyboardEvent (NULL, (CGKeyCode)50, true); event2 = CGEventCreateKeyboardEvent (NULL, (CGKeyCode)8, true); event3 = CGEventCreateKeyboardEvent (NULL, (CGKeyCode)8, false); event4 = CGEventCreateKeyboardEvent (NULL, (CGKeyCode)50, false); CGEventPost(kCGHIDEventTap, event1); CGEventPost(kCGHIDEventTap, event2); CGEventPost(kCGHIDEventTap, event3); CGEventPost(kCGHIDEventTap, event4); The above should send the keystrokes Command + c, but all I get is a beep, and the pasteboard contents are unchanged. I'm at wits end - can anyone enlighten me as to what I'm missing or point me out to what I'm overlooking for something so simple?

    Read the article

  • Bypass all cacheing on jQuery.autocomplete(1.02)

    - by technicalbloke
    I am using jQuery.autocomplete(1.02) on my search box and I want exact string and substring matching. I don't care (yet!) about the database load, I'm happy for it to fire off a query every keystroke and bypass the caching entirely - I just don't want anything missed. To this end I have tried setting cacheLength=1, the minimum permitted, but the autocomplete function refuses to fire off a GET request for each key up. searchbox GET_request 'a' -> http://localhost/service_search_request?q=a 'ar' -> http://localhost/service_search_request?q=ar 'ars' -> http://localhost/service_search_request?q=ars Instead, it sends the first and the third and misses the second, giving me the wrong results for 'ar' :-/ I've cleared my cache and sessions but it looks like some sort of caching is still going on. AFAIK I have no proxying going on and I'm shift-refreshing each time. It looks likely then that this behavior is from jQuery.autocomplete itself. So my questions are... A) Does this seem likely? i.e. is it a feature, or maybe a bug? B) If so is there a clean way around it?... C) If not, what autocomplete would you use instead? Naturally D) No you're just using it incorrectly you douche! is always a possibility, and indeed the one I'd prefer having spent time going down this road - assuming it comes with a link to the docs I've failed to find / read! Cheers, Roger :)

    Read the article

  • How to inject a Session Bean into a Message Driven Bean?

    - by Hank
    Hi guys, I'm reasonably new to JEE, so this might be stupid.. bear with me pls :D I would like to inject a stateless session bean into a message-driven bean. Basically, the MDB gets a JMS message, then uses a session bean to perform the work. The session bean holds the business logic. Here's my Session Bean: @Stateless public class TestBean implements TestBeanRemote { public void doSomething() { // business logic goes here } } The matching interface: @Remote public interface TestBeanRemote { public void doSomething(); } Here's my MDB: @MessageDriven(mappedName = "jms/mvs.TestController", activationConfig = { @ActivationConfigProperty(propertyName = "acknowledgeMode", propertyValue = "Auto-acknowledge"), @ActivationConfigProperty(propertyName = "destinationType", propertyValue = "javax.jms.Queue") }) public class TestController implements MessageListener { @EJB private TestBean testBean; public TestController() { } public void onMessage(Message message) { testBean.doSomething(); } } So far, not rocket science, right? Unfortunately, when deploying this to glassfish v3, and sending a message to the appropriate JMS Queue, I get errors that glassfish is unable to locate the TestBean EJB: java.lang.IllegalStateException: Exception attempting to inject Remote ejb-ref name=mvs.test.TestController/testBean,Remote 3.x interface =mvs.test.TestBean,ejb-link=null,lookup=null,mappedName=,jndi-name=mvs.test.TestBean,refType=Session into class mvs.test.TestController Caused by: com.sun.enterprise.container.common.spi.util.InjectionException: Exception attempting to inject Remote ejb-ref name=mvs.test.TestController/testBean,Remote 3.x interface =mvs.test.TestBean,ejb-link=null,lookup=null,mappedName=,jndi-name=mvs.test.TestBean,refType=Session into class mvs.test.TestController Caused by: javax.naming.NamingException: Lookup failed for 'java:comp/env/mvs.test.TestController/testBean' in SerialContext [Root exception is javax.naming.NamingException: Exception resolving Ejb for 'Remote ejb-ref name=mvs.test.TestController/testBean,Remote 3.x interface =mvs.test.TestBean,ejb-link=null,lookup=null,mappedName=,jndi-name=mvs.test.TestBean,refType=Session' . Actual (possibly internal) Remote JNDI name used for lookup is 'mvs.test.TestBean#mvs.test.TestBean' [Root exception is javax.naming.NamingException: Lookup failed for 'mvs.test.TestBean#mvs.test.TestBean' in SerialContext [Root exception is javax.naming.NameNotFoundException: mvs.test.TestBean#mvs.test.TestBean not found]]] So my questions are: - is this the correct way of injecting a session bean into another bean (particularly a message driven bean)? - why is the naming lookup failing? Thanks for all your help! Cheers, Hank

    Read the article

  • Asp.Net MVC2 Clientside Validation problem with controls with prefixes

    - by alexander
    The problem is: when I put 2 controls of the same type on a page I need to specify different prefixes for binding. In this case the validation rules generated right after the form are incorrect. So how to get client validation work for the case?: the page contains: <% Html.RenderPartial(ViewLocations.Shared.PhoneEditPartial, new PhoneViewModel { Phone = person.PhonePhone, Prefix = "PhonePhone" }); Html.RenderPartial(ViewLocations.Shared.PhoneEditPartial, new PhoneViewModel { Phone = person.FaxPhone, Prefix = "FaxPhone" }); %> the control ViewUserControl<PhoneViewModel>: <%= Html.TextBox(Model.GetPrefixed("CountryCode"), Model.Phone.CountryCode) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("Phone.CountryCode", new { id = Model.GetPrefixed("CountryCode"), name = Model.GetPrefixed("CountryCode") })%> where Model.GetPrefixed("CountryCode") just returns "FaxPhone.CountryCode" or "PhonePhone.CountryCode" depending on prefix And here is the validation rules generated after the form. They are duplicated for the field name "Phone.CountryCode". While the desired result is 2 rules (required, number) for each of the FieldNames "FaxPhone.CountryCode", "PhonePhone.CountryCode" The question is somewhat duplicate of http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2675606/asp-net-mvc2-clientside-validation-and-duplicate-ids-problem but the advise to manually generate ids doesn't helps.

    Read the article

  • javascript using 'this' in global object

    - by Marco Demaio
    What does 'this' keyword refer to when used in gloabl object? Let's say for instance we have: var SomeGlobalObject = { rendered: true, show: function() { /* I should use 'SomeGlobalObject.rendered' below, otherwise it won't work when called from event scope. But it works when called from timer scope!! How can this be? */ if(this.rendered) alert("hello"); } } Now if we call in an inline script in the HTML page: SomeGlobalObject.show(); window.setTimeout("Msg.show()", 1000); everything work ok. But if we do something like AppendEvent(window, 'load', Msg.show); we get an error because this.rendered is undefined when called from the event scope. Do you know why this happens? Could you explain then if there is another smarter way to do this without having to rewrite every time "SomeGlobalObject.someProperty" into the the SomeGlobalObject code? Thanks! AppendEvent is just a simple cross-browser function to append an event, code below, but it does not matter in order to answer the above questions. function AppendEvent(html_element, event_name, event_function) { if(html_element.attachEvent) //IE return html_element.attachEvent("on" + event_name, event_function); else if(html_element.addEventListener) //FF html_element.addEventListener(event_name, event_function, false); }

    Read the article

  • Stored proc running 30% slower through Java versus running directly on database

    - by James B
    Hi All, I'm using Java 1.6, JTDS 1.2.2 (also just tried 1.2.4 to no avail) and SQL Server 2005 to create a CallableStatement to run a stored procedure (with no parameters). I am seeing the Java wrapper running the same stored procedure 30% slower than using SQL Server Management Studio. I've run the MS SQL profiler and there is little difference in I/O between the two processes, so I don't think it's related to query plan caching. The stored proc takes no arguments and returns no data. It uses a server-side cursor to calculate the values that are needed to populate a table. I can't see how the calling a stored proc from Java should add a 30% overhead, surely it's just a pipe to the database that SQL is sent down and then the database executes it....Could the database be giving the Java app a different query plan?? I've posted to both the MSDN forums, and the sourceforge JTDS forums (topic: "stored proc slower in JTDS than direct in DB") I was wondering if anyone has any suggestions as to why this might be happening? Thanks in advance, -James (N.B. Fear not, I will collate any answers I get in other forums together here once I find the solution) Java code snippet: sLogger.info("Preparing call..."); stmt = mCon.prepareCall("SP_WB200_POPULATE_TABLE_limited_rows"); sLogger.info("Call prepared. Executing procedure..."); stmt.executeQuery(); sLogger.info("Procedure complete."); I have run sql profiler, and found the following: Java app : CPU: 466,514 Reads: 142,478,387 Writes: 284,078 Duration: 983,796 SSMS : CPU: 466,973 Reads: 142,440,401 Writes: 280,244 Duration: 769,851 (Both with DBCC DROPCLEANBUFFERS run prior to profiling, and both produce the correct number of rows) So my conclusion is that they both execute the same reads and writes, it's just that the way they are doing it is different, what do you guys think? It turns out that the query plans are significantly different for the different clients (the Java client is updating an index during an insert that isn't in the faster SQL client, also, the way it is executing joins is different (nested loops Vs. gather streams, nested loops Vs index scans, argh!)). Quite why this is, I don't know yet (I'll re-post when I do get to the bottom of it) Epilogue I couldn't get this to work properly. I tried homogenising the connection properties (arithabort, ansi_nulls etc) between the Java and Mgmt studio clients. It ended up the two different clients had very similar query/execution plans (but still with different actual plan_ids). I posted a summary of what I found to the MSDN SQL Server forums as I found differing performance not just between a JDBC client and management studio, but also between Microsoft's own command line client, SQLCMD, I also checked some more radical things like network traffic too, or wrapping the stored proc inside another stored proc, just for grins. I have a feeling the problem lies somewhere in the way the cursor was being executed, and it was somehow giving rise to the Java process being suspended, but why a different client should give rise to this different locking/waiting behaviour when nothing else is running and the same execution plan is in operation is a little beyond my skills (I'm no DBA!). As a result, I have decided that 4 days is enough of anyone's time to waste on something like this, so I will grudgingly code around it (if I'm honest, the stored procedure needed re-coding to be more incremental instead of re-calculating all data each week anyway), and chalk this one down to experience. I'll leave the question open, big thanks to everyone who put their hat in the ring, it was all useful, and if anyone comes up with anything further, I'd love to hear some more options...and if anyone finds this post as a result of seeing this behaviour in their own environments, then hopefully there's some pointers here that you can try yourself, and hope fully see further than we did. I'm ready for my weekend now! -James

    Read the article

  • is struts2 Framework dead? if so, which direction to go from here?

    - by Omnipresent
    I've been working in struts2 framework for the past year and a half. As I look around SO it seems like struts2 questions get the least amount of hits. At first I thought it was because the SO community is not much into struts2, but this is the case in other forums as well. Only the struts2 mailing list is pretty active. I think struts2 is slowly becoming a dinosaur framework and I want to move on. I've dabbled a little with other stuff like RoR, Grails, Django, .NET MVC but I've never really committed and made a pact with myself to sit down and learn these. Maybe its the fact that I dont know the languages that these frameworks are built on. Spending a day or two with RoR makes me want to choke some of the JAR files and struts2 html tags and .NET MVC looks promising but not knowing c# ties me back. My question is, have you been on the same path? Did anyone used to do struts2 before and now changed to something new? What would you suggest I learn after Struts2? And lastly, as a developer how do you motivate yourself to learn a new framework, or a language? for me, just typing the code provided in the book is dead boring.

    Read the article

  • Update table columns bound to NSArrayController

    - by Loz
    Hi, I'm fairly new to the world of bindings in cocoa, and I'm having some troubles (perhaps/probably due to a misunderstanding). I have a singleton that contains an NSMutableArray called plugins, containing objects of class Plugin. It has a method called loadPlugins which adds objects to the plugins array. This may be called at any point. It's been added as an instance in Interface Builder. Also in IB is an NSObjectController, whose content outlet is connected to the singleton. There is also an NSArrayController, whose contentArray is bound to the NSObjectController (controller key is 'selection', model key path is 'plugins', object class name is 'Plugin'). And finally I have a table view with 2 columns, the values of which are bound to the NSArrayController's arrangedObjects, using keys of properties in the Plugin class. So far so standard (as far as I can tell from tutorials at least). My trouble is that when the loadPlugins method is called in the singleton, and objects are added to the plugins array, the table doesn't update to show the objects (unless loadPlugins is called before the nib is loaded). -reloadData called on the tableView doesn't do anything. Is there a way to tell the NSArrayController that the referenced array has been updated? I understand there is the -add: method for NSArrayController, which could be used in the loadPlugins, but this isn't desirable as I want to keep the singleton totally separate from the display aspect. This seems related to: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1623396/refresh-cocoa-binding-nsarraycontroller-combobox The line: "editing the array behind the controller's back" seems to perhaps pinpoint the problem, but I would hope that it would be possible to have the singleton not know about the controller. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • problem in displaying a slug with dash

    - by Mac Taylor
    hey guys i made a slug with dash for my stories urls such as : http://stackoverflow.com/questions/482636/fetching-records-with-slug-instead-of-id this is my code to create slug : function Slugit($title) { $title = strip_tags($title); // Preserve escaped octets. $title = preg_replace('|%([a-fA-F0-9][a-fA-F0-9])|', '---$1---', $title); // Remove percent signs that are not part of an octet. $title = str_replace('%', '', $title); // Restore octets. $title = preg_replace('|---([a-fA-F0-9][a-fA-F0-9])---|', '%$1', $title); $title = remove_accents($title); if (seems_utf8($title)) { if (function_exists('mb_strtolower')) { $title = mb_strtolower($title, 'UTF-8'); } $title = utf8_uri_encode($title, 500); } $title = strtolower($title); $title = preg_replace('/&.+?;/', '', $title); // kill entities $title = str_replace('.', '-', $title); $title = preg_replace('/[^%a-z0-9 _-]/', '', $title); $title = preg_replace('/\s+/', '-', $title); $title = preg_replace('|-+|', '-', $title); $title = trim($title, '-'); return $title; } as you can see dashes , up to here , everything is fine but when i click on the link , it can not open and find it my database as it's saved in normal and with no dashes so i wrote something to remove dashes $string = str_replace('-', '&nbsp;', $string); but when there is ? or . in url , then it can not dispaly ! any help to retrieve back the original url ?!

    Read the article

  • Verifying regular expression for malware removal

    - by Legend
    Unfortunately, one of my web servers was compromised recently. I have two questions. Is there a way I can scan the downloaded directory for backdoors? Is there anything I can do to ensure that at least known vulnerabilities do not exist anymore? Secondly, the malware put up the following in all index.* files on my webserver: <script>/*GNU GPL*/ try{window.onload = function(){var Hva23p3hnyirlpv7 = document.createElement('script');Hva23p3hnyirlpv7.setAttribute('type', 'text/javascript');Hva23p3hnyirlpv7.setAttribute('id', 'myscript1');Hva23p3hnyirlpv7.setAttribute('src',.... CODE DELETED FOR SAFETY.... );}} catch(e) {}</script> Obviously, this snippet seems to download some rogue file onto the user's machine. I downloaded an entire backup of the web server and am currently trying to remove this snippet from all file. For this I am doing: find ./ -name "index.*" -exec sed -i 's/<script>\/\*GNU GPL\*.*Hva23p3hnyirlpv7.*<\/script>//g' {} \; Just wanted to verify if this does the trick. I verified it with a few files but I want to be sure that this doesn't delete some valid code. Anyone suggests any other modifications?

    Read the article

  • Trouble pre-populating drop down and textarea from MySQL Database

    - by Tony
    I am able to successfully pre-populate my questions using the following code: First Name: <input type="text" name="first_name" size="30" maxlength="20" value="' . $row[2] . '" /><br /> However, when I try to do the same for a drop down box and a textarea box, nothing is pre-populated from the database, even though there is actual content in the database. This is the code I'm using for the drop down and textarea, respectively: <?php echo ' <form action ="edit_contact.php" method="post"> <div class="contactfirstcolumn"> Prefix: <select name = "prefix" value="' . $row[0] . '" /> <option value="blank">--</option> <option value="Dr">Dr.</option> <option value="Mr">Mr.</option> <option value="Mrs">Mrs.</option> <option value="Ms">Ms.</option> </select><br />'; ?> AND Contact Description:<textarea id = "contactdesc" name="contactdesc" rows="3" cols="50" value="' . $row[20] . '" /></textarea><br /><br /> It's important to note that I am not receiving any errors. The form loads fine, however without the data for the drop down and textarea fields. Thanks! Tony

    Read the article

  • How do you cast a LinqToSql Table<TEntity> as a Table<IEntity> where TEntity : IEntity?

    - by DanM
    I'm trying to use DbLinq with a SQLite database, but I'm running into a problem when I try to cast an ITable as a Queryable<TEntity>. There is a known bug in DbLinq (Issue 211), which might be the source of my problem, but I wanted to make sure my code is sound and, if it is, find out if there might be something I can do to work around the bug. Here is the generic repository method that attempts to do the cast: public IQueryable<TEntity> GetAll() { return Table.Cast<TEntity>(); // Table is an ITable } This compiles, but if I pass in the interface IPerson for TEntity and the type of the entities in the table is Person (where Person : IPerson), I'm getting this error from DbLinq: S0133: Implement QueryMethod Queryable.Cast. Why am I trying to do this? I have a library project that doesn't know the type of the entity until runtime, but it does know the interface for the entity. So, I'm trying to cast to the interface type so that my library project can consume the data. Questions: Am I attempting an impossible cast or is this definitely a bug in DbLinq? How else could I go about solving my problem?

    Read the article

  • Getting started with SVG graphics objects in JSF 2.0 pages.

    - by AlanObject
    What I want to do is create web pages with interactive SVG content. I had this working as a Java desktop application using Batik to render my SVG and collect UI events like mouseclick. Now I want to use those SVG graphics files in my JSF (Primefaces) web application in the same way. Trying to get started, I found this didn't work: <h:graphicImage id="gloob" value="images/sprinkverks.svg" alt="Graphic Goes Here"/> I don't mind doing some reading to get up the learning curve. It was just a bit surprising that some google searches didn't turn up anything useful. What I did find suggested that I would have to do this with the f:verbatim tag as if I were hand-coding the HTML. I would then have to add some script to capture the SVG events and feed them back into the AJAX code. If I have to do all that I will, but I was hoping there would be an easier and automated way. So the questions are: How to get the image to render in the first place? How to get the DOM events from the SVG portion of the page back to the backing beans? Much thanks for any pointers.

    Read the article

  • DDD principlers and ASP.NET MVC project design

    - by kaivalya
    Two part questions I have a product aggregate that has; Prices PackagingOptions ProductDescriptions ProductImages etc I have modeled one product repository and did not create individual repositories for any of the child classes. All db operations are handled through product repository. Am I understanding the DDD concept correctly so far? Sometimes the question comes to my mind that having a repository for lets say packaging options could make my life easier by directly fetching a the packaging option from the DB by using its ID instead of asking the product repository to find it in its PackagingOptions collection and give it to me.. Second part is managing the edit create operations using ASP.MVC frame work I am currently trying to manage all add edit remove of these child collections of product through product controller(sound right?). One challenge I am now facing is; If I edit a specific packaging option of product through mydomain/product/editpackagingoption/10 I have access to the id of the packaging option But I don't have the ID of the product it self and this forces me to write a query to first find the product that has this specific packaging option then edit that product and the revelant packaging option. I can do this as all packaging option have their unique ID but this would fail if I have collections that don't have unique ID. That feels very wrong.. The next option I thought of is sending both the product and packaging option IDs on the url like; mydomain/product/editpackagingoption/3/10 But I am not sure if that is a good design either. So I am at a point that I am a bit confused. might be having fundamental misunderstandings around all of this... I would appreciate if you bear with the long question and help me put this together. thanks!

    Read the article

  • Firefox Extension Socket Transport

    - by Nathan
    Hey, I'm making a firefox extension and I'm currently trying to get it to send XML data over a local socket to another application that's listening on that socket. Does anyone know what I'm doing wrong in this? Its probably something simple and I'm just having a monday. Thanks. socketConn: function() { var httpLoc = window.top.getBrowser(). selectedBrowser.contentWindow.location.href; var outputData = '<?xml version="1.0"?>' + '<site_data>' + '<session_id></session_id>' + 'site_url>' + httpLoc + '</site_url>' + '<mime_type></mime_type>' + '<data_file>' + filePath + '</data_file>' + '<capture_mode></capture_mode>' + '</site_data>\n'; var transportService = Cc["@mozilla.org/network/socket-transport-service;1"] .getService(Ci.nsISocketTransportService); var transport = transportService.createTransport(["starttls"], 1,"localhost",currentPort, null); var outstream = transport.openOutputStream(0, 0, 0); outstream.write(outputData, outputData.length); var stream = transport.openInputStream(0, 0, 0); var instream = Cc["@mozilla.org/scriptableinputstream;1"] .createInstance(Ci.nsIScriptableInputStream); instream.init(stream); var dataListener = { data : "", onStartRequest: function(request, context){}, onStopRequest: function(request, context, status){ instream.close(); outstream.close(); }, onDataAvailable: function(request, context, inputStream, offset, count){ this.data += instream.read(count); }, };//end dataListener var pump = Cc["@mozilla.org/network/input-stream-pump;1"] .createInstance(Ci.nsIInputStreamPump); pump.init(stream, -1, -1, 0, 0, false); pump.asyncRead(dataListener, null); }//end socketConn Please ask questions about this if you don't understand what I'm trying to do with this.

    Read the article

  • Multicolumn ListView in WPF - errors

    - by Will
    Hi, I am trying to define a multicolumn listview in xaml (visual studio 2008) and then add items to it in c#. I have seen many posts on this subject, and tried the various methods, but I am getting errors. my xaml code is below, VS does not flag any errors on it. <ListView Height="234.522" Name="chartListView" Width="266.337"> <ListView.View> <GridView> <GridViewColumn Header="Name" Width="70"/> <GridViewColumn Header="ID" /> </GridView> </ListView.View> </ListView> to try and add data to the columns, I created a button and put the code in the button click : private void button3_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { chartListView.Items.Add("item1").SubItems.Add("item2"); } the error that is showing is on Subitems is: 'int' does not contain a definition for 'SubItems' and no extension method 'SubItems' accepting a first argument of type 'int' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) D:\devel\VS\pchart\pchart\pchart\Window1.xaml.cs Also, I tried looking at some other posts on listview controls such as http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1260812/listview-inserting-items i tried the code there : ListViewItem item = new ListViewItem(); item.Text=anInspector.getInspectorName().ToString(); and got almost the same error on item.Text as i did with SubItems. is there something earlier in my code, or project definition that i am missing? Thanks for any help

    Read the article

  • Good ways to dynamically generate the start image of an iPhone/iPad app

    - by Dr Dork
    I'm self-learning iPhone development and I see that one of the aspects of an iPhone/iPad app is the start image that gets displayed when your app is run. I'd like my start image to display some basic info about the user when the app is launched, but that info has to first be collected by the user when the app is first run. That tells me that I either need to dynamically generate the start image after the user enters their information or I need to place a label of some sort on top of my static start image in order to accomplish this. The first time the app launched and before the user enters their info, the start image can be anything or nothing at all, I'm not concerned about this. So, my two questions are this... Can you place controls, like a label, on top of the start image when your app is launched? If not, what's a good approach to dynamically generating the start image after the app is launched for the first time and the user info is collected? Thanks so much in advance for your help! I'm going to begin researching this question right now.

    Read the article

  • Designing interfaces: predict methods needed, discipline yourself and deal with code that comes to m

    - by fireeyedboy
    Was: Design by contract: predict methods needed, discipline yourself and deal with code that comes to mind I like the idea of designing by contract a lot (at least, as far as I understand the principal). I believe it means you define intefaces first before you start implementing actual code, right? However, from my limited experience (3 OOP years now) I usually can't resist the urge to start coding pretty early, for several reasons: because my limited experience has shown me I am unable to predict what methods I will be needing in the interface, so I might as well start coding right away. or because I am simply too impatient to write out the whole interfaces first. or when I do try it, I still wind up implementing bits of code already, because I fear I might forget this or that imporant bit of code, that springs to mind when I am designing the interfaces. As you see, especially with the last two points, this leads to a very disorderly way of doing things. Tasks get mixed up. I should draw a clear line between designing interfaces and actual coding. If you, unlike me, are a good/disciplined planner, as intended above, how do you: ...know the majority of methods you will be needing up front so well? Especially if it's components that implement stuff you are not familiar with yet. ...resist the urge to start coding right away? ...deal with code that comes to mind when you are designing the interfaces? UPDATE: Thank you for the answers so far. Valuable insights! And... I stand corrected; it seems I misinterpreted the idea of Design By Contract. For clarity, what I actually meant was: "coming up with interface methods before implementing the actual components". An additional thing that came up in my mind is related to point 1): b) How do you know the majority of components you will be needing. How do you flesh out these things before you start actually coding? For arguments sake, let's say I'm a novice with the MVC pattern, and I wanted to implement such a component/architecture. A naive approach would be to think of: a front controller some abstract action controller some abstract view ... and be done with it, so to speak. But, being more familiar with the MVC pattern, I know now that it makes sense to also have: a request object a router a dispatcher a response object view helpers etc.. etc.. If you map this idea to some completely new component you want to develop, with which you have no experience yet; how do you come up with these sort of additional components without actually coding the thing, and stuble upon the ideas that way? How would you know up front how fine grained some components should be? Is this a matter of disciplining yourself to think it out thoroughly? Or is it a matter of being good at thinking in abstractions?

    Read the article

  • Issues in Convergence of Sequential minimal optimization for SVM

    - by Amol Joshi
    I have been working on Support Vector Machine for about 2 months now. I have coded SVM myself and for the optimization problem of SVM, I have used Sequential Minimal Optimization(SMO) by Mr. John Platt. Right now I am in the phase where I am going to grid search to find optimal C value for my dataset. ( Please find details of my project application and dataset details here http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2284059/svm-classification-minimum-number-of-input-sets-for-each-class) I have successfully checked my custom implemented SVM`s accuracy for C values ranging from 2^0 to 2^6. But now I am having some issues regarding the convergence of the SMO for C 128. Like I have tried to find the alpha values for C=128 and it is taking long time before it actually converges and successfully gives alpha values. Time taken for the SMO to converge is about 5 hours for C=100. This huge I think ( because SMO is supposed to be fast. ) though I`m getting good accuracy? I am screwed right not because I can not test the accuracy for higher values of C. I am actually displaying number of alphas changed in every pass of SMO and getting 10, 13, 8... alphas changing continuously. The KKT conditions assures convergence so what is so weird happening here? Please note that my implementation is working fine for C<=100 with good accuracy though the execution time is long. Please give me inputs on this issue. Thank You and Cheers.

    Read the article

  • Working around MySQL error "Deadlock found when trying to get lock; try restarting transaction"

    - by Anon Guy
    Hi all: I have a MySQL table with about 5,000,000 rows that are being constantly updated in small ways by parallel Perl processes connecting via DBI. The table has about 10 columns and several indexes. One fairly common operation gives rise to the following error sometimes: DBD::mysql::st execute failed: Deadlock found when trying to get lock; try restarting transaction at Db.pm line 276. The SQL statement that triggers the error is something like this: UPDATE file_table SET a_lock = 'process-1234' WHERE param1 = 'X' AND param2 = 'Y' AND param3 = 'Z' LIMIT 47 The error is triggered only sometimes. I'd estimate in 1% of calls or less. However, it never happened with a small table and has become more common as the database has grown. Note that I am using the a_lock field in file_table to ensure that the four near-identical processes I am running do not try and work on the same row. The limit is designed to break their work into small chunks. I haven't done much tuning on MySQL or DBD::mysql. MySQL is a standard Solaris deployment, and the database connection is set up as follows: my $dsn = "DBI:mysql:database=" . $DbConfig::database . ";host=${DbConfig::hostname};port=${DbConfig::port}"; my $dbh = DBI->connect($dsn, $DbConfig::username, $DbConfig::password, { RaiseError => 1, AutoCommit => 1 }) or die $DBI::errstr; I have seen online that several other people have reported similar errors and that this may be a genuine deadlock situation. I have two questions: What exactly about my situation is causing the error above? Is there a simple way to work around it or lessen its frequency? For example, how exactly do I go about "restarting transaction at Db.pm line 276"? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • OpenStreetMap Proximity search using mySQL

    - by Chris
    Hi, I'm just playing around with a dataset of my region generated by JOSM. I moved it into a mySQL DB with the 0.6 API scheme using Osmosis and now I'm desperately trying the following: I want to get all streets of a city. AFAIK there is no tag/relation in the OSM data to determine this so I tried it using a proximity search to get all nodes in a radius around a node representing the city center. Most of the time I looked at the approaches here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/574691/mysql-great-circle-distance-haversine-formula What I got is the following SQL code that should get me the closest 100 nodes around the node with id 36187002 and within a radius of 10km. set @nodeid = 36187002; set @dist = 10; select longitude, latitude into @mylon, @mylat from nodes where id=@nodeid limit 1; SELECT id, ( 6371 * acos( cos( radians(@mylon) ) * cos( radians( latitude ) ) * cos( radians( longitude ) - radians(@mylat) ) + sin( radians(@mylon) ) * sin( radians( latitude ) ) ) ) AS distance FROM nodes HAVING distance < @dist ORDER BY distance LIMIT 0 , 100; Well.. it doesn't work. :( I guess the main problem is that OSM lats/lons are multiplied by 10.000.000 and I don't know how I can correct this function to make it work. Any ideas about this? All solutions/alternatives are very welcome! Have a nice weekend! Chris

    Read the article

  • Guice, JDBC and managing database connections

    - by pledge
    I'm looking to create a sample project while learning Guice which uses JDBC to read/write to a SQL database. However, after years of using Spring and letting it abstract away connection handling and transactions I'm struggling to work it our conceptually. I'd like to have a service which starts and stops a transaction and calls numerous repositories which reuse the same connection and participate in the same transaction. My questions are: Where do I create my Datasource? How do I give the repositories access to the connection? (ThreadLocal?) Best way to manage the transaction (Creating an Interceptor for an annotation?) The code below shows how I would do this in Spring. The JdbcOperations injected into each repository would have access to the connection associated with the active transaction. I haven't been able to find many tutorials which cover this, beyond ones which show creating interceptors for transactions. I am happy with continuing to use Spring as it is working very well in my projects, but I'd like to know how to do this in pure Guice and JBBC (No JPA/Hibernate/Warp/Reusing Spring) @Service public class MyService implements MyInterface { @Autowired private RepositoryA repositoryA; @Autowired private RepositoryB repositoryB; @Autowired private RepositoryC repositoryC; @Override @Transactional public void doSomeWork() { this.repositoryA.someInsert(); this.repositoryB.someUpdate(); this.repositoryC.someSelect(); } } @Repository public class MyRepositoryA implements RepositoryA { @Autowired private JdbcOperations jdbcOperations; @Override public void someInsert() { //use jdbcOperations to perform an insert } } @Repository public class MyRepositoryB implements RepositoryB { @Autowired private JdbcOperations jdbcOperations; @Override public void someUpdate() { //use jdbcOperations to perform an update } } @Repository public class MyRepositoryC implements RepositoryC { @Autowired private JdbcOperations jdbcOperations; @Override public String someSelect() { //use jdbcOperations to perform a select and use a RowMapper to produce results return "select result"; } }

    Read the article

  • RESTful WCF Data Service Authentication

    - by Adrian Grigore
    Hi, I'd like to implement a REST api to an existing ASP.NET MVC website. I've managed to set up WCF Data services so that I can browse my data, but now the question is how to handle authentication. Right now the data service is secured via the site's built in forms authentication, and that's ok when accessing the service from AJAX forms. However, It's not ideal for a RESTful api. What I would like as an alternative to forms authentication is for the users to simply embed the user name and password into the url to the web service or as request parameters. For example, if my web service is usually accessible as http://localhost:1234/api.svc I'd like to be able to access it using the url http://localhost:1234/api.svc/{login}/{password} So, my questions are as follows: Is this a sane approach? If yes, how can I implement this? It seems trivial redirecting GET requests so that the login and password are attached as GET parameters. I also know how to inspect the http context and use those parameters to filter the results. But I am not sure if / how the same approach could be applied to POST, PUT and DELETE requests. Thanks, Adrian

    Read the article

  • Java Memory Model: reordering and concurrent locks

    - by Steffen Heil
    Hi The java meomry model mandates that synchronize blocks that synchronize on the same monitor enforce a before-after-realtion on the variables modified within those blocks. Example: // in thread A synchronized( lock ) { x = true; } // in thread B synchronized( lock ) { System.out.println( x ); } In this case it is garanteed that thread B will see x==true as long as thread A already passed that synchronized-block. Now I am in the process to rewrite lots of code to use the more flexible (and said to be faster) locks in java.util.concurrent, especially the ReentrantReadWriteLock. So the example looks like this: // in thread A synchronized( lock ) { lock.writeLock().lock(); x = true; lock.writeLock().unlock(); } // in thread B synchronized( lock ) { lock.readLock().lock(); System.out.println( x ); lock.readLock().unlock(); } However, I have not seen any hints within the memory model specification that such locks also imply the nessessary ordering. Looking into the implementation it seems to rely on the access to volatile variables inside AbstractQueuedSynchronizer (for the sun implementation at least). However this is not part of any specification and moreover access to non-volatile variables is not really condsidered covered by the memory barrier given by these variables, is it? So, here are my questions: Is it safe to assume the same ordering as with the "old" synchronized blocks? Is this documented somewhere? Is accessing any volatile variable a memory barrier for any other variable? Regards, Steffen

    Read the article

  • C++ thread safety - exchange data between worker and controller

    - by peterchen
    I still feel a bit unsafe about the topic and hope you folks can help me - For passing data (configuration or results) between a worker thread polling something and a controlling thread interested in the most recent data, I've ended up using more or less the following pattern repeatedly: Mutex m; tData * stage; // temporary, accessed concurrently // send data, gives up ownership, receives old stage if any tData * Send(tData * newData) { ScopedLock lock(m); swap(newData, stage); return newData; } // receiving thread fetches latest data here tData * Fetch(tData * prev) { ScopedLock lock(m); if (stage != 0) { // ... release prev prev = stage; stage = 0; } return prev; // now current } Note: This is not supposed to be a full producer-consumer queue, only the msot recent data is relevant. Also, I've skimmed ressource management somewhat here. When necessary I'm using two such stages: one to send config changes to the worker, and for sending back results. Now, my questions assuming that ScopedLock implements a full memory barrier: do stage and/or workerData need to be volatile? is volatile necessary for tData members? can I use smart pointers instead of the raw pointers - say boost::shared_ptr? Anything else that can go wrong? I am basically trying to avoid "volatile infection" spreading into tData, and minimize lock contention (a lock free implementation seems possible, too). However, I'm not sure if this is the easiest solution. ScopedLock acts as a full memory barrier. Since all this is more or less platform dependent, let's say Visual C++ x86 or x64, though differences/notes for other platforms are welcome, too. (a prelimenary "thanks but" for recommending libraries such as Intel TBB - I am trying to understand the platform issues here)

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 584 585 586 587 588 589 590 591 592 593 594 595  | Next Page >