Search Results

Search found 15426 results on 618 pages for 'concordus applications'.

Page 589/618 | < Previous Page | 585 586 587 588 589 590 591 592 593 594 595 596  | Next Page >

• Jboss logging issue - pl check this

  - by balaji

  I’m Working as deployer and server administrator. We use Jboss 4.0x AS to deploy our applications. The issue I'm facing is, Whenever we redeploy/restart the server, server.log is getting created but after sometime the logging goes off. Yes it is not at all updating the server.log file. Due to this, we could not trace the other critical issues we have. Actually we have two separate nodes and we do deploy/restarting the server separately on two nodes. We are facing the issue in both of our test and production environment. I could not trace out where exactly the issue is. Could you please help me in resolving the issue? If we have any other issues, we can check the log files. If log itself is not getting updated/logged, how can we move further in analyzing the issues without the recent/updated logs? Below are the logs found in the stdout.log: 18:55:50,303 INFO [Server] Core system initialized 18:55:52,296 INFO [WebService] Using RMI server codebase: http://kl121tez.is.klmcorp.net:8083/ 18:55:52,313 INFO [Log4jService$URLWatchTimerTask] Configuring from URL: resource:log4j.xml 18:55:52,860 ERROR [STDERR] LOG0026E The Log Manager cannot create the object AmasRBPFTraceLogger without a class name. 18:55:52,860 ERROR [STDERR] LOG0026E The Log Manager cannot create the object AmasRBPFMessageLogger without a class name. 18:55:54,273 ERROR [STDERR] LOG0026E The Log Manager cannot create the object AmasCacheTraceLogger without a class name. 18:55:54,274 ERROR [STDERR] LOG0026E The Log Manager cannot create the object AmasCacheMessageLogger without a class name. 18:55:54,334 ERROR [STDERR] LOG0026E The Log Manager cannot create the object JACCTraceLogger without a class name. 18:55:54,334 ERROR [STDERR] LOG0026E The Log Manager cannot create the object JACCMessageLogger without a class name. 18:55:56,059 INFO [ServiceEndpointManager] WebServices: jbossws-1.0.3.SP1 (date=200609291417) 18:55:56,635 INFO [Embedded] Catalina naming disabled 18:55:56,671 INFO [ClusterRuleSetFactory] Unable to find a cluster rule set in the classpath. Will load the default rule set. 18:55:56,672 INFO [ClusterRuleSetFactory] Unable to find a cluster rule set in the classpath. Will load the default rule set. 18:55:56,843 INFO [Http11BaseProtocol] Initializing Coyote HTTP/1.1 on http-0.0.0.0-8180 18:55:56,844 INFO [Catalina] Initialization processed in 172 ms 18:55:56,844 INFO [StandardService] Starting service jboss.web Please help..

  Read the article

• Using mcrypt to pass data across a webservice is failing

  - by adam

  Hi I'm writing an error handler script which encrypts the error data (file, line, error, message etc) and passes the serialized array as a POST variable (using curl) to a script which then logs the error in a central db. I've tested my encrypt/decrypt functions in a single file and the data is encrypted and decrypted fine: define('KEY', 'abc'); define('CYPHER', 'blowfish'); define('MODE', 'cfb'); function encrypt($data) { $td = mcrypt_module_open(CYPHER, '', MODE, ''); $iv = mcrypt_create_iv(mcrypt_enc_get_iv_size($td), MCRYPT_RAND); mcrypt_generic_init($td, KEY, $iv); $crypttext = mcrypt_generic($td, $data); mcrypt_generic_deinit($td); return $iv.$crypttext; } function decrypt($data) { $td = mcrypt_module_open(CYPHER, '', MODE, ''); $ivsize = mcrypt_enc_get_iv_size($td); $iv = substr($data, 0, $ivsize); $data = substr($data, $ivsize); if ($iv) { mcrypt_generic_init($td, KEY, $iv); $data = mdecrypt_generic($td, $data); } return $data; } echo "<pre>"; $data = md5(''); echo "Data: $data\n"; $e = encrypt($data); echo "Encrypted: $e\n"; $d = decrypt($e); echo "Decrypted: $d\n"; Output: Data: d41d8cd98f00b204e9800998ecf8427e Encrypted: ê÷#¯KžViiÖŠŒÆÜ,ÑFÕUW£´Œt?†÷>c×åóéè+„N Decrypted: d41d8cd98f00b204e9800998ecf8427e The problem is, when I put the encrypt function in my transmit file (tx.php) and the decrypt in my recieve file (rx.php), the data is not fully decrypted (both files have the same set of constants for key, cypher and mode). Data before passing: a:4:{s:3:"err";i:1024;s:3:"msg";s:4:"Oops";s:4:"file";s:46:"/Applications/MAMP/htdocs/projects/txrx/tx.php";s:4:"line";i:80;} Data decrypted: Mª4:{s:3:"err";i:1024@7OYªç`^;g";s:4:"Oops";s:4:"file";sôÔ8F•Ópplications/MAMP/htdocs/projects/txrx/tx.php";s:4:"line";i:80;} Note the random characters in the middle. My curl is fairly simple: $ch = curl_init($url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, 'data=' . $data); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true); $output = curl_exec($ch); Things I suspect could be causing this: Encoding of the curl request Something to do with mcrypt padding missing bytes I've been staring at it too long and have missed something really really obvious If I turn off the crypt functions (so the transfer tx-rx is unencrypted) the data is received fine. Any and all help much appreciated! Thanks, Adam

  Read the article

• Strange problem publishing a fresh Ruby on Rails 3 application on localhost (Apache, Passenger and VirtualHosts)

  - by user502052

  I recently created a new Ruby on Rails 3 application locally on a Mac OS, named "test". Since I use apache2, in the private/etc/apache2/httpd.conf I set the VirtualHost for the "test" application: <VirtualHost *:443> ServerName test.pjtmain.localhost:443 DocumentRoot "/Users/<my_user_name>/Sites/test/public" RackEnv development <Directory "/Users/<my_user_name>/Sites/test/public"> Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> # SSL Configuration SSLEngine on ... </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName test.pjtmain.localhost DocumentRoot "/Users/<my_user_name>/Sites/test/public" RackEnv development <Directory "/Users/<my_user_name>/Sites/test/public"> Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> </VirtualHost> Of course I restart apache2, but trying to access to http://test.pjtmain.localhost/ I have this error message from: FIREFOX Oops! Firefox could not find test.pjtmain.localhost Suggestions: * Search on Google: ... SAFARI Safari can’t find the server. Safari can’t open the page “http://test.pjtmain.localhost/” because Safari can’t find the server “test.pjtmain.localhost”. I have other RoR3 applications setted like that above in the httpd.conf file and all them work. What is the problem (maybe it is not related to apache...)? Notes: 1. Using the 'Network Uility' I did a Ping with the following result: ping: cannot resolve test.pjtmain.localhost: Unknown host and I did a Lookup with the follonwing result: ; <<>> DiG 9.6.0-APPLE-P2 <<>> test.pjtmain.localhost +multiline +nocomments +nocmd +noquestion +nostats +search ;; global options: +cmd <MY_BROADBAND_TELECOMUNICATIONS_COMPANY_NAME>.com. 115 IN SOA dns1.<MY_BROADBAND_TELECOMUNICATIONS_COMPANY_NAME>.com. dnsmaster.<MY_BROADBAND_TELECOMUNICATIONS_COMPANY_NAME>.com. ( 2010110500 ; serial 10800 ; refresh (3 hours) 900 ; retry (15 minutes) 604800 ; expire (1 week) 86400 ; minimum (1 day) ) 2. I am using Phusion Passenger 3. Since I not changed nothing to the new "test" application, I expect to see the default RoR index.html page: 4. It seems that in the 'Console Messages' there is any warning or error

  Read the article

• Myself throwing NullReferenceException... needs help

  - by Amit Ranjan

  I know it might be a weird question and its Title too, but i need your help. I am a .net dev , working on platform for the last 1.5 years. I am bit confused on the term usually we say " A Good Programmer ". I dont know ,what are the qualities of a good programmer ? Is the guy who writes a bug free code? or Can develop applications solely? or blah blah blah...lots of points. I dont know... But as far i am concerned , I know I am not a good programmer, still in learning phase an needs a lot to learn in coming days. So you guys are requested to please help me with this two problems of mine My first problem is regarding the proper Error Handling, which is a most debatable aspect of programming. We all know we use ` try { } catch { } finally { } ` in our code to manage exception. But even if I use try { } catch(exception ex) { throw ex } finally { } , different guys have different views. I still dont know the good way to handle errors. I can write code, use try-catch but still i feel I lacks something. When I saw the codes generated by .net fx tools even they uses throw ex or `throw new Exception("this is my exception")`.. I am just wondering what will be the best way to achieve the above. All means the same thing but why we avoid something. If it has some demerits then it must be made obselete.Anyways I still dont have one [how to handle errors efficiently?]. I generally follow the try-catch(execoption ex){throw ex}, and usually got stucked in debates with leads why you follow this why not that... 2.Converting your entire code blocks in modules using Design patterns of some OOPs concepts. How do you guys decide what architeture or pattern will be the best for my upcoming application based on its working, flow etc. I need to know what you guys can see that I can't. Since I know , I dont have that much experience but I can say, with my experience that experience doesnot comes either from degree/certificates or success you made instead it cames from failures you faced or got stucking situations. Pleas help me out.

  Read the article

• Access violation when running native C++ application that uses a /clr built DLL

  - by doobop

  I'm reorganzing a legacy mixed (managed and unmanaged DLLs) application so that the main application segment is unmanaged MFC and that will call a C++ DLL compiled with /clr flag that will bridge the communication between the managed (C# DLLs) and unmanaged code. Unfortuantely, my changed have resulted in an Access violation that occurs before the application InitInstance() is called. This makes it very difficult to debug. The only information I get is the following stack trace. > 64006108() ntdll.dll!_ZwCreateMutant@16() + 0xc bytes kernel32.dll!_CreateMutexW@12() + 0x7a bytes So, here are some sceanrios I've tried. - Turned on Exceptions-Win32 Exceptions-c0000005 Access Violation to break when Thrown. Still the most detail I get is from the above stack trace. I've tried the application with F10, but it fails before any breakpoints are hit and fails with the above stack trace. - I've stubbed out the bridge DLL so that it only has one method that returns a bool and that method is coded to just return false (no C# code called). bool DllPassthrough::IsFailed() { return false; } If the stubbed out DLL is compiled with the /clr flag, the application fails. If it is compiled without the /clr flag, the application runs. - I've created a stub MFC application using the Visual Studio wizard for multidocument applications and call DllPassthrough::IsFailed(). This succeeds even with the /clr flag used to compile the DLL. - I've tried doing a manual LoadLibrary on winmm.lib as outlined in the following note Access violation when using c++/cli. The application still fails. So, my questions are how to solve the problem? Any hints, strategies, or previous incidents. And, failing that, how can I get more information on what code segment or library is causing the access exception? If I try more involved workarounds like doing LoadLibrary calls, I'd like to narrow it to the failing libraries. Thanks. BTW, we are using Visual Studio 2008 and the project is being built against the .NET 2.0 framework for the managed sections.

  Read the article

• Alert on gridview edit based on permission

  - by Vicky

  I have a gridview with edit option at the start of the row. Also I maintain a seperate table called Permission where I maintain user permissions. I have three different types of permissions like Admin, Leads, Programmers. These all three will have access to the gridview. Except admin if anyone tries to edit the gridview on clicking the edit option, I need to give an alert like This row has important validation and make sure you make proper changes. When I edit, the action with happen on table called Application. The table has a column called Comments. Also the alert should happen only when they try to edit rows where the Comments column have these values in them. ManLog datas Funding Approved Exported Applications My try so far. public bool IsApplicationUser(string userName) { return CheckUser(userName); } public static bool CheckUser(string userName) { string CS = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["ConnectionString"].ToString(); DataTable dt = new DataTable(); using (SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(CS)) { SqlCommand command = new SqlCommand(); command.Connection = connection; string strquery = "select * from Permissions where AppCode='Nest' and UserID = '" + userName + "'"; SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand(strquery, connection); SqlDataAdapter da = new SqlDataAdapter(cmd); da.Fill(dt); } if (dt.Rows.Count >= 1) return true; else return true; } protected void Details_RowCommand(object sender, GridViewCommandEventArgs e) { string currentUser = HttpContext.Current.Request.LogonUserIdentity.Name; string str = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["ConnectionString"].ToString(); string[] words = currentUser.Split('\\'); currentUser = words[1]; bool appuser = IsApplicationUser(currentUser); if (appuser) { DataSet ds = new DataSet(); using (SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(str)) { SqlCommand command = new SqlCommand(); command.Connection = connection; string strquery = "select Role_Cd from User_Role where AppCode='PM' and UserID = '" + currentUser + "'"; SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand(strquery, connection); SqlDataAdapter da = new SqlDataAdapter(cmd); da.Fill(ds); } if (e.CommandName.Equals("Edit") && ds.Tables[0].Rows[0]["Role_Cd"].ToString().Trim() != "ADMIN") { int index = Convert.ToInt32(e.CommandArgument); GridView gvCurrentGrid = (GridView)sender; GridViewRow row = gvCurrentGrid.Rows[index]; string strID = ((Label)row.FindControl("lblID")).Text; string strAppName = ((Label)row.FindControl("lblAppName")).Text; Response.Redirect("AddApplication.aspx?ID=" + strID + "&AppName=" + strAppName + "&Edit=True"); } } } Kindly let me know if I need to add something. Thanks for any suggestions.

  Read the article

• JavaScript - Cross Site Scripting - Permission Denied

  - by Villager

  Hello, I have a web application for which I am trying to use Twitter's OAuth functionality. This application has a link that prompts a user for their Twitter credentials. When a user clicks this link, a new window is opened via JavaScript. This window serves as a dialog. This is accomplished like such: MainPage: <div id="promptDiv"><a href="#" onclick="launchDialog('twitter/prompt.aspx');">Provide Credentials</a></div> ... function launchDialog(url) { var specs = "location=0,menubar=0,status=0,titlebar=0,toolbar=0"; var dialogWindow = window.open(url, "dialog", specs, true); } When a user clicks the link, they are redirected to Twitter's site from the prompt.aspx page. On the Twitter site, the user has the option to enter their Twitter credentials. When they have provided their credentials, they are redirected back to my site. This is accomplished through a callback url which can be set for applications on Twitter's site. When the callback happens, the user is redirected to "/twitter/confirm.aspx" on my site in the dialog window. When this happens I want to update the contents of "promptDiv" to say "You have successfully connected with Twitter" to replace the link and close the dialog. This serves the purpose of notifying the user they have successfully completed this step. I can successfully close the dialog window. However, when I am try to update the HTML DOM, I receive an error that says "Error: Permission denied to get property Window.document". In an attempt to update the HTML DOM, I tried using the following script in "/twitter/confirm.aspx": // Error is thrown on the first line. var confirmDiv = window.opener.document.getElementById("confirmDiv"); if (confirmDiv != null) { // Update the contents } window.close(); I then just tried to read the HTML to see if I could even access the DOM via the following script: alert(window.opener.document.body.innerHTML); When I attempted this, I still got a "Permission denied" error. I know this has something to do with cross-site scripting. However, I do not know how to resolve it. How do I fix this problem? Am I structuring my application incorrectly? How do I update the HTML DOM after a user has been redirected back to my site? Thank you for your help!

  Read the article

• SQL/Schema comparison and upgrade

  - by Workshop Alex

  I have a simple situation. A large organisation is using several different versions of some (desktop) application and each version has it's own database structure. There are about 200 offices and each office will have it's own version, which can be one of 7 different ones. The company wants to upgrade all applications to the latest versions, which will be version 8. The problem is that they don't have a separate database for each version. Nor do they have a separate database for each office. They have one single database which is handled by a dedicated server, thus keeping things like management and backups easier. Every office has it's own database schema and within the schema there's the whole database structure for their specific application version. As a result, I'm dealing with 200 different schema's which need to be upgraded, each with 7 possible versions. Fortunately, every schema knows the proper version so checking the version isn't difficult. But my problem is that I need to create upgrade scripts which can upgrade from version 1 to version 2 to version 3 to etc... Basically, all schema's need to be bumped up one version until they're all version 8. Writing the code that will do this is no problem. the challenge is how to create the upgrade script from one version to the other? Preferably with some automated tool. I've examined RedGate's SQL Compare and Altova's DatabaseSpy but they're not practical. Altova is way too slow. RedGate requires too much processing afterwards, since the generated SQL Script still has a few errors and it refers to the schema name. Furthermore, the code needs to become part of a stored procedure and the code generated by RedGate doesn't really fit inside a single procedure. (Plus, it's doing too much transaction-handling, while I need everything within a single transaction. I have been considering using another SQL Comparison tool but it seems to me that my case is just too different from what standard tools can deliver. So I'm going to write my own comparison tool. To do this, I'll be using ADOX with Delphi to read the catalogues for every schema version in the database, then use this to write the SQL Statements that will need to upgrade these schema's to their next version. (Comparing 1 with 2, 2 with 3, 3 with 4, etc.) I'm not unfamiliar with generating SQL-Script-Generators so I don't expect too many problems. And I'll only be upgrading the table structures, not any of the other database objects. So, does anyone have some good tips and tricks to apply when doing this kind of comparisons? Things to be aware of? Practical tips to increase speed?

  Read the article

• How do you create a MANIFEST.MF that's available when you're testing and running from a jar in produ

  - by warvair

  I've spent far too much time trying to figure this out. This should be the simplest thing and everyone who distributes Java applications in jars must have to deal with it. I just want to know the proper way to add versioning to my Java app so that I can access the version information when I'm testing, e.g. debugging in Eclipse and running from a jar. Here's what I have in my build.xml: <target name="jar" depends = "compile"> <property name="version.num" value="1.0.0"/> <buildnumber file="build.num"/> <tstamp> <format property="TODAY" pattern="yyyy-MM-dd HH:mm:ss" /> </tstamp> <manifest file="${build}/META-INF/MANIFEST.MF"> <attribute name="Built-By" value="${user.name}" /> <attribute name="Built-Date" value="${TODAY}" /> <attribute name="Implementation-Title" value="MyApp" /> <attribute name="Implementation-Vendor" value="MyCompany" /> <attribute name="Implementation-Version" value="${version.num}-b${build.number}"/> </manifest> <jar destfile="${build}/myapp.jar" basedir="${build}" excludes="*.jar" /> </target> This creates /META-INF/MANIFEST.MF and I can read the values when I'm debugging in Eclipse thusly: public MyClass() { try { InputStream stream = getClass().getResourceAsStream("/META-INF/MANIFEST.MF"); Manifest manifest = new Manifest(stream); Attributes attributes = manifest.getMainAttributes(); String implementationTitle = attributes.getValue("Implementation-Title"); String implementationVersion = attributes.getValue("Implementation-Version"); String builtDate = attributes.getValue("Built-Date"); String builtBy = attributes.getValue("Built-By"); } catch (IOException e) { logger.error("Couldn't read manifest."); } } But, when I create the jar file, it loads the manifest of another jar (presumably the first jar loaded by the application - in my case, activation.jar). Also, the following code doesn't work either although all the proper values are in the manifest file. Package thisPackage = getClass().getPackage(); String implementationVersion = thisPackage.getImplementationVersion(); Any ideas?

  Read the article

• Issues declaring already existing NSMutableArray in new class

  - by Graeme

  I have a class (DataImporter) which has the code to download an RSS feed. I also have a view and separate class (TableView) which displays the data in a UITableView and starts the parsing process, storing parsed information in an NSMutableArray (items) which is located in the (TableView) subclass. Now I wish to add a UIMapView which displays the items in the (items) NSMutableArray. Herein lies the issue - I need to somehow get the data from the (items) NSMutableArray into the new (mapView) subclass which I'm struggling with - and I preferably don't want to have to create a new class to download the data again for the mapView class when it already is in the applications memory. Is there a way I can transfer the information from the NSMutableArray (items) class to the (mapView) class (i.e. how do I declare the NSMutableArray in the (mapView) class)? Here's a overview of how the system works: App opened Data downloaded (using DataImporter class) when (TableView) viewDidLoad runs Data stored in NSMutableArray accessible by the (TableView) class And from here I need to access and declare the array from a new (mapView) class. Any help greatly appreciated, thanks. Code for viewDidLoad MapKit: Data *data = nil; NSString *ilocation = [data locations]; NSString *ilocation2 = @"New Zealand"; NSString *inewlString; inewlString = [ilocation stringByAppendingString:ilocation2]; NSLog(@"inewlString=%@",inewlString); if(forwardGeocoder == nil) { forwardGeocoder = [[BSForwardGeocoder alloc] initWithDelegate:self]; } // Forward geocode! [forwardGeocoder findLocation: inewlString]; Code for parsing data into original NSMutable Array: - (void)beginParsing { NSLog(@"Parsing has begun"); //self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem.enabled = NO; // Allocate the array for song storage, or empty the results of previous parses if (incidents == nil) { NSLog(@"Grabbing array"); self.datas = [NSMutableArray array]; } else { [datas removeAllObjects]; [self.tableView reloadData]; } // Create the parser, set its delegate, and start it. self.parser = [[DataImporter alloc] init]; parser.delegate = self; [parser start]; }

  Read the article

• Self updating app, wont overwrite existing app, using Android packagemanager?

  - by LokiSinclair

  I know there are plenty of questions about this on here, but I've tried everything (but the correct 'thing', obviously!) and nothing seems to shine any light on the problem I'm having. I've written an app (for a customer), which is designed to be hosted on their own server. The app references a simple text file with the latest version code in it and checks it against it's own version. If it's out of date it goes off and downloads the update. Everything is working as intended up to this point. I use the: Intent i = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_VIEW); i.setDataAndType(Uri.fromFile(outputFile), "application/vnd.android.package-archive"); i.setFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); startActivity(i); ...code to start the install process of the newly downloaded .apk file. And that all starts as I would expect. I click on "Install" - when I'm prompted to confirm the overwriting of the current app, with the new. It starts, and then displays: App not installed. And existing package by the same name with a conflicting signature is already installed. Now I'm aware that Android can't have multiple applications sharing the same package name, which is fine, but nothing comes up in LogCat and I can only assume that the OS is annoyed at me attempting to 'update' my app, even though I'm going through all the correct channels and using the inbuilt package manager to do it for me! Can anyone tell me what the OS is moaning about? I'm not attempting to install two apps side by side, I want it to update it, which it starts to do, and then gets really confused. Is it something to do with me using the same keystore for signing the packages? I highly doubt it as I've used the same keystores previously to handle updates to games and the like, but I just can't figure out what it's complaining about. Hopefully someone out there has had this issue and solved it, and can point me in the right direction. I'm flying a bit blind with the limited information it's giving me :( Cheers.

  Read the article

• AJAX, same-origin Policy and working XML Requests

  - by Joern

  Hello guys, so, currently I develop Widgets for Smartphones and am going a bit more advanced into fields of data exchange between client and server applications. My problem is: For my current project I want my client file to request data from a PHP script with the help of AJAX XmlHttpRequest and the POST method: function xmlRequestNotes() { var parameter = 'p=1234'; xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); xmlhttp.open("POST", url, true); // Http Header xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Content-Type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Content-length", parameter.length); xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { json = JSON.parse(xmlhttp.responseText); // Doing Stuff with the Response } }; xmlhttp.send(parameter); } This works perfectly fine on my local server set up in XAMPP and the local Widget emulator. But if it gets onto the device (also with access to the target network) I receive the 101 Network Error. And as far as I have read, this is due to the "Same-Origin Policy" of XmlHttpRequests? My problem is to really understand that. Although the idea of this policy is clear to me, I'm a bit confused by the fact that another XmlHttpRequest for a Yahoo Weather XML Feed works fine. Now, could anyone be so helpful to enlighten me? Here is the request that returns a city name from Yahoo's weather feed: function getCityName() { xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); xmlhttp.open("GET", "http://weather.yahooapis.com/forecastrss?w=645458&u=c", true); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange = function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { xmlhttp.responseXML; var yweather = "http://xml.weather.yahoo.com/ns/rss/1.0"; alert(xmlhttp.responseXML.getElementsByTagNameNS(yweather, "location")[0].getAttribute("city")); } }; xmlhttp.send(null); } Obvious differences are the POST and GET methods for once, but seeing that the Same-Origin Policy takes effect no matter what method, I can't really make much sense of it. Why does the latter request work but not the first? I would really appreciate some help here. Greetings and a merry Christmas to you guys!

  Read the article

• Nested Transaction issues within custom Windows Service

  - by pdwetz

  I have a custom Windows Service I recently upgraded to use TransactionScope for nested transactions. It worked fine locally on my old dev machine (XP sp3) and on a test server (Server 2003). However, it fails on my new Windows 7 machine as well as on 2008 Server. It was targeting 2.0 framework; I tried targeting 3.5 instead, but it still fails. The strange part is really in how it fails; no exception is thrown. The service itself merely times out. I added tracing code, and it fails when opening the connection for Database lookup #2 below. I also enabled tracing for System.Transactions; it literally cuts out partway while writing the block for the failed connection. We ran a SQL trace, but only the first lookup shows up. I put in code traces, and it gets to the trace the line before the second lookup, but nothing after. I've had the same experience hitting two different SQL servers (both are SQL 2005 running on Server 2003). The connection string is utilizing a SQL account (not Windows integration). All connections are against the same database in this case, but given the nature of the code it is being escalated to MSDTC. Here's the basic code structure: TransactionOptions options = new TransactionOptions(); options.IsolationLevel = System.Transactions.IsolationLevel.ReadCommitted; using (TransactionScope scope = new TransactionScope(TransactionScopeOption.RequiresNew, options)) { // Database lookup #1 TransactionOptions options = new TransactionOptions(); options.IsolationLevel = Transaction.Current != null ? Transaction.Current.IsolationLevel : System.Transactions.IsolationLevel.ReadCommitted; using (TransactionScope scope = new TransactionScope(TransactionScopeOption.Required, options)) { // Database lookup #2; fails on connection.Open() // Database save (never reached) scope.Complete();<br/> } scope.Complete();<br/> } My local firewall is disabled. The service normally runs using Network Service, but I also tried my user account (same results). The short of it is that I use the same general technique widely in my web applications and haven't had any issues. I pulled out the code and ran it fine within a local Windows Form application. If anyone has any additional debugging ideas (or, even better, solutions) I'd love to hear them.

  Read the article

• Java Socket Connection is flooding network OR resulting in high ping

  - by user1461100

  i have a little problem with my java socket code. I'm writing an android client application which is sending data to a java multithreaded socket server on my pc through direct(!) wireless connection. It works fine but i want to improve it for mobile applications as it is very power consuming by now. When i remove two special lines in my code, the cpu usage of my mobile device (htc one x) is totally okay but then my connection seems to have high ping rates or something like that... Here is a server code snippet where i receive the clients data: while(true) { try { .... Object obj = in.readObject(); if(obj != null) { Class clazz = obj.getClass(); String className = clazz.getName(); if(className.equals("java.lang.String")) { String cmd = (String)obj; if(cmd.equals("dc")) { System.out.println("Client "+id+" disconnected!"); Server.connectedClients[id-1] = false; break; } if(cmd.substring(0,1).equals("!")) { robot.keyRelease(PlayerEnum.getKey(cmd,id)); } else { robot.keyPress(PlayerEnum.getKey(cmd,id)); } } } } catch .... Heres the client part, where i send my data in a while loop: private void networking() { try { if(client != null) { .... out.writeObject(sendQueue.poll()); .... } } catch .... when i write it this why, i send data everytime the while loop gets executed.. when sendQueue is empty, a null "Object" will be send. this results in "high" network traffic and in "high" cpu usage. BUT: all send comments are received nearly immediately. when i change the code to following: while(true) ... if(sendQueue.peek() != null) { out.writeObject(sendQueue.poll()); } ... the cpu usage is totally okay but i'm getting some laggs.. the commands do not arrive fast enough.. as i said, it works fine (besides cpu usage) if i'm sending data(with that null objects) every while execution. but i'm sure that this is very rough coding style because i'm kind of flooding the network. any hints? what am i doing wrong?? Thanks for your Help! Sincerly yours, maaft

  Read the article

• Precise explanation of JavaScript <-> DOM circular reference issue

  - by Joey Adams

  One of the touted advantages of jQuery.data versus raw expando properties (arbitrary attributes you can assign to DOM nodes) is that jQuery.data is "safe from circular references and therefore free from memory leaks". An article from Google titled "Optimizing JavaScript code" goes into more detail: The most common memory leaks for web applications involve circular references between the JavaScript script engine and the browsers' C++ objects' implementing the DOM (e.g. between the JavaScript script engine and Internet Explorer's COM infrastructure, or between the JavaScript engine and Firefox XPCOM infrastructure). It lists two examples of circular reference patterns: DOM element → event handler → closure scope → DOM DOM element → via expando → intermediary object → DOM element However, if a reference cycle between a DOM node and a JavaScript object produces a memory leak, doesn't this mean that any non-trivial event handler (e.g. onclick) will produce such a leak? I don't see how it's even possible for an event handler to avoid a reference cycle, because the way I see it: The DOM element references the event handler. The event handler references the DOM (either directly or indirectly). In any case, it's almost impossible to avoid referencing window in any interesting event handler, short of writing a setInterval loop that reads actions from a global queue. Can someone provide a precise explanation of the JavaScript ↔ DOM circular reference problem? Things I'd like clarified: What browsers are effected? A comment in the jQuery source specifically mentions IE6-7, but the Google article suggests Firefox is also affected. Are expando properties and event handlers somehow different concerning memory leaks? Or are both of these code snippets susceptible to the same kind of memory leak? // Create an expando that references to its own element. var elem = document.getElementById('foo'); elem.myself = elem; // Create an event handler that references its own element. var elem = document.getElementById('foo'); elem.onclick = function() { elem.style.display = 'none'; }; If a page leaks memory due to a circular reference, does the leak persist until the entire browser application is closed, or is the memory freed when the window/tab is closed?

  Read the article

• Where are the function literals in c++?

  - by academicRobot

  First of all, maybe literals is not the right term for this concept, but its the closest I could think of (not literals in the sense of functions as first class citizens). The idea is that when you make a conventional function call, it compiles to something like this: callq <immediate address> But if you make a function call using a function pointer, it compiles to something like this: mov <memory location>,%rax callq *%rax Which is all well and good. However, what if I'm writing a template library that requires a callback of some sort with a specified argument list and the user of the library is expected to know what function they want to call at compile time? Then I would like to write my template to accept a function literal as a template parameter. So, similar to template <int int_literal> struct my_template {...};` I'd like to write template <func_literal_t func_literal> struct my_template {...}; and have calls to func_literal within my_template compile to callq <immediate address>. Is there a facility in C++ for this, or a work around to achieve the same effect? If not, why not (e.g. some cataclysmic side effects)? How about C++0x or another language? Solutions that are not portable are fine. Solutions that include the use of member function pointers would be ideal. I'm not particularly interested in being told "You are a <socially unacceptable term for a person of low IQ>, just use function pointers/functors." This is a curiosity based question, and it seems that it might be useful in some (albeit limited) applications. It seems like this should be possible since function names are just placeholders for a (relative) memory address, so why not allow more liberal use (e.g. aliasing) of this placeholder. p.s. I use function pointers and functions objects all the the time and they are great. But this post got me thinking about the don't pay for what you don't use principle in relation to function calls, and it seems like forcing the use of function pointers or similar facility when the function is known at compile time is a violation of this principle, though a small one.

  Read the article

• Memory issues - Living vs. overall -> app is killed

  - by D33

  I'm trying to check my applications memory issues in Instruments. When I load the application I play some sounds and show some animations in UIImageViews. To save some memory I load the sounds only when I need it and when I stop playing it I free it from the memory. problem 1: My application is using about 5.5MB of Living memory. BUT The Overall section is growing after start to 20MB and then it's slowly growing (about 100kB/sec). But responsible Library is OpenAL (OAL::Buffer), dyld (_dyld_start)-I am not sure what this really is, and some other stuff like ft_mem_qrealloc, CGFontStrikeSetValue, … problem 2: When the overall section breaks about 30MB, application crashes (is killed). According to the facts I already read about overall memory, it means then my all allocations and deallocation is about 30MB. But I don't really see the problem. When I need some sound for example I load it to the memory and when I don't need it anymore I release it. But that means when I load 1MB sound, this operation increase overall memory usage with 2MB. Am I right? And when I load 10 sounds my app crashes just because the fact my overall is too high even living is still low??? I am very confused about it. Could someone please help me clear it up? (I am on iOS 5 and using ARC) SOME CODE: creating the sound OpenAL: MYOpenALSound *sound = [[MyOpenALSound alloc] initWithSoundFile:filename willRepeat:NO]; if(!sound) return; [soundDictionary addObject:sound]; playing: [sound play]; dispatch_after(dispatch_time(DISPATCH_TIME_NOW, ((sound.duration * sound.pitch) + 0.1) * NSEC_PER_SEC), dispatch_get_current_queue(), ^{ [soundDictionary removeObjectForKey:[NSNumber numberWithInt:soundID]]; }); } creating the sound with AVAudioPlayer: [musics replaceObjectAtIndex:ID_MUSIC_MAP withObject:[[Music alloc] initWithFilename:@"mapMusic.mp3" andWillRepeat:YES]]; pom = [musics objectAtIndex:musicID]; [pom playMusic]; and stop and free it: [musics replaceObjectAtIndex:ID_MUSIC_MAP withObject:[NSNull null]]; AND IMAGE ANIMATIONS: I load images from big PNG file (this is realated also to my other topic : Memory warning - UIImageView and its animations) I have few UIImageViews and by time I'm setting animation arrays to play Animations... UIImage *source = [[UIImage alloc] initWithCGImage:[[UIImage imageNamed:@"imageSource.png"] CGImage]]; cutRect = CGRectMake(0*dimForImg.width,1*dimForImg.height,dimForImg.width,dimForImg.height); image1 = [[UIImage alloc] initWithCGImage:CGImageCreateWithImageInRect([source CGImage], cutRect)]; cutRect = CGRectMake(1*dimForImg.width,1*dimForImg.height,dimForImg.width,dimForImg.height); ... image12 = [[UIImage alloc] initWithCGImage:CGImageCreateWithImageInRect([source CGImage], cutRect)]; NSArray *images = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:image1, image2, image3, image4, image5, image6, image7, image8, image9, image10, image11, image12, image12, image12, nil]; and this array I just use simply like : myUIImageView.animationImages = images, ... duration -> startAnimating

  Read the article

• remove data layer and put into it's own domain

  - by user334768

  I have a SL4 application that uses EF4 & RIA Services. DB is SQL 2008. All is working well. Now I want to put the Database and web services on one domain (A.com) with the web service exposing the same methods available in my working project. (one listed at top of message) Then put a Silverlight application (same one as above) on domain(B.com) and call the web services on A.com. I thought I had a fair understanding of RIA Services. Enough to get the above application working. Now when I say "working" I do mean on my local dev machine. I have yet to deployed as SL4 & .NET 4 application to my hosting site. But I don't think I understand it well enough. I normally create a new business app, add EF then create the RIA DomainService. Add any [Includes] I need, modify my linq queries and run application. And it works. Now I need to break off my data layer and put it on another hosting site (A.com) And put my UI and business logic on another hosting site (B.com) I think I need to do the following : On the Database & web service site: domain(A.com) create application, create EF4, create RIA Services and deploy. At this time, are the methods exposed available as a "WEB SERVICE" to other applications calling by http:// a.com/serviceName.svc address? I think I need to do the following : On the application site : domain(B.com) create a business application (later will need authentication and navigation). How can I create an EF when I don't have access to the database? (I know I do have access but I want know what happens here when I do not have access to the database, but only data provided by a web service) If I can not create an EF how do I create my RIA Service? I hope any one who takes time to help me understands what I'm asking. Sorry so long.

  Read the article

• dynamic module creation

  - by intuited

  I'd like to dynamically create a module from a dictionary, and I'm wondering if adding an element to sys.modules is really the best way to do this. EG context = { a: 1, b: 2 } import types test_context_module = types.ModuleType('TestContext', 'Module created to provide a context for tests') test_context_module.__dict__.update(context) import sys sys.modules['TestContext'] = test_context_module My immediate goal in this regard is to be able to provide a context for timing test execution: import timeit timeit.Timer('a + b', 'from TestContext import *') It seems that there are other ways to do this, since the Timer constructor takes objects as well as strings. I'm still interested in learning how to do this though, since a) it has other potential applications; and b) I'm not sure exactly how to use objects with the Timer constructor; doing so may prove to be less appropriate than this approach in some circumstances. EDITS/REVELATIONS/PHOOEYS/EUREKAE: I've realized that the example code relating to running timing tests won't actually work, because import * only works at the module level, and the context in which that statement is executed is that of a function in the testit module. In other words, the globals dictionary used when executing that code is that of main, since that's where I was when I wrote the code in the interactive shell. So that rationale for figuring this out is a bit botched, but it's still a valid question. I've discovered that the code run in the first set of examples has the undesirable effect that the namespace in which the newly created module's code executes is that of the module in which it was declared, not its own module. This is like way weird, and could lead to all sorts of unexpected rattlesnakeic sketchiness. So I'm pretty sure that this is not how this sort of thing is meant to be done, if it is in fact something that the Guido doth shine upon. The similar-but-subtly-different case of dynamically loading a module from a file that is not in python's include path is quite easily accomplished using imp.load_source('NewModuleName', 'path/to/module/module_to_load.py'). This does load the module into sys.modules. However this doesn't really answer my question, because really, what if you're running python on an embedded platform with no filesystem? I'm battling a considerable case of information overload at the moment, so I could be mistaken, but there doesn't seem to be anything in the imp module that's capable of this. But the question, essentially, at this point is how to set the global (ie module) context for an object. Maybe I should ask that more specifically? And at a larger scope, how to get Python to do this while shoehorning objects into a given module?

  Read the article

• Mixing .NET versions between website and virtual directories and the "server application unavailable" error Message

  - by Doug Chamberlain

  Backstory Last month our development team created a new asp.net 3.5 application to place out on our production website. Once we had the work completed, we requested from the group that manages are server to copy the app out to our production site, and configure the virtual directory as a new application. On 12/27/2010, two public 'Gineau Pigs' were selected to use the app, and it worked great. On 12/30/2010, We received notification by internal staff, that when that staff member tried to access the application (this was the Business Process Owner) they recieved the 'Server Application Unavailable' message. When I called the group that does our server support, I was told that it probably failed, because I didn't close the connections in my code. However, the same group went in and then created a separate app pool for this Extension Request application. It has had no issues since. I did a little googling, since I do not like being blamed for things. I found that the 'Server Application Unavailable' message will also appear when you have multiple applications using different frameworks and you do not put them in different application pools. Technical Details - Tree of our website structure Main Website <-- ASP Classic +-Virtual Directory(ExtensionRequest) <-- ASP 3.5 From our server support group: 'Reviewed server logs and website setup in IIS. Had to reset the application pool as it was not working properly. This corrected the website and it is now back online. We went ahead and created a application pool for the extension web so it is isolated from the main site pool. In the past we have seen other application do this when there is a connection being left open and the pool fills up. Would recommend reviewing site code to make sure no connections are being left open.' The Real Question: What really caused the failure? Isn't the connection being left open issue an ASP Classic issue? Wouldn't the ExtensionRequest application have to be used (more than twice) in the first place to have the connections left open? Is it more likely the failure is caused by them not bothering to setup the new Application in it's own App Pool in the first place? Sorry for the long windedness

  Read the article

• Why do sockets not die when server dies? Why does a socket die when server is alive?

  - by Roman

  I try to play with sockets a bit. For that I wrote very simple "client" and "server" applications. Client: import java.net.*; public class client { public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { InetAddress localhost = InetAddress.getLocalHost(); System.out.println("before"); Socket clientSideSocket = null; try { clientSideSocket = new Socket(localhost,12345,localhost,54321); } catch (ConnectException e) { System.out.println("Connection Refused"); } System.out.println("after"); if (clientSideSocket != null) { clientSideSocket.close(); } } } Server: import java.net.*; public class server { public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { ServerSocket listener = new ServerSocket(12345); while (true) { Socket serverSideSocket = listener.accept(); System.out.println("A client-request is accepted."); } } } And I found a behavior that I cannot explain: I start a server, than I start a client. Connection is successfully established (client stops running and server is running). Then I close the server and start it again in a second. After that I start a client and it writes "Connection Refused". It seems to me that the server "remember" the old connection and does not want to open the second connection twice. But I do not understand how it is possible. Because I killed the previous server and started a new one! I do not start the server immediately after the previous one was killed (I wait like 20 seconds). In this case the server "forget" the socket from the previous server and accepts the request from the client. I start the server and then I start the client. Connection is established (server writes: "A client-request is accepted"). Then I wait a minute and start the client again. And server (which was running the whole time) accept the request again! Why? The server should not accept the request from the same client-IP and client-port but it does!

  Read the article

• Why is this simple Mobile Form not closed when using the player

  - by ajhvdb

  Hi, I created this simple sample Form with the close button. Everything is working as expected when NOT using the Interop.WMPLib.dll I've seen other applications using this without problems but why isn't the Form process closed when I just add the line: SoundPlayer myPlayer = new SoundPlayer(); and of course dispose it: if (myPlayer != null) { myPlayer.Dispose(); myPlayer = null; } The Form closes but the debugger VS2008 is still active. The Form project and the dll are still active. If you send me an email to [email protected], I can send you the zipped project. Below is the class for the dll: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Text; using System.Threading; using System.Runtime.InteropServices; using WMPLib; namespace WindowsMobile.Utilities { public delegate void SoundPlayerStateChanged(SoundPlayer sender, SoundPlayerState newState); public enum SoundPlayerState { Stopped, Playing, Paused, } public class SoundPlayer : IDisposable { [DllImport("coredll")] public extern static int waveOutSetVolume(int hwo, uint dwVolume); [DllImport("coredll")] public extern static int waveOutGetVolume(int hwo, out uint dwVolume); WindowsMediaPlayer myPlayer = new WindowsMediaPlayer(); public SoundPlayer() { myPlayer.uiMode = "invisible"; myPlayer.settings.volume = 100; } string mySoundLocation = string.Empty; public string SoundLocation { get { return mySoundLocation; } set { mySoundLocation = value; } } public void Pause() { myPlayer.controls.pause(); } public void PlayLooping() { Stop(); myPlayer.URL = mySoundLocation; myPlayer.settings.setMode("loop", true); } public int Volume { get { return myPlayer.settings.volume; } set { myPlayer.settings.volume = value; } } public void Play() { Stop(); myPlayer.URL = mySoundLocation; myPlayer.controls.play(); } public void Stop() { myPlayer.controls.stop(); myPlayer.close(); } #region IDisposable Members public void Dispose() { try { Stop(); } catch (Exception) { } // need this otherwise the process won't exit?! try { int ret = Marshal.FinalReleaseComObject(myPlayer); } catch (Exception) { } myPlayer = null; GC.Collect(); } #endregion } }

  Read the article

• Settings designer file complains when protecting configuration for connectionStrings in App.Config i

  - by Joe

  Hi, I am trying to encrypt Configuration Information Using Protected Configuration in Visual Studio 2010. I have the following info speicifed in the App.Config file: <connectionStrings configProtectionProvider="TheProviderName"> <EncryptedData> <CipherData> <CipherValue>VALUE GOES HERE</CipherValue> </CipherData> </EncryptedData> </connectionStrings> <appSettings configProtectionProvider="TheProviderName"> <EncryptedData> <CipherData> <CipherValue>VALUE GOES HERE</CipherValue> </CipherData> </EncryptedData> </appSettings> However, when I then go to the Settings area of the Projects Properties to view the settings in the Designer, I get prompted with the following error "An error occured while reading the App.config file. The file might be corrupted or contain invalid XML." I understand that my changes are causing the error, however, is there anyway I can bypass that the information is not read into at design view? (Of course the best way would be to make the tags be recognized by the designer, is there any way to do this?) I tried adding <connectionStrings configProtectionProvider="TheProviderName" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/.NetConfiguration/v2.0"> to connectionStrings as well as to the appSettings, but with no luck, the intellisense is bypassed in the config file, but the designer still complains. I would be satisfied if the designer would not complain about this "error", which is not actually an error because Microsoft states here that it should work. ASP.NET 2.0 provides a new feature, called protected configuration, that enables you to encrypt sensitive information in a configuration file. Although primarily designed for ASP.NET, protected configuration can also be used to encrypt configuration file sections in Windows applications. For a detailed description of the new protected configuration capabilities, see Encrypting Configuration Information Using Protected Configuration. And yes, it does work to encrypt it and to decrypt it and use it, it is just very annoying and frustrating that the designer complains about it. Anyone who knows which xsd file that is used (if used) to verify the contents of the App.config file in the design view? Any help appreciated.

  Read the article

• Java DriverManager Always Assigns My Driver

  - by JGB146

  I am writing a driver to act as a wrapper around two separate MySQL connections (to distributed databases). Basically, the goal is to enable interaction with my driver for all applications instead of requiring the application to sort out which database holds the desired data. Most of the code for this is in place, but I'm having a problem in that when I attempt to create connections via the MySQL Driver, the DriverManager is returning an instance of my driver instead of the MySQL Driver. I'd appreciate any tips on what could be causing this and what could be done to fix it! Below is a few relevant snippets of code. I can provide more, but there's a lot, so I'd need to know what else you want to see. First, from MyDriver.java: public MyDriver() throws SQLException { DriverManager.registerDriver(this); } public Connection connect(String url, Properties info) throws SQLException { try { return new MyConnection(info); } catch (Exception e) { return null; } } public boolean acceptsURL(String url) throws SQLException { if (url.contains("jdbc:jgb://")) { return true; } return false; } It is my understanding that this acceptsURL function will dictate whether or not the DriverManager deems my driver a suitable fit for a given URL. Hence it should only be passing connections from my driver if the URL contains "jdbc:jgb://" right? Here's code from MyConnection.java: Connection c1 = null; Connection c2 = null; /** *Constructors */ public DDBSConnection (Properties info) throws SQLException, Exception { info.list(System.out); //included for testing Class.forName("com.mysql.jdbc.Driver").newInstance(); String url1 = "jdbc:mysql://server1.com/jgb"; String url2 = "jdbc:mysql://server2.com/jgb"; this.c1 = DriverManager.getConnection( url1, info.getProperty("username"), info.getProperty("password")); this.c2 = DriverManager.getConnection( url2, info.getProperty("username"), info.getProperty("password")); } And this tells me two things. First, the info.list() call confirms that the correct user and password are being sent. Second, because we enter an infinite loop, we see that the DriverManager is providing new instances of my connection as matches for the mysql URLs instead of the desired mysql driver/connection. FWIW, I have separately tested implementations that go straight to the mysql driver using this exact syntax (al beit only one at a time), and was able to successfully interact with each database individually from a test application outside of my driver.

  Read the article

• Does my TPL partitioner cause a deadlock?

  - by Scott Chamberlain

  I am starting to write my first parallel applications. This partitioner will enumerate over a IDataReader pulling chunkSize records at a time from the data-source. protected class DataSourcePartitioner<object[]> : System.Collections.Concurrent.Partitioner<object[]> { private readonly System.Data.IDataReader _Input; private readonly int _ChunkSize; public DataSourcePartitioner(System.Data.IDataReader input, int chunkSize = 10000) : base() { if (chunkSize < 1) throw new ArgumentOutOfRangeException("chunkSize"); _Input = input; _ChunkSize = chunkSize; } public override bool SupportsDynamicPartitions { get { return true; } } public override IList<IEnumerator<object[]>> GetPartitions(int partitionCount) { var dynamicPartitions = GetDynamicPartitions(); var partitions = new IEnumerator<object[]>[partitionCount]; for (int i = 0; i < partitionCount; i++) { partitions[i] = dynamicPartitions.GetEnumerator(); } return partitions; } public override IEnumerable<object[]> GetDynamicPartitions() { return new ListDynamicPartitions(_Input, _ChunkSize); } private class ListDynamicPartitions : IEnumerable<object[]> { private System.Data.IDataReader _Input; int _ChunkSize; private object _ChunkLock = new object(); public ListDynamicPartitions(System.Data.IDataReader input, int chunkSize) { _Input = input; _ChunkSize = chunkSize; } public IEnumerator<object[]> GetEnumerator() { while (true) { List<object[]> chunk = new List<object[]>(_ChunkSize); lock(_Input) { for (int i = 0; i < _ChunkSize; ++i) { if (!_Input.Read()) break; var values = new object[_Input.FieldCount]; _Input.GetValues(values); chunk.Add(values); } if (chunk.Count == 0) yield break; } var chunkEnumerator = chunk.GetEnumerator(); lock(_ChunkLock) //Will this cause a deadlock? { while (chunkEnumerator.MoveNext()) { yield return chunkEnumerator.Current; } } } } IEnumerator IEnumerable.GetEnumerator() { return ((IEnumerable<object[]>)this).GetEnumerator(); } } } I wanted IEnumerable object it passed back to be thread safe (the .Net example was so I am assuming PLINQ and TPL could need it) will the lock on _ChunkLock near the bottom help provide thread safety or will it cause a deadlock? From the documentation I could not tell if the lock would be released on the yeld return. Also if there is built in functionality to .net that will do what I am trying to do I would much rather use that. And if you find any other problems with the code I would appreciate it.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 585 586 587 588 589 590 591 592 593 594 595 596  | Next Page >