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  • Can one connection get details of another? Or, how can I get the most detailed pending transaction

    - by bob-the-destroyer
    Is there a Mysql statement which provides full details of any other open connection or user? For this particular case, on myisam tables specifically. Looking at Mysql's SHOW TABLE STATUS documentation, it's missing some very important information for my purpose. For example: remote odbc connection one is inserting several thousand records, which due to a slow connection speed can take up to an hour. Tcp connection two, using PHP on the server's localhost, is running select queries with aggregate functions on that data. Before allowing connection two to run those queries, I'd like connection two to first check to make sure there's no pending inserts on any other connection on those specific tables so it can instead wait until all data is available. If the table is currently being written to, I'd like to spit back to the user of connection two an approximation of how much longer to wait based on the number of pending inserts. Ideally by table, I'd like to get back using a query the timestamp when connection one began the write, total inserts left to be done, and total inserts already completed. Instead of insert counts, even knowing number of bytes written and left to write would work just fine here. Obviously since connection two is a tcp connection via a PHP script, all I can really use in that script is some sort of query. I suppose if I have to, since it is on localhost, I can exec() it if the only way is by a mysql command line option that outputs this info, but I'd rather not. I suppose I could simply update a custom-made transaction log before and after this massive insert task which the PHP script can check, but hopefully there's already a built-in Mysql feature I can take advantage of.

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  • Exit and rollback everything in script on error

    - by Jan W.
    Hey guys ! I'm in a bit of a pickle here. I have a TSQL script that does a lot of database structure adjustments but it's not really safe to just let it go through when something fails. to make things clear: using MS SQL 2005 it's NOT a stored procedure, just a script file (.sql) what I have is something in the following order BEGIN TRANSACTION ALTER Stuff GO CREATE New Stuff GO DROP Old Stuff GO IF @@ERROR != 0 BEGIN PRINT 'Errors Found ... Rolling back' ROLLBACK TRANSACTION RETURN END ELSE PRINT 'No Errors ... Committing changes' COMMIT TRANSACTION just to illustrate what I'm working with ... can't go into specifics now, the problem ... When I introduce an error (to test if things get rolled back), I get a statement that the ROLLBACK TRANSACTION could not find a corresponding BEGIN TRANSACTION. This leads me to believe that something when REALLY wrong and the transaction was already killed. what I also noticed is that the script didn't fully quit on error and thus DID try to execute every statement after the error occured. (I noticed this when new tables showed up when I wasn't expecting them because it should have rollbacked) any help in this department is welcome if more speficics are needed, ask! greetz

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  • Prove correctness of unit test

    - by Timo Willemsen
    I'm creating a graph framework for learning purposes. I'm using a TDD approach, so I'm writing a lot of unit tests. However, I'm still figuring out how to prove the correctness of my unit tests For example, I have this class (not including the implementation, and I have simplified it) public class SimpleGraph(){ //Returns true on success public boolean addEdge(Vertex v1, Vertex v2) { ... } //Returns true on sucess public boolean addVertex(Vertex v1) { ... } } I also have created this unit tests @Test public void SimpleGraph_addVertex_noSelfLoopsAllowed(){ SimpleGraph g = new SimpleGraph(); Vertex v1 = new Vertex('Vertex 1'); actual = g.addVertex(v1); boolean expected = false; boolean actual = g.addEdge(v1,v1); Assert.assertEquals(expected,actual); } Okay, awesome it works. There is only one crux here, I have proved that the functions work for this case only. However, in my graph theory courses, all I'm doing is proving theorems mathematically (induction, contradiction etc. etc.). So I was wondering is there a way I can prove my unit tests mathematically for correctness? So is there a good practice for this. So we're testing the unit for correctness, instead of testing it for one certain outcome.

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  • friend declaration in C++

    - by Happy Mittal
    In Thinking in C++ by Bruce eckel, there is an example given regarding friend functions as // Declaration (incomplete type specification): struct X; struct Y { void f(X*); }; struct X { // Definition private: int i; public: friend void Y::f(X*); // Struct member friend }; void Y::f(X* x) { x->i = 47; } Now he explained this: Notice that Y::f(X*) takes the address of an X object. This is critical because the compiler always knows how to pass an address, which is of a fixed size regardless of the object being passed, even if it doesn’t have full information about the size of the type. If you try to pass the whole object, however, the compiler must see the entire structure definition of X, to know the size and how to pass it, before it allows you to declare a function such as Y::g(X). But when I tried void f(X); as declaration in struct Y, it shows no error. Please explain why?

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  • Why can't I extract a C++ type from a Python type using boost::python::extractor?

    - by Robin
    I've wrapped a C++ class using Py++ and everything is working great in Python. I can instantiate the c++ class, call methods, etc. I'm now trying to embed some Python into a C++ application. This is also working fine for the most-part. I can call functions on a Python module, get return values, etc. The python code I'm calling returns one of the classes that I wrapped: import _myextension as myext def run_script(arg): my_cpp_class = myext.MyClass() return my_cpp_class I'm calling this function from C++ like this: // ... excluding error checking, ref counting, etc. for brevity ... PyObject *pModule, *pFunc, *pArgs, *pReturnValue; Py_Initialize(); pModule = PyImport_Import(PyString_FromString("cpp_interface")); pFunc = PyObject_GetAttrString(pModule, "run_script"); pArgs = PyTuple_New(1); PyTuple_SetItem(pArgs, 0, PyString_FromString("an arg")); pReturnValue = PyObject_CallObject(pFunc, pArgs); bp::extract< MyClass& > extractor(pReturnValue); // PROBLEM IS HERE if (extractor.check()) { // This check is always false MyClass& cls = extractor(); } The problem is the extractor never actually extracts/converts the PyObject* to MyClass (i.e. extractor.check() is always false). According to the docs this is the correct way to extract a wrapped C++ class. I've tried returning basic data types (ints/floats/dicts) from the Python function and all of them are extracted properly. Is there something I'm missing? Is there another way to get the data and cast to MyClass?

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  • return ArrayList from spring controller for ajax call and render in second dropdown

    - by user1708125
    I've a spring bean with 3 Maps all of which are to be populated incrementally. First map is an item category list, second map is a product list and third map is a hobby for item type list All the maps are mapped to and on the JSP. When the page is loaded only the first map is populated on the onchange event of first map, I need to populate the second map in the bean and similarly on the onchange event of second map, I need to populate the third map in the bean. Is there a way to do this using Ajax?? I need some code samples to how to render JSON response in second and third dropdown. Clarification: @Donal: I have a simple JSP page with 3 dropdowns corresponding to 3 maps stored in my commandBean. So when the page loads for the first time only the first map and hence the first dropdown is populated. Now whenever the user selects anything out of the first dropdown, I need to send the same commandbean back with the values of the first dropdown and get the values for the second map and hence the second dropdown and so forth for the 3rd dropdown as well. For each dropdown I 've got 3 maps and 3 variables for storing the selected values. Now I want to understand if this is possible using Ajax. I hope this clarifies whatever you need to know. Thanx

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  • PHP Combo Box AJAX Refresh

    - by bhs
    I have a PHP page that currently has 4 years of team positions in columns on the page. The client wants to select the players in positions and have first, second and thrid choices. Currently the page shows 4 columns with sets of combos for each position. Each combo has a full set of players in it and the user chooses the player he wants from the combos. On submit the player positions are stored in the database. However, the client now wants to change the page so that when he selects a player in a year and position then the player is removed from the combo and can no longer be selected for that year. I've used a bit of AJAX but was wondering if anyone had any thoughts/suggestions. The page is currently quite slow so they want it speeded up as well. The page layout is currently like this POISTION YEAR1 YEAR2 YEAR3 YEAR4 1 COMBOC1 COMBOC1 COMBOC1 COMBOC1 COMBOC2 COMBOC2 COMBOC2 COMBOC2 COMBOC3 COMBOC3 COMBOC3 COMBOC3 2 same as above COMBOC1, 2 and 3 all currently have the same players - when a player is selected it needs to be removed for all combos below it. I was thinking of starting by changing the page design and having text boxes for the players and a single player select under each year like this: POISTION YEAR1 YEAR2 YEAR3 YEAR4 1 <PLAYER><POSITION><CHOICE> ... [TEXT BOX CHOICE1] [TEXT BOX CHOICE2] [TEXT BOX CHOICE3] 2 ... Then I only have 1 combo box for each year to worry about - I do however have the same problem of refreshing the combo box and removing the player that has been selected, and I'd prefer to do it withough a page submit. Sorry for the long posting - cheers

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  • How to catch non exist requested URL in Java servlet ?

    - by Frank
    My objects are stored online in two different places : <1 On my nmjava.com site, where I can put them in a directory called "Dir_My_App/Dir_ABC/" <2 On Google App Engine datastore When my Java app runs it checks both places for the objects, I designed the app so that it tries to get an object from a Url, it doesn't care whether it's an object in a directory or an object returned by a servlet. My_Object Get_Object(String Site_Url,String Object_Path) { ... get object by the name of Object_Path from the Site_Url ... } Now the request Url for my web site nmjava.com might look like this : http://nmjava.com/Dir_My_App/Dir_ABC/My_Obj_123 [ In a directory ] Or in the case of Google App Engine servlet : http://nm-java.appspot.com/Check_License/Dir_My_App/Dir_ABC/My_Obj_123 [ Non exist ] The "Object_Path" was generated by my app automatically. It can now get the object from my site by the above method like this : My_Object Get_Object("http://nmjava.com","/Dir_My_App/Dir_ABC/My_Obj_123"); In the Google App Engine, my servlet is running and ready to serve the object, if the request comes in correctly, but since I don't want to design my app to know whether the object is in one site's directory or in other site's datastore, I need to design the servlet to catch the non exist Url, such as the one above, and be able to make a call : My_Object Get_Object("http://nm-java.appspot.com/Check_License","/Dir_My_App/Dir_ABC/My_Obj_123"); So my question is : When a request comes into the servlet with a non exist Url, how should it catch it and analyze the url in order to respond properly, in my case it should know that : http://nm-java.appspot.com/Check_License/Dir_My_App/Dir_ABC/My_Obj_123 is asking for the object "My_Obj_123" [ ignore the dirs ] and return the object from the datastore. Now I'm getting this : Error: Not Found The requested URL /Check_License/Dir_My_App/Dir_ABC/My_Obj_123 was not found on this server. Where in my servlet and how do I detect the request for this non exist Url ?

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  • Creating a Contact form in Visual Studio ASPX and saving to an XML file when clicking SUBMIT

    - by user327137
    hey people hope all is well.. i am trying to create a form in VS using ASP that when upon submitting a form the details will get automatically stored in an xml file which can be accessed later on a chosen file save path i have 2 files ... "Contact.aspx" and "Contact.aspx.vb" i have created the form in the "Contact.aspx" and when trying to enter the fields in the "contact.aspx.vb" i keep getting several errors such as for example... Error 5 'Formatting' is not a member of 'System.Web.UI.WebControls.XmlBuilder' Error 6 'WriteStartDocument' is not a member of 'System.Web.UI.WebControls.XmlBuilder'. Error 7 'WriteComment' is not a member of 'System.Web.UI.WebControls.XmlBuilder'. Error 8 'WriteStartElement' is not a member of 'System.Web.UI.WebControls.XmlBuilder'. Error 10 'WriteAttributeString' is not a member of 'System.Web.UI.WebControls.XmlBuilder'. there is like 30 errors in total... im literally stuck out my head been trying for 2 days now and can't grasp what im doing wrong ive tried even some of the tutorials online but loads of errors... hope some1 can fix this thank you

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  • QListWidget drag and drop items disappearing from list

    - by ppalasek
    Hello, I'm having trouble implementing a QListWidget with custom items that can be reordered by dragging and dropping. The problem is when I make a fast double click (a very short drag&drop) on an item, the item sometimes disappears from the QListWidget. This is the constructor for my Widget: ListPopisiDragDrop::ListPopisiDragDrop(QWidget *parent) : QListWidget(parent) { setSelectionMode(QAbstractItemView::SingleSelection); setDragEnabled(true); viewport()->setAcceptDrops(true); setDefaultDropAction(Qt::MoveAction); setDropIndicatorShown(true); setDragDropMode(QAbstractItemView::InternalMove); } also the drop event: void ListPopisiDragDrop::dropEvent(QDropEvent *event){ int startRow=currentIndex().row(); QListWidget::dropEvent(event); int endRow=currentIndex().row(); //more code... } Custom items are made by implementing paint() and sizeHint() functions from QAbstractItemDelegate. When the problem with disappearing items happens, the dropEvent isn't even called. I really don't know what is happening and if I'm doing something wrong. Any help is appreciated. Thanks! Edit: I'm running the application on a Symbian S60 5th edition phone. Edit2: If I add this line to the constructor: setDragDropOverwriteMode(true); the item in the list still disappears, but an empty row stays in it's place.

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  • Adding class constraints to typeclass instance

    - by BleuM937
    I'm trying to implement the Cantor Pairing Function, as an instance of a generic Pair typeclass, as so: module Pair (Pair, CantorPair) where -- Pair interface class Pair p where pi :: a -> a -> p a k :: p a -> a l :: p a -> a -- Wrapper for typing newtype CantorPair a = P { unP :: a } -- Assume two functions with signatures: cantorPair :: Integral a => a -> a -> CantorPair a cantorUnpair :: Integral a => CantorPair a -> (a, a) -- I need to somehow add an Integral a constraint to this instance, -- but I can't work out how to do it. instance Pair CantorPair where pi = cantorPair k = fst . cantorUnpair l = snd . cantorUnpair How can I add the appropriate Integral constraint to the instance? I have a vague feeling I might need to modify the Pair interface itself, but not sure how to go about this.

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  • Testing When Correctness is Poorly Defined?

    - by dsimcha
    I generally try to use unit tests for any code that has easily defined correct behavior given some reasonably small, well-defined set of inputs. This works quite well for catching bugs, and I do it all the time in my personal library of generic functions. However, a lot of the code I write is data mining code that basically looks for significant patterns in large datasets. Correct behavior in this case is often not well defined and depends on a lot of different inputs in ways that are not easy for a human to predict (i.e. the math can't reasonably be done by hand, which is why I'm using a computer to solve the problem in the first place). These inputs can be very complex, to the point where coming up with a reasonable test case is near impossible. Identifying the edge cases that are worth testing is extremely difficult. Sometimes the algorithm isn't even deterministic. Usually, I do the best I can by using asserts for sanity checks and creating a small toy test case with a known pattern and informally seeing if the answer at least "looks reasonable", without it necessarily being objectively correct. Is there any better way to test these kinds of cases?

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  • C#: Using one Data Table in order to fill 2 different comboboxes?

    - by odiseh
    Hi all. I have 2 comboboxes on a form (form1) called combobox1 and combobox2. Each comboboxes should be filled with data stored in 2 different tables in Sql server 2005: table1 and table2 I mean: combobox1 -- table1 combobox2 -- table2 I fill data table with proper data and then bind the comboboxes to it separately. My problem is: after filling 2 combos, both of them have equal data got from table2. This is my code: DataTable tb1 = new DataTable(); //Filling tb1 with data got from table1 combobox1.Items.Clear(); combobox1.DataSource = tb1; combobox1.DisplayMember = "Name"; combobox1.ValueMember = "ID"; combobox1.SelectedIndex = -1; //filling tb1 with data got from table2 combobox2.Items.Clear(); combobox2.DataSource = tb1; combobox2.DisplayMember = "Name"; combobox2.ValueMember = "ID"; combobox2.SelectedIndex = -1; What's wrong? It seems that if I get 2 different data tables (tb1 and tb2) , every thing will be all right. Any suggestions please. Thank you

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  • What are the default return values for operator< and operator[] in C++ (Visual Studio 6)?

    - by DustOff
    I've inherited a large Visual Studio 6 C++ project that needs to be translated for VS2005. Some of the classes defined operator< and operator[], but don't specify return types in the declarations. VS6 allows this, but not VS2005. I am aware that the C standard specifies that the default return type for normal functions is int, and I assumed VS6 might have been following that, but would this apply to C++ operators as well? Or could VS6 figure out the return type on its own? For example, the code defines a custom string class like this: class String { char arr[16]; public: operator<(const String& other) { return something1 < something2; } operator[](int index) { return arr[index]; } }; Would VS6 have simply put the return types for both as int, or would it have been smart enough to figure out that operator[] should return a char and operator< should return a bool (and not convert both results to int all the time)? Of course I have to add return types to make this code VS2005 C++ compliant, but I want to make sure to specify the same type as before, as to not immediately change program behavior (we're going for compatibility at the moment; we'll standardize things later).

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  • Toggle image based on cookie value

    - by danit
    Im using a couple of JS functions to set a cookie named 'visible' with the value of either yes or no. Essentially Im using these values to decide if a <div> is visible or hidden. I've only just added the cookie, previously I had been using two images 1. Show 2. Hide as a button to hide and show the <div> like this: HTML: <img class="show" title="Show" alt="Show" src="images/show.png" /> <img class="hide" title="Hide" alt="Hide" src="images/hide.png" /> JQUERY: $("#tool").click(function() { $(".help").slideToggle(); $("#wrapper").animate({ opacity: 1.0 },200).slideToggle(200, function() { $("#tool img").toggle(); }); }); However I have now added the Cookie into the mix: $("#tool").click(function() { if(get_cookie('visible')== null) { set_cookie('visible','no'); } else { delete_cookie('visible'); } $(".help").slideToggle(); $("#wrapper").animate({ opacity: 1.0 },200).slideToggle(200, function() { $("#slider img").toggle(); }); }); So the .toggle() no longer matches the state of the <div> When the cookie value = no the show.png should be visible When the cookie value = yes then the hide.png should be visible Can anyone suggest how i can ammend this?

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  • figuring out which field to look for a value in with SQL and perl

    - by Micah
    I'm not too good with SQL and I know there's probably a much more efficient way to accomplish what I'm doing here, so any help would be much appreciated. Thanks in advance for your input! I'm writing a short program for the local school high school. At this school, juniors and seniors who have driver's licenses and cars can opt to drive to school rather than ride the bus. Each driver is assigned exactly one space, and their DLN is used as the primary key of the driver's table. Makes, models, and colors of cars are stored in a separate cars table, related to the drivers table by the License plate number field. My idea is to have a single search box on the main GUI of the program where the school secretary can type in who/what she's looking for and pull up a list of results. Thing is, she could be typing a license plate number, a car color, make, and model, someone driver's name, some student driver's DLN, or a space number. As the programmer, I don't know what exactly she's looking for, so a couple of options come to mind for me to build to be certain I check everywhere for a match: 1) preform a couple of SELECT * FROM [tablename] SQL statements, one per table and cram the results into arrays in my program, then search across the arrays one element at a time with regex, looking for a matched pattern similar to the search term, and if I find one, add the entire record that had a match in it to a results array to display on screen at the end of the search. 2) take whatever she's looking for into the program as a scaler and prepare multiple select statements around it, such as SELECT * FROM DRIVERS WHERE DLN = $Search_Variable SELECT * FROM DRIVERS WHERE First_Name = $Search_Variable SELECT * FROM CARS WHERE LICENSE = $Search_Variable and so on for each attribute of each table, sticking the results into a results array to show on screen when the search is done. Is there a cleaner way to go about this lookup without having to make her specify exactly what she's looking for? Possibly some kind of SQL statement I've never seen before?

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  • How do I select dynamic ids in this format?

    - by sjsc
    I'm trying to select dynamic ids when a user types something into the input fields. My app spits out the input fields in the following format: <input id="student_1_first_name" /> <input id="student_1_last_name" /> <input id="student_2_first_name" /> <input id="student_2_last_name" /> <input id="student_3_first_name" /> <input id="student_3_last_name" /> etc. For example, I tried doing this to select the end of the id string: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready( function (){ $("input[id$=_first_name]").bind("keyup", run_some_function_here); run_some_function_here(); $("input[id$=_last_name]").bind("keyup", run_some_function_here); run_some_function_here(); } ); </script> When I do that, Jquery can't seem to select the input ids, so the functions don't run. Do you have any ideas on how I can select the ids correctly?

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  • Forwarding HTTP Request with Direct Server Return

    - by Daniel Crabtree
    I have servers spread across several data centers, each storing different files. I want users to be able to access the files on all servers through a single domain and have the individual servers return the files directly to the users. The following shows a simple example: 1) The user's browser requests http://www.example.com/files/file1.zip 2) Request goes to server A, based on the DNS A record for example.com. 3) Server A analyzes the request and works out that /files/file1.zip is stored on server B. 4) Server A forwards the request to server B. 5) Server B returns file1.zip directly to the user without going through server A. Note: steps 4 and 5 must be transparent to the user and cannot involve sending a redirect to the user as that would violate the requirement of a single domain. From my research, what I want to achieve is called "Direct Server Return" and it is a common setup for load balancing. It is also sometimes called a half reverse proxy. For step 4, it sounds like I need to do MAC Address Translation and then pass the request back onto the network and for servers outside the network of server A tunneling will be required. For step 5, I simply need to configure server B, as per the real servers in a load balancing setup. Namely, server B should have server A's IP address on the loopback interface and it should not answer any ARP requests for that IP address. My problem is how to actually achieve step 4? I have found plenty of hardware and software that can do this for simple load balancing at layer 4, but these solutions fall short and cannot handle the kind of custom routing I require. It seems like I will need to roll my own solution. Ideally, I would like to do the routing / forwarding at the web server level, i.e. in PHP or C# / ASP.net. However, I am open to doing it at a lower level such as Apache or IIS, or at an even lower level, i.e. a custom proxy service in front of everything.

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  • C#; On casting to the SAME class that came from another assembly

    - by G. Stoynev
    For complete separation/decoupling, I've implemented a DAL in an assebly that is simply being copied over via post-build event to the website BIN folder. The website then on Application Start loads that assembly via System.Reflection.Assembly.LoadFile. Again, using reflection, I construct a couple of instances from classes in that assembly. I then store a reference to these instances in the session (HttpContext.Current.Items) Later, when I try to get the object stored in the session, I am not able to cast them to their own types (was trying interfaces initially, but for debugging tried to cast to THEIR OWN TYPES), getting this error: [A]DAL_QSYSCamper.NHibernateSessionBuilder cannot be cast to [B] DAL_QSYSCamper.NHibernateSessionBuilder. Type A originates from 'DAL_QSYSCamper, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' in the context 'Default' at location 'C:\Users\dull.anomal\AppData\Local\Temp\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\ad6e8bff\70fa2384\assembly\dl3\aaf7a5b0\84f01b09_b10acb01\DAL_QSYSCamper.DLL'. Type B originates from 'DAL_QSYSCamper, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' in the context 'LoadNeither' at location 'C:\Users\dull.anomal\Documents\Projects\QSYS\Deleteme\UI\MVCClient\bin\DAL_QSYSCa mper.DLL'. This is happening while debugging in VS - VS manages to stop into the source DAL project even though I've loaded from assembly and the project is not refferenced by the website project (they're both in the solution). I do understand the error, but I don't understand how and why the assembly is being used/loaded from two locations - I only load it once from the file and there's no referrence to the project. Should mention that I also use Windsor for DI. The object that tries to extract the object from the session is A) from a class from that DAL assembly; B) is injected into a website class by Windsor. I will work on adding some sample code to this question, but wanted to put it out in case it's obvious what I do wrong.

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  • Best practice how to store HTML in a database column

    - by tbrandao
    I have an application that modifies a table dynamically, think spreadsheet), then upon saving the form (which the table is part of) ,I store that changed table (with user modifications) in a database column named html_Spreadhseet,along with the rest of the form data. right now I'm just storing the html in a plain text format with basic escaping of characters... I'm aware that this could be stored as a separate file, the source table (html_workseeet) already is. But from a data handling perspective its easier to save the changed html table to and from a column so as to avoid having to come up with a file management strategy (which folder will this live in, now must include folder in backups, security issues now need to apply to files, how to sync db security with file system etc.), so to minimize these issues I'm only storing the ... part in the database column. My question is should I gzip the HTML , maybe use JSON, or some other format to easily store and retrieve the HTML from the database column, what is the best practice to store HTML content in a datbase? Or just store it as I currently am as an escaped text column?

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  • Backbone.js routes not firing

    - by drale2k
    I have a Base Router where i define some functions that need to be run everywhere. Every Router extends this Router. Now my problem is, that none of my routes defined in this Base router, actually fire. Every other route in other Routers work fine. I have created a test route called 'a' which calls method 'b', which should fire an alert but nothing happens. Here is the code: (This is Coffeescript, don't pay attention to the indentation, it's fine in my file) class Etaxi.Routers.Base extends Backbone.Router routes: 'register' : 'registerDevice' 'a' : 'b' b: -> alert "a" initialize: -> @registerDevice() unless localStorage.device_id? @getGeolocation() registerDevice: -> @collection = new Etaxi.Collections.Devices() @collection.fetch() view = new Etaxi.Views.RegisterDevice(collection: @collection) $('#wrapper').append(view.render().el) getGeolocation: -> navigator.geolocation.getCurrentPosition (position) -> lat = position.coords.latitude lng = position.coords.longitude #$('#apphead').tap -> # alert 'Position: ' + lat + " ," + lng So when i visit '/register' or '/a' it should fire the appropriate method but it does not. I wonder if it has something to do with the fact that other Router extend from this Router? Would be wired but it is the only thing i can think of because every other Router works fine.

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  • Where are the network boundaries in the Java Connector Architecture (JCA)?

    - by Laird Nelson
    I am writing a JCA resource adapter. I'm also, as I go, trying to fully understand the connection management portion of the JCA specification. As a thought experiment, pretend that the only client of this adapter will be a Swing Java Application Client located on a different machine. Also assume that the resource adapter will communicate with its "enterprise information system" (EIS) over the network as well. As I understand the JCA specification, the .rar file is deployed to the application server. The application server creates the .rar file's implementation of the ManagedConnectionFactory interface. It then asks it to produce a connection factory, which is the opaque object that is deployed to JNDI for the user to use to obtain a connection to the resource. (In the case of JDBC, the connection factory is a javax.sql.DataSource.) It is a requirement that the connection factory retain a reference to the application-server-supplied ConnectionManager, which, in turn, is required to be Serializable. This makes sense--in order for the connection factory to be stored in JNDI, it must be serializable, and in order for it to keep a reference to the ConnectionManager, the ConnectionManager must also be serializable. So fine, this little object graph gets installed in the application client's JNDI tree. This is where I start to get queasy. Is the ConnectionManager--the piece supplied by the application server that is supposed to handle connection management, sharing, pooling, etc.--wholly present on the client at this point? One of its jobs is to create ManagedConnection instances, and a ManagedConnection is not required to be Serializable, and the user connection handles it vends are also not required to be Serializable. That suggests to me that the whole connection pooling machinery is shipped wholesale to the application client and stuffed into its JNDI tree. Does this all mean that JCA interactions from the client side bypass the server-side componentry of the application server? Where are the network boundaries in the JCA API?

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  • C++ design related question

    - by Kotti
    Hi! Here is the question's plot: suppose I have some abstract classes for objects, let's call it Object. It's definition would include 2D position and dimensions. Let it also have some virtual void Render(Backend& backend) const = 0 method used for rendering. Now I specialize my inheritance tree and add Rectangle and Ellipse class. Guess they won't have their own properties, but they will have their own virtual void Render method. Let's say I implemented these methods, so that Render for Rectangle actually draws some rectangle, and the same for ellipse. Now, I add some object called Plane, which is defined as class Plane : public Rectangle and has a private member of std::vector<Object*> plane_objects; Right after that I add a method to add some object to my plane. And here comes the question. If I design this method as void AddObject(Object& object) I would face trouble like I won't be able to call virtual functions, because I would have to do something like plane_objects.push_back(new Object(object)); and this should be push_back(new Rectangle(object)) for rectangles and new Circle(...) for circles. If I implement this method as void AddObject(Object* object), it looks good, but then somewhere else this means making call like plane.AddObject(new Rectangle(params)); and this is generally a mess because then it's not clear which part of my program should free the allocated memory. ["when destroying the plane? why? are we sure that calls to AddObject were only done as AddObject(new something).] I guess the problems caused by using the second approach could be solved using smart pointers, but I am sure there have to be something better. Any ideas?

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  • Self referencing userdata and garbage collection

    - by drtwox
    Because my userdata objects reference themselves, I need to delete and nil a variable for the garbage collector to work. Lua code: obj = object:new() -- -- Some time later obj:delete() -- Removes the self reference obj = nil -- Ready for collection C Code: typedef struct { int self; // Reference to the object // Other members and function references removed } Object; // Called from Lua to create a new object static int object_new( lua_State *L ) { Object *obj = lua_newuserdata( L, sizeof( Object ) ); // Create the 'self' reference, userdata is on the stack top obj->self = luaL_ref( L, LUA_REGISTRYINDEX ); // Put the userdata back on the stack before returning lua_rawgeti( L, LUA_REGISTRYINDEX, obj->self ); // The object pointer is also stored outside of Lua for processing in C return 1; } // Called by Lua to delete an object static int object_delete( lua_State *L ) { Object *obj = lua_touserdata( L, 1 ); // Remove the objects self reference luaL_unref( L, LUA_REGISTRYINDEX, obj->self ); return 0; } Is there some way I can set the object to nil in Lua, and have the delete() method called automatically? Alternatively, can the delete method nil all variables that reference the object? Can the self reference be made 'weak'?

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  • How can I use a compound condition in a join in Linq?

    - by Gary McGill
    Let's say I have a Customer table which has a PrimaryContactId field and a SecondaryContactId field. Both of these are foreign keys that reference the Contact table. For any given customer, either one or two contacts may be stored. In other words, PrimaryContactId can never be NULL, but SecondaryContactId can be NULL. If I drop my Customer and Contact tables onto the "Linq to SQL Classes" design surface, the class builder will spot the two FK relationships from the Customer table to the Contact table, and so the generated Customer class will have a Contact field and a Contact1 field (which I can rename to PrimaryContact and SecondaryContact to avoid confusion). Now suppose that I want to get details of all the contacts for a given set of customers. If there was always exactly one contact then I could write something like: from customer in customers join contact in contacts on customer.PrimaryContactId equals contact.id select ... ...which would be translated into something like: SELECT ... FROM Customer INNER JOIN Contact ON Customer.FirstSalesPersonId = Contact.id But, because I want to join on both the contact fields, I want the SQL to look something like: SELECT ... FROM Customer INNER JOIN Contact ON Customer.FirstSalesPersonId = Contact.id OR Customer.SecondSalesPersonId = Contact.id How can I write a Linq expression to do that?

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