Search Results

Search found 17501 results on 701 pages for 'stored functions'.

Page 593/701 | < Previous Page | 589 590 591 592 593 594 595 596 597 598 599 600  | Next Page >

• What goes into main function?

  - by Woltan

  I am looking for a best practice tip of what goes into the main function of a program using c++. Currently I think two approaches are possible. (Although the "margins" of those approaches can be arbitrarily close to each other) 1: Write a "Master"-class that receives the parameters passed to the main function and handle the complete program in that "Master"-class (Of course you also make use of other classes). Therefore the main function would be reduced to a minimum of lines. #include "MasterClass.h" int main(int args, char* argv[]) { MasterClass MC(args, argv); } 2: Write the "complete" program in the main function making use of user defined objects of course! However there are also global functions involved and the main function can get somewhat large. I am looking for some general guidelines of how to write the main function of a program in c++. I came across this issue by trying to write some unit test for the first approach, which is a little difficult since most of the methods are private. Thx in advance for any help, suggestion, link, ...

  Read the article

• avoiding code duplication in Rails 3 models

  - by Dustin Frazier

  I'm working on a Rails 3.1 application where there are a number of different enum-like models that are stored in the database. There is a lot of identical code in these models, as well as in the associated controllers and views. I've solved the code duplication for the controllers and views via a shared parent controller class and the new view/layout inheritance that's part of Rails 3. Now I'm trying to solve the code duplication in the models, and I'm stuck. An example of one of my enum models is as follows: class Format < ActiveRecord::Base has_and_belongs_to_many :videos attr_accessible :name validates :name, presence: true, length: { maximum: 20 } before_destroy :verify_no_linked_videos def verify_no_linked_videos unless self.videos.empty? self.errors[:base] << "Couldn't delete format with associated videos." raise ActiveRecord::RecordInvalid.new self end end end I have four or five other classes with nearly identical code (the association declaration being the only difference). I've tried creating a module with the shared code that they all include (which seems like the Ruby Way), but much of the duplicate code relies on ActiveRecord, so the methods I'm trying to use in the module (validate, attr_accessible, etc.) aren't available. I know about ActiveModel, but that doesn't get me all the way there. I've also tried creating a common, non-persistent parent class that subclasses ActiveRecord::Base, but all of the code I've seen to accomplish this assumes that you won't have subclasses of your non-persistent class that do persist. Any suggestions for how best to avoid duplicating these identical lines of code across many different enum models?

  Read the article

• CREATE VIEW called multiple times not creating all views

  - by theninepoundhammer

  Noticing strange behavior in SQL 2005, both Express and Enterprise Edition: In my code I need to loop through a series of values (about five in a row), and for each value, I need to insert the value into a table and dynamically create a new view using that value as part of the where clause and the name of the view. The code runs pretty quickly, but what I'm noticing is that all the values are inserted into the table correctly but only the LAST view is being created. Every time. For example, if the values I'm using are X1, X2, X3, X4, and X5, I'll run the process, open up Mgmt Studio, and see five rows in the table with the correct five values, but only one view named MyView_x5 that has the correct WHERE clause. At first, I had this loop in an SSIS package as part of a larger data flow. When I started noticing this behavior, I created a stored proc that would create the CREATE VIEW statement dynamically after the insert and called EXECUTE to create the view. Same result. Finally, I created some C# code using the Enterprise Library DAAB, and did the insert and CREATE VIEW statements from my DLL. Same result every time. Most recently, I turned on Profiler while running against the Enterprise Edition and was able to verify that the Batch Started and Batch Completed events were being fired off for each instance of the view. However, like I said, only the last view is actually being created. Does anyone have any idea why this might be happening? Or any suggestions about what else to check or profile? I've profiled for error messages, exceptions, etc. but don't see any in my trace file. My express edition is 9.00.1399.06. Not sure about the Enterprise edition but think it is SP2.

  Read the article

• Why isn't our c# graphics code working any more?

  - by Jared

  Here's the situation: We have some generic graphics code that we use for one of our projects. After doing some clean-up of the code, it seems like something isn't working anymore (The graphics output looks completely wrong). I ran a diff against the last version of the code that gave the correct output, and it looks like we changed one of our functions as follows: static public Rectangle FitRectangleOld(Rectangle rect, Size targetSize) { if (rect.Width <= 0 || rect.Height <= 0) { rect.Width = targetSize.Width; rect.Height = targetSize.Height; } else if (targetSize.Width * rect.Height > rect.Width * targetSize.Height) { rect.Width = rect.Width * targetSize.Height / rect.Height; rect.Height = targetSize.Height; } else { rect.Height = rect.Height * targetSize.Width / rect.Width; rect.Width = targetSize.Width; } return rect; } to static public Rectangle FitRectangle(Rectangle rect, Size targetSize) { if (rect.Width <= 0 || rect.Height <= 0) { rect.Width = targetSize.Width; rect.Height = targetSize.Height; } else if (targetSize.Width * rect.Height > rect.Width * targetSize.Height) { rect.Width *= targetSize.Height / rect.Height; rect.Height = targetSize.Height; } else { rect.Height *= targetSize.Width / rect.Width; rect.Width = targetSize.Width; } return rect; } All of our unit tests are all passing, and nothing in the code has changed except for some syntactic shortcuts. But like I said, the output is wrong. We'll probably just revert back to the old code, but I'm curious if anyone has any idea what's going on here. Thanks.

  Read the article

• Linq-to-XML explicit casting in a generic method

  - by vlad

  I've looked for a similar question, but the only one that was close didn't help me in the end. I have an XML file that looks like this: <Fields> <Field name="abc" value="2011-01-01" /> <Field name="xyz" value="" /> <Field name="tuv" value="123.456" /> </Fields> I'm trying to use Linq-to-XML to get the values from these fields. The values can be of type Decimal, DateTime, String and Int32. I was able to get the fields one by one using a relatively simple query. For example, I'm getting the 'value' from the field with the name 'abc' using the following: private DateTime GetValueFromAttribute(IEnumerable<XElement> fields, String attName) { return (from field in fields where field.Attribute("name").Value == "abc" select (DateTime)field.Attribute("value")).FirstOrDefault() } this is placed in a separate function that simply returns this value, and everything works fine (since I know that there is only one element with the name attribute set to 'abc'). however, since I have to do this for decimals and integers and dates, I was wondering if I can make a generic function that works in all cases. this is where I got stuck. here's what I have so far: private T GetValueFromAttribute<T>(IEnumerable<XElement> fields, String attName) { return (from field in fields where field.Attribute("name").Value == attName select (T)field.Attribute("value").Value).FirstOrDefault(); } this doesn't compile because it doesn't know how to convert from String to T. I tried boxing and unboxing (i.e. select (T) (Object) field.Attribute("value").Value but that throws a runtime Specified cast is not valid exception as it's trying to convert the String to a DateTime, for instance. Is this possible in a generic function? can I put a constraint on the generic function to make it work? or do I have to have separate functions to take advantage of Linq-to-XML's explicit cast operators?

  Read the article

• Regex Replacing only whole matches

  - by Leen Balsters

  I am trying to replace a bunch of strings in files. The strings are stored in a datatable along with the new string value. string contents = File.ReadAllText(file); foreach (DataRow dr in FolderRenames.Rows) { contents = Regex.Replace(contents, dr["find"].ToString(), dr["replace"].ToString()); File.SetAttributes(file, FileAttributes.Normal); File.WriteAllText(file, contents); } The strings look like this _-uUa, -_uU, _-Ha etc. The problem that I am having is when for example this string "_uU" will also overwrite "_-uUa" so the replacement would look like "newvaluea" Is there a way to tell regex to look at the next character after the found string and make sure it is not an alphanumeric character? I hope it is clear what I am trying to do here. Here is some sample data: private function _-0iX(arg1:flash.events.Event):void { if (arg1.type == flash.events.Event.RESIZE) { if (this._-2GU) { this._-yu(this._-2GU); } } return; } The next characters could be ;, (, ), dot, comma, space, :, etc.

  Read the article

• HMAC URLs instead of login?

  - by Tres

  In implementing my site (a Rails site if it makes any difference), one of my design priorities is to relieve the user of the need to create yet another username and password while still providing useful per-user functionality. The way I am planning to do this is: User enters information on the site. Information is associated with the user via server-side session. User completes entering information, server sends an access URL via e-mail to the user roughly in the form of: http://siteurl/<user identifier>/<signature: HMAC(secret + salt + user identifier)> User clicks URL, site looks up user ID and salt and computes the HMAC with the server-stored secret and authenticates if the computed HMAC and signature match. My question is: is this a reasonably secure way to accomplish what I'm looking to do? Are there common attacks that would render it useless? Is there a compelling reason to abandon my desire to avoid a username/password? Is there a must-read book or article on the subject? Note that I'm not dealing with credit card numbers or anything exceedingly private, but I would still like to keep the information reasonably secure.

  Read the article

• C header file won't compile with C, but will with C++.

  - by Leif Andersen

  I have the following chunk of a header file BKE_mesh.h: /* Connectivity data */ typedef struct IndexNode { struct IndexNode *next, *prev; int index; } IndexNode; void create_vert_face_map(ListBase **map, IndexNode **mem, const struct MFace *mface, const int totvert, const int totface); void create_vert_edge_map(ListBase **map, IndexNode **mem, const struct MEdge *medge, const int totvert, const int totedge); Note that the header file was prepared for the possibility of being used in a C++ file, as it had: #ifdef __cplusplus extern "C" { #endif at the top of the file, and the needed finish at the bottom. But the class implementing it was written in C. Next, whenever I try to #include the header file, I get an odd error. If the file has a .cpp extension, it compiles just fine, no complaints whatsoever. However, if I do: #include "BKE_mesh.h" inside of a file with a .c extension, I get the following errors: expected ')' before '*' token for the two last functions, in specific, the variable: ListBase **map in both classes. (Note that earlier in the header file, it declared, but not defined ListBase). So, my question is: why is this valid C++ code, but not C code? Thank you.

  Read the article

• Accessing the calling object into ajax response... (not the ajax call)

  - by Nishchay Sharma

  I have an object of type Application (defined by me). Whenever an object of this type is created, it automatically loads a php file say "start.php" using jquery ajax and assign the response to a div say "Respo". Now what i want is to access the Application object from that Respo div. Unfortunately, i have no clue how to do this... in my ajax call: function Application(options) { ....... var appObj=this; $.ajax({ url:appObj.location, //Already defined success:function(data) { $("#respo").html(data); } }); } Now in my Respo division i want to access that Application object... I tried: alert(this) but it resulted in an object of DOMWindow... i tried editing success function as: function Application(options) { ....... var appObj=this; $.ajax({ url:appObj.location, //Already defined success:function(data) { $("#respo").html("<script type='text/javascript'>var Self="+appObj+"</script>"); $("#respo").html(data); } }); } But i ended nowhere. :( Although if i assign "var Self='nishchay';" then alerting Self from start.php gives nishchay but i am not able to assign the calling object of Application type to the Self variable. It is the only way I cud think of. :\ Please help me... actually my object has some editing functions to control itself - its look and feel and some other options. I want the code loaded by object to control the object itself. Please help me.. Thanks in advance. Nishchay

  Read the article

• Increase and decrease row value by 1 in MySQL

  - by Elliott

  Hi I have a MySQL database table "points" the user can click a button and a point should be removed from their account, the button they pressed has an ID of another user, therefore their account must increase by one. I have it working in jQuery and checked the varibles/posts in Firebug, and it does send the correct data, such as: userid= 1 posterid = 4 I think the problem is with my PHP page: <?php include ('../functions.php'); $userid=mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['user_id']); $posterid=mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['poster_id']); if (loggedin()) { include ('../connection.php'); $query1 = "UPDATE `points` SET `points` = `points` - 1 WHERE `userID` = '$userid'"; $result1=mysql_query($query1); $query2 = "UPDATE `points` SET `points` = `points` + 1 WHERE `userID` = '$posterid'"; $result2=mysql_query($query2); if ($result1 && result2) { echo "Successful"; return 1; } else { echo mysql_error(); return 0; } } ?> Any ideas? Thanks :)

  Read the article

• Uncommitted reads in SSIS

  - by OldBoy

  I'm trying to debug some legacy Integration Services code, and really want some confirmation on what I think the problem is: We have a very large data task inside a control flow container. This control flow container is set up with TransactionOption = supported - i.e. it will 'inherit' transactions from parent containers, but none are set up here. Inside the data flow there is a call to a stored proc that writes to a table with pseudo code something like: "If a record doesn't exist that matches these parameters then write it" Now, the issue is that there are three records being passed into this proc all with the same parameters, so logically the first record doesn't find a match and a record is created. The second record (with the same parameters) also doesn't find a match and another record is created. My understanding is that the first 'record' passed to the proc in the dataflow is uncommitted and therefore can't be 'read' by the second call. The upshot being that all three records create a row, when logically only the first should. In this scenario am I right in thinking that it is the uncommitted transaction that stops the second call from seeing the first? Even setting the isolation level on the container doesn't help because it's not being wrapped in a transaction anyway.... Hope that makes sense, and any advice gratefully received. Work-arounds confer god-like status on you.

  Read the article

• iBatis not populating object when there are no rows found.

  - by Omnipresent

  I am running a stored procedure that returns 2 cursors and none of them have any data. I have the following mapping xml: <resultMap id="resultMap1" class="HashMap"> <result property="firstName" columnIndex="2"/> </resultMap> <resultMap id="resultMap2" class="com.somePackage.MyBean"> <result property="unitStreetName" column="street_name"/> </resultMap> <parameterMap id="parmmap" class="map"> <parameter property="id" jdbcType="String" javaType="java.lang.String" mode="IN"/> <parameter property="Result0" jdbcType="ORACLECURSOR" javaType="java.sql.ResultSet" mode="OUT" resultMap="resultMap1"/> <parameter property="Result1" jdbcType="ORACLECURSOR" javaType="java.sql.ResultSet" mode="OUT" resultMap="resultMap2"/> </parameterMap> <procedure id="proc" parameterMap="parmmap"> { call my_sp (?,?,?) } </procedure> First result set is being put in a HashMap...second resultSet is being put in a MyBean class. code in my DAO follows: HashMap map = new HashMap() map.put("id", "1234"); getSqlMapClientTemplate().queryForList("mymap.proc", map); HashMap result1 = (HashMap)((List)parmMap.get("Result0")).get(0); MyBean myObject = (MyBean)((List)parmMap.get("Result1")).get(0);//code fails here in the last line above..my code fails. It fails because second cursor has no rows and thats why nothing is put into the list. However, first cursor returns nothing as well but since results are being put into a HashMap the list for first cursor atleast has HashMap object inside it.. Why this difference? is there a way to make iBatis put an object of MyBean inside the list even if there are no rows returned? Or should I be handling this in my DAO...I want to avoid handling it in the DAO because I have whole bunch of DAO's like these.

  Read the article

• Override java methods without affecting parent behaviour

  - by Timmmm

  suppose I have this classes (sorry it's kind of hard to think of a simple example here; I don't want any "why would you want to do that?" answers!): class Squarer { public void setValue(int v) { mV = v; } public int getValue() { return mV; } private int mV; public void square() { setValue(getValue() * getValue()); } } class OnlyOddInputsSquarer extends Squarer { @Override public void setValue(int v) { if (v % 2 == 0) { print("Sorry, this class only lets you square odd numbers!") return; } super.setValue(v); } } auto s = new OnlyOddInputsSquarer(); s.setValue(3); s.square(); This won't work. When Squarer.square() calls setValue(), it will go to OnlyOddInputsSquarer.setValue() which will reject all its values (since all squares are even). Is there any way I can override setValue() so that all the functions in Squarer still use the method defined there? PS: Sorry, java doesn't have an auto keyword you haven't heard about! Wishful thinking on my part.

  Read the article

• Symfony 1.4 - Don't save a blank password on a executeUpdate action.

  - by Twelve47

  I have a form to edit a UserProfile which is stored in mysql db. Which includes the following custom configuration: public function configure() { $this->widgetSchema['password']=new sfWidgetFormInputPassword(); $this->validatorSchema['password']->setOption('required', false); // you don't need to specify a new password if you are editing a user. } When the user tries to save the executeUpdate method is called to commit the changes. If the password is left blank, the password field is set to '', but I want it to retain the old password instead of overwriting it. What is the best (/most in the symfony ethos) way of doing this? My solution was to override the setter method on the model (which i had done anyway for password encryption), and ignore blank values. public function setPassword( $password ) { if ($password=='') return false; // if password is blank don't save it. return $this->_set('password', UserProfile ::encryptPassword( $password )); } It seems to work fine like this, but is there a better way? If you're wondering I cannot use sfDoctrineGuard for this project as I am dealing with a legacy database, and cannot change the schema.

  Read the article

• Vim: change formatting of variables in a script

  - by sixtyfootersdude

  I am using vim to edit a shell script (did not use the right coding standard). I need to change all of my variables from camel-hum-notation startTime to caps-and-underscore-notation START_TIME. I do not want to change the way method names are represented. I was thinking one way to do this would be to write a function and map it to a key. The function could do something like generating this on the command line: s/<word under cursor>/<leave cursor here to type what to replace with> I think that this function could be applyable to other situations which would be handy. Two questions: Question 1: How would I go about creating that function. I have created functions in vim before the biggest thing I am clueless about is how to capture movement. Ie if you press dw in vim it will delete the rest of a word. How do you capture that? Also can you leave an uncompleted command on the vim command line? Question 2: Got a better solution for me? How would you approach this task?

  Read the article

• Schema for storing "binary" values, such as Male/Female, in a database

  - by latentflip

  Intro I am trying to decide how best to set up my database schema for a (Rails) model. I have a model related to money which indicates whether the value is an income (positive cash value) or an expense (negative cash value). I would like separate column(s) to indicate whether it is an income or an expense, rather than relying on whether the value stored is positive or negative. Question: How would you store these values, and why? Have a single column, say Income, and store 1 if it's an income, 0 if it's an expense, null if not known. Have two columns, Income and Expense, setting their values to 1 or 0 as appropriate. Something else? I figure the question is similar to storing a person's gender in a database (ignoring aliens/transgender/etc) hence my title. My thoughts so far Lookup might be easier with a single column, but there is a risk of mistaking 0 (false, expense) for null (unknown). Having seperate columns might be more difficult to maintain (what happens if we end up with a 1 in both columns? Maybe it's not that big a deal which way I go, but it would be great to have any concerns/thoughts raised before I get too far down the line and have to change my code-base because I missed something that should have been obvious! Thanks, Philip

  Read the article

• Memory Leak in returning NSMutableArray from class

  - by Structurer

  Hi I am quite new to Objective C for the iPhone, so I hope you wont kill me for asking a simple question. I have made an App that works fine, except that Instruments reports memory leaks from the class below. I use it to store settings from one class and then retrieve them from another class. These settings are stored on a file so they can be retrieved every time the App is ran. What can I do do release the "setting" and is there anything that can be done to call (use) the class in a smarter way? Thanks ----- Below is Settings.m ----- import "Settings.h" @implementation Settings @synthesize settings; -(NSString *)dataFilePath // Return path for settingfile, including filename { NSArray *paths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *documentsDirectory = [paths objectAtIndex:0]; return [documentsDirectory stringByAppendingPathComponent:kUserSettingsFileName]; } -(NSMutableArray *)getParameters // Return settings from disk after checking if file exist (if not create with default values) { NSString *filePath = [self dataFilePath]; if ([[NSFileManager defaultManager] fileExistsAtPath:filePath]) // Getting data from file { settings = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithContentsOfFile:filePath]; } else // Creating default settings { settings = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithObjects: [NSNumber numberWithInteger:50], [NSNumber numberWithInteger:50], nil]; [settings writeToFile:[self dataFilePath] atomically:YES]; } return settings; } ----- Below is my other class from where I call my Settings class ----- // Get settings from file Settings *aSetting = [[Settings alloc] init]; mySettings = [aSetting getParameters]; [aSetting release];

  Read the article

• Why would the same web form control render different "onclick" logic based on the page structure?

  - by zk812

  It was hard to title this question. :) I have a user control that is used to display a list of lookup items in my database and a delete button for each item (Editor User Control below). The delete button has an onClientClick event used to display a confirmation dialog in JavaScript. On page one, the confirmation pops up and functions correctly. The overall structure is: Master Page Page Editor User Control List of items with delete button On page two, the confirmation pops up but regardless of the answer, the page posts back anyway. The structure of this page is: Master Page Page User Control Editor User Control List of items with delete button For some reason, this makes a difference in how the delete button is rendered. Page one: <input type="image" name="ctl00...RequestTypesDataList$ctl01$ctl01" src="Images/Disable.png" alt="Delete" onclick="return ProcessDeleteCommand(1);" /> Page two: <input type="image" name="ctl00...RequestTypesDataList$ctl07$ctl01" src="Images/Disable.png" alt="Delete" onclick="return ProcessDeleteCommand(2);WebForm_DoPostBackWithOptions(new WebForm_PostBackOptions(&quot;ctl00$ContentPlaceHolder1$RequestCreator1$RequestTypeEditor1$RequestTypesDataList$ctl07$ctl01&quot;, &quot;&quot;, true, &quot;&quot;, &quot;&quot;, false, false))" /> Does anyone know why page two renders WebForm_DoPostBackWithOptions after my JS check? It's causing the postback regardless of the confirmation choice.

  Read the article

• Toolbox/framework to construct lightweight public-facing web site

  - by aSteve

  I am aware of full-blown content management systems (CMS) such as SugarCRM and TikiWiki... where content is typically stored in a database... and edited through the same interface as it is published. While I like many of the features, the product is clearly aimed at enterprise-wide use rather than to be public-facing. What I'd like to establish are potential alternatives that fill the space between full-blown CMS and hand-coded bespoke site. I like the way that I can add modules to my CMS... allowing me to quickly introduce new functionality, and I'd like an analogous feature in a system for public web-content. Modules I know I'd like include moderated comments; web-form-to-email gateway; menus/tabs... in future, perhaps mapping or diaries or RSS integration - etc. Where my requirements differ from a CMS, I don't need (or want) most content to be editable through the main site... and, somehow, I do want to be able to preview how updates will be presented to the public rather than to make live changes. For these purposes, in contrast to those where a typical CMS would be ideal, presentation is of paramount importance - and trumps any desire to immediately disseminate information. I realise that this is a very high-level question... (suggestions of additional tags welcome) - I mentioned PHP only as - ideally - I'm looking for an open source solution and a PHP deployment is an easy option. What are my options?

  Read the article

• Cant access NString after callback in [NSURLConnection sendSynchronousRequest]

  - by John ClearZ

  Hi I am trying to get a cookie from a site which I can do no problem. The problem arises when I try and save the cookie to a NSString in a holder class or anywhere else for that matter and try and access it outside the delegate method where it is first created. - (void)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didReceiveResponse:(NSURLResponse *)response { int i; NSString* c; NSArray* all = [NSHTTPCookie cookiesWithResponseHeaderFields:[response allHeaderFields] forURL:[NSURL URLWithString:@"http://johncleary.net"]]; //NSLog(@"RESPONSE HEADERS: \n%@", [response allHeaderFields]); for (i=0;i<[all count];i++) { NSHTTPCookie* cc = [all objectAtIndex: i]; c = [NSString stringWithFormat: @"%@=%@", [cc name], [cc value]]; [Cookie setCookie: c]; NSLog([Cookie cookie]) // Prints the cookie fine. } [receivedData setLength:0]; } I can see and print the cookie when I am in the method but I cant when trying to access it form anywhere else even though it gets stored in the holder class @interface Cookie : NSObject { NSString* cookie; } + (NSString*) cookie; + (void) setCookie: (NSString*) cookieValue; @end int main (void) { NSAutoreleasePool * pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; JCLogin* login; login = [JCLogin new]; [login DoLogin]; NSLog([Cookie cookie]); // Crashes the program [pool drain]; return 0; }

  Read the article

• create a class attribute without going through __setattr__

  - by eric.frederich

  Hello, What I have below is a class I made to easily store a bunch of data as attributes. They wind up getting stored in a dictionary. I override __getattr__ and __setattr__ to store and retrieve the values back in different types of units. When I started overriding __setattr__ I was having trouble creating that initial dicionary in the 2nd line of __init__ like so... super(MyDataFile, self).__setattr__('_data', {}) My question... Is there an easier way to create a class level attribute with going through __setattr__? Also, should I be concerned about keeping a separate dictionary or should I just store everything in self.__dict__? #!/usr/bin/env python from unitconverter import convert import re special_attribute_re = re.compile(r'(.+)__(.+)') class MyDataFile(object): def __init__(self, *args, **kwargs): super(MyDataFile, self).__init__(*args, **kwargs) super(MyDataFile, self).__setattr__('_data', {}) # # For attribute type access # def __setattr__(self, name, value): self._data[name] = value def __getattr__(self, name): if name in self._data: return self._data[name] match = special_attribute_re.match(name) if match: varname, units = match.groups() if varname in self._data: return self.getvaras(varname, units) raise AttributeError # # other methods # def getvaras(self, name, units): from_val, from_units = self._data[name] if from_units == units: return from_val return convert(from_val, from_units, units), units def __str__(self): return str(self._data) d = MyDataFile() print d # set like a dictionary or an attribute d.XYZ = 12.34, 'in' d.ABC = 76.54, 'ft' # get it back like a dictionary or an attribute print d.XYZ print d.ABC # get conversions using getvaras or using a specially formed attribute print d.getvaras('ABC', 'cm') print d.XYZ__mm

  Read the article

• What about parallelism across network using multiple PCs?

  - by MainMa

  Parallel computing is used more and more, and new framework features and shortcuts make it easier to use (for example Parallel extensions which are directly available in .NET 4). Now what about the parallelism across network? I mean, an abstraction of everything related to communications, creation of processes on remote machines, etc. Something like, in C#: NetworkParallel.ForEach(myEnumerable, () => { // Computing and/or access to web ressource or local network database here }); I understand that it is very different from the multi-core parallelism. The two most obvious differences would probably be: The fact that such parallel task will be limited to computing, without being able for example to use files stored locally (but why not a database?), or even to use local variables, because it would be rather two distinct applications than two threads of the same application, The very specific implementation, requiring not just a separate thread (which is quite easy), but spanning a process on different machines, then communicating with them over local network. Despite those differences, such parallelism is quite possible, even without speaking about distributed architecture. Do you think it will be implemented in a few years? Do you agree that it enables developers to easily develop extremely powerfull stuff with much less pain? Example: Think about a business application which extracts data from the database, transforms it, and displays statistics. Let's say this application takes ten seconds to load data, twenty seconds to transform data and ten seconds to build charts on a single machine in a company, using all the CPU, whereas ten other machines are used at 5% of CPU most of the time. In a such case, every action may be done in parallel, resulting in probably six to ten seconds for overall process instead of forty.

  Read the article

• Is excessive DataTable usage bad?

  - by Justin R.

  I was recently asked to assist another team in building an ASP .NET website. They already have a significant amount of code written -- I was specifically asked build a few individual pages for the site. While exploring the code for the rest of the site, the amount of DataTables being constructed jumped out at me. Being a relatively new in the field, I've never worked on an application that utilizes a database as much as this site does, so I'm not sure how common this is. It seems that whenever data is queried from our database, the results are stored in a DataTable. This DataTable is then usually passed around by itself, or it's passed to a constructor. Classes that are initialized with a DataTable always assign the DataTable to a private/protected field, however only a few of these classes implement IDisposable. In fact, in the thousands of lines of code that I've browsed so far, I have yet to see the Dispose method called on a DataTable. If anything, this doesn't seem to be good OOP. Is this something that I should worry about? Or am I just paying more attention to detail than I should? Assuming you're most experienced developers than I am, how would you feel or react if someone who was just assigned to help you with your site approached you about this "problem"?

  Read the article

• RewriteRule to store thousands of files in subdirectories

  - by Brandon

  I have a website that will have millions of pages in a directory. I'd like to store those files on-disk in a bunch of subdirectories based on the first characters of the page name. For example http://mysite.com/hugedir/somefile.html would be stored in /var/www/html/hugedir/s/o/m/e/f/ile.html That is fairly trivial to do with a RewriteRule like so: RewriteRule ^hugedir/(.)(.)(.)(.)(.)(.*).html /hugedir/{$1}/{$2}/{$3}/{$4}/{$5}/$6.html RewriteRule ^hugedir/(.)(.)(.)(.)(.*).html /hugedir/{$1}/{$2}/{$3}/{$4}/{$5}.html RewriteRule ^hugedir/(.)(.)(.)(.*).html /hugedir/{$1}/{$2}/{$3}/{$4}.html RewriteRule ^hugedir/(.)(.)(.*).html /hugedir/{$1}/{$2}/{$3}.html RewriteRule ^hugedir/(.)(.*).html /hugedir/{$1}/{$2}.html RewriteRule ^hugedir/(.*).html /hugedir/{$1}.html However, the file name may contain hyphens or other non-standard characters and I'd really like to avoid having a directory named with a strange character. Ideally, I'd like to have a list of 'approved' characters and either eliminate or transform the unapproved characters to an underscore. Can anybody think of a way to do that? Or something else equivalent? Part of the requirement is that these be physical files on disk and it not be parsed with a scripting language.

  Read the article

• assembling an object graph without an ORM -- in the service layer or data layer?

  - by Hans Gruber

  At my current gig, our persistence layer uses IBatis going against SQL Server stored procedures (puke). IMHO, this approach has many disadvantages over the use of a "true" ORM such NHibernate or EF, but the one I'm trying to address here revolves around all the boilerplate code needed to map data from a result set into an object graph. Say I have the following DTO object graph I want to return to my presentation layer: IEnumerable<CustomerDTO> |--> IEnumerable<AddressDTO> |--> LatestOrderDTO The way I've implemented this is to have a discrete method in my DAO class to return each IEnumerable<*DTO>, and then have my service class be responsible for orchestrating the calls to the DAO. It then returns the fully assembled object graph to the client: public class SomeService(){ public SomeService(IDao someDao){ this._someDao = someDao; } public IEnumerable<CustomerDTO> ListCustomersForHistory(int brokerId){ var customers = _someDao.ListCustomersForBroker(brokerId); foreach (customer in customers){ customer.Addresses = someDao.ListCustomersAddresses(brokerId); customer.LatestOrder = someDao.GetCustomerLatestOrder(brokerId); } } return customers; } My question is should this logic belong in the service layer or the should I make my DAO such that it instead returns the assembled object graph. If I was using NHibernate, I assume that this kind of relationship association between objects comes for "free"?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 589 590 591 592 593 594 595 596 597 598 599 600  | Next Page >