Search Results

Search found 17501 results on 701 pages for 'stored functions'.

Page 593/701 | < Previous Page | 589 590 591 592 593 594 595 596 597 598 599 600  | Next Page >

• Setting up SVN (subvsersion) to manage our companies files, how to exclude large files from being ve

  - by Roeland

  Me and two other guys recently started our own web development company. We each work from our homes and have decided we want to keep one central location for all of our files. These files include word documents, spreadsheets, client files, designs.. etc. Anything pertaining to our company. I have a pretty solid internet connection and a windows 2008 server box sitting at home so I set up a subversion repository. Our file repository will look something like this. Clients Company A Design (photoshop files, wireframes, concepts) Documents ( logins, quotes, proposals etc) Site Backups Company B Design Documents Site Backups Prospects Company C Company D Our Company Our Website Documents (contract, operating procudres) My question is in regards to design files. The photoshop files that my designer works with range in sizes from 10mb to 100mb. I don't think we need to keep these files version-ed as this would eat up space incredibly fast. How do I go about controlling which files get version-ed, and which files are just stored. What I am thinking is that all documents need to be version-ed, and any files other then that should not be. Any help would be appreciated, thanks! Edit I am also curious whether this is the way to go. I just like this system since it keeps version of all my documents and at the same time. Also essentially I will have 3 backups in 3 different locations (3 local copies) so no need for backing it up. I am unsure of how svn would perform as purely a huge file repository.

  Read the article

• iBatis not populating object when there are no rows found.

  - by Omnipresent

  I am running a stored procedure that returns 2 cursors and none of them have any data. I have the following mapping xml: <resultMap id="resultMap1" class="HashMap"> <result property="firstName" columnIndex="2"/> </resultMap> <resultMap id="resultMap2" class="com.somePackage.MyBean"> <result property="unitStreetName" column="street_name"/> </resultMap> <parameterMap id="parmmap" class="map"> <parameter property="id" jdbcType="String" javaType="java.lang.String" mode="IN"/> <parameter property="Result0" jdbcType="ORACLECURSOR" javaType="java.sql.ResultSet" mode="OUT" resultMap="resultMap1"/> <parameter property="Result1" jdbcType="ORACLECURSOR" javaType="java.sql.ResultSet" mode="OUT" resultMap="resultMap2"/> </parameterMap> <procedure id="proc" parameterMap="parmmap"> { call my_sp (?,?,?) } </procedure> First result set is being put in a HashMap...second resultSet is being put in a MyBean class. code in my DAO follows: HashMap map = new HashMap() map.put("id", "1234"); getSqlMapClientTemplate().queryForList("mymap.proc", map); HashMap result1 = (HashMap)((List)parmMap.get("Result0")).get(0); MyBean myObject = (MyBean)((List)parmMap.get("Result1")).get(0);//code fails here in the last line above..my code fails. It fails because second cursor has no rows and thats why nothing is put into the list. However, first cursor returns nothing as well but since results are being put into a HashMap the list for first cursor atleast has HashMap object inside it.. Why this difference? is there a way to make iBatis put an object of MyBean inside the list even if there are no rows returned? Or should I be handling this in my DAO...I want to avoid handling it in the DAO because I have whole bunch of DAO's like these.

  Read the article

• converting code from non-(C)ontinuation (P)assing (S)tyle to CPS

  - by Delirium tremens

  before: function sc_startSiteCompare(){ var visitinguri; var validateduri; var downloaduris; var compareuris; var tryinguri; sc_setstatus('started'); visitinguri = sc_getvisitinguri(); validateduri = sc_getvalidateduri(visitinguri); downloaduris = new Array(); downloaduris = sc_generatedownloaduris(validateduri); compareuris = new Array(); compareuris = sc_generatecompareuris(validateduri); tryinguri = 0; sc_finishSiteCompare(downloaduris, compareuris, tryinguri); } function sc_getvisitinguri() { var visitinguri; visitinguri = content.location.href; return visitinguri; } after (I'm trying): function sc_startSiteCompare(){ var visitinguri; sc_setstatus('started'); visitinguri = sc_getvisitinguri(sc_startSiteComparec1); } function sc_startSiteComparec1 (visitinguri) { var validateduri; validateduri = sc_getvalidateduri(visitinguri, sc_startSiteComparec2); } function sc_startSiteComparec2 (visitinguri, c) { var downloaduris; downloaduris = sc_generatedownloaduris(validateduri, sc_startSiteComparec3); } function sc_startSiteComparec3 (validateduri, c) { var compareuris; compareuris = sc_generatecompareuris(downloaduris, validateduri, sc_startSiteComparec4); } function sc_startSiteComparec4 (downloaduris, compareuris, validateduri, c) { var tryinguri; tryinguri = 0; sc_finishSiteCompare(downloaduris, compareuris, tryinguri); } function sc_getvisitinguri(c) { var visitinguri; visitinguri = content.location.href; c(visitinguri); } I'm having to pass lots of arguments to functions now. global in procedural code look like this / self in modular code. Any difference? Will I really have to use OO now? As a last resort, does CPS have an alternative?

  Read the article

• Update Web Reference in Visual Studio

  - by NeilD

  Hi, I have inherited a web site project that makes use of a number of WCF Web Services hosted on a BizTalk server. We have two environments that I need to deploy this project to, with different URLs for the different BizTalk servers. i.e. In the Staging environment, I need to point the services at xx.xx.xx.101 In the Live environment, I need to point them at xx.xx.xx.102, or whatever. Currently, we've got all of the URLs stored in keys in the web.config file, so that we can change them dynamically... Unfortunately this isn't working! If I change the URL in the web.config to something other than what the project was compiled with, I get an error when calling the service: Server did not recognize the value of HTTP Header SOAPAction: xx.xx.xx.101\ServiceName\MethodName I'm told that the only way they've known to deploy this is to update the web.config URLs, change all of the web references in Visual Studio to match, click on "update web reference" for each reference in Visual Studio, and then compile. It's driving me mad! I've written a pre-build NAnt script to go through and replace all instances of the URL found anywhere in the project directory, and even that isn't making any difference. There must be something else being pulled down from the service when I click the "update reference", but I'm new to working with web services, and so I'm not sure what. Does anyone have any ideas? Is there a way to do this programatically? Thanks.

  Read the article

• Typical SVN repo structure seems to be sub-optimal for continuous integration...

  - by Dave

  I've set up our SVN repository like the Subversion book suggests, and this is also how my previous companies have done it. It looks something like this: /trunk /branches /tags /extlibs /docs where the first three are pretty obvious, and extlibs is for 3rd party assemblies that we wouldn't typically recompile ourselves. All of this works great for the daily development stuff. Now I've installed TeamCity and have builds, unit tests, code coverage, and code analysis running. Everything is great, except for the fact that this code structure results in too much code getting downloaded. So here's the catch 22, in my opinion: it's silly to download all of aforementioned folders from the SVN repo when I only need /trunk and /extlibs. But I can only specify one repo folder to download in the TeamCity VCS settings. So then the other possibility is to put the /extlibs folder into /trunk, but in order to compile branches, /extlibs would have to go into all of those as well (since I usually branch the trunk, and not individual subfolders... and this would seem infinitely more evil since /extlibs could actually be larger than /trunk and /branches, with all of the binaries stored there... Do you guys have any suggestions for me? Thanks!

  Read the article

• Vim: change formatting of variables in a script

  - by sixtyfootersdude

  I am using vim to edit a shell script (did not use the right coding standard). I need to change all of my variables from camel-hum-notation startTime to caps-and-underscore-notation START_TIME. I do not want to change the way method names are represented. I was thinking one way to do this would be to write a function and map it to a key. The function could do something like generating this on the command line: s/<word under cursor>/<leave cursor here to type what to replace with> I think that this function could be applyable to other situations which would be handy. Two questions: Question 1: How would I go about creating that function. I have created functions in vim before the biggest thing I am clueless about is how to capture movement. Ie if you press dw in vim it will delete the rest of a word. How do you capture that? Also can you leave an uncompleted command on the vim command line? Question 2: Got a better solution for me? How would you approach this task?

  Read the article

• Symfony 1.4 - Don't save a blank password on a executeUpdate action.

  - by Twelve47

  I have a form to edit a UserProfile which is stored in mysql db. Which includes the following custom configuration: public function configure() { $this->widgetSchema['password']=new sfWidgetFormInputPassword(); $this->validatorSchema['password']->setOption('required', false); // you don't need to specify a new password if you are editing a user. } When the user tries to save the executeUpdate method is called to commit the changes. If the password is left blank, the password field is set to '', but I want it to retain the old password instead of overwriting it. What is the best (/most in the symfony ethos) way of doing this? My solution was to override the setter method on the model (which i had done anyway for password encryption), and ignore blank values. public function setPassword( $password ) { if ($password=='') return false; // if password is blank don't save it. return $this->_set('password', UserProfile ::encryptPassword( $password )); } It seems to work fine like this, but is there a better way? If you're wondering I cannot use sfDoctrineGuard for this project as I am dealing with a legacy database, and cannot change the schema.

  Read the article

• Regex Replacing only whole matches

  - by Leen Balsters

  I am trying to replace a bunch of strings in files. The strings are stored in a datatable along with the new string value. string contents = File.ReadAllText(file); foreach (DataRow dr in FolderRenames.Rows) { contents = Regex.Replace(contents, dr["find"].ToString(), dr["replace"].ToString()); File.SetAttributes(file, FileAttributes.Normal); File.WriteAllText(file, contents); } The strings look like this _-uUa, -_uU, _-Ha etc. The problem that I am having is when for example this string "_uU" will also overwrite "_-uUa" so the replacement would look like "newvaluea" Is there a way to tell regex to look at the next character after the found string and make sure it is not an alphanumeric character? I hope it is clear what I am trying to do here. Here is some sample data: private function _-0iX(arg1:flash.events.Event):void { if (arg1.type == flash.events.Event.RESIZE) { if (this._-2GU) { this._-yu(this._-2GU); } } return; } The next characters could be ;, (, ), dot, comma, space, :, etc.

  Read the article

• Accessing the calling object into ajax response... (not the ajax call)

  - by Nishchay Sharma

  I have an object of type Application (defined by me). Whenever an object of this type is created, it automatically loads a php file say "start.php" using jquery ajax and assign the response to a div say "Respo". Now what i want is to access the Application object from that Respo div. Unfortunately, i have no clue how to do this... in my ajax call: function Application(options) { ....... var appObj=this; $.ajax({ url:appObj.location, //Already defined success:function(data) { $("#respo").html(data); } }); } Now in my Respo division i want to access that Application object... I tried: alert(this) but it resulted in an object of DOMWindow... i tried editing success function as: function Application(options) { ....... var appObj=this; $.ajax({ url:appObj.location, //Already defined success:function(data) { $("#respo").html("<script type='text/javascript'>var Self="+appObj+"</script>"); $("#respo").html(data); } }); } But i ended nowhere. :( Although if i assign "var Self='nishchay';" then alerting Self from start.php gives nishchay but i am not able to assign the calling object of Application type to the Self variable. It is the only way I cud think of. :\ Please help me... actually my object has some editing functions to control itself - its look and feel and some other options. I want the code loaded by object to control the object itself. Please help me.. Thanks in advance. Nishchay

  Read the article

• Why would the same web form control render different "onclick" logic based on the page structure?

  - by zk812

  It was hard to title this question. :) I have a user control that is used to display a list of lookup items in my database and a delete button for each item (Editor User Control below). The delete button has an onClientClick event used to display a confirmation dialog in JavaScript. On page one, the confirmation pops up and functions correctly. The overall structure is: Master Page Page Editor User Control List of items with delete button On page two, the confirmation pops up but regardless of the answer, the page posts back anyway. The structure of this page is: Master Page Page User Control Editor User Control List of items with delete button For some reason, this makes a difference in how the delete button is rendered. Page one: <input type="image" name="ctl00...RequestTypesDataList$ctl01$ctl01" src="Images/Disable.png" alt="Delete" onclick="return ProcessDeleteCommand(1);" /> Page two: <input type="image" name="ctl00...RequestTypesDataList$ctl07$ctl01" src="Images/Disable.png" alt="Delete" onclick="return ProcessDeleteCommand(2);WebForm_DoPostBackWithOptions(new WebForm_PostBackOptions(&quot;ctl00$ContentPlaceHolder1$RequestCreator1$RequestTypeEditor1$RequestTypesDataList$ctl07$ctl01&quot;, &quot;&quot;, true, &quot;&quot;, &quot;&quot;, false, false))" /> Does anyone know why page two renders WebForm_DoPostBackWithOptions after my JS check? It's causing the postback regardless of the confirmation choice.

  Read the article

• Why isn't our c# graphics code working any more?

  - by Jared

  Here's the situation: We have some generic graphics code that we use for one of our projects. After doing some clean-up of the code, it seems like something isn't working anymore (The graphics output looks completely wrong). I ran a diff against the last version of the code that gave the correct output, and it looks like we changed one of our functions as follows: static public Rectangle FitRectangleOld(Rectangle rect, Size targetSize) { if (rect.Width <= 0 || rect.Height <= 0) { rect.Width = targetSize.Width; rect.Height = targetSize.Height; } else if (targetSize.Width * rect.Height > rect.Width * targetSize.Height) { rect.Width = rect.Width * targetSize.Height / rect.Height; rect.Height = targetSize.Height; } else { rect.Height = rect.Height * targetSize.Width / rect.Width; rect.Width = targetSize.Width; } return rect; } to static public Rectangle FitRectangle(Rectangle rect, Size targetSize) { if (rect.Width <= 0 || rect.Height <= 0) { rect.Width = targetSize.Width; rect.Height = targetSize.Height; } else if (targetSize.Width * rect.Height > rect.Width * targetSize.Height) { rect.Width *= targetSize.Height / rect.Height; rect.Height = targetSize.Height; } else { rect.Height *= targetSize.Width / rect.Width; rect.Width = targetSize.Width; } return rect; } All of our unit tests are all passing, and nothing in the code has changed except for some syntactic shortcuts. But like I said, the output is wrong. We'll probably just revert back to the old code, but I'm curious if anyone has any idea what's going on here. Thanks.

  Read the article

• Linq-to-XML explicit casting in a generic method

  - by vlad

  I've looked for a similar question, but the only one that was close didn't help me in the end. I have an XML file that looks like this: <Fields> <Field name="abc" value="2011-01-01" /> <Field name="xyz" value="" /> <Field name="tuv" value="123.456" /> </Fields> I'm trying to use Linq-to-XML to get the values from these fields. The values can be of type Decimal, DateTime, String and Int32. I was able to get the fields one by one using a relatively simple query. For example, I'm getting the 'value' from the field with the name 'abc' using the following: private DateTime GetValueFromAttribute(IEnumerable<XElement> fields, String attName) { return (from field in fields where field.Attribute("name").Value == "abc" select (DateTime)field.Attribute("value")).FirstOrDefault() } this is placed in a separate function that simply returns this value, and everything works fine (since I know that there is only one element with the name attribute set to 'abc'). however, since I have to do this for decimals and integers and dates, I was wondering if I can make a generic function that works in all cases. this is where I got stuck. here's what I have so far: private T GetValueFromAttribute<T>(IEnumerable<XElement> fields, String attName) { return (from field in fields where field.Attribute("name").Value == attName select (T)field.Attribute("value").Value).FirstOrDefault(); } this doesn't compile because it doesn't know how to convert from String to T. I tried boxing and unboxing (i.e. select (T) (Object) field.Attribute("value").Value but that throws a runtime Specified cast is not valid exception as it's trying to convert the String to a DateTime, for instance. Is this possible in a generic function? can I put a constraint on the generic function to make it work? or do I have to have separate functions to take advantage of Linq-to-XML's explicit cast operators?

  Read the article

• create a class attribute without going through __setattr__

  - by eric.frederich

  Hello, What I have below is a class I made to easily store a bunch of data as attributes. They wind up getting stored in a dictionary. I override __getattr__ and __setattr__ to store and retrieve the values back in different types of units. When I started overriding __setattr__ I was having trouble creating that initial dicionary in the 2nd line of __init__ like so... super(MyDataFile, self).__setattr__('_data', {}) My question... Is there an easier way to create a class level attribute with going through __setattr__? Also, should I be concerned about keeping a separate dictionary or should I just store everything in self.__dict__? #!/usr/bin/env python from unitconverter import convert import re special_attribute_re = re.compile(r'(.+)__(.+)') class MyDataFile(object): def __init__(self, *args, **kwargs): super(MyDataFile, self).__init__(*args, **kwargs) super(MyDataFile, self).__setattr__('_data', {}) # # For attribute type access # def __setattr__(self, name, value): self._data[name] = value def __getattr__(self, name): if name in self._data: return self._data[name] match = special_attribute_re.match(name) if match: varname, units = match.groups() if varname in self._data: return self.getvaras(varname, units) raise AttributeError # # other methods # def getvaras(self, name, units): from_val, from_units = self._data[name] if from_units == units: return from_val return convert(from_val, from_units, units), units def __str__(self): return str(self._data) d = MyDataFile() print d # set like a dictionary or an attribute d.XYZ = 12.34, 'in' d.ABC = 76.54, 'ft' # get it back like a dictionary or an attribute print d.XYZ print d.ABC # get conversions using getvaras or using a specially formed attribute print d.getvaras('ABC', 'cm') print d.XYZ__mm

  Read the article

• Cant access NString after callback in [NSURLConnection sendSynchronousRequest]

  - by John ClearZ

  Hi I am trying to get a cookie from a site which I can do no problem. The problem arises when I try and save the cookie to a NSString in a holder class or anywhere else for that matter and try and access it outside the delegate method where it is first created. - (void)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didReceiveResponse:(NSURLResponse *)response { int i; NSString* c; NSArray* all = [NSHTTPCookie cookiesWithResponseHeaderFields:[response allHeaderFields] forURL:[NSURL URLWithString:@"http://johncleary.net"]]; //NSLog(@"RESPONSE HEADERS: \n%@", [response allHeaderFields]); for (i=0;i<[all count];i++) { NSHTTPCookie* cc = [all objectAtIndex: i]; c = [NSString stringWithFormat: @"%@=%@", [cc name], [cc value]]; [Cookie setCookie: c]; NSLog([Cookie cookie]) // Prints the cookie fine. } [receivedData setLength:0]; } I can see and print the cookie when I am in the method but I cant when trying to access it form anywhere else even though it gets stored in the holder class @interface Cookie : NSObject { NSString* cookie; } + (NSString*) cookie; + (void) setCookie: (NSString*) cookieValue; @end int main (void) { NSAutoreleasePool * pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; JCLogin* login; login = [JCLogin new]; [login DoLogin]; NSLog([Cookie cookie]); // Crashes the program [pool drain]; return 0; }

  Read the article

• avoiding code duplication in Rails 3 models

  - by Dustin Frazier

  I'm working on a Rails 3.1 application where there are a number of different enum-like models that are stored in the database. There is a lot of identical code in these models, as well as in the associated controllers and views. I've solved the code duplication for the controllers and views via a shared parent controller class and the new view/layout inheritance that's part of Rails 3. Now I'm trying to solve the code duplication in the models, and I'm stuck. An example of one of my enum models is as follows: class Format < ActiveRecord::Base has_and_belongs_to_many :videos attr_accessible :name validates :name, presence: true, length: { maximum: 20 } before_destroy :verify_no_linked_videos def verify_no_linked_videos unless self.videos.empty? self.errors[:base] << "Couldn't delete format with associated videos." raise ActiveRecord::RecordInvalid.new self end end end I have four or five other classes with nearly identical code (the association declaration being the only difference). I've tried creating a module with the shared code that they all include (which seems like the Ruby Way), but much of the duplicate code relies on ActiveRecord, so the methods I'm trying to use in the module (validate, attr_accessible, etc.) aren't available. I know about ActiveModel, but that doesn't get me all the way there. I've also tried creating a common, non-persistent parent class that subclasses ActiveRecord::Base, but all of the code I've seen to accomplish this assumes that you won't have subclasses of your non-persistent class that do persist. Any suggestions for how best to avoid duplicating these identical lines of code across many different enum models?

  Read the article

• Schema for storing "binary" values, such as Male/Female, in a database

  - by latentflip

  Intro I am trying to decide how best to set up my database schema for a (Rails) model. I have a model related to money which indicates whether the value is an income (positive cash value) or an expense (negative cash value). I would like separate column(s) to indicate whether it is an income or an expense, rather than relying on whether the value stored is positive or negative. Question: How would you store these values, and why? Have a single column, say Income, and store 1 if it's an income, 0 if it's an expense, null if not known. Have two columns, Income and Expense, setting their values to 1 or 0 as appropriate. Something else? I figure the question is similar to storing a person's gender in a database (ignoring aliens/transgender/etc) hence my title. My thoughts so far Lookup might be easier with a single column, but there is a risk of mistaking 0 (false, expense) for null (unknown). Having seperate columns might be more difficult to maintain (what happens if we end up with a 1 in both columns? Maybe it's not that big a deal which way I go, but it would be great to have any concerns/thoughts raised before I get too far down the line and have to change my code-base because I missed something that should have been obvious! Thanks, Philip

  Read the article

• Increase and decrease row value by 1 in MySQL

  - by Elliott

  Hi I have a MySQL database table "points" the user can click a button and a point should be removed from their account, the button they pressed has an ID of another user, therefore their account must increase by one. I have it working in jQuery and checked the varibles/posts in Firebug, and it does send the correct data, such as: userid= 1 posterid = 4 I think the problem is with my PHP page: <?php include ('../functions.php'); $userid=mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['user_id']); $posterid=mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['poster_id']); if (loggedin()) { include ('../connection.php'); $query1 = "UPDATE `points` SET `points` = `points` - 1 WHERE `userID` = '$userid'"; $result1=mysql_query($query1); $query2 = "UPDATE `points` SET `points` = `points` + 1 WHERE `userID` = '$posterid'"; $result2=mysql_query($query2); if ($result1 && result2) { echo "Successful"; return 1; } else { echo mysql_error(); return 0; } } ?> Any ideas? Thanks :)

  Read the article

• Algorithm to pick values from set to match target value?

  - by CSharperWithJava

  I have a fixed array of constant integer values about 300 items long (Set A). The goal of the algorithm is to pick two numbers (X and Y) from this array that fit several criteria based on input R. Formal requirement: Pick values X and Y from set A such that the expression X*Y/(X+Y) is as close as possible to R. That's all there is to it. I need a simple algorithm that will do that. Additional info: The Set A can be ordered or stored in any way, it will be hard coded eventually. Also, with a little bit of math, it can be shown that the best Y for a given X is the closest value in Set A to the expression X*R/(X-R). Also, X and Y will always be greater than R From this, I get a simple iterative algorithm that works ok: int minX = 100000000; int minY = 100000000; foreach X in A if(X<=R) continue; else Y=X*R/(X-R) Y=FindNearestIn(A, Y);//do search to find closest useable Y value in A if( X*Y/(X+Y) < minX*minY/(minX+minY) ) then minX = X; minY = Y; end end end I'm looking for a slightly more elegant approach than this brute force method. Suggestions?

  Read the article

• Memory Leak in returning NSMutableArray from class

  - by Structurer

  Hi I am quite new to Objective C for the iPhone, so I hope you wont kill me for asking a simple question. I have made an App that works fine, except that Instruments reports memory leaks from the class below. I use it to store settings from one class and then retrieve them from another class. These settings are stored on a file so they can be retrieved every time the App is ran. What can I do do release the "setting" and is there anything that can be done to call (use) the class in a smarter way? Thanks ----- Below is Settings.m ----- import "Settings.h" @implementation Settings @synthesize settings; -(NSString *)dataFilePath // Return path for settingfile, including filename { NSArray *paths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *documentsDirectory = [paths objectAtIndex:0]; return [documentsDirectory stringByAppendingPathComponent:kUserSettingsFileName]; } -(NSMutableArray *)getParameters // Return settings from disk after checking if file exist (if not create with default values) { NSString *filePath = [self dataFilePath]; if ([[NSFileManager defaultManager] fileExistsAtPath:filePath]) // Getting data from file { settings = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithContentsOfFile:filePath]; } else // Creating default settings { settings = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithObjects: [NSNumber numberWithInteger:50], [NSNumber numberWithInteger:50], nil]; [settings writeToFile:[self dataFilePath] atomically:YES]; } return settings; } ----- Below is my other class from where I call my Settings class ----- // Get settings from file Settings *aSetting = [[Settings alloc] init]; mySettings = [aSetting getParameters]; [aSetting release];

  Read the article

• assembling an object graph without an ORM -- in the service layer or data layer?

  - by Hans Gruber

  At my current gig, our persistence layer uses IBatis going against SQL Server stored procedures (puke). IMHO, this approach has many disadvantages over the use of a "true" ORM such NHibernate or EF, but the one I'm trying to address here revolves around all the boilerplate code needed to map data from a result set into an object graph. Say I have the following DTO object graph I want to return to my presentation layer: IEnumerable<CustomerDTO> |--> IEnumerable<AddressDTO> |--> LatestOrderDTO The way I've implemented this is to have a discrete method in my DAO class to return each IEnumerable<*DTO>, and then have my service class be responsible for orchestrating the calls to the DAO. It then returns the fully assembled object graph to the client: public class SomeService(){ public SomeService(IDao someDao){ this._someDao = someDao; } public IEnumerable<CustomerDTO> ListCustomersForHistory(int brokerId){ var customers = _someDao.ListCustomersForBroker(brokerId); foreach (customer in customers){ customer.Addresses = someDao.ListCustomersAddresses(brokerId); customer.LatestOrder = someDao.GetCustomerLatestOrder(brokerId); } } return customers; } My question is should this logic belong in the service layer or the should I make my DAO such that it instead returns the assembled object graph. If I was using NHibernate, I assume that this kind of relationship association between objects comes for "free"?

  Read the article

• Override java methods without affecting parent behaviour

  - by Timmmm

  suppose I have this classes (sorry it's kind of hard to think of a simple example here; I don't want any "why would you want to do that?" answers!): class Squarer { public void setValue(int v) { mV = v; } public int getValue() { return mV; } private int mV; public void square() { setValue(getValue() * getValue()); } } class OnlyOddInputsSquarer extends Squarer { @Override public void setValue(int v) { if (v % 2 == 0) { print("Sorry, this class only lets you square odd numbers!") return; } super.setValue(v); } } auto s = new OnlyOddInputsSquarer(); s.setValue(3); s.square(); This won't work. When Squarer.square() calls setValue(), it will go to OnlyOddInputsSquarer.setValue() which will reject all its values (since all squares are even). Is there any way I can override setValue() so that all the functions in Squarer still use the method defined there? PS: Sorry, java doesn't have an auto keyword you haven't heard about! Wishful thinking on my part.

  Read the article

• Re-usable Obj-C classes with custom values: The right way

  - by Prairiedogg

  I'm trying to reuse a group of Obj-C clases between iPhone applications. The values that differ from app to app have been isolated and I'm trying to figure out the best way to apply these custom values to the classes on an app-to-app basis. Should I hold them in code? // I might have 10 customizable values for each class, that's a long signature! CarController *controller = [[CarController alloc] initWithFontName:@"Vroom" engine:@"Diesel" color:@"Red" number:11]; Should I store them in a big settings.plist? // Wasteful! I sometimes only use 2-3 of 50 settings! AllMyAppSettings *settings = [[AllMyAppSettings alloc] initFromDisk:@"settings.plist"]; MyCustomController *controller = [[MyCustomController alloc] initWithSettings:settings]; [settings release]; Should I have little, optional n_settings.plists for each class? // Sometimes I customize CarControllerSettings *carSettings = [[CarControllerSettings alloc] initFromDisk:@"car_settings.plist"]; CarController *controller = [[CarController alloc] initWithSettings:carSettings]; [carSettings release]; // Sometimes I don't, and CarController falls back to internally stored, reasonable defaults. CarController *controller = [[CarController alloc] initWithSettings:nil]; Or is there an OO solution that I'm not thinking of at all that would be better?

  Read the article

• Returning reference to object is not changing the address in c++

  - by ashish-sangwan

  I am trying to understand functions returning a reference. For that I have written a simple program: #include<iostream> using namespace std; class test { int i; friend test& func(); public: test(int j){i=j;} void show(){cout<<i<<endl;} }; test& func() { test temp(10); return temp; //// Address of temp=0xbfcb2874 } int main() { test obj1(50); // Address of obj1=0xbfcb28a0 func()=obj1; <= Problem:The address of obj1 is not changing obj1.show(); // // Address of obj1=0xbfcb28a0 return 0; } I ran the program using gdb and observed that the address of obj1 still remains same, but I expect it to get changed to 0xbfcb2874. I am not clear with the concept. Please help.

  Read the article

• How to prevent multiple definitions in C?

  - by Jordi

  I'm a C newbie and I was just trying to write a console application with Code::Blocks. Here's the (simplified) code: main.c: #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include "test.c" // include not necessary for error in Code::Blocks int main() { //t = test(); // calling of method also not necessary return 0; } test.c: void test() {} When I try to build this program, it gives the following errors: *path*\test.c|1|multiple definition of `_ test'| obj\Debug\main.o:*path*\test.c|1|first defined here| There is no way that I'm multiply defining test (although I don't know where the underscore is coming from) and it seems highly unlikely that the definition is somehow included twice. This is all the code there is. I've ruled out that this error is due to some naming conflict with other functions or files being called test or test.c. Note that the multiple and the first definition are on the same line in the same file. Does anyone know what is causing this and what I can do about it? Thanks!

  Read the article

• Advice on Linq to SQL mapping object design

  - by fearofawhackplanet

  I hope the title and following text are clear, I'm not very familiar with the correct terms so please correct me if I get anything wrong. I'm using Linq ORM for the first time and am wondering how to address the following. Say I have two DB tables: User ---- Id Name Phone ----- Id UserId Model The Linq code generator produces a bunch of entity classes. I then write my own classes and interfaces which wrap these Linq classes: class DatabaseUser : IUser { public DatabaseUser(User user) { _user = user; } public Guid Id { get { return _user.Id; } } ... etc } so far so good. Now it's easy enough to find a users phones from Phones.Where(p => p.User = user) but surely comsumers of the API shouldn't need to be writing their own Linq queries to get at data, so I should wrap this query in a function or property somewhere. So the question is, in this example, would you add a Phones property to IUser or not? In other words, should my interface specifically be modelling my database objects (in which case Phones doesn't belong in IUser), or are they actually simply providing a set of functions and properties which are conceptually associated with a User (in which case it does)? There seems drawbacks to both views, but I'm wondering if there is a standard approach to the problem. Or just any general words of wisdom you could share. My first thought was to use extension methods but in fact that doesn't work in this case.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 589 590 591 592 593 594 595 596 597 598 599 600  | Next Page >