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  • Memory Leak in returning NSMutableArray from class

    - by Structurer
    Hi I am quite new to Objective C for the iPhone, so I hope you wont kill me for asking a simple question. I have made an App that works fine, except that Instruments reports memory leaks from the class below. I use it to store settings from one class and then retrieve them from another class. These settings are stored on a file so they can be retrieved every time the App is ran. What can I do do release the "setting" and is there anything that can be done to call (use) the class in a smarter way? Thanks ----- Below is Settings.m ----- import "Settings.h" @implementation Settings @synthesize settings; -(NSString *)dataFilePath // Return path for settingfile, including filename { NSArray *paths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *documentsDirectory = [paths objectAtIndex:0]; return [documentsDirectory stringByAppendingPathComponent:kUserSettingsFileName]; } -(NSMutableArray *)getParameters // Return settings from disk after checking if file exist (if not create with default values) { NSString *filePath = [self dataFilePath]; if ([[NSFileManager defaultManager] fileExistsAtPath:filePath]) // Getting data from file { settings = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithContentsOfFile:filePath]; } else // Creating default settings { settings = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithObjects: [NSNumber numberWithInteger:50], [NSNumber numberWithInteger:50], nil]; [settings writeToFile:[self dataFilePath] atomically:YES]; } return settings; } ----- Below is my other class from where I call my Settings class ----- // Get settings from file Settings *aSetting = [[Settings alloc] init]; mySettings = [aSetting getParameters]; [aSetting release];

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  • [MFC] What is the reciprocal of CComboBox.GetItemData?

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    Instead of associating objects with Combo Box items, I associate long ids representing choices. They come from a database, so it seems natural to do so anyway. Now, I persist the id and not the index of the user's selection, so that the choice is remembered across sessions. If id no longer exists in database - no big deal. The choice will be messed up once. If db does not change, however, then it would be a great success ;) Here is how I get the id : chosenSomethingIndex = cmbSomething.GetCurSel(); lastSomethingId = cmbSomething.GetItemData(chosenSomethingIndex); How do I reverse this? When I load the stored value for user's last choice, I need to convert that id into an index. I can do: cmbSomething.SetCurSel(chosenSomethingIndex); However, how can I attempt (it might not exist) to get an index once I have an id? I am looking for a reciprocal function to GetItemData I am using VS2008, probably latest version of MFC, whatever that is. Thank you.

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  • Nhibernate Fluent domain Object with Id(x => x.id).GeneratedBy.Assigned not saveable

    - by urpcor
    Hi there, I am using for some legacy db the corresponding domainclasses with mappings. Now the Ids of the entities are calculated by some stored Procedure in the DB which gives back the Id for the new row.(Its legacy, I cant change this) Now I create the new entity , set the Id and Call Save. But nothing happens. no exeption. Even NH Profiler does not say a bit. its as the Save call does nothing. I expect that NH thinks that the record is already in the db because its got an Id already. But I am using Id(x = x.id).GeneratedBy.Assigned() and intetionally the Session.Save(object) method. I am confused. I saw so many samples there it worked. does any body have any ideas about it? public class Appendix { public virtual int id { get; set; } public virtual AppendixHierarchy AppendixHierachy { get; set; } public virtual byte[] appendix { get; set; } } public class AppendixMap : ClassMap<Appendix> { public AppendixMap () { WithTable("appendix"); Id(x => x.id).GeneratedBy.Assigned(); References(x => x.AppendixHierachy).ColumnName("appendixHierarchyId"); Map(x => x.appendix); } }

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  • Why would the same web form control render different "onclick" logic based on the page structure?

    - by zk812
    It was hard to title this question. :) I have a user control that is used to display a list of lookup items in my database and a delete button for each item (Editor User Control below). The delete button has an onClientClick event used to display a confirmation dialog in JavaScript. On page one, the confirmation pops up and functions correctly. The overall structure is: Master Page Page Editor User Control List of items with delete button On page two, the confirmation pops up but regardless of the answer, the page posts back anyway. The structure of this page is: Master Page Page User Control Editor User Control List of items with delete button For some reason, this makes a difference in how the delete button is rendered. Page one: <input type="image" name="ctl00...RequestTypesDataList$ctl01$ctl01" src="Images/Disable.png" alt="Delete" onclick="return ProcessDeleteCommand(1);" /> Page two: <input type="image" name="ctl00...RequestTypesDataList$ctl07$ctl01" src="Images/Disable.png" alt="Delete" onclick="return ProcessDeleteCommand(2);WebForm_DoPostBackWithOptions(new WebForm_PostBackOptions(&quot;ctl00$ContentPlaceHolder1$RequestCreator1$RequestTypeEditor1$RequestTypesDataList$ctl07$ctl01&quot;, &quot;&quot;, true, &quot;&quot;, &quot;&quot;, false, false))" /> Does anyone know why page two renders WebForm_DoPostBackWithOptions after my JS check? It's causing the postback regardless of the confirmation choice.

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  • Set a color as transparent in palette-based image

    - by NeDark
    Hello there! I want to convert a alpha transparent png image to palette based png image. In GD I can do it easy: // We have already the image loaded in $source_img $w=200; $h=200; // We supose that img dimensions are 200x200 $img = imagecreatetruecolor($w, $h); // New black image list($r, $g, $b) = array(200, 200, 200); // Some color that doesn't appear in image to avoid conflict $color = imagecolorallocate($img, $r, $g, $b); imagefill($img, 0, 0, $color); // Fill the black image with the chosen color. imagecolortransparent($img, $color); // Set the chosen color as transparent $res = imagecopyresampled($img, $source_img, 0, 0, 0, 0, $w, $h, $w, $h); But in Imagick I don't know how set a color as transparent (imagecolortransparent() in GD). I have spent hours searching on the internet, but the help in the php site isn't very comphrensive and there are many undocumented functions. Thanks.

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  • friend declaration in C++

    - by Happy Mittal
    In Thinking in C++ by Bruce eckel, there is an example given regarding friend functions as // Declaration (incomplete type specification): struct X; struct Y { void f(X*); }; struct X { // Definition private: int i; public: friend void Y::f(X*); // Struct member friend }; void Y::f(X* x) { x->i = 47; } Now he explained this: Notice that Y::f(X*) takes the address of an X object. This is critical because the compiler always knows how to pass an address, which is of a fixed size regardless of the object being passed, even if it doesn’t have full information about the size of the type. If you try to pass the whole object, however, the compiler must see the entire structure definition of X, to know the size and how to pass it, before it allows you to declare a function such as Y::g(X). But when I tried void f(X); as declaration in struct Y, it shows no error. Please explain why?

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  • SIlverlight Navigate: how does it work? How would you implement in f# w/o VS wizards and helpers?

    - by akaphenom
    After a nights sleep the problem can be stated more accurately as I have a 100% f# / silverlight implementation and am looking to use the built in Navigation components. C# creates page.xaml and page.xaml.cs um - ok; but what is the relationship at a fundamental level? How would I go about doing this in f#? The applcuation is loaded in the default module, and I pull the XAML in and reference it from the application object. Do I need to create instances / references to the pages from within the application object? Or set up some other page management object with the proper name value pairs? When all the Help of VS is stripped away - what are we left with? original post (for those who may be reading replies) I have a 100% silverlight 3.0 / f# 2.0 application I am wrapping my brain around. I have the base application loading correctly - and now I want to add the naigation controls to it. My page is stored as an embedded resource - but the Frame.Navigate takes a URI. I know what I have is wrong but here it is: let nav : Frame = mainGrid ? mainFrame let url = "/page1.xaml" let uri = new System.Uri(url, System.UriKind.Relative) ; nav.Navigate uri Any thoughts?

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  • Why does Python sometimes upgrade a string to unicode and sometimes not?

    - by samtregar
    I'm confused. Consider this code working the way I expect: >>> foo = u'Émilie and Juañ are turncoats.' >>> bar = "foo is %s" % foo >>> bar u'foo is \xc3\x89milie and Jua\xc3\xb1 are turncoats.' And this code not at all working the way I expect: >>> try: ... raise Exception(foo) ... except Exception as e: ... foo2 = e ... >>> bar = "foo2 is %s" % foo2 ------------------------------------------------------------ Traceback (most recent call last): File "<ipython console>", line 1, in <module> UnicodeEncodeError: 'ascii' codec can't encode characters in position 0-1: ordinal not in range(128) Can someone explain what's going on here? Why does it matter whether the unicode data is in a plain unicode string or stored in an Exception object? And why does this fix it: >>> bar = u"foo2 is %s" % foo2 >>> bar u'foo2 is \xc3\x89milie and Jua\xc3\xb1 are turncoats.' I am quite confused! Thanks for the help! UPDATE: My coding buddy Randall has added to my confusion in an attempt to help me! Send in the reinforcements to explain how this is supposed to make sense: >>> class A: ... def __str__(self): return "string" ... def __unicode__(self): return "unicode" ... >>> "%s %s" % (u'niño', A()) u'ni\xc3\xb1o unicode' >>> "%s %s" % (A(), u'niño') u'string ni\xc3\xb1o' Note that the order of the arguments here determines which method is called!

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  • What are the default return values for operator< and operator[] in C++ (Visual Studio 6)?

    - by DustOff
    I've inherited a large Visual Studio 6 C++ project that needs to be translated for VS2005. Some of the classes defined operator< and operator[], but don't specify return types in the declarations. VS6 allows this, but not VS2005. I am aware that the C standard specifies that the default return type for normal functions is int, and I assumed VS6 might have been following that, but would this apply to C++ operators as well? Or could VS6 figure out the return type on its own? For example, the code defines a custom string class like this: class String { char arr[16]; public: operator<(const String& other) { return something1 < something2; } operator[](int index) { return arr[index]; } }; Would VS6 have simply put the return types for both as int, or would it have been smart enough to figure out that operator[] should return a char and operator< should return a bool (and not convert both results to int all the time)? Of course I have to add return types to make this code VS2005 C++ compliant, but I want to make sure to specify the same type as before, as to not immediately change program behavior (we're going for compatibility at the moment; we'll standardize things later).

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  • How does SVN store commit time

    - by Salman
    I am working on a project that involves extracting details from a SVN server using SVNKit. My project is already complete and has been working we for a while now. During the testing, I noticed something rather very strange. the Commit Times my extract data seems is alway different from whats there in SVN Logs. I couldnt find any code in my project that could be inducing this difference but now I am looking as to how SVN server stores the Commit time in itself. As we have developer working from different part of the world thus resulting in different timezones, I was thinking that SVN might be storing time after converting them to GMT or timezone of the system on which SVN server is running. But that does not seem to be happening. Instead the times are stored as per the time when the commit was done and in that local timezone itself. I have been unable to find any substantial document on internet to support my theory so far. Can anybody in brief explain as how SVN store the Commit Time for each change? Documentaion links referring to this will be of great help.

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  • Typical SVN repo structure seems to be sub-optimal for continuous integration...

    - by Dave
    I've set up our SVN repository like the Subversion book suggests, and this is also how my previous companies have done it. It looks something like this: /trunk /branches /tags /extlibs /docs where the first three are pretty obvious, and extlibs is for 3rd party assemblies that we wouldn't typically recompile ourselves. All of this works great for the daily development stuff. Now I've installed TeamCity and have builds, unit tests, code coverage, and code analysis running. Everything is great, except for the fact that this code structure results in too much code getting downloaded. So here's the catch 22, in my opinion: it's silly to download all of aforementioned folders from the SVN repo when I only need /trunk and /extlibs. But I can only specify one repo folder to download in the TeamCity VCS settings. So then the other possibility is to put the /extlibs folder into /trunk, but in order to compile branches, /extlibs would have to go into all of those as well (since I usually branch the trunk, and not individual subfolders... and this would seem infinitely more evil since /extlibs could actually be larger than /trunk and /branches, with all of the binaries stored there... Do you guys have any suggestions for me? Thanks!

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  • What pattern is layered architecture in asp.net ?

    - by haansi
    Hi, I am a asp.net developer and don't know much about patterns and architecture. I will very thankful if you can please guide me here. In my web applications I use 4 layers. Web site project (having web forms + code behind cs files, user controls + code behind cs files, master pages + code behind cs files) CustomTypesLayer a class library (having custom types, enumerations, DTOs, constructers, get, set and validations) BusinessLogicLayer a class library (having all business logic, rules and all calls to DAL functions) DataAccessLayer a class library( having just classes communicating to database.) -My user interface just calls BusinessLogicLayer. BusinessLogicLayer do proecessign in it self and for data it calls DataAccessLayer funtions. -Web forms do not calls directly DAL. -CustomTypesLayer is shared by all layers. Please guide me is this approach a pattern ? I though it may be MVC or MVP but pages have there code behind files as well which are confusing me. If it is no patren is it near to some patren ? pleaes guide thanks

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  • Accessing the calling object into ajax response... (not the ajax call)

    - by Nishchay Sharma
    I have an object of type Application (defined by me). Whenever an object of this type is created, it automatically loads a php file say "start.php" using jquery ajax and assign the response to a div say "Respo". Now what i want is to access the Application object from that Respo div. Unfortunately, i have no clue how to do this... in my ajax call: function Application(options) { ....... var appObj=this; $.ajax({ url:appObj.location, //Already defined success:function(data) { $("#respo").html(data); } }); } Now in my Respo division i want to access that Application object... I tried: alert(this) but it resulted in an object of DOMWindow... i tried editing success function as: function Application(options) { ....... var appObj=this; $.ajax({ url:appObj.location, //Already defined success:function(data) { $("#respo").html("<script type='text/javascript'>var Self="+appObj+"</script>"); $("#respo").html(data); } }); } But i ended nowhere. :( Although if i assign "var Self='nishchay';" then alerting Self from start.php gives nishchay but i am not able to assign the calling object of Application type to the Self variable. It is the only way I cud think of. :\ Please help me... actually my object has some editing functions to control itself - its look and feel and some other options. I want the code loaded by object to control the object itself. Please help me.. Thanks in advance. Nishchay

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  • CREATE VIEW called multiple times not creating all views

    - by theninepoundhammer
    Noticing strange behavior in SQL 2005, both Express and Enterprise Edition: In my code I need to loop through a series of values (about five in a row), and for each value, I need to insert the value into a table and dynamically create a new view using that value as part of the where clause and the name of the view. The code runs pretty quickly, but what I'm noticing is that all the values are inserted into the table correctly but only the LAST view is being created. Every time. For example, if the values I'm using are X1, X2, X3, X4, and X5, I'll run the process, open up Mgmt Studio, and see five rows in the table with the correct five values, but only one view named MyView_x5 that has the correct WHERE clause. At first, I had this loop in an SSIS package as part of a larger data flow. When I started noticing this behavior, I created a stored proc that would create the CREATE VIEW statement dynamically after the insert and called EXECUTE to create the view. Same result. Finally, I created some C# code using the Enterprise Library DAAB, and did the insert and CREATE VIEW statements from my DLL. Same result every time. Most recently, I turned on Profiler while running against the Enterprise Edition and was able to verify that the Batch Started and Batch Completed events were being fired off for each instance of the view. However, like I said, only the last view is actually being created. Does anyone have any idea why this might be happening? Or any suggestions about what else to check or profile? I've profiled for error messages, exceptions, etc. but don't see any in my trace file. My express edition is 9.00.1399.06. Not sure about the Enterprise edition but think it is SP2.

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  • Two entities with @ManyToOne joins the same table

    - by Ivan Yatskevich
    I have the following entities Student @Entity public class Student implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) private Long id; //getter and setter for id } Teacher @Entity public class Teacher implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) private Long id; //getter and setter for id } Task @Entity public class Task implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) private Long id; @ManyToOne(optional = false) @JoinTable(name = "student_task", inverseJoinColumns = { @JoinColumn(name = "student_id") }) private Student author; @ManyToOne(optional = false) @JoinTable(name = "student_task", inverseJoinColumns = { @JoinColumn(name = "teacher_id") }) private Teacher curator; //getters and setters } Consider that author and curator are already stored in DB and both are in the attached state. I'm trying to persist my Task: Task task = new Task(); task.setAuthor(author); task.setCurator(curator); entityManager.persist(task); Hibernate executes the following SQL: insert into student_task (teacher_id, id) values (?, ?) which, of course, leads to null value in column "student_id" violates not-null constraint Can anyone explain this issue and possible ways to resolve it?

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  • Why isn't our c# graphics code working any more?

    - by Jared
    Here's the situation: We have some generic graphics code that we use for one of our projects. After doing some clean-up of the code, it seems like something isn't working anymore (The graphics output looks completely wrong). I ran a diff against the last version of the code that gave the correct output, and it looks like we changed one of our functions as follows: static public Rectangle FitRectangleOld(Rectangle rect, Size targetSize) { if (rect.Width <= 0 || rect.Height <= 0) { rect.Width = targetSize.Width; rect.Height = targetSize.Height; } else if (targetSize.Width * rect.Height > rect.Width * targetSize.Height) { rect.Width = rect.Width * targetSize.Height / rect.Height; rect.Height = targetSize.Height; } else { rect.Height = rect.Height * targetSize.Width / rect.Width; rect.Width = targetSize.Width; } return rect; } to static public Rectangle FitRectangle(Rectangle rect, Size targetSize) { if (rect.Width <= 0 || rect.Height <= 0) { rect.Width = targetSize.Width; rect.Height = targetSize.Height; } else if (targetSize.Width * rect.Height > rect.Width * targetSize.Height) { rect.Width *= targetSize.Height / rect.Height; rect.Height = targetSize.Height; } else { rect.Height *= targetSize.Width / rect.Width; rect.Width = targetSize.Width; } return rect; } All of our unit tests are all passing, and nothing in the code has changed except for some syntactic shortcuts. But like I said, the output is wrong. We'll probably just revert back to the old code, but I'm curious if anyone has any idea what's going on here. Thanks.

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  • Increase and decrease row value by 1 in MySQL

    - by Elliott
    Hi I have a MySQL database table "points" the user can click a button and a point should be removed from their account, the button they pressed has an ID of another user, therefore their account must increase by one. I have it working in jQuery and checked the varibles/posts in Firebug, and it does send the correct data, such as: userid= 1 posterid = 4 I think the problem is with my PHP page: <?php include ('../functions.php'); $userid=mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['user_id']); $posterid=mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['poster_id']); if (loggedin()) { include ('../connection.php'); $query1 = "UPDATE `points` SET `points` = `points` - 1 WHERE `userID` = '$userid'"; $result1=mysql_query($query1); $query2 = "UPDATE `points` SET `points` = `points` + 1 WHERE `userID` = '$posterid'"; $result2=mysql_query($query2); if ($result1 && result2) { echo "Successful"; return 1; } else { echo mysql_error(); return 0; } } ?> Any ideas? Thanks :)

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  • Is there a way to load an existing connection string for Linq to SQL from an app.config file?

    - by Brian Surowiec
    I'm running into a really annoying problem with my Linq to SQL project. When I add everything in under the web project everything goes as expected and I can tell it to use my existing connection string stored in the web.config file and the Linq code pulls directly from the ConfigurationManager. This all turns ugly once I move the code into its own project. I’ve created an app.config file, put the connection string in there as it was in the web.config but when I try to add another table in the IDE keeps forcing me to either hardcode the connection string or creates a Settings file and puts it in there, which then adds a new entry into the app.config file with a new name. Is there a way keep my Linq code in its own project yet still refer back to my config file without the IDE continuously hardcoding the connection string or creating the Settings file? I’m converting part of my DAL over to use Linq to SQL so I’d like to use the existing connection string that our old code is using as well as keep the value in a common location, and one spot, instead of in a number of spots. Manually changing the mode to WebSettings instead of AppSettings works untill I try to add a new table, then it goes back to hardcoding the value or recreating the Settings file. I also tried to switch the project type to be a web project and then rename my app.config to web.config and then everything works as I’d like it to. I’m just not sure if there are any downfalls to keeping this as a web project since it really isn't one. The project only contains the Linq to SQL code and an implementation of my repository classes. My project layout looks like this Website -connectionString.config -web.config (refers to connectionString.config) Middle Tier -Business Logic -Repository Interfaces -etc. DAL -Linq to SQL code -Existing SPROC code -connectionString.config (linked from the web poject) -app.config (refers to connectionString.config)

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  • C++ design related question

    - by Kotti
    Hi! Here is the question's plot: suppose I have some abstract classes for objects, let's call it Object. It's definition would include 2D position and dimensions. Let it also have some virtual void Render(Backend& backend) const = 0 method used for rendering. Now I specialize my inheritance tree and add Rectangle and Ellipse class. Guess they won't have their own properties, but they will have their own virtual void Render method. Let's say I implemented these methods, so that Render for Rectangle actually draws some rectangle, and the same for ellipse. Now, I add some object called Plane, which is defined as class Plane : public Rectangle and has a private member of std::vector<Object*> plane_objects; Right after that I add a method to add some object to my plane. And here comes the question. If I design this method as void AddObject(Object& object) I would face trouble like I won't be able to call virtual functions, because I would have to do something like plane_objects.push_back(new Object(object)); and this should be push_back(new Rectangle(object)) for rectangles and new Circle(...) for circles. If I implement this method as void AddObject(Object* object), it looks good, but then somewhere else this means making call like plane.AddObject(new Rectangle(params)); and this is generally a mess because then it's not clear which part of my program should free the allocated memory. ["when destroying the plane? why? are we sure that calls to AddObject were only done as AddObject(new something).] I guess the problems caused by using the second approach could be solved using smart pointers, but I am sure there have to be something better. Any ideas?

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  • Where are the network boundaries in the Java Connector Architecture (JCA)?

    - by Laird Nelson
    I am writing a JCA resource adapter. I'm also, as I go, trying to fully understand the connection management portion of the JCA specification. As a thought experiment, pretend that the only client of this adapter will be a Swing Java Application Client located on a different machine. Also assume that the resource adapter will communicate with its "enterprise information system" (EIS) over the network as well. As I understand the JCA specification, the .rar file is deployed to the application server. The application server creates the .rar file's implementation of the ManagedConnectionFactory interface. It then asks it to produce a connection factory, which is the opaque object that is deployed to JNDI for the user to use to obtain a connection to the resource. (In the case of JDBC, the connection factory is a javax.sql.DataSource.) It is a requirement that the connection factory retain a reference to the application-server-supplied ConnectionManager, which, in turn, is required to be Serializable. This makes sense--in order for the connection factory to be stored in JNDI, it must be serializable, and in order for it to keep a reference to the ConnectionManager, the ConnectionManager must also be serializable. So fine, this little object graph gets installed in the application client's JNDI tree. This is where I start to get queasy. Is the ConnectionManager--the piece supplied by the application server that is supposed to handle connection management, sharing, pooling, etc.--wholly present on the client at this point? One of its jobs is to create ManagedConnection instances, and a ManagedConnection is not required to be Serializable, and the user connection handles it vends are also not required to be Serializable. That suggests to me that the whole connection pooling machinery is shipped wholesale to the application client and stuffed into its JNDI tree. Does this all mean that JCA interactions from the client side bypass the server-side componentry of the application server? Where are the network boundaries in the JCA API?

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  • How to insert and call by row and column into sqlite3 python, great tutorial problem.

    - by user291071
    Lets say i have a simple array of x rows and y columns with corresponding values, What is the best method to do 3 things? How to insert, update a value at a specific row column? How to select a value for each row and column, import sqlite3 con = sqlite3.connect('simple.db') c = con.cursor() c.execute('''create table simple (links text)''') con.commit() dic = {'x1':{'y1':1.0,'y2':0.0},'x2':{'y1':0.0,'y2':2.0,'y3':1.5},'x3':{'y2':2.0,'y3':1.5}} ucols = {} ## my current thoughts are collect all row values and all column values from dic and populate table row and columns accordingly how to call by row and column i havn't figured out yet ##populate rows in first column for row in dic: print row c.execute("""insert into simple ('links') values ('%s')"""%row) con.commit() ##unique columns for row in dic: print row for col in dic[row]: print col ucols[col]=dic[row][col] ##populate columns for col in ucols: print col c.execute("alter table simple add column '%s' 'float'" % col) con.commit() #functions needed ##insert values into sql by row x and column y?how to do this e.g. x1 and y2 should put in 0.0 ##I tried as follows didn't work for row in dic: for col in dic[row]: val =dic[row][col] c.execute("""update simple SET '%s' = '%f' WHERE 'links'='%s'"""%(col,val,row)) con.commit() ##update value at a specific row x and column y? ## select a value at a specific row x and column y?

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  • Symfony 1.4 - Don't save a blank password on a executeUpdate action.

    - by Twelve47
    I have a form to edit a UserProfile which is stored in mysql db. Which includes the following custom configuration: public function configure() { $this->widgetSchema['password']=new sfWidgetFormInputPassword(); $this->validatorSchema['password']->setOption('required', false); // you don't need to specify a new password if you are editing a user. } When the user tries to save the executeUpdate method is called to commit the changes. If the password is left blank, the password field is set to '', but I want it to retain the old password instead of overwriting it. What is the best (/most in the symfony ethos) way of doing this? My solution was to override the setter method on the model (which i had done anyway for password encryption), and ignore blank values. public function setPassword( $password ) { if ($password=='') return false; // if password is blank don't save it. return $this->_set('password', UserProfile ::encryptPassword( $password )); } It seems to work fine like this, but is there a better way? If you're wondering I cannot use sfDoctrineGuard for this project as I am dealing with a legacy database, and cannot change the schema.

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  • C++ - Basic WinAPI question

    - by HardCoder1986
    Hello! I am now working on a some sort of a game engine and I had an idea to put everything engine-related into a static library and then link it to my actual problem. Right now I achieved it and actually link that library and every functions seem to work fine, except those, which are windows-related. I have a chunk of code in my library that looks like this: hWnd = CreateWindow(className, "Name", WS_OVERLAPPED | WS_CAPTION | WS_EX_TOPMOST, 0, 0, 800, 600, NULL, NULL, GetModuleHandle(NULL), this); if (hWnd) { ShowWindow(hWnd, SW_NORMAL); UpdateWindow(hWnd); } else { MessageBox(NULL, "Internal program error", "Error", MB_OK | MB_ICONERROR); return; } When this code was not in the library, but in the actual project, it worked fine, created the window and everything was ok. Right now (when I'm linking to my library that contains this code) CreateWindow(...) call returns NULL and GetLastError() returns "Operation succesfully completed" (wtf?). Could anybody help me with this? Is it possible to create a window and display it using a static library call and why could my code fail? Thank you.

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  • How should I manage/declare dependencies between open source C# projects?

    - by munificent
    I've got a game (a roguelike to be specific) in C# that I'm in the process of cleaning up to open source. One step I'd like to take is splitting it into three distinct pieces: A simple package of utility classes, things like 2D arrays, vectors, etc. A terminal UI package that gives you a curses-like display. It depends on 1. The actual game, which uses 1 and 2. Right now, these are all separate projects in the same solution, but I'd kind of like to make them completely separate projects (in the "open source project" sense, not the "visual studio project" use of the term) with their own names and repos. I think, at the very least, #1 is generally useful even if you aren't building game, and I don't want someone to have to build an entire game just to get some handy functions. What I'm not sure about is how to handle the dependencies if I split up the solution. If someone decides they want to sync the game, how should I ensure they also get 1 and 2? Include the built dependent .dlls in the games repo? Just document, "you need these other projects and they must be in a path relative to the game like this". Just leave it all one giant solution and a single repo. Something I'm not thinking of?

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  • Best suited tool to document message processing done in C written program

    - by user3494614
    I am relatively new to UML and it's seems to be very vast I have a small program which basically receives messages on socket and then depending upon message ID embedded as first byte of message it processes the buffer. There are around 5 different message ID which it processes and communicates on another socket and has around 8 major functions. So program in short is like this. I am not pasting entire .c file or main function but just giving some bits and pieces of it so that to get idea of program flow. int main(int argc, char** argv) { register_shared_mem(); listen(); while(get_next_message(buffer)) { switch((msg)(buffer)->id) { case TYPE1: process1(); answer(); ..... } } } I want to document this is pictorial way like for Message type 1 it calls this function which calls another and which calls another. Please let me know any open source tool which will allow me to quickly draw such kind of UML or sequence diagram and will also allow me to write brief description of what each function does? Thanks In Advance

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