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  • C++ stream as a parameter when overloading operator<<

    - by TheOm3ga
    I'm trying to write my own logging class and use it as a stream: logger L; L << "whatever" << std::endl; This is the code I started with: #include <iostream> using namespace std; class logger{ public: template <typename T> friend logger& operator <<(logger& log, const T& value); }; template <typename T> logger& operator <<(logger& log, T const & value) { // Here I'd output the values to a file and stdout, etc. cout << value; return log; } int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { logger L; L << "hello" << '\n' ; // This works L << "bye" << "alo" << endl; // This doesn't work return 0; } But I was getting an error when trying to compile, saying that there was no definition for operator<<: pruebaLog.cpp:31: error: no match for ‘operator<<’ in ‘operator<< [with T = char [4]](((logger&)((logger*)operator<< [with T = char [4]](((logger&)(& L)), ((const char (&)[4])"bye")))), ((const char (&)[4])"alo")) << std::endl’ So, I've been trying to overload operator<< to accept this kind of streams, but it's driving me mad. I don't know how to do it. I've been loking at, for instance, the definition of std::endl at the ostream header file and written a function with this header: logger& operator <<(logger& log, const basic_ostream<char,char_traits<char> >& (*s)(basic_ostream<char,char_traits<char> >&)) But no luck. I've tried the same using templates instead of directly using char, and also tried simply using "const ostream& os", and nothing. Another thing that bugs me is that, in the error output, the first argument for operator<< changes, sometimes it's a reference to a pointer, sometimes looks like a double reference...

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  • Issue with TagBuilder.MergeAttribute for parameter null

    - by The Yur
    I would like to use Razor's feature not to produce attribute output inside a tag in case when attribute's value is null. So when Razor meets <div class="@var" where @var is null, the output will be mere <div. I've created some Html extension method to write text inside tag. The method takes header text, level (h1..h6), and html attributes as simple object. The code is: public static MvcHtmlString WriteHeader(this HtmlHelper html, string s, int? hLevel = 1, object htmlAttributes = null) { if ((hLevel == null) || (hLevel < 1 || hLevel > 4) || (s.IsNullOrWhiteSpace())) return new MvcHtmlString(""); string cssClass = null, cssId = null, cssStyle = null; if (htmlAttributes != null) { var T = htmlAttributes.GetType(); var propInfo = T.GetProperty("class"); var o = propInfo.GetValue(htmlAttributes); cssClass = o.ToString().IsNullOrWhiteSpace() ? null : o.ToString(); propInfo = T.GetProperty("id"); o = propInfo.GetValue(htmlAttributes); cssId = o.ToString().IsNullOrWhiteSpace() ? null : o.ToString(); propInfo = T.GetProperty("style"); o = propInfo.GetValue(htmlAttributes); cssStyle = o.ToString().IsNullOrWhiteSpace() ? null : o.ToString(); } var hTag = new TagBuilder("h" + hLevel); hTag.MergeAttribute("id", cssId); hTag.MergeAttribute("class", cssClass); hTag.MergeAttribute("style", cssStyle); hTag.InnerHtml = s; return new MvcHtmlString(hTag.ToString()); } I found that in spite of null values for "class" and "style" attributes TagBuilder still puts them as empty strings, like <h1 class="" style="" But for id attribute it surprisingly works, so when id's value is null, there is no id attribute in tag. My question - is such behavior something that should actually happen? How can I achieve absent attributes with null values using TagBuilder? I tried this in VS2013, MVC 5.

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  • sorting nested list, allow only li to be sorted witin the same ul

    - by Y.G.J
    $(document).ready(function() { $("#test-list").sortable({ items: "> li", handle : '.handle', axis: 'y', opacity: 0.6, update : function () { var order = $('#test-list').sortable('serialize'); $("#info").load("process-sortable.asp?"+order+"&id=catid&order=orderid&table=tblCats"); } }); $("#test-sub").sortable({ containment: "ul", items: "li", handle : '.handle2', axis: 'y', opacity: 0.6, update : function () { var order = $('ul').sortable('serialize'); $("#info").load("process-sortable.asp?"+order+"&id=catid&order=orderid&table=tblCats"); } }); }); <ul id="test-list"> <li id="listItem_10">first<img align="middle" src="Themes/arrow.png" class="handle" /></li> <li id="listItem_8">second<img align="middle" src="Themes/arrow.png" class="handle" /> <ul id="test-sub"> <li id="listItem_4"><img align="middle" src="Themes/arrow.png" class="handle2" /></li> <li id="listItem_3"><img align="middle" src="Themes/arrow.png" class="handle2" /></li> <ul id="test-sub"> <li id="listItem_9"><img align="middle" src="Themes/arrow.png" class="handle2" /></li> </ul> </li> </ul> </li> </ul> the problems i have: sorting the main ul is working but not all the time - i will try to fix that my own but if there is a problem with the code here and not the one in proccess-sortable - tell me. moving li in the main ul is ok but the sub or the sub of the sub is having problem - i can drag something from one sub to it's sub or the other way too - i don't want that to happend. i want to be able to drag li and by selecting that one that only this ul group will send to proccess-sortable to be updated - how can i catch the specific ul of li i am draging?

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  • Adding Another Parameter to my Custom jQuery Gallery

    - by steve
    My website currently uses a custom jQuery gallery system that I've developed... it works well, but I want to add one capability that I can't seem to figure out. I want the user to, instead of having to click each thumbnail, also be able to click the full image itself to advance in the gallery. Working gallery is here: http://www.studioimbrue.com The code is as follows: $('.thumbscontainer ul li a').click(function() { var li_index = $(this).parents('ul').children('li').index($(this).parent("li"));    $(this).parents('.thumbscontainer').parent().find('.captions ul li').fadeOut(); $(this).parents('.thumbscontainer').parent().find('.captions ul li:eq('+li_index+')').fadeIn(); }); }); and the gallery HTML markup is as follows: <div class="container"> <div class="captions" id="usbdrive"> <ul> <li style="display:block"> <img src="images/portfolio/usbdrive/1.jpg" /> <div class="caption"> <span class='projecttitle'>Super Talent USB Drive Package.</span> A fancy, lavish package designed for Super Talent's specialty USB drive. It was known as the world's smallest flash drive <span class="amp">&amp;</span> it is dipped in gold! </div> </li> <li> <img src="images/portfolio/usbdrive/2.jpg" /> </li> <li> <img src="images/portfolio/usbdrive/3.jpg" /> </li> <li> <img src="images/portfolio/usbdrive/4.jpg" /> </li> <li> <img src="images/portfolio/usbdrive/5.jpg" /> </li> </ul> </div> <div class="thumbscontainer verticalthumbs"> <ul> <li><a href="javascript:void(0);" name="usbdrive1"><img src="images/portfolio/usbdrive/1.jpg" /></a></li> <li><a href="javascript:void(0);" name="usbdrive2"><img src="images/portfolio/usbdrive/2.jpg" /></a></li> <li><a href="javascript:void(0);" name="usbdrive3"><img src="images/portfolio/usbdrive/3.jpg" /></a></li> <li><a href="javascript:void(0);" name="usbdrive4"><img src="images/portfolio/usbdrive/4.jpg" /></a></li> <li><a href="javascript:void(0);" name="usbdrive5"><img src="images/portfolio/usbdrive/5.jpg" /></a></li> </ul> </div> </div>

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  • htaccess subdomain redirct with last url parameter

    - by Pankaj
    I want to write a .htaccess file for redirecting my subdomains and URL's last variable to a new location. Here is what I want to do: http(s)://abc.example.com/books I want my internal URL to be like: http://example.com/?name=abc&type=books I have already gotten the subdomain redirect to work but I am not able to do subdomain with variable in last part of URL. How can I accomplish this?

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  • Replacing emty csv column values with a zero

    - by homerjay
    Hey, So I'm dealing with a csv file that has missing values. What I want my script to is: #!/usr/bin/python import csv import sys #1. Place each record of a file in a list. #2. Iterate thru each element of the list and get its length. #3. If the length is less than one replace with value x. reader = csv.reader(open(sys.argv[1], "rb")) for row in reader: for x in row[:]: if len(x)< 1: x = 0 print x print row Here is an example of data, I trying it on, ideally it should work on any column lenghth Before: actnum,col2,col4 xxxxx , , xxxxx , 845 , xxxxx , ,545 After actnum,col2,col4 xxxxx , 0 , 0 xxxxx , 845, 0 xxxxx , 0 ,545 Any guidance would be appreciated

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  • How do I form a Rails link_to with custom field value as parameter

    - by rwheadon
    I have an invoice form where I'm giving the user opportunity to apply coupons to the invoice total. These coupons are held in another Model and I am going to do a lookup on the Coupon code (something like "20OFFONFRIDAY") which I will use to find what the restrictions and benefits of the coupon. (and to see if it even exists at all) The invoice does not have "coupon_code" on it so I hand forged the field onto my form with html: <% if (@invoice.status == 'new') %> <input id="coupon_code" name="coupon_code" type="text"/> <% end %> and I am calling a controller method with link_to and would like something like the following jquery enhanced link_to to work: <%= link_to "Apply Coupon", { :controller=>"invoices", :id=>@invoice.id, :coupon_code=>$('.coupon_code').val(), :action=>"apply_coupon_code" }, :method=>"post" %> ^formatted for easier reading Then inside my "apply_coupon_code" method I will go off to a couple other models and perform business logic before returning the updated invoice page. ...but maybe it's a pipe dream. I guess if push came to shove I could add the "coupon_code" field to my invoice model (even though it's persisted elsewhere.) so it's part of the entity and thus easily available on my form to send back into a controller, but I just hate adding a column to make a coupon validation easier. I figured I'd ping stackoverflow before taking that path.

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  • Reflection for Class of generic parameter in Java?

    - by hatboysam
    Imagine the following scenario: class MyClass extends OtherClass<String>{ String myName; //Whatever } class OtherClass<T> { T myfield; } And I am analyzing MyClass using reflection specifically (MyClass.class).getDeclaredFields(), in this case I will get the following fields (and Types, using getType() of the Field): myName --> String myField --> T I want to get the actual Type for T, which is known at runtime due to the explicit "String" in the extends notation, how do I go about getting the non-genetic type of myField?

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  • Accessing both stored procedure output parameters AND the result set in Entity Framework?

    - by MS.
    Is there any way of accessing both a result set and output parameters from a stored procedure added in as a function import in an Entity Framework model? I am finding that if I set the return type to "None" such that the designer generated code ends up calling base.ExecuteFunction(...) that I can access the output parameters fine after calling the function (but of course not the result set). Conversely if I set the return type in the designer to a collection of complex types then the designer generated code calls base.ExecuteFunction<T>(...) and the result set is returned as ObjectResult<T> but then the value property for the ObjectParameter instances is NULL rather than containing the proper value that I can see being passed back in Profiler. I speculate the second method is perhaps calling a DataReader and not closing it. Is this a known issue? Any work arounds or alternative approaches? Edit My code currently looks like public IEnumerable<FooBar> GetFooBars( int? param1, string param2, DateTime from, DateTime to, out DateTime? createdDate, out DateTime? deletedDate) { var createdDateParam = new ObjectParameter("CreatedDate", typeof(DateTime)); var deletedDateParam = new ObjectParameter("DeletedDate", typeof(DateTime)); var fooBars = MyContext.GetFooBars(param1, param2, from, to, createdDateParam, deletedDateParam); createdDate = (DateTime?)(createdDateParam.Value == DBNull.Value ? null : createdDateParam.Value); deletedDate = (DateTime?)(deletedDateParam.Value == DBNull.Value ? null : deletedDateParam.Value); return fooBars; }

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  • Java - How to pass a Generic parameter as Class<T> to a constructor

    - by Joe Almore
    I have a problem here that still cannot solve, the thing is I have this abstract class: public abstract class AbstractBean<T> { private Class<T> entityClass; public AbstractBean(Class<T> entityClass) { this.entityClass = entityClass; }... Now I have another class that inherits this abstract: @Stateless @LocalBean public class BasicUserBean<T extends BasicUser> extends AbstractBean<T> { private Class<T> user; public BasicUserBean() { super(user); // Error: cannot reference user before supertype contructor has been called. } My question is how can I make this to work?, I am trying to make the class BasicUserBean inheritable, so if I have class PersonBean which inherits BasicUserBean then I could set in the Generic the entity Person which also inherits the entity BasicUser. And it will end up being: @Stateless @LocalBean public class PersonBean extends BasicUserBean<Person> { public PersonBean() { super(Person.class); } ... I just want to inherit the basic functionality from BasicUserBean to all descendants, so I do not have to repeat the same code among all descendants. Thanks!.

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  • Generic Func<> as parameter to base method

    - by WestDiscGolf
    I might be losing the plot, but I hope someone can point me in the right direction. What am I trying to do? I'm trying to write some base methods which take Func< and Action so that these methods handle all of the exception handling etc. so its not repeated all over the place but allow the derived classes to specify what actions it wants to execute. So far this is the base class. public abstract class ServiceBase<T> { protected T Settings { get; set; } protected ServiceBase(T setting) { Settings = setting; } public void ExecAction(Action action) { try { action(); } catch (Exception exception) { throw new Exception(exception.Message); } } public TResult ExecFunc<T1, T2, T3, TResult>(Func<T1, T2, T3, TResult> function) { try { /* what goes here?! */ } catch (Exception exception) { throw new Exception(exception.Message); } } } I want to execute an Action in the following way in the derived class (this seems to work): public void Delete(string application, string key) { ExecAction(() => Settings.Delete(application, key)); } And I want to execute a Func in a similar way in the derived class but for the life of me I can't seem to workout what to put in the base class. I want to be able to call it in the following way (if possible): public object Get(string application, string key, int? expiration) { return ExecFunc(() => Settings.Get(application, key, expiration)); } Am I thinking too crazy or is this possible? Thanks in advance for all the help.

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  • Making fscanf Ignore Optional Parameter

    - by adi92
    I am using fscanf to read a file which has lines like Number <-whitespace- string <-whitespace- optional_3rd_column I wish to extract the number and string out of each column, but ignore the 3rd_column if it exists Example Data: 12 foo something 03 bar 24 something #randomcomment I would want to extract 12,foo; 03,bar; 24, something while ignoring "something" and "#randomcomment" I currently have something like while(scanf("%d %s %*s",&num,&word)>=2) { assign stuff } However this does not work with lines with no 3rd column. How can I make it ignore everything after the 2nd string?

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  • Calling C++/CLI Method with System::DateTime parameter requires 'ValueType' as a parameter?

    - by David Ipsen
    I'm attempting to call a method written in C++/CLI from C#. The C++/CLI code is used to update a TIMESTAMP column in an Oracle database, given a record ID and the System::DateTime object which is the .NET compatible data type for Oracle's TIMESTAMP type. The method I am calling has the following prototype: bool ChangeJobUpdateDate (int jobIdIn, System::DateTime^ updateDateIn) I've added a reference to this DLL project in a test project that I made; I'm writing the tests in C#. However, when I try to call this method from the C# unit test project, the function appears to have the following method declaration (via intellisense): bool ChangeJobUpdateDate (int jobIdIn, ValueType updateDateIn) I'm admittedly not that familiar with C++/CLI, so is there something I'm missing?

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  • Spring MVC - Set an actionURL parameter with Javascript

    - by jeffl8n
    Is it possible to dynamically set a Spring MVC portlet:actionURL portlet:param using javascript? I have tried with the following code, but the id value always comes across as null to the controller. I have verified that setting the portlet:param manually passes the value correctly: <portlet:param name="id" value="2" /> I have also verified the value in the javascript is being set correctly and is not null. (Note: I've changed the variable names, etc. from the original code to simplify it and obfuscate it since it is my employer's code.) JSP: <portlet:actionURL var="modifyURL"> <portlet:param name="do" value="modify" /> <portlet:param name="id" value="${model.id}" /> </portlet:actionURL> ... <form:form action="${modifyURL}" id="modifyForm" modelAttribute="model"> <form:hidden path="id" id="id" /> </form:form> Javascript called when the update URL is clicked: function update() { document.forms[0]["id"].value = selectedId; document.forms[0].submit(); } Controller: @RequestMapping(params = {"do=modify"}) public void modify(@ModelAttribute("model") Model model, @RequestParam(value = "id", required=true) Long id, ActionRequest request, ActionResponse response, SessionStatus sessionStatus, ModelMap modelMap) { ....

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  • pass parameter from controller to models condition

    - by Alex
    I'm trying to bind a param to a join via a named scope., but I'm getting an error. What is the correct way to do that? has_one :has_voted, :class_name => 'Vote', :conditions => ['ip = :userIp'] # named scopes scope :with_vote, lambda {|ip| { :include => [:has_voted], # like this ?? :conditions => [:has_voted => {:conditions => {:userIp => ip}} ] }} Idea.with_vote(request.ip).all I believe I need the condition definition in the model for it to appear in the ON clause of a JOIN, rather then in the WHERE one. Edit I'm trying to get the following query select Ideas.*, Votes.* from Ideas left outer join Votes on Votes.Idea_id = Idea.id AND Votes.ip = {request.ip}

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  • question about a macro in Linux Kernel List implementation

    - by holydiver
    I generally have ignored using macros while writing in C but I think I know fundamentals about them. While i was reading the source code of list in linux kernel, i saw something like that: #define LIST_HEAD_INIT(name) { &(name), &(name) } #define LIST_HEAD(name) \ struct list_head name = LIST_HEAD_INIT(name) (You can access the remaining part of the code from here.) I didn't understand the function of ampersands(I don't think they are the address of operands here) in LIST_HEAD_INIT and so the use of LIST_HEAD_INIT in the code. I'd appreciate if someone can enlighten me.

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  • Help with SQL query

    - by user154301
    Hello, I have list of DateTime values, and for each value I need to fetch something from the database. I would like to do this with one query. I know it's possible to pass a table (list) to the stored procedure, but Im not sure how to write the query itself. Let's say I have the following table: CREATE TABLE Shows( ShowId [int] NOT NULL, StartTime DateTime NOT NULL, EndTime DateTime NOT NULL ) and an array of dates DECLARE @myDateArray MyCustomDateArrayType Now, if I were fetching a single item, I would write a query like this: SELECT * FROM Shows WHERE StartTime > @ArrayItem and @ArrayItem < EndTime where @ArrayItem is an item from @myDateArray . But how do I formulate the query that would fetch the information for all array items? Thanks!

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  • CodeContracts: How to fullfill Require in Ctor using this() call?

    - by mafutrct
    I'm playing around with Microsoft's CodeContracts and encountered a problem I was unable to solve. I've got a class with two constructors: public Foo (public float f) { Contracts.Require(f > 0); } public Foo (int i) : this ((float)i) {} The example is simplified. I don't know how to check the second constructor's f for being 0. Is this even possible with Contracts?

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  • Overloading with same parameter signature

    - by Soham
    In C#, is it possible to have same parameters yet override each other(they are different in the return types) public override Stocks[] Search(string Field,string Param){ //some code} public override Stocks Search(string Field, string Param){//some code} C# returns compilation error

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  • SQL UDF Group By Parameter Issue

    - by Ryan Strauss
    I'm having some issues with a group by clause in SQL. I have the following basic function: CREATE FUNCTION dbo.fn_GetWinsYear (@Year int) RETURNS int AS BEGIN declare @W int select @W = count(1) from tblGames where WinLossForfeit = 'W' and datepart(yyyy,Date) = @Year return @W END I'm trying to run the following basic query: select dbo.fn_GetWinsYear(datepart(yyyy,date)) from tblGames group by datepart(yyyy,date) However, I'm encountering the following error message: Column 'tblGames.Date' is invalid in the select list because it is not contained in either an aggregate function or the GROUP BY clause. Any ideas why this is occurring? FYI, I know I can remove the function and combine into one call but I'd like to keep the function in place if possible.

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  • Haskell: foldl' accumulator parameter

    - by Clinton
    I've been asking a few questions about strictness, but I think I've missed the mark before. Hopefully this is more precise. Lets say we have: n = 1000000 f z = foldl' (\(x1, x2) y -> (x1 + y, y - x2)) z [1..n] Without changing f, what should I set z = ... So that f z does not overflow the stack? (i.e. runs in constant space regardless of the size of n) Its okay if the answer requires GHC extensions. My first thought is to define: g (a1, a2) = (!a1, !a2) and then z = g (0, 0) But I don't think g is valid Haskell.

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  • Question about a C macro expansion

    - by holydiver
    I generally have ignored using macros while writing in C but I think I know fundamentals about them. While i was reading the source code of list in linux kernel, i saw something like that: #define LIST_HEAD_INIT(name) { &(name), &(name) } #define LIST_HEAD(name) \ struct list_head name = LIST_HEAD_INIT(name) (You can access the remaining part of the code from here.) I didn't understand the function of ampersands(I don't think they are the address of operands here) in LIST_HEAD_INIT and so the use of LIST_HEAD_INIT in the code. I'd appreciate if someone can enlighten me.

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  • reload a form with the same parameter of the previous

    - by kawtousse
    Hi every one, I have really a problem that I don't know how to deal with it. I am using JSP and Servlet with the Eclipse IDE. First of all, the user fill an html table with the values that he has selected and written in the form. after that he will find his parameters displayed in the html table. the problem now is : the table contains in each row an edit button when clicking on it; the user should have the form automatically filled with values"previously selected" of the row. so it's how to reload the form with variables from html table. Note : I construct the table with a servlet. Please help.

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